Leading & Managing Projects

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| By Kiran23

Kiran23

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 189

Questions: 180 | Attempts: 189 | Updated: Mar 19, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

You’re a project manager at a construction company that’s selling services to a client. You are working on a schedule and a budget when the CEO at the client demands that you do not produce those things. Instead, he wants you to begin work immediately. What the BEST thing that you can do?
- A.
  
  Meet with the CEO to explain why the budget and schedule are necessary
- B.
  
  Stop work immediately and go into claims administration
- C.
  
  Don’t produce the schedule and budget
- D.
  
  Ask the buyer to find another company to work with
Correct Answer
A. Meet with the CEO to explain why the budget and schedule are necessary

Explanation
It is important to meet with the CEO to explain the importance of having a schedule and budget in place. By having a schedule, the project can be properly planned and organized, ensuring that tasks are completed in a timely manner. A budget is necessary to allocate resources effectively and to ensure that the project remains within financial constraints. By explaining the benefits of having a schedule and budget, the CEO may understand the importance and reconsider their decision.

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2.

You’re working on a project, when the client demands that you take him out to lunch every week if you want to keep his business. What’s the BEST thing to do?
- A.
  
  Take the client out to lunch and charge it to your company
- B.
  
  Refuse to take the client out to lunch because it’s a bribe
- C.
  
  Take the client out to lunch, but report him to his manager
- D.
  
  Report the incident to PMI
Correct Answer
B. Refuse to take the client out to lunch because it’s a bribe

Explanation
Refusing to take the client out to lunch because it is considered a bribe is the best thing to do in this situation. Accepting bribes is unethical and goes against professional standards. It is important to maintain integrity and not engage in any activities that could compromise the project or the reputation of the company. By refusing the client's demand, you are demonstrating ethical behavior and upholding professional standards.

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3.

You are working on one of the first financial projects your company has attempted, and you have learned a lot about how to manage the project along the way. Your company is targeting financial companies for new projects next year. What’s the BEST thing for you to do?
- A.
  
  Talk to your company about setting up some training sessions so that you can teach others what you have learned on your project
- B.
  
  Keep the information you’ve learned to yourself so that you’ll be more valuable to the company in the next year
- C.
  
  Decide to specialize in financial contracts
- D.
  
  Focus on your work with the project and don’t worry about the helping other people to learn from the experience
Correct Answer
A. Talk to your company about setting up some training sessions so that you can teach others what you have learned on your project

Explanation
The best thing to do in this situation is to talk to your company about setting up training sessions to teach others what you have learned on your project. By sharing your knowledge and expertise, you can help your company improve its capabilities in managing financial projects and increase its chances of successfully targeting financial companies for new projects in the future. This not only benefits the company but also showcases your leadership and willingness to contribute to the growth and development of the organization.

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4.

You find out that you could save money by contracting with a seller in a country that has lax environmental protection rules. What should you do?
- A.
  
  Continue to pay higher rates for a environmentally safe solution
- B.
  
  Take advantage of the cost savings
- C.
  
  Ask your boss to make the decision for you
- D.
  
  Demand that your current contractor match the price
Correct Answer
A. Continue to pay higher rates for a environmentally safe solution

Explanation
Continuing to pay higher rates for an environmentally safe solution is the ethical choice. By doing so, you prioritize the protection of the environment over cost savings. Contracting with a seller in a country with lax environmental protection rules may lead to environmental harm and contribute to unsustainable practices. Therefore, it is important to prioritize environmental responsibility and support sellers who adhere to higher environmental standards, even if it means paying higher rates.

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5.

The stakeholder register is an input to which of the following processes?
- A.
  
  Plan Risk Management and Collect Requirements
- B.
  
  Perform Integrated Change Control and Plan Communications Management
- C.
  
  Plan Quality Management and Perform Quality Assurance
- D.
  
  Identify Risks and Develop Project Charter
Correct Answer
A. Plan Risk Management and Collect Requirements

Explanation
The stakeholder register is an input to the Plan Risk Management and Collect Requirements processes. The stakeholder register is a document that identifies and provides information about all stakeholders involved in the project. It helps in identifying potential risks and requirements for the project. Therefore, it is used in the Plan Risk Management process to assess and plan for risks, and in the Collect Requirements process to gather and document the project requirements from stakeholders.

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6.

Which of the following statements best describes how stakeholders are involved on a project
- A.
  
  They help to determine the project schedule, deliverables and requirements
- B.
  
  They help to determine the project constraints and product deliverables
- C.
  
  They help to determine the resource needs and resource constraints on the project
- D.
  
  They approve project charter, help provide assumptions and create management plan
Correct Answer
B. They help to determine the project constraints and product deliverables

Explanation
Stakeholders play a crucial role in determining the project constraints and product deliverables. They provide input and feedback on the limitations and boundaries within which the project must operate, as well as the specific outcomes or products that the project should deliver. By involving stakeholders in these decisions, the project team can ensure that the project aligns with their expectations and requirements, leading to a successful outcome.

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7.

The role of each stakeholder is determined by
- A.
  
  The stakeholder and the sponsor
- B.
  
  The project manager and sponsor
- C.
  
  The team and project manager
- D.
  
  The project manager and stakeholder
Correct Answer
D. The project manager and stakeholder

Explanation
The role of each stakeholder is determined by the project manager and stakeholder. This means that both the project manager and the stakeholder have a say in defining the responsibilities and tasks of each stakeholder involved in the project. They work together to ensure that each stakeholder understands their role and contributes effectively to the project's success.

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8.

When do stakeholders have most influence in a project?
- A.
  
  At the beginning of the project
- B.
  
  In the middle of the project
- C.
  
  At the end of the project
- D.
  
  Throughout the project
Correct Answer
A. At the beginning of the project

Explanation
Stakeholders have the most influence at the beginning of the project because this is when key decisions and planning take place. During this stage, stakeholders have the opportunity to provide input, set expectations, and shape the project's direction. As the project progresses, it becomes more challenging to make significant changes or influence its course. Therefore, stakeholders need to be actively involved and engaged from the start to ensure their influence is maximized.

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9.

The project sponsor has approached you with a dilemma. The CEO announced at the annual stockholders meeting that the project you’re managing will be completed by the end of this year. The problem is that this is six months prior to the scheduled completion date. It’s too late to go back and correct her mistake, and stockholders are expecting implementation by the announced date. You must speed up the delivery date of this project. Your primary constraint before this occurred was the budget. Choose the best action from the options listed to speed up the project
- A.
  
  Hire more resources to get the work completed faster.
- B.
  
  Ask for more money so that you can contract out one of the phases you had planned to do with in-house resources.
- C.
  
  Utilize negotiation and influencing skills to convince the project sponsor to speak with the CEO and make a correction to her announcement.
- D.
  
  Examine the project plan to see whether there are any phases that can be fast tracked, and then revise the project plan to reflect the compression of the schedule.
Correct Answer
D. Examine the project plan to see whether there are any phases that can be fast tracked, and then revise the project plan to reflect the compression of the schedule.

Explanation
To speed up the project, the best action is to examine the project plan and identify any phases that can be fast-tracked. By compressing the schedule and revising the project plan accordingly, the project can be completed sooner without compromising the budget or relying on external resources. This approach allows for efficient utilization of existing resources and ensures that the project can meet the announced deadline set by the CEO at the stockholders meeting.

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10.

These types of dependencies can create arbitrary total float values and limit your scheduling options.
- A.
  
  Discretionary
- B.
  
  External
- C.
  
  Mandatory
- D.
  
  Hard logic
Correct Answer
A. Discretionary

Explanation
Discretionary dependencies refer to dependencies that are based on the judgment or discretion of the project team. These dependencies are not inherent or mandatory but are chosen by the team based on their experience or best practices. Unlike other types of dependencies, discretionary dependencies can create arbitrary total float values, meaning that they can affect the scheduling options and flexibility of the project. This makes them less desirable as they can limit the project manager's ability to adjust the schedule and allocate resources efficiently.

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11.

Inspections are also called each of the following except for which one?
- A.
  
  Reviews
- B.
  
  Assessment
- C.
  
  Walk-throughs
- D.
  
  Audits
Correct Answer
B. Assessment

Explanation
Inspections are a type of evaluation or examination carried out to identify and correct errors or deficiencies in a process or system. They are commonly referred to as reviews, walk-throughs, and audits. However, the term "assessment" is not typically used to describe inspections. Instead, assessments are generally associated with the process of evaluating the overall performance or effectiveness of something. Therefore, "assessment" is the correct answer as it does not fall under the category of terms used to describe inspections.

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12.

Project managers spend what percentage of their time communicating?
- A.
  
  90
- B.
  
  85
- C.
  
  75
- D.
  
  50
Correct Answer
A. 90

Explanation
Project managers spend a significant amount of their time communicating. Effective communication is crucial in ensuring that all team members are aligned, informed, and working towards the same goals. Project managers need to communicate with various stakeholders, including team members, clients, and senior management, to provide updates, gather feedback, and address any issues or concerns. With the numerous communication channels and platforms available, project managers need to dedicate a substantial portion of their time to ensure effective communication, making 90% a reasonable estimate.

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13.

The primary function of the Closing processes is to perform which of the following?
- A.
  
  Formalize lessons learned and distribute this information to project participants.
- B.
  
  Perform audits to verify the project results against the project requirements.
- C.
  
  Formalize project completion and disseminate this information to project participants.
- D.
  
  Perform post-implementation audits to document project successes and failures.
Correct Answer
C. Formalize project completion and disseminate this information to project participants.

Explanation
The primary function of the Closing processes is to formalize project completion and disseminate this information to project participants. This involves ensuring that all project deliverables have been completed, conducting a final review to verify that the project objectives have been met, and then sharing this information with all stakeholders. The closing processes also involve documenting any lessons learned from the project and distributing this information to project participants to improve future project performance. Performing audits to verify project results against requirements and conducting post-implementation audits to document successes and failures are part of the overall project management process, but they are not the primary function of the Closing processes.

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14.

What are decision models?
- A.
  
  Project selection criteria
- B.
  
  Project selection methods
- C.
  
  Project selection committees
- D.
  
  Project resource and budget selection methods
Correct Answer
B. Project selection methods

Explanation
Decision models refer to the various methods or techniques used to make informed decisions in project selection. These models help in evaluating and comparing different projects based on specific criteria or factors such as cost, benefits, risks, and feasibility. By using project selection methods, organizations can effectively assess and prioritize projects, ensuring that the most suitable and profitable ones are chosen for implementation. This helps in optimizing the allocation of resources and budget for successful project outcomes.

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15.

During your project meeting, a problem was discussed, and a resolution to the problem was reached. During the meeting, the participants started wondering why they thought the problem was such a big issue. Sometime after the meeting, you received an email from one of the meeting participants saying they’ve changed their mind about the solution reached in the meeting and need to resurface the problem. The solution reached during the initial project meeting is a result of which of the following conflict resolution techniques?
- A.
  
  Confrontation
- B.
  
  Forcing
- C.
  
  Smoothing
- D.
  
  Storming
Correct Answer
C. Smoothing

Explanation
The solution reached during the initial project meeting is a result of the smoothing conflict resolution technique. Smoothing involves downplaying or minimizing the conflict to maintain harmony and preserve relationships. In this case, the participants initially believed the problem to be a big issue but later changed their mind, indicating that they may have smoothed over the conflict during the meeting to avoid further disagreement or tension.

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16.

You’ve been assigned as a project manager on a research and development project for a new dental procedure. You’re working in the Scope Management Knowledge Area. What is the purpose of the project scope management plan
- A.
  
  The project scope management plan describes and documents a scope baseline to help make future project decisions.
- B.
  
  The project scope management plan decomposes project deliverables into smaller units of work.
- C.
  
  The project scope management plan describes how project scope will be developed and how changes will be managed.
- D.
  
  The project scope management plan describes how cost and time estimates will be developed for project scope changes.
Correct Answer
C. The project scope management plan describes how project scope will be developed and how changes will be managed.

Explanation
The project scope management plan is important because it outlines how the project scope will be developed, meaning how the project's objectives, deliverables, and requirements will be identified and defined. Additionally, it describes how changes to the scope will be managed, including the process for evaluating and approving scope changes, as well as the impact on the project's schedule, budget, and resources. This plan helps ensure that the project remains focused and on track, and that any changes to the scope are properly evaluated and controlled.

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17.

All of the following statements are true regarding Ishikawa diagrams in the Identify Risks process except which one?
- A.
  
  Ishikawa diagrams are also called cause-and-effect diagrams.
- B.
  
  Ishikawa diagrams are also called fishbone diagrams.
- C.
  
  Ishikawa diagrams are part of the diagramming tool and technique of this process.
- D.
  
  Ishikawa diagrams show the steps needed to identify the risk.
Correct Answer
D. Ishikawa diagrams show the steps needed to identify the risk.

Explanation
Ishikawa diagrams, also known as cause-and-effect or fishbone diagrams, are used in the Identify Risks process as part of the diagramming tool and technique. However, they do not show the steps needed to identify the risk. Instead, they visually represent the potential causes of a problem or risk, helping to identify the root causes and contributing factors.

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18.

All of the following are outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control process except for which one?
- A.
  
  Change request status updates
- B.
  
  Project management plan updates
- C.
  
  Organizational process assets updates
- D.
  
  Project document updates
Correct Answer
C. Organizational process assets updates

Explanation
The Perform Integrated Change Control process is responsible for reviewing all change requests, determining their impact on the project, and deciding whether to approve or reject them. This process ensures that changes are properly evaluated and implemented. The outputs of this process include change request status updates, project management plan updates, and project document updates. However, organizational process assets updates are not a direct output of this process. Organizational process assets refer to the policies, procedures, and knowledge bases of the organization, and these are typically updated through other processes or activities.

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19.

What is one of the most important skills a project manager can have?
- A.
  
  Negotiation skills
- B.
  
  Influencing skills
- C.
  
  Communication skills
- D.
  
  Problem-solving skills
Correct Answer
C. Communication skills

Explanation
Communication skills are one of the most important skills a project manager can have because effective communication is crucial for successful project management. Project managers need to be able to clearly and effectively communicate with team members, stakeholders, and clients to ensure that everyone is on the same page and understands the project goals, expectations, and progress. Good communication skills also help in resolving conflicts, managing changes, and building strong relationships, which are essential for project success. Without strong communication skills, a project manager may struggle to convey ideas, coordinate tasks, and keep the project on track.

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20.

All of the following are a type of project ending except for which one?
- A.
  
  Extinction
- B.
  
  Starvation
- C.
  
  Desertion
- D.
  
  Addition
Correct Answer
C. Desertion

Explanation
The given question asks for a type of project ending that is not included in the options provided. "Extinction," "Starvation," and "Addition" are all possible types of project endings that could occur due to various reasons such as failure, lack of resources, or additional requirements. However, "Desertion" does not fit into the context of a project ending as it refers to the act of abandoning or leaving something, rather than a specific outcome or consequence of a project.

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21.

You are the project manager for a construction company that is building a new city and county office building in your city. Your CCB recently approved a scope change. You know that scope change might come about as a result of all of the following except which one?
- A.
  
  Schedule revisions
- B.
  
  Product scope change
- C.
  
  Changes to the agreed-upon WBS
- D.
  
  Changes to the project requirements
Correct Answer
A. Schedule revisions

Explanation
Scope changes can occur as a result of product scope change, changes to the agreed-upon WBS, or changes to the project requirements. However, schedule revisions do not directly impact the scope of the project. Schedule revisions may affect the project timeline and resource allocation but do not typically result in changes to the project's scope.

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22.

You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. It produces children’s software programsthat teach basic reading and math skills. You’re performing cost estimates for your projectand don’t have a lot of details yet. Which of the following techniques should you use?
- A.
  
  Analogous estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses historical information from similar projects
- B.
  
  Bottom-up estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses historical information from similar projects
- C.
  
  Monte Carlo analysis, because this is a modelling technique that uses simulation to determine estimates
- D.
  
  Parametric modelling, because this is a form of simulation used to determine estimates
Correct Answer
A. Analogous estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses historical information from similar projects

Explanation
Analogous estimating techniques should be used because it involves using historical information from similar projects to estimate costs. Since there are not many details available for the project, this technique allows the project manager to make an educated guess based on past experiences. By comparing the current project to similar ones in the past, the project manager can estimate the costs more accurately. This technique relies on expert judgment and the assumption that similar projects will have similar cost patterns.

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23.

Project managers have the highest level of authority and the most power in which type of organizational structure?
- A.
  
  Projectized
- B.
  
  Strong matrix
- C.
  
  Functional
- D.
  
  Balanced matrix
Correct Answer
A. Projectized

Explanation
In a projectized organizational structure, project managers have the highest level of authority and power. This structure is characterized by a focus on projects, with project managers having full control and authority over resources and decision-making. The project manager has the ability to make independent decisions and is responsible for the success or failure of the project. This type of structure is often found in organizations where projects are the primary focus and where there is a need for clear accountability and authority within project teams.

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24.

This process is concerned with determining the information stakeholders will need the project and the methods of communication.
- A.
  
  Distribute Information
- B.
  
  Report Performance
- C.
  
  Plan Communications
- D.
  
  Identify Stakeholder Needs
Correct Answer
C. Plan Communications

Explanation
The correct answer is "Plan Communications" because this process involves determining the information that stakeholders will need throughout the project and the most effective methods of communication. It focuses on creating a communication plan that outlines how and when information will be shared with stakeholders to ensure that they are kept informed and engaged. This process helps to establish clear communication channels and ensures that the right information is delivered to the right stakeholders at the right time.

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25.

All of the following statements are true regarding risk events except which one? Choose the least correct answer.
- A.
  
  Project risks are uncertain events.
- B.
  
  If risks occur, they can have a positive or negative effect on project objectives.
- C.
  
  Unknown risks are threats to the project objectives, and nothing can be done to plan for them.
- D.
  
  Risks that have more perceived rewards to the organization than consequences should be accepted.
Correct Answer
C. Unknown risks are threats to the project objectives, and nothing can be done to plan for them.

Explanation
This statement is incorrect because unknown risks can still be planned for by implementing contingency plans and risk response strategies. While it may be challenging to anticipate and plan for unknown risks, it is still possible to mitigate their impact on project objectives.

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26.

This process applies evaluation criteria to the bids and proposals received from potential vendors.
- A.
  
  Plan Procurements
- B.
  
  Administer Procurements
- C.
  
  Conduct Procurements
- D.
  
  Perform Quality Assurance
Correct Answer
C. Conduct Procurements

Explanation
Conduct Procurements is the correct answer because this process involves the evaluation of bids and proposals from potential vendors. It is during this process that the evaluation criteria are applied to determine the most suitable vendor for the project. This process also includes the selection of vendors, negotiation of contracts, and awarding of contracts. Therefore, Conduct Procurements is the most appropriate answer as it aligns with the given description of the process.

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27.

You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. This company produces children’s software programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You are ready to assign project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. Which project planning process are you working on?
- A.
  
  Estimate Activity Resources
- B.
  
  Develop Human Resource Plan
- C.
  
  Acquire Project Team
- D.
  
  Plan Organizational Resources
Correct Answer
B. Develop Human Resource Plan

Explanation
The correct answer is Develop Human Resource Plan. In this process, the project manager identifies and documents project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. It involves determining what resources (both human and physical) are needed for the project and creating a plan to acquire and manage those resources. This process is crucial for ensuring that the project has the right people with the right skills in the right roles to successfully complete the project.

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28.

You know that PV = 470, AC = 430, EV = 480, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525. What is VAC?
- A.
  
  70
- B.
  
  20
- C.
  
  25
- D.
  
  30
Correct Answer
C. 25

Explanation
To calculate VAC (Variance at Completion), we can use the formula VAC = BAC - EAC. Given that BAC is 525 and EAC is 500, we can substitute these values into the formula: VAC = 525 - 500 = 25. Therefore, the correct answer is 25.

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29.

You are a project manager who has recently held a project team kickoff meeting where all the team members were formally introduced to each other. Some of the team members know each other from other projects and have been working with you for the past threeweeks. Which of the following statements is true?
- A.
  
  Team building improves the knowledge and skills of team members.
- B.
  
  Team building builds feelings of trust and agreement among team members, which can improve morale.
- C.
  
  Team building can create a dynamic environment and cohesive culture to improve productivity of both the team and the project.
- D.
  
  Team building occurs throughout the life of the project and can establish clear expectations and behaviours for project team members, leading to increased productivity.
Correct Answer
D. Team building occurs throughout the life of the project and can establish clear expectations and behaviours for project team members, leading to increased productivity.

Explanation
Team building is a continuous process that happens throughout the life of a project. It helps in establishing clear expectations and behaviors among team members, which in turn leads to increased productivity. The given answer correctly states that team building occurs throughout the project and can establish these expectations and behaviors, ultimately improving productivity.

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30.

Which of the following compression techniques increases risk?
- A.
  
  Crashing
- B.
  
  Resource levelling
- C.
  
  Fast tracking
- D.
  
  Lead and lag
Correct Answer
C. Fast tracking

Explanation
Fast tracking is a compression technique in project management where activities or tasks are overlapped to shorten the project schedule. This technique increases the risk because it may result in decreased quality, increased costs, and potential rework. By fast tracking, there is a higher chance of dependencies being overlooked or not properly addressed, leading to potential issues and risks that may impact the project's success.

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31.

You are a project manager for the Swirling Seas Cruises food division. You’re considering two different projects regarding food services on the cruise lines. The initial cost of Project Fish’n for Chips will be $800,000, with expected cash inflows of $300,000 per quarter. Project Picnic’s payback period is six months. Which project should you recommend?
- A.
  
  Project Fish’n for Chips, because its payback period is two months shorter than Project Picnic’s
- B.
  
  Project Fish’n for Chips, because the costs on Project Picnic are unknown
- C.
  
  Project Picnic, because Project Fish’n for Chips’s payback period is four months longer than Project Picnic’s.
- D.
  
  Project Picnic, because Project Fish’n for Chips’s payback period is two months longer than Project Picnic’s.
Correct Answer
D. Project Picnic, because Project Fish’n for Chips’s payback period is two months longer than Project Picnic’s.

Explanation
Project Picnic should be recommended because its payback period is shorter than Project Fish'n for Chips. The question states that Project Picnic's payback period is six months, while Project Fish'n for Chips's payback period is two months longer. Therefore, Project Picnic has a shorter payback period and is a more favorable option.

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32.

You have been assigned to a project that will allow job seekers to fill out applications and submit them via the company website. You report to the VP of human resources. You are also responsible for screening applications for the information technology division and setting up interviews. The project coordinator has asked for the latest version of your changes to the online application page for his review. Which organizational structure do you work in?
- A.
  
  Functional organization
- B.
  
  Weak matrix organization
- C.
  
  Projectized organization
- D.
  
  Balanced matrix organization
Correct Answer
B. Weak matrix organization

Explanation
In a weak matrix organization, the project manager has limited authority and the functional managers have more control over the project. In this scenario, the project coordinator is requesting the latest version of the changes to the online application page, indicating that there is a project coordinator involved in the project. However, the fact that the VP of human resources is the one to whom the person reports and that they are responsible for screening applications for the IT division suggests that the functional managers have more authority and control over the project, making it a weak matrix organization.

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33.

You are the project manager for Lucky Stars Candies. You’ve identified the requirements for the project and documented them where?
- A.
  
  In the requirements document, which will be used as an input to the Create WBS process
- B.
  
  In the project scope statement, which is used as an input to the Create WBS process
- C.
  
  In the product requirements document, which is an output of the Define Scope process
- D.
  
  In the project specifications document, which is an output of the Define Scope process
Correct Answer
A. In the requirements document, which will be used as an input to the Create WBS process

Explanation
The requirements document is used as an input to the Create WBS process. This document contains all the identified requirements for the project, which are necessary for creating the work breakdown structure (WBS). The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the project deliverables and work required to accomplish them. By using the requirements document as an input, the project manager can ensure that all the necessary tasks and deliverables are included in the WBS, aligning the project's scope with the defined requirements.

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34.

What is the purpose of the project charter?
- A.
  
  To recognize and acknowledge the project sponsor
- B.
  
  To recognize and acknowledge the existence of the project and commit organizational resources to the project
- C.
  
  To acknowledge the existence of the project team, project manager, and project sponsor
- D.
  
  To describe the selection methods used to choose this project over its competitors
Correct Answer
B. To recognize and acknowledge the existence of the project and commit organizational resources to the project

Explanation
The purpose of the project charter is to recognize and acknowledge the existence of the project and commit organizational resources to it. The project charter serves as a formal document that outlines the project's objectives, scope, and stakeholders. It also establishes the authority of the project manager, identifies the project sponsor, and allocates necessary resources. By creating a project charter, the organization demonstrates its commitment to the project and ensures that everyone involved understands its purpose and goals.

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35.

Which of the following are tools and techniques of the Identify Stakeholder process?
- A.
  
  Stakeholder analysis and expert judgment
- B.
  
  Stakeholder analysis, expert judgment, and stakeholder register
- C.
  
  Stakeholder analysis
- D.
  
  Stakeholder analysis, stakeholder management strategy, and expert judgment
Correct Answer
A. Stakeholder analysis and expert judgment

Explanation
The Identify Stakeholder process involves identifying all individuals or groups who may have an interest in or be affected by the project. Stakeholder analysis is a tool used to identify and understand stakeholders, their interests, and their level of influence. Expert judgment is another tool used to assess and analyze stakeholder information based on the expertise and knowledge of individuals or groups who have experience in similar projects or industries. Therefore, the correct answer is stakeholder analysis and expert judgment.

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36.

You are a project manager working on a software development project. You’ve developed the risk management plan, identified risks, and determined risk responses for the risks. A risk event occurs, and you implement the response. Then, another risk event occurs as a result of the response you implemented. What type of risk is this called?
- A.
  
  Trigger risk
- B.
  
  Residual risk
- C.
  
  Secondary risk
- D.
  
  Mitigated risk
Correct Answer
C. Secondary risk

Explanation
A secondary risk is a risk that arises as a result of implementing a response to another risk. In this scenario, the project manager has identified risks, determined risk responses, and implemented one of the responses. However, this response has led to another risk event occurring. This new risk event is considered a secondary risk because it is a direct consequence of the response that was implemented.

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37.

You are working on a project that will upgrade the phone system in your customer service centre. You have used analogous estimating, parametric estimating, bottom-up estimating, and three-point estimates to determine activity costs. Which process does this describe?
- A.
  
  Estimating Activity Resources
- B.
  
  Estimate Costs
- C.
  
  Determine Budget
- D.
  
  Estimating Activity Costs
Correct Answer
B. Estimate Costs

Explanation
The given scenario describes the process of "Estimate Costs". This process involves using various techniques such as analogous estimating, parametric estimating, bottom-up estimating, and three-point estimates to determine the costs associated with the activities in a project. It is a part of the project cost management knowledge area and helps in developing an accurate budget for the project.

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38.

Failure costs are also known as which of the following?
- A.
  
  Internal costs
- B.
  
  Cost of poor quality
- C.
  
  Cost of keeping defects out of the hands of customers
- D.
  
  Prevention costs
Correct Answer
B. Cost of poor quality

Explanation
Failure costs are expenses incurred as a result of poor quality products or services. These costs include the expenses associated with detecting and correcting defects, as well as the costs of customer complaints, returns, and warranty claims. By identifying and addressing the root causes of poor quality, organizations can reduce failure costs and improve overall product or service quality.

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39.

Feeding buffers and the project buffer are part of which of the following Develop Schedule tool and technique?
- A.
  
  Critical path method
- B.
  
  Schedule network analysis
- C.
  
  Applying leads and lags
- D.
  
  Critical chain method
Correct Answer
D. Critical chain method

Explanation
The correct answer is Critical chain method. Feeding buffers and the project buffer are both concepts used in the Critical Chain Method, which is a project management technique that focuses on managing project schedules to ensure that resources are utilized efficiently and that project deadlines are met. Feeding buffers are used to protect dependent tasks from delays, while the project buffer is used to protect the overall project completion date.

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40.

You are working on a project that will upgrade the phone system in your customer service centre. You have used bottom-up estimating techniques to assign costs to the project activities and have determined the cost performance baseline. Which of the following statements is true?
- A.
  
  You have completed the Estimate Cost process and now need to complete the Determine Budget process to develop the project’s cost performance baseline.
- B.
  
  You have completed the Estimate Cost process and established a cost performance baseline to measure future project performance against.
- C.
  
  You have completed the Determine Budget process and now need to complete the Schedule Development process to establish a project baseline to measure future project performance against.
- D.
  
  You have completed the Determine Budget process, and the cost performance baseline will be used to measure future project performance.
Correct Answer
D. You have completed the Determine Budget process, and the cost performance baseline will be used to measure future project performance.

Explanation
The correct answer is that you have completed the Determine Budget process, and the cost performance baseline will be used to measure future project performance. This is because the Determine Budget process is responsible for establishing the project's cost performance baseline, which is used as a benchmark to compare actual costs against. The bottom-up estimating techniques mentioned in the question helped assign costs to the project activities, but it is the Determine Budget process that finalizes the cost performance baseline.

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41.

Each of the following statements describes an element of the Develop Project Management Plan process except for which one?
- A.
  
  Project charter
- B.
  
  Outputs from other planning processes
- C.
  
  Configuration management system
- D.
  
  Organizational process assets
Correct Answer
C. Configuration management system

Explanation
The Develop Project Management Plan process involves various elements that contribute to the creation of a comprehensive project management plan. These elements include the project charter, outputs from other planning processes, and organizational process assets. However, the configuration management system is not directly related to the development of the project management plan. Instead, it is a separate process that focuses on managing and controlling changes to the project's deliverables and documentation throughout the project lifecycle.

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42.

There are likely to be team loyalty issues in a matrixed environment. All of the following are true regarding this situation as it pertains to the Manage Project Team process except for which one?
- A.
  
  Two of the tools and techniques you might use to manage these relationships effectively are communications methods and conflict management.
- B.
  
  In this type of structure, team members report to both a functional manager and a project manager. Both managers should have input to the project performance appraisal for this team member, which is a tool and technique of this process.
- C.
  
  The project manager is generally responsible for managing this relationship.
- D.
  
  The effective management of these reporting relationships is often a critical success factor for the project.
Correct Answer
A. Two of the tools and techniques you might use to manage these relationships effectively are communications methods and conflict management.

Explanation
In a matrixed environment, team members report to both a functional manager and a project manager. Both managers should have input to the project performance appraisal for team members, which is a tool and technique of the Manage Project Team process. The project manager is generally responsible for managing these reporting relationships, and the effective management of these relationships is often a critical success factor for the project. Therefore, the statement "Two of the tools and techniques you might use to manage these relationships effectively are communications methods and conflict management" is not true because it is actually true and applicable in this situation.

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43.

All of the following statements are true regarding configuration management except which one?
- A.
  
  Configuration management requires acceptance decisions for all change requests to be made through the CCB.
- B.
  
  Change control systems are a subset of the configuration management system.
- C.
  
  Configuration management focuses on the specifications of the deliverables of the project.
- D.
  
  Configuration management validates and improves the project by evaluating the impact of each change.
Correct Answer
A. Configuration management requires acceptance decisions for all change requests to be made through the CCB.

Explanation
Configuration management requires acceptance decisions for all change requests to be made through the CCB. This statement is not true because configuration management does not necessarily require all change requests to go through a Change Control Board (CCB). While a CCB is a common practice in many organizations, it is not a mandatory requirement for configuration management. Configuration management focuses on managing and controlling the specifications of project deliverables, validating and improving the project by evaluating the impact of changes, and change control systems are indeed a subset of the configuration management system.

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44.

Monte Carlo analysis can help predict the impact of risks on project deliverables. This is an element of one of the tools and techniques of which of the following processes?
- A.
  
  Plan Risk Responses
- B.
  
  Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
- C.
  
  Identify Risks
- D.
  
  Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Explanation
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is the correct answer because Monte Carlo analysis is a technique used in this process. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis involves numerically analyzing the effects of identified risks on overall project objectives. Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique that uses probability distributions to model uncertainties and assess the likelihood of achieving project objectives. By running multiple iterations, it helps to predict the impact of risks on project deliverables and provides a quantitative assessment of the project's overall risk exposure.

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45.

Which performance measurement tells you what the projected total cost of the project will be at completion?
- A.
  
  ETC
- B.
  
  EV
- C.
  
  AC
- D.
  
  EAC
Correct Answer
D. EAC

Explanation
EAC (Estimate at Completion) is the performance measurement that tells you what the projected total cost of the project will be at completion. It takes into account the actual cost incurred so far, as well as the remaining work and any variances from the original plan. By calculating the EAC, project managers can estimate the final cost of the project and make necessary adjustments to stay within budget.

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46.

Which of the following contracts should you use for projects that have a degree of uncertainty and require a large investment early in the project life cycle?
- A.
  
  Fixed price
- B.
  
  Cost reimbursable
- C.
  
  Lump sum
- D.
  
  T&M
Correct Answer
B. Cost reimbursable

Explanation
Cost reimbursable contracts should be used for projects that have a degree of uncertainty and require a large investment early in the project life cycle. This type of contract allows for the reimbursement of the actual costs incurred by the contractor, along with an additional fee or percentage for profit. It provides flexibility in situations where the scope of work may change or there is uncertainty about the final costs. The client bears the risk of cost overruns, but this type of contract is beneficial when there is a need for early investment and uncertainty in the project.

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47.

According to the PMBOK® Guide, the project manager is identified and assigned during which process?
- A.
  
  During the Develop Project Charter process
- B.
  
  At the conclusion of the Develop Project Charter process
- C.
  
  Prior to beginning the Planning processes
- D.
  
  Prior to beginning the Define Scope process
Correct Answer
A. During the Develop Project Charter process

Explanation
The project manager is identified and assigned during the Develop Project Charter process. This process involves defining the project and authorizing its initiation. It is during this process that the project manager is selected and assigned to lead the project. The project charter outlines the project objectives, stakeholders, and high-level requirements, and the project manager plays a crucial role in its development. Therefore, it is logical for the project manager to be identified and assigned during this process.

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48.

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Close Procurements process except for which one?
- A.
  
  Expert judgment
- B.
  
  Procurement audits
- C.
  
  Negotiated settlements
- D.
  
  Records management system
Correct Answer
A. Expert judgment

Explanation
The Close Procurements process involves finalizing all procurement activities and contracts. Expert judgment is not a tool or technique used in this process. Expert judgment is typically used in other processes, such as Plan Procurement Management or Conduct Procurements, where experts provide their knowledge and insights to make informed decisions. In the Close Procurements process, the focus is on activities like conducting procurement audits to evaluate the effectiveness of the procurement process, negotiating settlements with vendors, and managing records related to the procurement activities.

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49.

A project manager on a multinational website implementation project is at a party and talks to friends who will be heavy users of this new website when the project is complete and the site is rolled out. They describe some annoying aspects of the current website. The project manager takes this feedback to the sponsor, and encourages design and scope changes. Which of the following best describes what the project manager has done?
- A.
  
  Scope Validation
- B.
  
  Integrated Change Control
- C.
  
  Stakeholder Analysis
- D.
  
  Scope Planning
Correct Answer
C. Stakeholder Analysis

Explanation
The project manager has engaged in stakeholder analysis by gathering feedback from potential users of the website and using that information to advocate for design and scope changes. This shows an understanding of the importance of considering the needs and preferences of stakeholders in project decision-making.

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50.

The inputs of the Report Performance process include all of the following except for which one?
- A.
  
  Work performance information
- B.
  
  Work performance measurements
- C.
  
  Budget forecasts
- D.
  
  Performance reviews
Correct Answer
D. Performance reviews

Explanation
The inputs of the Report Performance process include work performance information, work performance measurements, and budget forecasts. Performance reviews, on the other hand, are not included as an input in this process. Performance reviews are typically conducted as a separate activity to assess individual or team performance, provide feedback, and identify areas for improvement. While performance reviews may provide valuable information for monitoring and controlling project performance, they are not directly included as inputs in the Report Performance process.

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Current Version
Mar 19, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Nov 06, 2013

Quiz Created by
Kiran23

Leading & Managing Projects

You’re a project manager at a construction company that’s selling services to a client. You are working on a schedule and a budget when the CEO at the client demands that you do not produce those things. Instead, he wants you to begin work immediately. What the BEST thing that you can do?

You’re working on a project, when the client demands that you take him out to lunch every week if you want to keep his business. What’s the BEST thing to do?

You are working on one of the first financial projects your company has attempted, and you have learned a lot about how to manage the project along the way. Your company is targeting financial companies for new projects next year. What’s the BEST thing for you to do?

You find out that you could save money by contracting with a seller in a country that has lax environmental protection rules. What should you do?

The stakeholder register is an input to which of the following processes?

Which of the following statements best describes how stakeholders are involved on a project

The role of each stakeholder is determined by

When do stakeholders have most influence in a project?

These types of dependencies can create arbitrary total float values and limit your scheduling options.

Inspections are also called each of the following except for which one?

Project managers spend what percentage of their time communicating?

The primary function of the Closing processes is to perform which of the following?

What are decision models?

You’ve been assigned as a project manager on a research and development project for a new dental procedure. You’re working in the Scope Management Knowledge Area. What is the purpose of the project scope management plan

All of the following statements are true regarding Ishikawa diagrams in the Identify Risks process except which one?

All of the following are outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control process except for which one?

What is one of the most important skills a project manager can have?

All of the following are a type of project ending except for which one?

You are the project manager for a construction company that is building a new city and county office building in your city. Your CCB recently approved a scope change. You know that scope change might come about as a result of all of the following except which one?

You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. It produces children’s software programsthat teach basic reading and math skills. You’re performing cost estimates for your projectand don’t have a lot of details yet. Which of the following techniques should you use?

Project managers have the highest level of authority and the most power in which type of organizational structure?

This process is concerned with determining the information stakeholders will need the project and the methods of communication.

All of the following statements are true regarding risk events except which one? Choose the least correct answer.

This process applies evaluation criteria to the bids and proposals received from potential vendors.

You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. This company produces children’s software programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You are ready to assign project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. Which project planning process are you working on?

You know that PV = 470, AC = 430, EV = 480, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525. What is VAC?

Which of the following compression techniques increases risk?

You are the project manager for Lucky Stars Candies. You’ve identified the requirements for the project and documented them where?

What is the purpose of the project charter?

Which of the following are tools and techniques of the Identify Stakeholder process?

You are working on a project that will upgrade the phone system in your customer service centre. You have used analogous estimating, parametric estimating, bottom-up estimating, and three-point estimates to determine activity costs. Which process does this describe?

Failure costs are also known as which of the following?

Feeding buffers and the project buffer are part of which of the following Develop Schedule tool and technique?

You are working on a project that will upgrade the phone system in your customer service centre. You have used bottom-up estimating techniques to assign costs to the project activities and have determined the cost performance baseline. Which of the following statements is true?

Each of the following statements describes an element of the Develop Project Management Plan process except for which one?

There are likely to be team loyalty issues in a matrixed environment. All of the following are true regarding this situation as it pertains to the Manage Project Team process except for which one?

All of the following statements are true regarding configuration management except which one?

Monte Carlo analysis can help predict the impact of risks on project deliverables. This is an element of one of the tools and techniques of which of the following processes?

Which performance measurement tells you what the projected total cost of the project will be at completion?

Which of the following contracts should you use for projects that have a degree of uncertainty and require a large investment early in the project life cycle?

According to the PMBOK® Guide, the project manager is identified and assigned during which process?

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Close Procurements process except for which one?

The inputs of the Report Performance process include all of the following except for which one?