General Pathology Quiz With Answers

Reviewed by Farah Naz
Farah Naz, MBBS, Medicine |
Medical Expert
Review Board Member
Farah holds a Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) from Dow University of Health Sciences. She gained valuable experience through internships in Radiology, Cardiology, and Neurosurgery, and has contributed to two research publications in medical journals. Passionate about healthcare education, Farah excels in crafting medical content, including articles, literature reviews, and e-learning courses. Leveraging her expertise, she meticulously reviews medical science quizzes, ensuring accuracy and educational value for aspiring healthcare professionals.
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General Pathology Quiz With Answers - Quiz


How much knowledge do you have about general pathology? Here we have a general pathology quiz with answers for you. People contract some diseases but don't have any cure, but through different studies, medication and therapy have been invented to help a patient cope or maybe live longer even though sick. Do you know some of the measures undertaken to test the causes and effects of a patient's disease? And how do different medications behave? Take the quiz and refresh your pathology knowledge!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Mercury mostly affects__________________

    • A.

      PCT

    • B.

      DCT

    • C.

      Collecting duct

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    A. PCT
    Explanation
    Mercury mostly affects the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT). The PCT is responsible for the reabsorption of important substances such as glucose, amino acids, and electrolytes from the filtrate back into the bloodstream. Mercury can interfere with this reabsorption process, leading to impaired kidney function and potential toxicity. It can also cause damage to the tubular cells of the PCT, disrupting its normal functioning. Therefore, the PCT is particularly susceptible to the harmful effects of mercury exposure.

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  • 2. 

    Psammoma bodies are associated with

    • A.

      Metastatic calcifications

    • B.

      Dystrophic calcifications

    • C.

      Gangrene

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    B. Dystrophic calcifications
    Explanation
    Psammoma bodies are microscopic structures that are commonly associated with dystrophic calcifications. Dystrophic calcifications occur in areas of tissue damage or necrosis, where calcium salts are deposited in response to cell death. Psammoma bodies are often found in certain types of tumors, such as papillary thyroid carcinoma, serous ovarian carcinoma, and meningioma, where they are formed by the accumulation of calcium salts. Therefore, the correct answer is dystrophic calcifications.

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  • 3. 

    Glycogens are demonstrated by?

    • A.

      Oil Red O

    • B.

      Mucicarmine

    • C.

      Periodic acid Schiff method

    • D.

      Sudan black method

    Correct Answer
    C. Periodic acid Schiff method
    Explanation
    The Periodic acid Schiff method is used to demonstrate glycogens. This method involves the use of periodic acid to oxidize the glycogens, followed by the reaction with Schiff reagent to form a colored complex. This complex appears as a pink or magenta color under a microscope, indicating the presence of glycogens. The other options, Oil Red O, Mucicarmine, and Sudan black method, are not specific for glycogens and are used to stain other substances such as lipids, mucins, and lipofuscin respectively.

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  • 4. 

    Pastia lines are seen in?

    • A.

      Strawberry gingivitis

    • B.

      Wegners granulomatosis

    • C.

      Scarlet fever

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    C. Scarlet fever
    Explanation
    Pastia lines are seen in scarlet fever. Pastia lines are dark red or purple lines that appear in the skin folds of individuals with scarlet fever. These lines result from the dilation and congestion of small blood vessels due to the inflammatory response caused by the Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria, which is responsible for scarlet fever. Therefore, the presence of Pastia lines is a characteristic clinical feature of scarlet fever.

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  • 5. 

    Clear cells are seen in

    • A.

      Ewings sarcoma

    • B.

      Chondrosarcoma

    • C.

      Osteosarcoma

    • D.

      Fibrosarcoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Chondrosarcoma
    Explanation
    Chondrosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that arises from cartilage cells. Clear cells are a characteristic feature seen in chondrosarcoma, where the tumor cells have a clear cytoplasm due to the accumulation of mucinous material. This feature helps in distinguishing chondrosarcoma from other types of bone tumors such as Ewing's sarcoma, osteosarcoma, and fibrosarcoma, where clear cells are not typically observed. Therefore, the presence of clear cells is a key diagnostic feature of chondrosarcoma.

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  • 6. 

    Lues maligna is seen in

    • A.

      Primary syphilis

    • B.

      Secondary syphilis

    • C.

      Tertiary syphilis

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    B. Secondary syphilis
    Explanation
    Lues maligna refers to a severe form of syphilis characterized by widespread skin lesions. It typically occurs during the secondary stage of syphilis, which is characterized by a rash, flu-like symptoms, and the potential for the bacteria to spread throughout the body. Therefore, the correct answer is secondary syphilis.

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  • 7. 

    Fibrin degradation products are diagnostic in

    • A.

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation

    • B.

      Thrombocytopenic purpura

    • C.

      Sickle cell anemia

    • D.

      Hemophilia

    Correct Answer
    A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
    Explanation
    Fibrin degradation products are diagnostic in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) because DIC is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the coagulation system, leading to the formation of blood clots throughout the body. As these blood clots are broken down, fibrin degradation products are released into the bloodstream. Therefore, the presence of fibrin degradation products indicates the ongoing breakdown of blood clots, which is a hallmark of DIC. Thrombocytopenic purpura, sickle cell anemia, and hemophilia are not typically associated with the widespread activation of the coagulation system seen in DIC.

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  • 8. 

    Bence Jones proteins are seen in

    • A.

      Beta heavy chain disease

    • B.

      Delta heavy chain disease

    • C.

      Mu heavy chain disease

    • D.

      Epsilon heavy chain disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Mu heavy chain disease
    Explanation
    Mu heavy chain disease is a rare type of B-cell lymphoma characterized by the production of abnormal mu heavy chains. These abnormal proteins, known as Bence Jones proteins, are detected in the urine of affected individuals. Unlike other heavy chain diseases listed, Mu heavy chain disease specifically presents with the presence of Bence Jones proteins. This distinguishes it from the other heavy chain diseases, making it the correct answer in this scenario.

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  • 9. 

    Red infarcts are seen in

    • A.

      Heart

    • B.

      Spleen

    • C.

      Kidney

    • D.

      Lungs

    Correct Answer
    D. Lungs
    Explanation
    Red infarcts are seen in the lungs. Infarcts occur when blood supply to an organ or tissue is blocked, leading to tissue death. Red infarcts typically occur in organs with dual blood supply or when reperfusion occurs after an initial ischemic event. In the lungs, red infarcts can be seen due to the presence of collateral blood supply from the bronchial arteries. This allows for reperfusion and the development of red infarcts, which are characterized by hemorrhage into the infarcted tissue.

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  • 10. 

    Necrotic epithelium with sloughing is seen in

    • A.

      Trauma

    • B.

      Aspirin burn

    • C.

      Chronic atrophic stomatitis

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    B. Aspirin burn
    Explanation
    Necrotic epithelium with sloughing is a characteristic finding in an aspirin burn. When aspirin comes into contact with the skin or mucous membranes, it can cause a chemical burn. This burn leads to the death of the surface epithelial cells, resulting in necrosis. The necrotic epithelium then sloughs off, leaving behind a raw and ulcerated area. This is why an aspirin burn is associated with the presence of necrotic epithelium with sloughing.

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  • 11. 

    TB resulting in spinal curvature is known as?

    • A.

      Patey's disease

    • B.

      Pott's disease

    • C.

      Pet's disease

    • D.

      Moon's tumor

    Correct Answer
    B. Pott's disease
    Explanation
    Pott's disease is a term used to describe tuberculosis (TB) that affects the spine, resulting in spinal curvature. It is named after Sir Percivall Pott, an English surgeon who first described the condition in the 18th century. TB can spread to the spine through the bloodstream or from nearby infected tissues, causing destruction of the vertebral bodies and leading to spinal deformities. Pott's disease can cause symptoms such as back pain, stiffness, and neurological deficits. Prompt diagnosis and treatment with anti-TB medications are crucial to prevent further damage to the spine and complications.

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  • 12. 

    The most common site for peripheral giant cell granuloma?

    • A.

      Tongue

    • B.

      Gingiva

    • C.

      Buccal mucosa

    • D.

      Palate

    Correct Answer
    B. Gingiva
    Explanation
    The most common site for peripheral giant cell granuloma is the gingiva. This condition is characterized by the presence of a red or purple mass that can cause pain and discomfort. It typically occurs in the gingiva, which is the gum tissue surrounding the teeth. Peripheral giant cell granuloma is often associated with poor oral hygiene and can be caused by factors such as trauma or irritation to the gum tissue. Treatment usually involves surgical removal of the mass and addressing any underlying causes to prevent recurrence.

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  • 13. 

    Cobblestone mucosal architecture is seen in?

    • A.

      Ulcerative colitis

    • B.

      Chrons disease

    • C.

      Focal epithelial hyperplasia

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. Chrons disease
    Explanation
    Cobblestone mucosal architecture refers to the appearance of multiple raised, linear, and parallel mucosal folds in the gastrointestinal tract. This finding is commonly associated with Crohn's disease, a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. In Crohn's disease, the inflammation can lead to thickening of the intestinal wall, causing the characteristic cobblestone appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is Crohn's disease.

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  • 14. 

    Claw hands are seen in

    • A.

      Aperts syndrome

    • B.

      Crouzon syndrome

    • C.

      Hurler syndrome

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    C. Hurler syndrome
    Explanation
    Claw hands, a condition characterized by abnormal flexion and extension of the fingers, are seen in Hurler syndrome. Hurler syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by the deficiency of an enzyme called alpha-L-iduronidase, which leads to the accumulation of certain substances in the body. This accumulation affects various organs and tissues, including the bones and joints, leading to skeletal abnormalities such as claw hands. Therefore, the correct answer is Hurler syndrome.

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  • 15. 

    Copper deficiency is seen in

    • A.

      Wilson's disease

    • B.

      Menke's disease

    • C.

      Both

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Both
    Explanation
    Copper deficiency is seen in both Wilson's disease and Menke's disease. Wilson's disease is a genetic disorder that causes copper to accumulate in the body, leading to copper deficiency in various tissues. Menke's disease is also a genetic disorder that affects copper metabolism, resulting in copper deficiency in the body. Both conditions are characterized by impaired copper absorption or transport, leading to a deficiency of this essential mineral.

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  • 16. 

    All are T cell markers except?

    • A.

      CD 1

    • B.

      CD 3

    • C.

      CD 7

    • D.

      CD 19

    Correct Answer
    D. CD 19
    Explanation
    CD 19 is not a T cell marker because it is a B cell marker. CD 1, CD 3, and CD 7 are all T cell markers that help identify and distinguish different types of T cells. CD 19, on the other hand, is specifically expressed on B cells and is used to identify and characterize B cell populations.

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  • 17. 

    Classical and alternate pathways of complement activation merge on?

    • A.

      C 3 complement

    • B.

      C 5 complement

    • C.

      C6 complement

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. C 3 complement
    Explanation
    The classical and alternate pathways of complement activation merge on the C3 complement. This is a crucial step in the complement cascade, where both pathways converge to activate C3. Once C3 is activated, it leads to the formation of the C5 convertase and the subsequent activation of the terminal pathway, resulting in the formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC) and the destruction of target cells. Therefore, the C3 complement plays a central role in the complement system, serving as a point of convergence for both pathways.

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  • 18. 

    Post-transplant lymphoma is?

    • A.

      T cell lymphoma

    • B.

      B cell lymphoma

    • C.

      NK cell lymphoma

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. B cell lymphoma
    Explanation
    Post-transplant lymphoma refers to a type of lymphoma that occurs after an organ transplant. It is commonly associated with immunosuppressive therapy, which is used to prevent organ rejection. B cell lymphoma is the most common type of post-transplant lymphoma, accounting for the majority of cases. This type of lymphoma originates from abnormal B cells, which are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response. B cell lymphoma can occur in various organs and tissues, including the lymph nodes, bone marrow, and gastrointestinal tract.

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Farah Naz |MBBS, Medicine |
Medical Expert
Farah holds a Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) from Dow University of Health Sciences. She gained valuable experience through internships in Radiology, Cardiology, and Neurosurgery, and has contributed to two research publications in medical journals. Passionate about healthcare education, Farah excels in crafting medical content, including articles, literature reviews, and e-learning courses. Leveraging her expertise, she meticulously reviews medical science quizzes, ensuring accuracy and educational value for aspiring healthcare professionals.

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  • Current Version
  • Jan 23, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team

    Expert Reviewed by
    Farah Naz
  • Jun 05, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Ismayilpkn4
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