CDC 3DX5X Book 1 C

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  • 1/25 Questions

    A logical group of record is called a/an

    • File
    • Record
    • Database
    • Enterprise
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'CDC 3DX5X Book 1 C', assesses knowledge in records and information management, focusing on file organization, database structuring, password creation responsibilities, and record marking. It is designed to equip decision-makers with essential data management skills.

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  • 2. 

    An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an

    • File

    • Record

    • Database

    • Enterprise

    Correct Answer
    A. Database
    Explanation
    A database is an organized collection of data or data structures. It is designed to store, manage, and retrieve large amounts of data efficiently. Unlike a file, which is a single unit of information, a database consists of multiple interconnected records that can be queried and manipulated using various techniques and tools. The term "enterprise" refers to a business or organization, which is not relevant to the given question. Therefore, the correct answer is "Database."

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  • 3. 

    Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primary responsibility (OPR) records custodian?

    • Base record manager

    • Chief of Office of Records

    • Command records manager

    • Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional area records manager
    Explanation
    The functional area records manager is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primary responsibility (OPR) records custodian. This individual is in charge of managing records within a specific functional area and has the authority to set up and maintain access controls, including passwords, for the OPR records custodian. The base record manager, chief of Office of Records, and command records manager may have other responsibilities related to records management, but creating unique passwords for the OPR records custodian is specifically assigned to the functional area records manager.

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  • 4. 

    Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?

    • First step

    • Second step

    • Third step

    • Final step

    Correct Answer
    A. Second step
    Explanation
    The second step of file management is marking the records for filing. This involves identifying and labeling the records or documents that need to be filed in order to ensure easy retrieval and organization. By marking the records, it becomes easier to categorize and store them in the appropriate location, making the filing process more efficient. This step is crucial in maintaining an organized and accessible filing system.

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  • 5. 

    The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure

    • Historical events are not forgotten.

    • The collection of data creates a wealth of information.

    • We can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed.

    • Data for individuals is readily available upon request and privacy act information is protected.

    Correct Answer
    A. We can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed.
    Explanation
    Maintaining records allows for the availability of information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed. This means that important data and historical events can be accessed and utilized in making informed decisions. It also ensures that privacy act information is protected and data for individuals can be readily available upon request. The primary purpose of maintaining records is to provide timely and relevant information to decision makers.

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  • 6. 

    What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan?

    • National Archives and Records Administration (NARA)

    • Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS)

    • Local operations instructions

    • Command operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS)
    Explanation
    AFRIMS is the authorization that generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan. This system is specifically designed for the Air Force and is responsible for managing records and information. It ensures that proper control labels are assigned to each item, allowing for efficient organization and management of files. The other options, such as NARA, local operations instructions, and command operations, may have their own roles in record-keeping but do not specifically generate file disposition control labels as AFRIMS does.

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  • 7. 

    What determines the cutoff for active records?

    • End period

    • Archive date

    • Retention period

    • Superseded date

    Correct Answer
    A. Retention period
    Explanation
    The cutoff for active records is determined by the retention period. This refers to the specific duration of time that records must be kept before they can be disposed of or archived. Once the retention period has elapsed, the records are considered no longer active and can be either archived or destroyed.

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  • 8. 

    A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a

    • Retire

    • Archive

    • Acquisition

    • Disposition

    Correct Answer
    A. Disposition
    Explanation
    Disposition is the correct answer because it is a comprehensive term that encompasses various activities related to records management. It includes the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, as well as the transfer of records to a staging area or records center. Additionally, disposition also refers to the transfer of records from one organization to another. Therefore, it is the most appropriate term to describe the overall process of managing records throughout their lifecycle.

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  • 9. 

    For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?

    • Casualties

    • Base closures

    • Deployed AF units

    • Joint force operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Base closures
    Explanation
    Federal records centers will accept records having less than 3 years of retention for base closures. This means that when a military base is closed, the federal records centers will accept and store any records related to that base, even if they have been retained for less than 3 years. This exception allows for the proper management and storage of records during the process of closing a military base.

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  • 10. 

    Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records center, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization?

    • AF Form 55

    • AF Form 457

    • Standard Form 50

    • Standard Form 135

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Form 135
    Explanation
    Standard Form 135 is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records center, staging areas, or to transfer records to another organization. This form is specifically designed for the transfer of records and provides a detailed account of the records being transferred, including information such as the type of records, quantity, and location. It ensures that there is a clear record of the transfer and helps maintain accountability throughout the process.

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  • 11. 

    The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by

    • Placing them is approved staging containers.

    • Shipping it to Federal records centers in approved containers.

    • Altering the data on the records so in the event is compromised, it is recognizable.

    • Any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as longs personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as longs personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction.
    Explanation
    The proper way to destroy records to prevent compromise is by using any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding, as long as the personal data is not recognizable and cannot be reconstructed. This ensures that the information cannot be accessed or misused by unauthorized individuals.

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  • 12. 

    AFPD-10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model?

    • Posturing

    • Tempo Bands

    • Unit type codes

    • Joint manning document

    Correct Answer
    A. Tempo Bands
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Tempo Bands. AFPD-10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns requirements with a matching force generation model through Tempo Bands. Tempo Bands are time periods that determine the level of readiness and availability of forces. They help in planning and organizing the deployment and rotation of forces to meet operational requirements. By aligning requirements with Tempo Bands, the force generation model ensures that the right forces are available at the right time to support operations effectively.

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  • 13. 

    Which organization is responsible for Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements?

    • Global Force Management (GFM)

    • Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)

    • Combatant Commander (CCDR)

    • Commander Air Combat Command (COMACC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) is responsible for the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements. They handle the personnel management and deployment logistics for the Air Force, ensuring that the right individuals are assigned to the right positions and that replacements are managed effectively for long-term deployments.

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  • 14. 

    What places Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?

    • Posturing

    • Tempo Bands

    • Unit type codes

    • Joint manning document

    Correct Answer
    A. Posturing
    Explanation
    Posturing refers to the process of preparing and positioning Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state. This involves ensuring that the forces are trained, equipped, and organized to meet global requirements, home station requirements, and support Combatant Commanders (CCDR). By posturing the forces, they are ready to be rapidly deployed whenever and wherever they are needed, supporting military operations and maintaining readiness.

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  • 15. 

    Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces?

    • Global Force Management

    • Air Force Personnel Center

    • Commander, Air Force Forces

    • Air and Space Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Air and Space Operations Center
    Explanation
    The Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces. The AOC is responsible for planning, directing, and executing air and space operations in support of the overall mission. It serves as the command and control hub for air operations, coordinating with other military branches and international partners to ensure effective and efficient use of air power.

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  • 16. 

    Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Air and Space Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

    • Posturing

    • Tempo Bands

    • Unit type codes

    • Joint manning document

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit type codes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unit type codes." Unit type codes are the basic building blocks used in joint force planning and deployments of Air and Space Expeditionary Forces (AEF). They provide a standardized way to identify and categorize different types of units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units, which helps in organizing and coordinating military operations. By using unit type codes, planners can ensure that the right mix of capabilities and resources are available for specific missions and deployments.

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  • 17. 

    Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources?

    • Designed operational capability.

    • Theater deployable communications.

    • Manpower and equipment force packaging.

    • Joint operation planning and execution system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Theater deployable communications.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Theater deployable communications. This function refers to a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure that is designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications. It can utilize line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources to enable communication in a theater of operations. This capability allows for effective communication between military forces in a deployed environment.

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  • 18. 

    Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of

    • Operational capabilities packages

    • Theater deployable communications

    • Manpower and Equipment Force Package (MEFPAK)

    • Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational capabilities packages
    Explanation
    Operational capabilities packages refer to the various capabilities and resources that a military force possesses to carry out specific missions or tasks. These packages include the necessary manpower, equipment, and training required to effectively execute operations. In this context, Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO), and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of specific missions or tasks that require specific operational capabilities packages. These packages ensure that the military force has the necessary resources and expertise to successfully carry out these operations.

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  • 19. 

    Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?

    • Operational capabilities packages

    • Theater deployable communications

    • Manpower and Equipment Force Package (MEFPAK)

    • Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules

    Correct Answer
    A. Manpower and Equipment Force Package (MEFPAK)
    Explanation
    The Manpower and Equipment Force Package (MEFPAK) has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions to support contingency planning at all levels of command. This means that it is responsible for outlining the composition and capabilities of the force packages that will be used in various operational scenarios. These descriptions are crucial for effective planning and coordination, as they ensure that all levels of command have a clear understanding of the resources and capabilities available to them.

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  • 20. 

    A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called a/an

    • High Altitude Endurance (HAE)

    • Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV)

    • Type Unit Equipment Detail File (TUEDF)

    • Deliberate Crisis Action Planning Execution Segments (DCAPES

    Correct Answer
    A. Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV)
    Explanation
    A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called an Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV). This term specifically refers to aircraft that are operated without a human pilot on board and are used for various purposes such as surveillance, reconnaissance, data collection, and even delivery. UAVs have become increasingly popular due to their versatility and ability to access areas that may be difficult or dangerous for manned aircraft. They are often used in military, scientific, and commercial applications.

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  • 21. 

    As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?

    • 80,000

    • 90,000

    • 100,000

    • 120,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 100,000
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 100,000. This is the total number of flight hours that coalition unmanned aircrafts have flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM as of September 2004.

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  • 22. 

    Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time?

    • High Altitude Endurance (HAE)

    • Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV)

    • Tactical Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (TUAV)

    • Deliberate Crisis Action Planning Execution Segments (DCAPES)

    Correct Answer
    A. High Altitude Endurance (HAE)
    Explanation
    The High Altitude Endurance (HAE) system is the correct answer because it focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time. This system is designed to operate at high altitudes for extended periods, allowing it to capture and transmit imagery quickly and efficiently to support military operations. The other options, such as Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) and Tactical Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (TUAV), may also provide digital imagery, but they do not specifically focus on near real-time delivery like the HAE system does. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning Execution Segments (DCAPES) is unrelated to providing digital imagery.

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  • 23. 

    Which Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicle, or shelterized configurations?

    • Mobility

    • Survivability

    • Interoperability

    • Modularity-scalability

    Correct Answer
    A. Modularity-scalability
    Explanation
    Modularity-scalability is the characteristic that requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicle, or shelterized configurations. This means that the TDC equipment can be easily expanded or scaled up by adding additional modules, and these modules are designed to be easily transported and deployed in various configurations. This allows for flexibility and adaptability in different deployment scenarios, ensuring that the equipment can be quickly set up and used in different environments.

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  • 24. 

    Which Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?

    • Mobility

    • Survivability

    • Interoperability

    • Modularity-scalability

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobility
    Explanation
    In a deployed environment, it is crucial for Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) equipment to have minimal size, weight, power requirements, and set-up times. This is because the equipment needs to be easily transported, deployed, and operated in various locations. The characteristic that addresses this requirement is mobility, as it ensures that the equipment can be quickly and efficiently moved and set up as needed.

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  • 25. 

    Which component of Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network?

    • Basic Access Module (BAM)

    • Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP)

    • Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX)

    • Flyaway Tri-band Satellite Terminal (FTSAT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP) is the correct answer because it is described as a suite of modules and accessory kits that serve as the backbone of a deployed communication network. This suggests that the ICAP is a comprehensive and essential component of the Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) system, providing the necessary infrastructure for communication in a deployed theater. The other options, such as the Basic Access Module (BAM), Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX), and Flyaway Tri-band Satellite Terminal (FTSAT), do not specifically mention serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network, making them less likely to be the correct answer.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 30, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb

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