3DX5X Vol 1 UREs
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Records that are considered to be in draft format
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Can be altered and are not officially released.
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Can’t be altered, but are officially released.
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Can’t be altered and are officially signed.
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Officially signed and officially released.
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This quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force Specialty responsibilities, focusing on deployment, maintenance, and management of communication systems. It covers roles such as Radio Frequency Transmission and Cable Systems, essential for professionals in the 3DX5X Air Force Specialty Code.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
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Spectrum Operations.
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Ground Radar Systems.
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Cable and Antenna Systems
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Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
A. Radio Frequency Transmission.Explanation
The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This specialty is responsible for the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with various communication systems and ensure the smooth transmission of radio frequency signals.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
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Spectrum Operations.
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Ground Radar Systems.
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Cable and Antenna Systems.
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Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
A. Cable and Antenna Systems.Explanation
The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations is Cable and Antenna Systems. This AFS is specifically focused on the management and upkeep of the physical infrastructure required for network connectivity, including the installation and maintenance of cables and antennas. Spectrum Operations, Ground Radar Systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission do not directly involve network wiring installation and maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
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Title 3.
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Title 8.
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Title 10.
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Title 18.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is the primary legal authority for the organization and conduct of the United States military, and it includes provisions for military justice. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the behavior and discipline of members of the military, and it outlines the legal rights and responsibilities of service members.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?
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A rewriting of the main point.
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A well-written summary.
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A postscript message.
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None of the above.
Correct Answer
A. A well-written summary.Explanation
A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to condense the main ideas and key points of the message into a concise and clear summary. By doing so, it demonstrates your comprehension of the message and your skill in effectively communicating its main purpose.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?
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Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
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Office Automation System (OAS).
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Decision Support System (DSS).
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Training Business Area (TBA).
Correct Answer
A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).Explanation
The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that specifically manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is designed to streamline and automate the process of distributing and printing technical orders, ensuring that the correct information is available to the relevant personnel in a timely manner. OAS, DSS, and TBA are not specifically designed for this purpose, making ETIMS the most suitable option.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
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Trend analysis.
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Quality System.
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Quality Assessments.
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Managerial Assessments.
Correct Answer
A. Trend analysis.Explanation
Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns and trends in data over time, allowing organizations to make informed decisions and improvements to their quality assurance processes. Quality System, Quality Assessments, and Managerial Assessments may be related to quality assurance but do not specifically involve the collection, compilation, analysis, and recording of data like trend analysis does.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
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Management Inspection (MI).
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Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
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Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).
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Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).
Correct Answer
A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).Explanation
The correct answer is Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI). This inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. The UEI evaluates the overall effectiveness of a unit by assessing its ability to meet mission requirements, comply with regulations, and maintain readiness. It is a comprehensive inspection that provides a holistic view of a unit's performance and effectiveness. The other options, Management Inspection (MI), Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI), and Commander's Inspection Program (CCIP), do not specifically integrate compliance, readiness, and new inspection elements like the UEI does.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
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Title 10.
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Title 30.
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Title 50.
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Title 52.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
When Air National Guard personnel train for cyber operations in Title 32 status, they must be in Title 10 status to execute those missions. Title 10 status refers to the federal active duty status, which allows them to carry out the cyber operations effectively.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
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Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force.
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Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.
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Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force.
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Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.Explanation
Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
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Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
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Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
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National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).
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Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency within the Department of Defense (DoD) that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They are responsible for managing and securing the DoD's information systems and networks, including the GIG, which is a globally interconnected set of information capabilities, processes, and personnel. DISA's role in identifying, prioritizing, and remediating critical GIG infrastructure ensures the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of information for military operations.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
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Manpower.
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Efficiency.
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Reduce costs.
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Department of Defense 8570 mandate.
Correct Answer
A. Efficiency.Explanation
The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce redundancies, and improve communication and coordination. This consolidation allows for better resource allocation and more effective management of network services, ultimately leading to increased efficiency in providing support and resolving issues.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
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Modify local training.
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Allocate manpower.
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Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
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Assist the unit training manager in course development.
Correct Answer
A. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).Explanation
Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks within a particular field. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC) that provides specialized training and knowledge for individuals in that occupation. Therefore, developing a CDC is another use for occupational surveys, as it helps to enhance the career development and training opportunities for individuals in a specific job role.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
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Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
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Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
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On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.
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Occupational Analysis Program.
Correct Answer
A. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.Explanation
The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while actually performing their job duties, under the guidance and supervision of experienced professionals. It is a hands-on approach to training that helps individuals gain practical experience and become proficient in their specific field.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
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Remedy.
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Training Business Area.
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Telephone Management System.
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Integrated Maintenance Data System.
Correct Answer
A. Remedy.Explanation
Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. Remedy is a popular IT service management tool that helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. It provides features such as asset discovery, procurement management, change management, and retirement planning, allowing organizations to effectively manage and optimize their IT assets throughout their lifecycle.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
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Title 10.
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Title 18.
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Title 32.
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Title 50.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
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Counterintelligence (CI).
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Operation Security (OPSEC).
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Military deception (MILDEC).
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Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
Correct Answer
A. Military deception (MILDEC).Explanation
MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by deliberately presenting false information or creating a false perception. It involves actions, devices, or displays intended to deceive adversaries, causing them to make incorrect decisions or take actions that are not in their best interest. Since MISO and PA share a common audience, their activities are focused on informing and influencing that audience, rather than misleading them. Counterintelligence (CI) aims to identify and counteract enemy intelligence operations, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) aims to gather information about the enemy. These activities do not involve deliberate deception.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
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Published doctrines.
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Geographical base maps.
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Photographs of a retreat ceremony.
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Library reference or museum exhibitions.
Correct Answer
A. Library reference or museum exhibitions.Explanation
Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not typically created or maintained by government agencies for the purpose of documenting official activities or decisions. While they may contain valuable information, they are not official records in the same way that published doctrines, geographical base maps, or photographs of a retreat ceremony would be.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
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Coding.
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Positioning.
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Tempo bands.
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Unit type code.
Correct Answer
A. Unit type code.Explanation
Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes provide standardized identification and classification of military units, allowing for efficient organization and coordination of forces. These codes help in determining the capabilities, composition, and required resources for different units, enabling effective planning and deployment strategies.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
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Unit training manager (UTM).
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Base functional manager (BFM).
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Major command functional manager (MFM).
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Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in the career field, ensuring that they have the resources and information necessary to succeed in their careers. The AFCFM is knowledgeable about the specific needs and challenges of the career field and can provide valuable insight and assistance to individuals seeking guidance or advice. They play a crucial role in shaping the career paths and development of individuals in the career field.Rate this question:
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- 21.
An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
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Misuse of position.
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Covered relationships.
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Non-public information.
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Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
A. Covered relationships.Explanation
The correct answer is "covered relationships." This term refers to an employee or employer relationship that may create a conflict of interest or bias. It implies a situation where there is a personal connection or close association between individuals involved in a professional setting, which can lead to favoritism or impartiality. This unethical situation can compromise the fairness and integrity of decision-making processes within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
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Misuse of position.
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Covered relationship.
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Personal conflict of interest.
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None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.
Correct Answer
A. Covered relationship.Explanation
A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a personal relationship with someone that could potentially influence their professional judgment or decision-making. In this case, members of a household or close relatives fall under this category as their personal relationship can create bias or conflicts of interest, leading to unethical behavior or decisions.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.
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Active and reactive.
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Evasive and decisive.
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Subversive and divisive.
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Offensive and defensive.
Correct Answer
A. Active and reactive.Explanation
Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to detect and respond to an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to identify and neutralize threats, such as deploying intrusion detection systems or conducting vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense, on the other hand, involves responding to an ongoing attack or intrusion, such as isolating compromised systems, patching vulnerabilities, or conducting incident response activities. These two defenses work together to actively counter and react to cyber threats.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
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Conduct climate training surveys.
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Develop Career Development Courses.
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Review the occupational analysis report.
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Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
Correct Answer
A. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).Explanation
The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive plan for education and training within a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary training courses, certifications, and career development opportunities for individuals in that field. By establishing a CFETP, organizations can ensure that their workforce is properly trained and equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to succeed in their careers.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
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Technical Evaluation.
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Personnel Evaluation.
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Managerial Evaluation.
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Standard Evaluation.
Correct Answer
A. Standard Evaluation.Explanation
The question asks for an evaluation type that is NOT included in a Quality Assurance (QA) program. The options provided include Technical Evaluation, Personnel Evaluation, Managerial Evaluation, and Standard Evaluation. Based on the context, it can be inferred that Technical Evaluation, Personnel Evaluation, and Managerial Evaluation are all assessment types that can be included in a QA program. Therefore, the correct answer is Standard Evaluation, as it is the only option that is not mentioned as an assessment type in a QA program.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
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Subordinate unified command and geographical command.
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Unified command and subordinate unified command.
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Functional command and geographical command.
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Unified command and functional command.
Correct Answer
A. Unified command and subordinate unified command.Explanation
Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall coordination and direction of military operations, while the subordinate unified command level focuses on specific operational tasks within a designated area. This division ensures effective command and control in complex military operations involving multiple units and agencies.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
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Article 32.
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Article 40.
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Article 92.
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Article 100.
Correct Answer
A. Article 92.Explanation
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 specifically addresses the failure to obey orders or regulations, and in this case, the failure to comply with the provisions outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would fall under this category. This violation can result in disciplinary action and punishment for the military personnel involved.Rate this question:
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- 28.
How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
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Two.
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Four.
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Six.
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Eight.
Correct Answer
A. Six.Explanation
There are six rules for effective communication via email. The question is asking about the number of rules, and the correct answer is six.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
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Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.
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Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
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Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.
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Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
Correct Answer
A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.Explanation
The correct answer is Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in cyberspace and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk posed by these vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. It helps in identifying potential weaknesses in the network and allows for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate the risk of cyber attacks.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
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644th Combat Communication Squadron.
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85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
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83th Network Operations Squadron.
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4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.
Correct Answer
A. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.Explanation
The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron installs, reconstitutes, and tests critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?
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The President.
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The Chief of Staff.
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The Vice President.
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The Deputy Secretary.
Correct Answer
A. The Deputy Secretary.Explanation
The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. This position is responsible for assisting the Secretary of Defense in managing the department and overseeing its operations. While the President is the ultimate authority in the Department of Defense, the Deputy Secretary holds the second-highest position within the department's hierarchy. The Chief of Staff and the Vice President do not hold positions within the Department of Defense.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?
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DODD 8140.01.
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DODD 5515.01.
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DODD 8220.01.
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DODD 8570.01.
Correct Answer
A. DODD 8570.01.Explanation
DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems must receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive outlines the requirements for IA training and certification for DOD personnel, ensuring that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to protect DOD information systems and networks.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?
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Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
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Resources required to manage and use TOs.
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Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.
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Training to manage and use TOs.
Correct Answer
A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.Explanation
The question asks which option does not describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1. The correct answer is "Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures." This means that the information outlined in TO 00-5-1 does not include procedures related to Time Compliance Technical Orders.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
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Unit training manager (UTM).
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Base functional manager (BFM).
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Major command functional manager (MFM).
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Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
A. Major command functional manager (MFM).Explanation
The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM in discussions and decisions related to utilization and training within the career field. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the MAJCOM's perspective is considered and represented during these workshops.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
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Quality Assessments.
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Quality Assurance.
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Quality System.
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Trend Analysis.
Correct Answer
A. Quality Assurance.Explanation
Quality Assurance is not an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program because Quality Assurance is the overall process of ensuring that the desired level of quality is achieved in a product or service. It includes activities such as quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. However, in a QA program, other elements such as quality assessments, quality system, and trend analysis are essential components that help to assess, maintain, and improve the quality of the product or service.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
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2009.
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2010.
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2011.
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2012.
Correct Answer
A. 2010.Explanation
In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
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Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).
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Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).
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Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).
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Joint Force Commander (JFC).
Correct Answer
A. Joint Force Commander (JFC).Explanation
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for leading and coordinating air and space operations within a joint force, working closely with other military branches and agencies. The JFC is the overall commander of a joint force, responsible for integrating and synchronizing all military capabilities to achieve the mission objectives. Therefore, the JFC is the correct answer as it represents the highest level of command in a joint force operation.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
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Continual Service Improvement.
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Service Transition.
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Service Strategy.
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Service Design.
Correct Answer
A. Continual Service Improvement.Explanation
Continual Service Improvement is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and improving service quality. This stage involves analyzing service performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to enhance the overall service delivery. It aims to ensure that the IT services provided align with business goals and meet customer expectations. Continual Service Improvement is an ongoing process that helps organizations adapt and evolve their IT services to meet changing needs and technologies.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?
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JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.
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JP 5–0, Joint Communications System.
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JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning.
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6–0, Joint Operations Series.
Correct Answer
A. JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.Explanation
JP 6-0, Joint Communications System, is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. This publication provides guidance and doctrine for the planning, execution, and assessment of joint communications systems. It outlines the principles, procedures, and capabilities necessary for effective communication in joint operations. This document serves as a foundation for the development and implementation of communication systems and ensures interoperability and coordination among different military services and agencies.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?
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Library custodian.
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Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
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Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
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Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC).
Correct Answer
A. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).Explanation
The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that technical orders are properly distributed to the appropriate personnel and departments, and they also manage the inventory and maintenance of technical order documents. The TODO plays a crucial role in ensuring that technical information is readily available and accessible to those who need it within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
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Core task.
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Duty competency.
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Core competency.
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Duty position task.
Correct Answer
A. Duty position task.Explanation
According to AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program, the supervisor is responsible for assigning the duty position task as part of the enlisted training element. This means that the supervisor determines the specific tasks and responsibilities that are associated with a particular duty position, ensuring that individuals are trained and competent in carrying out their assigned duties.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?
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Directive.
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Non-directive.
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Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM).
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Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).
Correct Answer
A. Non-directive.Explanation
Non-directive publications in the Air Force are informational and suggest guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. These publications provide general information and recommendations without specific instructions or requirements. They allow flexibility and adaptation based on individual situations and needs. Examples of non-directive publications include manuals, handbooks, and guides.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?
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Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
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Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
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Library custodian.
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Any user.
Correct Answer
A. Any user.Explanation
Any user may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data. This means that as long as a user has the necessary training and authorization, they have the ability to make updates to the technical order. The other options, such as the Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA), Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO), and Library custodian, do not have the same level of access and authority as any user.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
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Unit training manager (UTM).
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Base functional manager (BFM)
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Major command functional manager (MFM).
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Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from certain training requirements based on their specific circumstances or qualifications. The AFCFM's decision is binding and overrides any previous decisions made by the unit training manager (UTM), base functional manager (BFM), or major command functional manager (MFM).Rate this question:
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- 45.
What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
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Unit training manager (UTM).
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Base functional manager (BFM).
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Major command functional manager (MFM).
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Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
A. Base functional manager (BFM).Explanation
The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base functional manager (BFM).Rate this question:
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- 46.
What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?
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AF Doctrine.
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AF Handbook (AFH).
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AF Pamphlet (AFPAM).
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AF Visual Aid (AFVA).
Correct Answer
A. AF Handbook (AFH).Explanation
AF Handbook (AFH) is a type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication that is not subject to frequent change. This type of publication is designed to provide comprehensive guidance and information on a specific subject matter within the AF. Unlike other types of AF publications such as AF Doctrine, AF Pamphlet, and AF Visual Aid, which may need to be updated more frequently to reflect changes in policies, procedures, or technologies, AF Handbooks are intended to be more stable and enduring, providing a reliable source of information over a longer period of time.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with “31” and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?
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Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).
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Operation and Maintenance TO.
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Methods and Procedures TO.
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General TO.
Correct Answer
A. Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).Explanation
The correct answer is Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
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Defense Standardization Program (DSP).
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Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
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Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
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Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Correct Answer
A. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).Explanation
The correct answer is the Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). They develop standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
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Strategic Considerations.
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Military Strategic Framework.
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Implementation and Assessment.
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Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.
Correct Answer
A. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.Explanation
The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides the strategic direction and priorities for the Department of Defense in various areas, including cyberspace security. It outlines the goals, objectives, and strategies that need to be followed in order to secure cyberspace effectively.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 29, 2017Quiz Created by
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