Pathology- Git & Lung

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Pathology- Git & Lung - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Q. 1 The most common location of Chronic gastric ulcer is..............?

    • A.

      Greater Curvature

    • B.

      Lesser Curvature

    • C.

      Lesser Curvature near incisura

    • D.

      Pylorus

    Correct Answer
    C. Lesser Curvature near incisura
    Explanation
    Chronic gastric ulcers are most commonly found in the lesser curvature near the incisura. This is because the lesser curvature is more susceptible to the effects of acid secretion and the incisura is a site of increased vulnerability due to decreased blood flow. The combination of these factors makes this location more prone to the development of chronic gastric ulcers.

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  • 2. 

    Q. 2 The gastric outlet obstruction in a peptic ulcer patient, the site of obstruction is most likely to be-

    • A.

      Antrum

    • B.

      Duodenum

    • C.

      Pylorus

    • D.

      Fundus

    Correct Answer
    B. Duodenum
    Explanation
    In a peptic ulcer patient with gastric outlet obstruction, the most likely site of obstruction is the duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine that receives partially digested food from the stomach. Peptic ulcers, which are open sores that develop on the lining of the stomach or duodenum, can cause inflammation and swelling. This can lead to narrowing of the duodenal lumen, resulting in obstruction and difficulty in the passage of food from the stomach into the small intestine. Therefore, the duodenum is the most likely site of obstruction in this case.

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  • 3. 

    Q. 3 A 20 year old woman presents with a 2 year history of difficulty in swallowing and increasing fatigue. A CBC shows iron-deficiency anaemia. Upper endoscopy reveals an annular marrowing in the upper third of the esophagus. A mucosal biopsy shows no evidence of inflammation or neoplasia. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Achalasia

    • B.

      Barrett Esophagus

    • C.

      Diventiculum

    • D.

      Esophageal web

    Correct Answer
    D. Esophageal web
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis in this case is esophageal web. Esophageal web is a thin membrane that forms in the upper part of the esophagus, causing difficulty in swallowing. The patient's symptoms of difficulty in swallowing and increasing fatigue, along with the finding of iron-deficiency anemia, are consistent with esophageal web. The absence of inflammation or neoplasia on mucosal biopsy further supports this diagnosis. Achalasia, Barrett esophagus, and diverticulum are less likely in this case based on the given information.

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  • 4. 

    Q. 4 A 45 year old man presents with long-standing heart-burn with dyspepsia. An X-ray film of chest shows a retro-cardiac gas filled structures. This patient most likely has which of the following conditions?

    • A.

      Boerhaave syndrome

    • B.

      Esophageal varices

    • C.

      Esophageal webs

    • D.

      Hiatal Hernia

    Correct Answer
    D. Hiatal Hernia
    Explanation
    A hiatal hernia is the most likely condition in this case because it is commonly associated with long-standing heartburn and dyspepsia. The retro-cardiac gas-filled structures seen on the X-ray film of the chest are consistent with the herniation of the stomach through the diaphragmatic hiatus. This condition can lead to symptoms such as acid reflux and chest pain. Boerhaave syndrome is a condition characterized by a rupture of the esophagus, which would typically present with more severe symptoms. Esophageal varices are dilated veins in the esophagus usually caused by liver disease. Esophageal webs are thin membranes that can cause swallowing difficulties.

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  • 5. 

    Q. 5 False statement about Barrett esophagus is..........?

    • A.

      Goblet cells seen in Histology

    • B.

      Patient may lead to malignancy after few years

    • C.

      Columnar to squamous metaplasia

    • D.

      Chronic GERD is a predisposing factor

    Correct Answer
    C. Columnar to squamous metaplasia
    Explanation
    Columnar to squamous metaplasia is not a false statement about Barrett's esophagus. Barrett's esophagus is characterized by the replacement of the normal squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium, a process known as columnar to squamous metaplasia. This is a key feature of Barrett's esophagus and is associated with chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). It is important to monitor patients with Barrett's esophagus as they have an increased risk of developing esophageal adenocarcinoma over time.

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  • 6. 

    Q. 6 All of the following statements is/are true regarding esophageal atresia except......?

    • A.

      There is absence of esophagus

    • B.

      It is a mechanical obstruction

    • C.

      It occurs most commonly at or near Tracheal bifurcation

    • D.

      It is associated with other congenital anomalies

    Correct Answer
    A. There is absence of esophagus
    Explanation
    Esophageal atresia is a condition where the esophagus does not fully develop, resulting in a gap or blockage. This means that there is not an absence of esophagus, but rather a discontinuity or obstruction in the esophagus. Therefore, the statement "There is absence of esophagus" is not true regarding esophageal atresia.

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  • 7. 

    Q. 7 All of the following are features of Paterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome except........?

    • A.

      Esophageal mucosal webs

    • B.

      Megaloblastic anaemia

    • C.

      Glossitis

    • D.

      Cheilosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Megaloblastic anaemia
    Explanation
    Paterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome, also known as Plummer-Vinson syndrome, is characterized by the presence of esophageal mucosal webs, glossitis, and cheilosis. These three features are commonly associated with this syndrome. However, megaloblastic anemia is not a feature of Paterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome.

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  • 8. 

    Q. 8 Predisposing factors for esophageal cancer are all of the following except.......?

    • A.

      Mediastinal fibrosis

    • B.

      Diverticula

    • C.

      Caustic alkali burn

    • D.

      HPV

    Correct Answer
    A. Mediastinal fibrosis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Mediastinal fibrosis. Predisposing factors for esophageal cancer include diverticula, caustic alkali burn, and HPV. However, mediastinal fibrosis is not a known predisposing factor for esophageal cancer.

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  • 9. 

    Q. 9 The most common cause of esophageal perforation is............?

    • A.

      Mallory weiss syndrome

    • B.

      Boerhaave syndrome

    • C.

      Iatrogenic       

    • D.

      Esophageal varices

    Correct Answer
    C. Iatrogenic       
    Explanation
    Iatrogenic refers to a condition or complication that is caused by medical intervention or treatment. In the context of esophageal perforation, iatrogenic causes are the most common. This can occur during medical procedures such as endoscopy, dilation of the esophagus, or placement of feeding tubes. These procedures can inadvertently cause a tear or hole in the esophagus, leading to esophageal perforation. Mallory Weiss syndrome is a condition characterized by tears in the lining of the esophagus and is not the most common cause of esophageal perforation. Boerhaave syndrome is a rare but serious condition where there is a spontaneous rupture of the esophagus. Esophageal varices are enlarged veins in the esophagus that occur in the context of liver disease and are not a common cause of esophageal perforation.

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  • 10. 

    Q. 10 Barrett's esophagus results in which type of carcinoma?

    • A.

      Adenocarcinoma

    • B.

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    • C.

      Adeno-squamous carcinoma

    • D.

      Basal cell carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Adenocarcinoma
    Explanation
    Barrett's esophagus is a condition where the lining of the esophagus changes due to chronic acid reflux. This change in the lining increases the risk of developing adenocarcinoma, a type of carcinoma that arises from glandular cells. Squamous cell carcinoma is another type of carcinoma that can occur in the esophagus, but it is not associated with Barrett's esophagus. Adeno-squamous carcinoma and basal cell carcinoma are not commonly associated with Barrett's esophagus.

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  • 11. 

    Q. 11 Which is the most common site of carcinoma of esophagus?

    • A.

      . Lower 1/3rd   

    • B.

      Middle 1/3rd

    • C.

      Upper 1/3rd     

    • D.

      GE Junction

    Correct Answer
    B. Middle 1/3rd
    Explanation
    Carcinoma of the esophagus is most commonly found in the middle 1/3rd of the esophagus. This is because the cells in this area are more prone to mutations and abnormalities that can lead to the development of cancer. Additionally, the middle 1/3rd of the esophagus is subjected to more exposure to irritants and toxins, such as acid reflux, which can further increase the risk of developing carcinoma.

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  • 12. 

    Q. 12 Acidification of duodenum will be....................?

    • A.

      Decrease pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate

    • B.

      Increase secretion of gastric acids

    • C.

      Decrease gastric emptying

    • D.

      Increase contraction of gall bladder

    Correct Answer
    C. Decrease gastric emptying
    Explanation
    Acidification of the duodenum will decrease gastric emptying. When the duodenum becomes acidic, it sends signals to the stomach to slow down the rate at which it empties its contents into the duodenum. This is a protective mechanism to prevent the acidic contents from entering the duodenum too quickly and causing damage. Therefore, the correct answer is "Decrease gastric emptying."

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  • 13. 

    Q. 13 HCl secretion in stomach................?

    • A.

      Is a function of peptic cells

    • B.

      Requires no energy

    • C.

      Requires presence of carbonic anhydrase enzyme

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Requires presence of carbonic anhydrase enzyme
    Explanation
    HCl secretion in the stomach requires the presence of carbonic anhydrase enzyme. This enzyme is responsible for converting carbon dioxide and water into carbonic acid, which then dissociates into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions. The hydrogen ions are actively transported into the stomach lumen by the H+/K+ ATPase pump, resulting in the secretion of HCl. Therefore, the presence of carbonic anhydrase enzyme is necessary for HCl secretion in the stomach.

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  • 14. 

    Q. 14 Which of the following causes hiatal hernia?

    • A.

      Increased intrathoracic pressure

    • B.

      Weakness of diaphragm muscle

    • C.

      Increased esophageal muscle pressure

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Weakness of diaphragm muscle
    Explanation
    Hiatal hernia is caused by weakness in the diaphragm muscle. The diaphragm is a muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. It helps to keep the stomach in its proper position below the diaphragm. When the diaphragm weakens, it can allow the stomach to protrude upward through the diaphragm opening, causing a hiatal hernia. Increased intrathoracic pressure and increased esophageal muscle pressure are not known to cause hiatal hernia.

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  • 15. 

    Q. 15 Which of the following test is used to diagnose ulcer?

    • A.

      EGD   

    • B.

      Barium swallow

    • C.

      CT Scan

    • D.

      X-ray

    Correct Answer
    A. EGD   
    Explanation
    EGD stands for Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, which is a diagnostic test used to examine the lining of the esophagus, stomach, and upper small intestine. It involves inserting a flexible tube with a light and camera on the end (endoscope) through the mouth and down into the digestive tract. EGD is commonly used to diagnose ulcers by allowing the doctor to visualize any inflammation, irritation, or open sores in the lining of the digestive tract. This procedure is considered the gold standard for diagnosing ulcers as it provides direct visualization and the ability to take biopsies if necessary.

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  • 16. 

    Q. 16 A highly sensitive and specific marker for detecting intestinal inflammation as in ulcerative colitis is ............?

    • A.

      CRP   

    • B.

      Fecal Lactoferrin

    • C.

      Fecal Calprotectin

    • D.

      Leukocytosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Fecal Lactoferrin
    Explanation
    Fecal Lactoferrin is a highly sensitive and specific marker for detecting intestinal inflammation as in ulcerative colitis. It is a protein found in the stool that is released by neutrophils during inflammation. Elevated levels of fecal lactoferrin indicate the presence of inflammation in the intestines, making it a useful marker for diagnosing ulcerative colitis. CRP (C-reactive protein) is a marker of inflammation but is not specific to intestinal inflammation. Fecal Calprotectin is also a marker of intestinal inflammation, but fecal lactoferrin has been shown to have higher sensitivity and specificity in detecting ulcerative colitis. Leukocytosis refers to an elevated white blood cell count and is not specific to intestinal inflammation.

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  • 17. 

    Q. 17 Which of the following statements about Crohn's disease is incorrect?

    • A.

      Granulomas present frequently

    • B.

      It is having transmural inflammation

    • C.

      Cigarette smoking is a risk factor

    • D.

      Rectum is most commonly involved in these patients

    Correct Answer
    D. Rectum is most commonly involved in these patients
    Explanation
    The incorrect statement about Crohn's disease is that the rectum is most commonly involved in these patients. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, from the mouth to the anus. While it commonly involves the terminal ileum and colon, it can also affect other parts of the digestive system.

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  • 18. 

    Q. 18 Backwash Ileitis is seen in .......................?

    • A.

      Crohn's disease

    • B.

      Ulcerative colitis

    • C.

      Colonic carcinoma

    • D.

      Ileal polyp

    Correct Answer
    B. Ulcerative colitis
    Explanation
    Backwash ileitis is a term used to describe inflammation in the terminal ileum, which is the last part of the small intestine, that occurs in patients with ulcerative colitis. This condition is due to the backflow of stool and inflammation from the colon into the terminal ileum. It is a characteristic finding in ulcerative colitis and is not typically seen in other conditions such as Crohn's disease, colonic carcinoma, or ileal polyps.

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  • 19. 

    Q. 19 Granulomatous inflammation is found in .......................?

    • A.

      Crohn's disease

    • B.

      Ulcerative colitis

    • C.

      Giardiasis

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Crohn's disease
    Explanation
    Granulomatous inflammation is a type of chronic inflammation characterized by the formation of granulomas, which are small nodules made up of immune cells. These granulomas can be found in various organs and tissues in the body. Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that commonly affects the gastrointestinal tract, particularly the small intestine and colon. It is known to cause granulomatous inflammation in the affected areas, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. Therefore, Crohn's disease is the correct answer as it is associated with granulomatous inflammation.

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  • 20. 

    Q. 20 Which of the following is not true about GIST?

    • A.

      Stomach is the most common site

    • B.

      Highly propensity of malignant change

    • C.

      Associated with C-KIT mutation

    • D.

      Histology shows spindle shaped cells

    Correct Answer
    B. Highly propensity of malignant change
    Explanation
    The statement "Highly propensity of malignant change" is not true about GIST. GIST, or gastrointestinal stromal tumor, is a type of tumor that commonly occurs in the stomach. It is associated with a mutation in the C-KIT gene and is characterized by histology showing spindle-shaped cells. However, GISTs have a variable risk of malignant transformation, with some being benign and others being malignant. Therefore, the statement that GIST has a highly propensity for malignant change is incorrect.

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  • 21. 

    Q. 21 Sister Mary Joseph nodule is most commonly seen in which of the following?

    • A.

      Ovarian cancer           

    • B.

      Stomach cancer

    • C.

      Pancreatic cancer       

    • D.

      Colon cancer

    Correct Answer
    B. Stomach cancer
    Explanation
    The Sister Mary Joseph nodule is most commonly seen in stomach cancer. This nodule is a metastatic lesion that appears as a firm, nodular mass in the umbilicus. It is named after Sister Mary Joseph, who was a surgical assistant and noticed the association between the umbilical nodule and intra-abdominal malignancy. Although it can be seen in other types of cancer, such as ovarian, pancreatic, and colon cancer, it is most commonly associated with stomach cancer.

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  • 22. 

    Q. 22 A 3 week old boy is brought to the physician by his parents who report that he vomits forcefully immediately after nursing. "Physical examination" reveals an "Olive like" palpable mass with visible peristaltic movements within the infant's abdomen. What is the most likely cause of projectile vomiting in this infant?

    • A.

      Appendicitis

    • B.

      Congenital pyrotic stenosis

    • C.

      Hirschsprung disease

    • D.

      Meconium Ileus

    Correct Answer
    B. Congenital pyrotic stenosis
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of projectile vomiting in this infant is congenital pyloric stenosis. This condition is characterized by hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pyloric sphincter, leading to narrowing of the pyloric canal. The "olive-like" palpable mass and visible peristaltic movements in the abdomen are classic findings in infants with pyloric stenosis. This condition typically presents in the first few weeks of life and is more common in males. It can lead to severe vomiting, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances if left untreated. Surgical correction is usually required to alleviate the obstruction.

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  • 23. 

    Q. 23 Mallory weiss syndrome is caused due to tear in ......................?

    • A.

      Lower esophageal end

    • B.

      Upper esophageal end

    • C.

      Cricopharyngeal Junction

    • D.

      Gastroesophageal Junction

    Correct Answer
    D. Gastroesophageal Junction
    Explanation
    Mallory-Weiss syndrome is caused by a tear in the mucous membrane at the junction between the esophagus and the stomach, known as the gastroesophageal junction. This tear is typically a result of severe vomiting or retching, which puts excessive pressure on the area and causes the tear to occur. The tear can lead to bleeding and can be associated with conditions such as alcoholism, bulimia, or hiatal hernia.

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  • 24. 

    Q. 24 The best site for taking biopsy for Viral esophagitis is ..................?

    • A.

      Edge of ulcer

    • B.

      Base of ulcer

    • C.

      Adjacent indurated area under ulcer

    • D.

      Surrounding normal mucosa

    Correct Answer
    A. Edge of ulcer
    Explanation
    The best site for taking a biopsy for Viral esophagitis is the edge of the ulcer. This is because the edge of the ulcer is most likely to have active viral replication and inflammation, which can be detected through a biopsy. The base of the ulcer may not provide accurate results as it may contain necrotic tissue. The adjacent indurated area under the ulcer and surrounding normal mucosa may not show significant viral activity. Therefore, the edge of the ulcer is the most suitable site for biopsy.

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  • 25. 

    Q. 25 Cushing ulcer is seen in ................?

    • A.

      Stress ulcer in head injury

    • B.

      Stress ulcer in burns

    • C.

      Ulcer in severe hypertension

    • D.

      Ulcer in Crohn's disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Stress ulcer in head injury
    Explanation
    Cushing ulcer is a type of stress ulcer that occurs in patients with head injuries. Head injuries can lead to increased intracranial pressure, which in turn can stimulate the vagus nerve and cause an increase in gastric acid secretion. This excess acid production can lead to the development of ulcers in the stomach or duodenum, known as Cushing ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is stress ulcer in head injury.

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  • 26. 

    Q. 26 In early gastric carcinoma, malignancy is confined to ..............?

    • A.

      Mucosa

    • B.

      Mucosa & Sub-mucosa

    • C.

      Gastric wall without lymph node metastasis

    • D.

      Gastric glands

    Correct Answer
    B. Mucosa & Sub-mucosa
    Explanation
    In early gastric carcinoma, malignancy is confined to the mucosa and sub-mucosa. This means that the cancer cells have not spread beyond these layers of the stomach lining. This is an important distinction because it indicates that the cancer is still in its early stages and has not yet invaded deeper into the stomach wall or spread to other parts of the body. Treatment options and prognosis may differ depending on the stage of the cancer, so accurately determining the extent of the malignancy is crucial for determining the most appropriate course of action.

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  • 27. 

    Q. 27 When carcinoma of stomach develops secondarily to a person with anaemia, it is usually situated in the ...............?

    • A.

      Propyloric region

    • B.

      Pylorus

    • C.

      Body

    • D.

      Fundus

    Correct Answer
    D. Fundus
    Explanation
    When carcinoma of the stomach develops secondarily to a person with anemia, it is usually situated in the fundus. The fundus is the upper part of the stomach, which is the portion that is most commonly affected by cancer in cases of secondary development. This could be due to various factors, such as the presence of certain cells or tissues in the fundus that make it more susceptible to cancerous growth.

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  • 28. 

    Q. 28 Which of the following is a histological feature of Whipple's disease?

    • A.

      Infiltration of histiocytes in the Lamina propria

    • B.

      Granuloma in the lamina

    • C.

      Macrophages with p4s positive material inside the Lamina propria

    • D.

      Eosinophils in the Lamina propria

    Correct Answer
    C. Macrophages with p4s positive material inside the Lamina propria
    Explanation
    Whipple's disease is a rare systemic infectious disease caused by the bacterium Tropheryma whipplei. It primarily affects the small intestine but can also involve other organs. One of the histological features of Whipple's disease is the presence of macrophages with periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) positive material inside the Lamina propria. This PAS positive material represents the accumulation of glycoprotein deposits within the macrophages, which is characteristic of Whipple's disease. The other options mentioned in the question, such as infiltration of histiocytes, granuloma formation, and eosinophils in the Lamina propria, are not specific findings of Whipple's disease.

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  • 29. 

    Q. 29 In intra-epithelial region of mucosa of intestine, predominant cells population is that of ...........?

    • A.

      . B-cell

    • B.

      T-cell

    • C.

      Plasma cells

    • D.

      Basophils

    Correct Answer
    B. T-cell
    Explanation
    In the intra-epithelial region of the mucosa of the intestine, the predominant cell population is that of T-cells. T-cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances, such as pathogens, in the body. In the mucosa of the intestine, T-cells help to regulate and coordinate the immune response to protect against infections and maintain the integrity of the intestinal barrier. B-cells, plasma cells, and basophils are also present in the mucosa, but they are not the predominant cell population in this region.

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  • 30. 

    Q. 30 The most common site for Amoebiasis is .....................?

    • A.

      Sigmoid colon

    • B.

      Transverse colon

    • C.

      Caecum

    • D.

      Liver

    Correct Answer
    C. Caecum
    Explanation
    Amoebiasis is an infection caused by the amoeba parasite, specifically the Entamoeba histolytica. The most common site for this infection is the caecum, which is the first part of the large intestine. The parasite enters the body through contaminated food or water and travels through the digestive system, eventually reaching the caecum where it can cause inflammation and ulceration. Therefore, the caecum is the most likely site for the occurrence of amoebiasis.

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  • 31. 

    Q. 31 Whipple's disease is caused by ................?

    • A.

      Bacteriodes

    • B.

      Acinebacter

    • C.

      H-Pylori

    • D.

      Tropheryma Whippelii

    Correct Answer
    D. Tropheryma Whippelii
    Explanation
    Whipple's disease is caused by Tropheryma Whippelii. This bacterium is responsible for causing a rare systemic infectious disease that primarily affects the small intestine. It can also spread to other organs such as the heart, brain, and joints. The infection leads to malabsorption, weight loss, diarrhea, and other gastrointestinal symptoms. The identification of Tropheryma Whippelii in tissue samples using special staining techniques is essential for diagnosing Whipple's disease. Prompt treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent complications and long-term damage.

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  • 32. 

    Q. 32 Which of the following is a histological feature of Crohn's disease?

    • A.

      Non-caseating granulomas are seen

    • B.

      Pseudopolyps are seen

    • C.

      Caseating granulomas are seen

    • D.

      Backwash Ileitis may be seen in some patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-caseating granulomas are seen
    Explanation
    Non-caseating granulomas are a histological feature of Crohn's disease. Granulomas are small clusters of immune cells that form in response to chronic inflammation. In Crohn's disease, these granulomas are non-caseating, meaning that they do not have a central area of necrosis. This histological finding is characteristic of Crohn's disease and can help differentiate it from other inflammatory bowel diseases, such as ulcerative colitis. Pseudopolyps are seen in ulcerative colitis, not Crohn's disease. Caseating granulomas are typically seen in tuberculosis, not Crohn's disease. Backwash ileitis is a feature of ulcerative colitis, not Crohn's disease.

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  • 33. 

    Q. 33 Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of Crohn's disease?

    • A.

      Stricture         

    • B.

      Aphthous ulcer

    • C.

      Cobblestone appearance

    • D.

      Perforation

    Correct Answer
    B. Aphthous ulcer
    Explanation
    The earliest manifestation of Crohn's disease is an aphthous ulcer. This is a type of ulcer that appears as a shallow, painful sore in the lining of the gastrointestinal tract. It is one of the initial signs of inflammation in Crohn's disease and can occur anywhere along the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The presence of an aphthous ulcer is often one of the first indications that a person may have Crohn's disease.

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  • 34. 

    Q. 34 Which of the following features distinguishes Crohn's disease from ulcerative colitis?

    • A.

      Transmural involvement

    • B.

      Presence of polyps

    • C.

      Mucosal edema

    • D.

      Lymphocytic infiltrate

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmural involvement
    Explanation
    Crohn's disease is distinguished from ulcerative colitis by the feature of transmural involvement. Transmural involvement means that the inflammation extends through all layers of the intestinal wall, whereas in ulcerative colitis, the inflammation is limited to the mucosal layer. This key difference in the extent of inflammation helps in differentiating between the two conditions.

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  • 35. 

    Q. 35 The most common benign tumor of the lung discovered incidentally as a coin lesion on routine X-ray examination is ................?

    • A.

      Bronchial carcinoid

    • B.

      Thymoma

    • C.

      Hematoma      

    • D.

      Bronchogenic cyst

    • E.

      Option 5

    Correct Answer
    C. Hematoma      
  • 36. 

    Q. 36 The most common cause of aspiration pneumonia in hospitalized patients is ................?

    • A.

      Streptococcus pneumonia

    • B.

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • C.

      Hemophilia influenza

    • D.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    Correct Answer
    D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    Explanation
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common cause of aspiration pneumonia in hospitalized patients. This bacterium is known for its ability to colonize and infect the respiratory tract, especially in individuals with compromised immune systems or those on mechanical ventilation. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is often found in hospitals and healthcare settings and can cause severe infections, including pneumonia, in vulnerable patients.

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  • 37. 

    Q. 37 The most common type of Asthma that begins in childhood and triggered by environmental antigens such as dust, pollens and food is .......................?

    • A.

      Non-atopic asthma

    • B.

      Drug induced asthma

    • C.

      Atopic asthma

    • D.

      Occupational asthma

    Correct Answer
    C. Atopic asthma
    Explanation
    Atopic asthma is the most common type of asthma that starts in childhood and is triggered by environmental antigens such as dust, pollens, and food. It is characterized by an immune response to these allergens, leading to inflammation and constriction of the airways. This type of asthma is often associated with other allergic conditions like eczema and hay fever.

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  • 38. 

    Q. 38 Which of the following syndromes is characterized by the appearance of proliferative glomerulonephritis and necrotizing hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis?

    • A.

      Goodpasture syndrome

    • B.

      Kartagener syndrome

    • C.

      Paraneoplastic syndrome

    • D.

      Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Goodpasture syndrome
    Explanation
    Goodpasture syndrome is characterized by the appearance of proliferative glomerulonephritis and necrotizing hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis. This syndrome is an autoimmune disorder where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the lungs and kidneys. The immune system produces antibodies that target a specific protein found in the basement membrane of the lungs and kidneys, leading to inflammation and damage in these organs. This results in symptoms such as coughing up blood, difficulty breathing, and kidney failure. Treatment typically involves immunosuppressive medications and sometimes plasma exchange therapy.

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  • 39. 

    Q. 39 The most common site of secondary tuberculosis in the lung is .................?

    • A.

      Hilar area

    • B.

      Peripheral

    • C.

      Base   

    • D.

      Apex

    Correct Answer
    D. Apex
    Explanation
    Secondary tuberculosis refers to the reactivation of a latent tuberculosis infection. The most common site of secondary tuberculosis in the lung is the apex, which is the uppermost part of the lung. This is because the apex has a higher oxygen tension and a lower lymphatic flow, creating a favorable environment for the growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. In contrast, the hilar area, peripheral region, and base of the lung are less commonly affected sites in secondary tuberculosis.

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  • 40. 

    Q. 40 Mr. X, a 58 years old man has been smoking for many years. He experienced chronic cough and weight loss for past 6 months. No fever, no nausea and vomiting is seen. He had one bout of hemoptysis and he went to the Emergency room for consultation. X-ray examination shows a 6 cm mass on the medial upper lobe. Bronchoscopy shows a mass on the segmental bronchus. Which of the following cytological findings is likely to be found in the patient?

    • A.

      Presence of acid fast organism on sputum examination

    • B.

      Presence of malignant squamous cells in sputum

    • C.

      Presence of numerous necrotic debris and inflammatory cells in sputum

    • D.

      Presence of reactive mesothelial cells in pleural fluid examination

    Correct Answer
    B. Presence of malignant squamous cells in sputum
    Explanation
    The presence of malignant squamous cells in the sputum is likely to be found in the patient. This is suggested by the patient's history of smoking, chronic cough, weight loss, and one bout of hemoptysis. The X-ray examination showing a 6 cm mass on the medial upper lobe and the bronchoscopy showing a mass on the segmental bronchus further support the likelihood of malignant squamous cells being present in the sputum.

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  • 41. 

    Q. 41 A lymphohematogenous dissemination of pulmonary tuberculosis would give rise to ......................?

    • A.

      Fibrocaseous Tuberculosis

    • B.

      Pott's disease

    • C.

      Tuberculosis Bronchopneumonia

    • D.

      Miliary Tuberculosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Miliary Tuberculosis
    Explanation
    Lymphohematogenous dissemination refers to the spread of tuberculosis bacteria through the lymphatic system and bloodstream. Miliary tuberculosis is a form of tuberculosis that occurs when the bacteria spread widely throughout the body, affecting multiple organs and tissues. This can happen when the bacteria enter the bloodstream and are carried to different parts of the body. Therefore, miliary tuberculosis is the most likely outcome of lymphohematogenous dissemination of pulmonary tuberculosis.

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  • 42. 

    Q. 42 Hemodynamic pulmonary edema seen in congestive heart failure is due to ..............?

    • A.

      Increased oncotic pressure

    • B.

      Increased hydrostatic pressure

    • C.

      Increased albumin

    • D.

      Decreased interstitial osmotic pressure

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased hydrostatic pressure
    Explanation
    Hemodynamic pulmonary edema seen in congestive heart failure is due to increased hydrostatic pressure. In congestive heart failure, the heart is unable to pump blood efficiently, leading to a backup of blood in the pulmonary circulation. This increased pressure in the blood vessels of the lungs causes fluid to leak into the lung tissue, resulting in pulmonary edema. Increased hydrostatic pressure is the primary mechanism behind this fluid accumulation.

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  • 43. 

    Q. 43 Which of the following conditions of the lung is characterized by abnormal permanent enlargement of the air-space distal to the terminal bronchiole accompanied by destruction of their walls without obvious fibrosis?

    • A.

      Emphysema    

    • B.

      Chronic bronchitis

    • C.

      Bronchial asthma

    • D.

      Bronchiectasis

    Correct Answer
    A. Emphysema    
    Explanation
    Emphysema is a condition of the lung characterized by abnormal permanent enlargement of the air-space distal to the terminal bronchiole accompanied by destruction of their walls without obvious fibrosis. This means that the air sacs in the lungs become stretched and damaged, leading to difficulty in breathing. Chronic bronchitis, bronchial asthma, and bronchiectasis are all conditions that affect the airways, but they do not involve the same permanent enlargement and destruction of air sacs as seen in emphysema.

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  • 44. 

    Q. 44 An acute febrile respiratory disease characterized by patchy inflammatory changes in the lungs confined to the alveolar septa and pulmonary interstitium is ................................?

    • A.

      Primary atypical pneumonia

    • B.

      Bronchopneumonia

    • C.

      Lobar pneumonia

    • D.

      Lobular bronchopneumonia

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary atypical pneumonia
    Explanation
    Primary atypical pneumonia is the correct answer because it is an acute febrile respiratory disease that is characterized by patchy inflammatory changes in the lungs confined to the alveolar septa and pulmonary interstitium. This type of pneumonia is also known as "walking pneumonia" and is typically caused by atypical pathogens such as Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, or Legionella pneumophila. Unlike lobar pneumonia, which affects one or more lobes of the lung, primary atypical pneumonia does not show consolidation or involvement of entire lobes.

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  • 45. 

    Q. 45 A systemic disease of unknown cause characterized by non-caseating granuloma in many tissues and organs particularly in the hilar lymph nodes, lung, eye and skin is .............?

    • A.

      Silicosis          

    • B.

      Sarcoidosis

    • C.

      Asbestosis

    • D.

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Sarcoidosis
    Explanation
    Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease that is characterized by the formation of non-caseating granulomas in various tissues and organs, including the hilar lymph nodes, lungs, eyes, and skin. The cause of sarcoidosis is unknown, making it an idiopathic disease. Silicosis, asbestosis, and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis are all lung diseases, but they do not involve the formation of granulomas and are caused by exposure to silica dust, asbestos fibers, and unknown factors, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is sarcoidosis.

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  • 46. 

    Q. 46 The COVID-19 is a ...................................?

    • A.

      Systemic disease

    • B.

      Pulmonary disease

    • C.

      Generalized disease

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Systemic disease
    Explanation
    The correct answer is systemic disease because COVID-19 affects multiple systems in the body, including the respiratory, cardiovascular, and immune systems. It is not limited to just one organ or system, making it a systemic disease.

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  • 47. 

    Q. 47 Sudden death in patients with pulmonary embolism is caused by ....................?

    • A.

      Blockage of blood flow through lungs

    • B.

      Atelectasis

    • C.

      Development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder

    • D.

      Pulmonary hypertension

    Correct Answer
    A. Blockage of blood flow through lungs
    Explanation
    Sudden death in patients with pulmonary embolism is caused by the blockage of blood flow through the lungs. When a blood clot, known as an embolus, travels to the lungs and blocks one or more arteries, it can prevent oxygen from reaching the body's organs. This lack of oxygen can lead to sudden death if not promptly treated. Atelectasis refers to the collapse of a lung or a portion of it, which can cause respiratory problems but is not directly related to sudden death in pulmonary embolism. Development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder and pulmonary hypertension are also not directly responsible for sudden death in pulmonary embolism.

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  • 48. 

    Q. 48 The causes of pulmonary edema include ................?

    • A.

      Left heart failure

    • B.

      Tricuspid stenosis

    • C.

      Right heart failure

    • D.

      Pulmonary thromboembolism

    Correct Answer
    A. Left heart failure
    Explanation
    Pulmonary edema refers to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to difficulty in breathing. Left heart failure is a common cause of pulmonary edema. When the left side of the heart fails to pump blood effectively, it can result in a backup of fluid into the lungs, causing pulmonary edema. Tricuspid stenosis and right heart failure can also contribute to pulmonary edema, but they are not the primary causes. Pulmonary thromboembolism refers to a blood clot in the pulmonary arteries and can cause pulmonary edema indirectly by increasing pressure in the pulmonary circulation. However, left heart failure is the most direct and common cause of pulmonary edema.

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  • 49. 

    Q. 49 Which of the following is true regarding Bronchopneumonia?

    • A.

      Tends to involve a single lobe

    • B.

      Mainly shows chronic inflammation

    • C.

      Tends to involve the right middle lobe

    • D.

      Tends to be bilateral and basal

    Correct Answer
    D. Tends to be bilateral and basal
    Explanation
    Bronchopneumonia is a type of pneumonia that typically affects both lungs and is characterized by inflammation in the bronchioles and surrounding areas. It tends to be bilateral, meaning it affects both sides of the lungs, and basal, meaning it primarily affects the lower parts of the lungs. This is in contrast to lobar pneumonia, which tends to involve a single lobe of the lung. Chronic inflammation is not a characteristic feature of bronchopneumonia.

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  • 50. 

    Q. 50 Which of the following disease is related to Corona virus?

    • A.

      MERS

    • B.

      SARS

    • C.

      Both of the above

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Both of the above
    Explanation
    Both MERS (Middle East Respiratory Syndrome) and SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome) are diseases caused by different strains of the coronavirus. MERS was first identified in Saudi Arabia in 2012 and SARS emerged in China in 2002. Both diseases can cause severe respiratory symptoms and have the potential to spread rapidly. Therefore, both MERS and SARS are related to the coronavirus.

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