3DX5X Vol 1 UREs

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1. Records that are considered to be in draft format

Explanation

Draft records are not finalized or officially released, which means they can still be modified or changed. This allows for revisions or updates to be made before the records are officially released to the public or other stakeholders. Therefore, draft records can be altered and are not officially released.

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About This Quiz
3DX5X Vol 1 UREs - Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force Specialty responsibilities, focusing on deployment, maintenance, and management of communication systems. It covers roles such as Radio Frequency Transmission and Cable... see moreSystems, essential for professionals in the 3DX5X Air Force Specialty Code. see less

2. What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose? 

Explanation

A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to condense the main ideas and key points of the message into a concise and clear summary. By doing so, it demonstrates your comprehension of the message and your skill in effectively communicating its main purpose.

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3. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This specialty is responsible for the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with various communication systems and ensure the smooth transmission of radio frequency signals.

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4. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Explanation

The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations is Cable and Antenna Systems. This AFS is specifically focused on the management and upkeep of the physical infrastructure required for network connectivity, including the installation and maintenance of cables and antennas. Spectrum Operations, Ground Radar Systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission do not directly involve network wiring installation and maintenance.

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5. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that specifically manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is designed to streamline and automate the process of distributing and printing technical orders, ensuring that the correct information is available to the relevant personnel in a timely manner. OAS, DSS, and TBA are not specifically designed for this purpose, making ETIMS the most suitable option.

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6. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is the primary legal authority for the organization and conduct of the United States military, and it includes provisions for military justice. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the behavior and discipline of members of the military, and it outlines the legal rights and responsibilities of service members.

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7. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission? 

Explanation

Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission.

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8. Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure? 

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency within the Department of Defense (DoD) that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They are responsible for managing and securing the DoD's information systems and networks, including the GIG, which is a globally interconnected set of information capabilities, processes, and personnel. DISA's role in identifying, prioritizing, and remediating critical GIG infrastructure ensures the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of information for military operations.

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9. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce redundancies, and improve communication and coordination. This consolidation allows for better resource allocation and more effective management of network services, ultimately leading to increased efficiency in providing support and resolving issues.

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10. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel? 

Explanation

Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns and trends in data over time, allowing organizations to make informed decisions and improvements to their quality assurance processes. Quality System, Quality Assessments, and Managerial Assessments may be related to quality assurance but do not specifically involve the collection, compilation, analysis, and recording of data like trend analysis does.

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11. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI). This inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. The UEI evaluates the overall effectiveness of a unit by assessing its ability to meet mission requirements, comply with regulations, and maintain readiness. It is a comprehensive inspection that provides a holistic view of a unit's performance and effectiveness. The other options, Management Inspection (MI), Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI), and Commander's Inspection Program (CCIP), do not specifically integrate compliance, readiness, and new inspection elements like the UEI does.

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12. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions? 

Explanation

When Air National Guard personnel train for cyber operations in Title 32 status, they must be in Title 10 status to execute those missions. Title 10 status refers to the federal active duty status, which allows them to carry out the cyber operations effectively.

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13. Which document is NOT considered an official government record? 

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not typically created or maintained by government agencies for the purpose of documenting official activities or decisions. While they may contain valuable information, they are not official records in the same way that published doctrines, geographical base maps, or photographs of a retreat ceremony would be.

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14. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead? 

Explanation

MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by deliberately presenting false information or creating a false perception. It involves actions, devices, or displays intended to deceive adversaries, causing them to make incorrect decisions or take actions that are not in their best interest. Since MISO and PA share a common audience, their activities are focused on informing and influencing that audience, rather than misleading them. Counterintelligence (CI) aims to identify and counteract enemy intelligence operations, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) aims to gather information about the enemy. These activities do not involve deliberate deception.

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15. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys? 

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks within a particular field. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC) that provides specialized training and knowledge for individuals in that occupation. Therefore, developing a CDC is another use for occupational surveys, as it helps to enhance the career development and training opportunities for individuals in a specific job role.

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16. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty? 

Explanation

The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while actually performing their job duties, under the guidance and supervision of experienced professionals. It is a hands-on approach to training that helps individuals gain practical experience and become proficient in their specific field.

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17. What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement? 

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. Remedy is a popular IT service management tool that helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. It provides features such as asset discovery, procurement management, change management, and retirement planning, allowing organizations to effectively manage and optimize their IT assets throughout their lifecycle.

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18. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps.

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19. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)? 

Explanation

Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes provide standardized identification and classification of military units, allowing for efficient organization and coordination of forces. These codes help in determining the capabilities, composition, and required resources for different units, enabling effective planning and deployment strategies.

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20. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in the career field, ensuring that they have the resources and information necessary to succeed in their careers. The AFCFM is knowledgeable about the specific needs and challenges of the career field and can provide valuable insight and assistance to individuals seeking guidance or advice. They play a crucial role in shaping the career paths and development of individuals in the career field.

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21. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. 

Explanation

Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to detect and respond to an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to identify and neutralize threats, such as deploying intrusion detection systems or conducting vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense, on the other hand, involves responding to an ongoing attack or intrusion, such as isolating compromised systems, patching vulnerabilities, or conducting incident response activities. These two defenses work together to actively counter and react to cyber threats.

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22. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as 

Explanation

The correct answer is "covered relationships." This term refers to an employee or employer relationship that may create a conflict of interest or bias. It implies a situation where there is a personal connection or close association between individuals involved in a professional setting, which can lead to favoritism or impartiality. This unethical situation can compromise the fairness and integrity of decision-making processes within the organization.

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23. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation? 

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a personal relationship with someone that could potentially influence their professional judgment or decision-making. In this case, members of a household or close relatives fall under this category as their personal relationship can create bias or conflicts of interest, leading to unethical behavior or decisions.

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24. How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail? 

Explanation

There are six rules for effective communication via email. The question is asking about the number of rules, and the correct answer is six.

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25. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive plan for education and training within a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary training courses, certifications, and career development opportunities for individuals in that field. By establishing a CFETP, organizations can ensure that their workforce is properly trained and equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to succeed in their careers.

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26. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program? 

Explanation

The question asks for an evaluation type that is NOT included in a Quality Assurance (QA) program. The options provided include Technical Evaluation, Personnel Evaluation, Managerial Evaluation, and Standard Evaluation. Based on the context, it can be inferred that Technical Evaluation, Personnel Evaluation, and Managerial Evaluation are all assessment types that can be included in a QA program. Therefore, the correct answer is Standard Evaluation, as it is the only option that is not mentioned as an assessment type in a QA program.

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27. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into? 

Explanation

Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall coordination and direction of military operations, while the subordinate unified command level focuses on specific operational tasks within a designated area. This division ensures effective command and control in complex military operations involving multiple units and agencies.

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28. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ? 

Explanation

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 specifically addresses the failure to obey orders or regulations, and in this case, the failure to comply with the provisions outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would fall under this category. This violation can result in disciplinary action and punishment for the military personnel involved.

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29. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense? 

Explanation

The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. This position is responsible for assisting the Secretary of Defense in managing the department and overseeing its operations. While the President is the ultimate authority in the Department of Defense, the Deputy Secretary holds the second-highest position within the department's hierarchy. The Chief of Staff and the Vice President do not hold positions within the Department of Defense.

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30. What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

Explanation

DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems must receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive outlines the requirements for IA training and certification for DOD personnel, ensuring that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to protect DOD information systems and networks.

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31. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1? 

Explanation

The question asks which option does not describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1. The correct answer is "Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures." This means that the information outlined in TO 00-5-1 does not include procedures related to Time Compliance Technical Orders.

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32. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Explanation

The correct answer is Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in cyberspace and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk posed by these vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. It helps in identifying potential weaknesses in the network and allows for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate the risk of cyber attacks.

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33. What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time? 

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron installs, reconstitutes, and tests critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time.

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34. What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications? 

Explanation

JP 6-0, Joint Communications System, is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. This publication provides guidance and doctrine for the planning, execution, and assessment of joint communications systems. It outlines the principles, procedures, and capabilities necessary for effective communication in joint operations. This document serves as a foundation for the development and implementation of communication systems and ensures interoperability and coordination among different military services and agencies.

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35. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization? 

Explanation

The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that technical orders are properly distributed to the appropriate personnel and departments, and they also manage the inventory and maintenance of technical order documents. The TODO plays a crucial role in ensuring that technical information is readily available and accessible to those who need it within the organization.

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36. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)? 

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM in discussions and decisions related to utilization and training within the career field. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the MAJCOM's perspective is considered and represented during these workshops.

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37. Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

Quality Assurance is not an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program because Quality Assurance is the overall process of ensuring that the desired level of quality is achieved in a product or service. It includes activities such as quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. However, in a QA program, other elements such as quality assessments, quality system, and trend analysis are essential components that help to assess, maintain, and improve the quality of the product or service.

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38. What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system? 

Explanation

In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system.

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39. The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a 

Explanation

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for leading and coordinating air and space operations within a joint force, working closely with other military branches and agencies. The JFC is the overall commander of a joint force, responsible for integrating and synchronizing all military capabilities to achieve the mission objectives. Therefore, the JFC is the correct answer as it represents the highest level of command in a joint force operation.

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40. What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality? 

Explanation

Continual Service Improvement is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and improving service quality. This stage involves analyzing service performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to enhance the overall service delivery. It aims to ensure that the IT services provided align with business goals and meet customer expectations. Continual Service Improvement is an ongoing process that helps organizations adapt and evolve their IT services to meet changing needs and technologies.

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41. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

Explanation

According to AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program, the supervisor is responsible for assigning the duty position task as part of the enlisted training element. This means that the supervisor determines the specific tasks and responsibilities that are associated with a particular duty position, ensuring that individuals are trained and competent in carrying out their assigned duties.

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42. What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances? 

Explanation

Non-directive publications in the Air Force are informational and suggest guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. These publications provide general information and recommendations without specific instructions or requirements. They allow flexibility and adaptation based on individual situations and needs. Examples of non-directive publications include manuals, handbooks, and guides.

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43. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data? 

Explanation

Any user may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data. This means that as long as a user has the necessary training and authorization, they have the ability to make updates to the technical order. The other options, such as the Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA), Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO), and Library custodian, do not have the same level of access and authority as any user.

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44. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change? 

Explanation

AF Handbook (AFH) is a type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication that is not subject to frequent change. This type of publication is designed to provide comprehensive guidance and information on a specific subject matter within the AF. Unlike other types of AF publications such as AF Doctrine, AF Pamphlet, and AF Visual Aid, which may need to be updated more frequently to reflect changes in policies, procedures, or technologies, AF Handbooks are intended to be more stable and enduring, providing a reliable source of information over a longer period of time.

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45. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)? 

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from certain training requirements based on their specific circumstances or qualifications. The AFCFM's decision is binding and overrides any previous decisions made by the unit training manager (UTM), base functional manager (BFM), or major command functional manager (MFM).

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46. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices.

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47. Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards? 

Explanation

The correct answer is the Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). They develop standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards.

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48. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Explanation

The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base functional manager (BFM).

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49. What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups? 

Explanation

The Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) is responsible for assigning numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups.

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50. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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51. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace? 

Explanation

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides the strategic direction and priorities for the Department of Defense in various areas, including cyberspace security. It outlines the goals, objectives, and strategies that need to be followed in order to secure cyberspace effectively.

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52. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Service Contact. This is because Service Contact is not one of the stages in the ITIL Service Life Cycle. The ITIL Service Life Cycle consists of five stages: Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not a recognized stage in this framework.

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53. What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)? 

Explanation

The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for controlling and securing access to the network, ensuring that only authorized users can enter and protecting against cyber threats. It serves as a crucial component of the Air Force's cyber defense capabilities, allowing them to monitor and control network traffic, detect and respond to attacks, and maintain the integrity and confidentiality of their information.

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54. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?" 

Explanation

AFI 33-322 defines an "official government record." This means that the correct answer is AFI 33-322.

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55. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority? 

Explanation

Chartering directives are a type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) that establishes the official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships, and authority of the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies. These directives outline the specific goals and objectives of the OSD and provide guidance on how it should operate. They serve as a formal document that defines the purpose and scope of the OSD and its various components within the Department of Defense.

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56. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity? 

Explanation

The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This suggests that the ESU is focused on providing efficient and effective services to support the warfighters in their operations. By reducing training requirements and increasing capacity, the ESU aims to enhance the readiness and capabilities of the Air Force.

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57. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace? 

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is the correct answer because it is a document that outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. This document provides guidance and direction for government agencies, private sector organizations, and individuals to enhance the security and resilience of cyberspace. It focuses on various aspects such as protecting information infrastructure, promoting cybersecurity awareness, and fostering international cooperation. The other options, National Military Cyberspace Strategy, National Military Strategy for Cyberspace, and National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace, are not the correct answers as they specifically focus on military aspects rather than providing a comprehensive strategy for securing cyberspace.

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58. The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to 

Explanation

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools that enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to maximize the use and benefits of information within an organization, allowing users to leverage it for various purposes such as decision-making, problem-solving, and innovation. By exploiting information, organizations can gain insights, identify opportunities, and make informed decisions, ultimately leading to improved performance and competitiveness.

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59. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server? 

Explanation

There are three workflow capabilities available on a SharePoint Server.

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60. How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there? 

Explanation

There are two different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI).

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61. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws? 

Explanation

Air Force Instructions (AFIs) are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions serve as a reference for Air Force personnel to ensure compliance with established policies and procedures. They provide detailed guidance on a wide range of topics, including operations, personnel management, logistics, and safety. AFIs are an important tool for standardizing practices and ensuring consistency across the Air Force.

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62. What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

Explanation

The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on the military's role in cyberspace and provides guidance on how to achieve and maintain superiority in this domain. It addresses the unique challenges and threats in cyberspace and provides a framework for the military to effectively operate and defend its networks and systems.

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63. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority? 

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a policy that prioritizes the prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. It is a strategic plan that aims to protect the country's cyberspace and ensure the security of its critical infrastructure from cyber threats. This policy recognizes the importance of safeguarding critical infrastructure and takes proactive measures to prevent cyber attacks, making it the correct answer.

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64. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record? 

Explanation

The Chief of the Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the organization, including the appointment of custodians who are responsible for the day-to-day handling and storage of records. The Chief of the Office of Records is the highest-ranking official in charge of records management and has the ultimate authority to make decisions regarding the appointment of custodians.

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65. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

Explanation

An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage. This means that it serves as a centralized hub for these services, allowing multiple users or organizations within a specific area to access and utilize them. The other options, such as Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Network Operations Security Center (NOSC), do not specifically refer to regional computing and data centers that provide these services.

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66. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units? 

Explanation

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD) is the correct answer because it is the publication that prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization, and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units. This publication provides guidance and direction for these entities to carry out their assigned missions and responsibilities within the Air Force.

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67. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).

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68. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF). The Air Force uses the AEF methodology to present forces to combatant commanders. This methodology involves organizing and deploying Air Force assets, including personnel and equipment, in a structured and rotational manner. The AEF ensures that the Air Force can provide the necessary capabilities and support to combatant commanders when and where they are needed.

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69. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training? 

Explanation

The duties of a base records manager include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training. This role is responsible for managing and organizing records within a specific military base or facility. They work closely with other personnel to ensure that records are properly maintained and accessible when needed. The base records manager is an important position that plays a crucial role in the efficient operation of the base's records management system.

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70. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System. This system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. It is designed to provide effective command and control capabilities in cyberspace, allowing the Air Force to maintain control over its cyber assets and ensure the security and availability of its networks.

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71. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system? 

Explanation

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72. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)? 

Explanation

The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the career development and training within their specific major command, so they have the knowledge and resources to identify suitable SMEs for these purposes. The Unit training manager (UTM) is responsible for managing and coordinating training within a specific unit, while the Base functional manager (BFM) oversees training at the base level. The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is responsible for managing career development and training at the career field level.

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73. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers? 

Explanation

The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role ensures that these managers are properly trained and equipped to handle their duties and responsibilities effectively. The command records manager is specifically tasked with overseeing the training and development of base records managers within their command or organization.

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74. What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. These components work together to provide cybersecurity and control capabilities for the Air Force in cyberspace.

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75. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management? 

Explanation

A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and organizing records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with records management policies and procedures. They play a crucial role in maintaining accurate and accessible records, which are essential for effective decision-making and accountability within the organization.

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76. What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC)? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC).

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77. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities? 

Explanation

Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM) are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities. These memorandums serve as a means of communicating policy changes or updates to the Air Force personnel and provide guidance on how to implement those policies.

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