CDC 3DX5X Vol 2 UREs: Networking And Security Sample Test

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1. What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

Explanation

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that a network can have a combination of bus, ring, star, or other topologies. The advantage of a hybrid topology is that it can provide flexibility and scalability, allowing for the customization of the network to meet specific needs. It can also provide redundancy and fault tolerance, as multiple topologies can be used to ensure network connectivity even if one part of the network fails.

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CDC 3DX5X Vol 2 UREs: Networking And Security Sample Test - Quiz

This sample test from CDC 3DX5X Vol 2 focuses on networking and security, assessing knowledge on OSI model layers, device functions, and data handling techniques. It's designed for... see morelearners aiming to enhance their understanding of network infrastructure and security protocols. see less

2. The classification of a fill device is

Explanation

When a fill device is loaded with a key, it becomes classified. The classification of the fill device is determined by the classification of the loaded key. This means that if a fill device is loaded with a key that is classified as SECRET, the fill device will also be classified as SECRET. The classification of the fill device remains the same until the key is unloaded. Once the key is unloaded, the fill device is no longer classified. Therefore, the correct answer is that a fill device is classified as soon as a key is loaded, and holds the classification of the loaded key.

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3. At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?

Explanation

Routers operate at the Network layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Network layer is responsible for routing data packets across different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding packets from one network to another. They examine the destination IP address of a packet and make decisions based on routing tables to ensure efficient and accurate delivery of data. Therefore, routers play a crucial role in network communication by connecting multiple networks and facilitating the transfer of data between them.

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4. The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called

Explanation

The correct answer is "mobility" because wireless technology allows devices to move freely without the need for physical connections or wires. This enables users to access and use technology while on the go, providing them with the freedom to move around without being restricted by cables.

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5. What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical,procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?

Explanation

The Physical layer of the OSI model is responsible for defining the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems. This layer deals with the physical transmission of data, including the physical media, connectors, and signaling. It ensures that the bits sent over the network are properly encoded, transmitted, and received.

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6. What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchangeinformation over a network medium? 

Explanation

A protocol is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium. It defines the format, timing, sequencing, and error control of data transmission. Protocols ensure that communication between devices is reliable, efficient, and standardized. They define the roles and responsibilities of both the sender and receiver, ensuring that data is transmitted and received correctly.

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7. What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted,throughout the network?

Explanation

Logical topology refers to the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network based on logical connections. It defines the flow of data and the paths it takes, regardless of the physical layout of the network. This includes protocols, addressing schemes, and the logical relationships between devices. Unlike physical topology, which focuses on the physical arrangement of devices and cables, logical topology deals with the abstract representation of the network's structure. Therefore, logical topology is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the communication and data transmission aspect of network design.

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8. Which of the following is not one the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?

Explanation

Direct Connections is not one of the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network. Rogue Access Points, War Drivers, and Hackers are all considered security threats to WLAN. Rogue Access Points refer to unauthorized access points that are set up by individuals without permission, which can lead to unauthorized access to the network. War Drivers are individuals who drive around looking for vulnerable wireless networks to exploit. Hackers are individuals who attempt to gain unauthorized access to a network for malicious purposes. However, Direct Connections do not pose a specific security threat to WLAN as they are typically used for legitimate purposes such as connecting devices directly to a router or modem.

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9. Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern theflow of information?

Explanation

The Department of Defense has chosen the Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) as its standard network protocol to govern the flow of information. TCP/IP is a set of protocols that allows for the reliable transmission of data over networks, including the internet. It is widely used and provides a standardized method for communication between devices and networks, making it an ideal choice for the Department of Defense to ensure interoperability and security in their information flow.

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10. Using a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?

Explanation

An IPv4 address with a first octet in the range of 1-126 belongs to Class A. Class A addresses are used for large networks, as they have a very large number of available IP addresses. The first octet in a Class A address represents the network portion of the address, while the remaining three octets represent the host portion.

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11. What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?

Explanation

Bus topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable. In this topology, all devices are connected to a single cable called the bus. Each device on the network listens to the bus to determine if the transmitted data is intended for it. If a device wants to transmit data, it sends the data onto the bus, and all devices on the network receive the data. This type of topology is simple to install and cost-effective, but if the main cable fails, the entire network can be affected.

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12. What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security,speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks?

Explanation

The Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks. These standards ensure that wireless networks are reliable, efficient, and interoperable. The IEEE is a renowned organization in the field of electrical engineering and is responsible for developing various technical standards across different industries, including wireless communication.

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13. What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?

Explanation

The IPv4 reserved address used for loop back is 127.0.0.1. This address is commonly known as the loopback address and is used to test network connectivity on a local machine. When a packet is sent to this address, it is looped back to the same machine without being sent over the network. This allows for testing and troubleshooting network applications without the need for an actual network connection.

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14. What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component? 

Explanation

A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, usually a switch or hub. In this topology, all communication between the computers is routed through this central component, which helps to manage and control the flow of data. This arrangement provides a high level of reliability, as if one computer or cable segment fails, it does not affect the rest of the network. Additionally, it allows for easy scalability, as new computers can be added to the network simply by connecting them to the central component.

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15. What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?

Explanation

Store-and-forward is the method where the entire frame is received and stored in the buffer before any further processing. An error check is then performed to ensure the integrity of the frame. Once the frame is error-free, it is sent to the appropriate port for delivery. This method ensures that only error-free frames are forwarded, reducing the chances of transmitting corrupt data.

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16. What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?

Explanation

Nonvolatile memory is the type of memory that retains data even after power is removed or lost. Unlike volatile memory, which requires a constant power supply to maintain data, nonvolatile memory can retain information even when power is not available. This type of memory is commonly used in devices like solid-state drives (SSDs), flash drives, and ROM (Read-Only Memory) chips. It allows for long-term storage of data without the risk of losing it due to power failure or shutdown.

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17. Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications

Explanation

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a cost-effective and widely used transmission medium for telephone systems. It consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together, which helps to reduce electromagnetic interference. The twisted pair cable is capable of transmitting voice signals over long distances without significant loss or degradation of quality. It is also easy to install and maintain, making it a popular choice for landline telephone networks.

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18. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP   address for a device that knows its own MAC address ?

Explanation

The Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) is used to obtain an IP address when the device already knows its own MAC address. RARP allows a device to send a broadcast request on the network, asking for its IP address to be assigned based on its MAC address. This is useful in situations where a device does not have a configured IP address and needs to obtain one dynamically.

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19. Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks ?

Explanation

Applications are software programs that are designed to perform specific tasks. Unlike general software programs, which have a wide range of functionalities, applications are focused on performing a particular function or set of functions. They are tailored to meet the specific needs of users and are typically designed to be user-friendly and intuitive. Whether it is a word processing application, a photo editing application, or a financial management application, each application is built with a specific purpose in mind, making it a specific task-oriented software program.

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20. What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses?

Explanation

The Air Force uses Norton and McAfee as their two anti-virus programs. These programs are commonly used in various organizations and are known for their effectiveness in detecting and preventing malware and other security threats. By utilizing both Norton and McAfee, the Air Force can enhance their cybersecurity measures and ensure the protection of their systems and networks from potential attacks.

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21. What Open System Interconnect layer is closest to the end user?

Explanation

The Open System Interconnect (OSI) model is a conceptual framework that standardizes the functions of a communication system into seven different layers. The layer closest to the end user is the Application layer. This layer provides services directly to the user, such as email, web browsing, and file transfer. It interacts with software applications and ensures that the user's requests are properly communicated to the underlying layers of the OSI model for further processing and transmission.

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22. What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world? 

Explanation

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a type of network that connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN) that connects devices within a limited area like a home or office, a WAN enables communication over larger distances. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure connection that allows users to access a private network over a public network like the internet. A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) connects networks within a specific metropolitan area.

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23. What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?

Explanation

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a type of network that uses tunneling and security protocols to allow a group of computer systems to communicate over the public Internet. It creates a secure and encrypted connection between these systems, ensuring that the data transmitted over the network is protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by businesses and individuals to establish secure connections over public networks, such as the Internet, allowing remote access to resources and ensuring the privacy and security of communication.

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24. Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol servers and proxies?

Explanation

Port 8080 is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies. While Port 80 is the default port for HTTP, Port 8080 is often used as an alternative port for HTTP servers and proxies. It allows for additional flexibility and can be used to run multiple web servers on the same machine. This port is commonly used for testing and development purposes as well.

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25. What concerns slowed the military's adoption of wireless network technology?

Explanation

The military's adoption of wireless network technology was slowed due to concerns regarding both security and reliability. Security was a major concern as the military needed to ensure that their wireless networks were secure from unauthorized access and potential cyber attacks. Reliability was also a concern as the military needed to ensure that the wireless networks would consistently provide a stable and uninterrupted connection, especially in critical situations. These concerns led to a cautious approach towards adopting wireless network technology in the military.

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26. What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?

Explanation

UNIX was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems. It was designed to be portable and compatible with different hardware architectures, allowing it to be used on various computer systems. UNIX revolutionized the operating system landscape by introducing a multi-user and multitasking environment, providing a powerful and flexible platform for software development and system administration. Its open-source nature and widespread adoption have made UNIX a foundational operating system in the computing industry.

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27. What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition?

Explanation

The directory that is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition is the root directory. The root directory is the top-level directory in a file system hierarchy and serves as the starting point for navigating the file system. It contains all other directories and files in the system.

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28. Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?

Explanation

INFOCON 2 is the condition that permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication. This level indicates an increased risk of attacks or vulnerabilities, and as a result, non-essential networks can be shut down to mitigate potential threats. This allows for a more secure environment and ensures that critical networks remain operational.

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29. What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?

Explanation

The AN/CYZ-10 /DTD encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys.

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30. An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC

Explanation

An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC incident.

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31. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Logical Link Control and Media Access Control. The Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer handles the flow control and error checking of data packets, ensuring reliable transmission. The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer manages the access to the physical media, such as Ethernet or Wi-Fi, and handles issues like collision detection and media arbitration. These two sublayers work together to provide a reliable and efficient data link between network devices.

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32. The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer's motherboard goes through a special program called a

Explanation

A driver is a special program that acts as a bridge between the operating system and hardware devices that are not located on the computer's motherboard. It allows the operating system to communicate and interact with these external hardware devices, enabling them to function properly. Without a driver, the operating system would not be able to control or access the hardware, making it essential for the proper functioning of the computer system.

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33. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting? 

Explanation

The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a network layer protocol that provides messaging capabilities to assist with troubleshooting. ICMP messages are used to report errors, provide diagnostic information, and test network connectivity. It is commonly used by network administrators and tools such as ping and traceroute to identify and resolve network issues.

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34. At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?

Explanation

Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent network nodes and ensures error-free transmission over the physical network. Switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN) or between different LANs. They operate by examining the MAC address of incoming packets and forwarding them to the appropriate destination based on the MAC address table.

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35. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

Explanation

The correct answer is Transmission Control Protocol. TCP is a transport layer protocol that provides reliable data delivery services. It ensures that data packets are delivered in the correct order and without errors by using acknowledgments, retransmissions, and flow control mechanisms. TCP also provides congestion control to prevent network congestion and ensure efficient data transmission.

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36. What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination? 

Explanation

Routing algorithms initialize and maintain routing tables to aid the process of path determination. Routing tables contain information about the network topology, including the available routes, their associated costs, and next-hop addresses. By regularly updating and maintaining these tables, routing algorithms can make informed decisions about the best path to forward packets through the network. Routing tables help routers determine the shortest or most efficient routes to reach a destination, ensuring that data packets are delivered accurately and efficiently.

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37. Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?

Explanation

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP). BGP is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) on the internet. It is responsible for determining the best path for data packets to travel across different networks. BGP is widely used by internet service providers (ISPs) to establish and maintain routing tables, ensuring efficient and reliable data transmission between different networks. Therefore, BGP fits the criteria of an Exterior Gateway Protocol, making it the correct answer in this context.

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38. What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "10AB::3:0:1234:5678". This notation represents zero compression for IPv6. In IPv6, consecutive blocks of zeros can be compressed by using double colons "::". This allows for a more concise representation of the IPv6 address. In the given answer, "::" is used to represent the consecutive blocks of zeros between "10AB" and "3", and between "3" and "1234:5678".

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39. Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

Explanation

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It analyzes the network topology, traffic conditions, and other factors to determine the most efficient route for data transmission. By dynamically adjusting the routing tables, dynamic routing protocols ensure that data is sent through the optimal path, improving network efficiency and reliability.

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40. What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Physical." The physical topology refers to the physical arrangement of devices and media in a network. It defines how the devices are connected and the layout of the cables and other physical components. This includes the placement of routers, switches, servers, and other network devices, as well as the type of cables used to connect them. The physical topology is important for determining the overall structure and organization of a network.

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41. Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services?

Explanation

Enterprise Edition is the correct answer because it provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services. These features are specifically designed to manage system resources and directory services in a large-scale enterprise environment. AERO, Standard Edition, and Datacenter Edition do not provide the same level of support for these features.

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42. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

Explanation

An IPv4 address is a 32-bit address, which means it consists of 32 binary digits or bits. This allows for a total of 2^32 or approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses. Each bit can be either a 0 or a 1, allowing for a wide range of possible combinations and therefore a large number of unique addresses.

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43. The main function of the Data Service Unit is to

Explanation

The Data Service Unit (DSU) is responsible for adapting the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment. This means that the DSU converts the digital data into a format that can be understood and transmitted by the telephone carrier equipment. It ensures compatibility between the customer's equipment and the carrier's equipment, allowing for seamless communication between the two.

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44. Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?

Explanation

An employee is an authorized client who may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network. As an authorized user, an employee has access to sensitive information and can potentially misuse their privileges to compromise the network security. They may unknowingly fall victim to social engineering tactics or intentionally collaborate with external parties to breach the network defenses. Therefore, it is crucial for organizations to implement strong security measures, employee training, and monitoring systems to prevent such unauthorized activities and protect the network from potential threats.

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45. What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

Explanation

Class C IPv4 addresses are used for networks with about 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a range of 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255, and they provide a maximum of 254 usable host addresses per network. This makes them suitable for small to medium-sized networks, such as small businesses or home networks. Class D addresses are used for multicast addresses, Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F addresses are reserved for future use.

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46. What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D is the correct answer because it is the IPv4 class address used for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a single packet to be sent to multiple destinations simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, and they are reserved for multicast groups. These addresses are used for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and audio conferencing, where data needs to be sent to multiple recipients at the same time.

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47. When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?

Explanation

When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, INFOCON 3 requires all unclassified dial-up connections to be disconnected. INFOCON is a term used by the military to indicate the current level of information security threat. INFOCON 3 signifies an increased risk level, indicating that there is a significant threat to the network system. Disconnecting unclassified dial-up connections helps to mitigate the risk by reducing potential points of entry for attackers.

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48. What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?

Explanation

A subnet mask is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number. It is used to determine which part of the IP address represents the network and which part represents the host. By applying the subnet mask to the IP address, the device can determine the network address and perform routing and communication within the network.

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49. While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets yo uknow that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?

Explanation

The liquid crystal display (LCD) is a feature that lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security while using the Red Switch. The LCD provides a visual representation of the dialed number and ensures that the correct number has been entered. It is a reliable and efficient way to confirm the accuracy of the dialed number and the level of security being accessed.

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50. What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits? 

Explanation

The TSEC/KIV-19 encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is capable of encrypting trunk-level high-speed circuits.

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51.  This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another

Explanation

A translational bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another. This means that it can receive data using one protocol and then convert it into a different protocol before transmitting it to the destination. This type of bridge is commonly used in networks where different devices or systems use different protocols, allowing them to communicate with each other seamlessly.

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52. The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit, also called the

Explanation

The correct answer is microprocessor. The microprocessor is the computing part of the computer that performs all the necessary calculations and logical operations. It is responsible for executing instructions, managing data, and controlling the overall operation of the computer system. The control unit, arithmetic logic unit, and minicomputer are all components of a computer system, but the microprocessor specifically refers to the integrated circuit that contains the CPU.

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53. An optical communications system is comprised of a

Explanation

An optical communications system requires a transmitter to convert electrical signals into optical signals, a cable or transmission medium to carry the optical signals, and a receiver to convert the optical signals back into electrical signals. The logic analyzer and protocol analyzer mentioned in the other options are not essential components of an optical communications system.

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54. Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are expressed in the colon hexadecimal format to make them more user-friendly. In this format, the address is divided into eight groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by colons. This format allows for a larger address space compared to IPv4 and is easier for users to read and remember. Additionally, it eliminates the need for long strings of zeros, as consecutive zeros within a group can be replaced with a double colon (::). This simplifies the representation of IPv6 addresses and makes them more manageable for users.

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55. How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?

Explanation

Non-internet protocols are sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET) by being encapsulated by the internet protocol before transmission. This means that the non-internet protocols are wrapped or packaged within the internet protocol, allowing them to be transmitted across the SIPRNET. This encapsulation process ensures that the non-internet protocols can be properly transmitted and understood within the SIPRNET environment.

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56. Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?

Explanation

Wireless technology offers several advantages, including ease of installation, lower cost, and mobility. However, safety is not one of these advantages. While wireless technology can provide convenience and flexibility, it also comes with certain risks, such as potential interference, security vulnerabilities, and health concerns related to electromagnetic radiation. Therefore, safety cannot be considered as one of the advantages of using wireless technology.

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57. What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?

Explanation

Fragment-free forwarding method, also known as runtless switching, is a type of forwarding method used in networking. It is a compromise between store-and-forward and cut-through methods. In fragment-free forwarding, the switch waits to receive the first 64 bytes of a frame before forwarding it. This ensures that most collision fragments, which are typically smaller in size, are detected and discarded, reducing the chances of forwarding corrupted or incomplete frames. This method helps to improve network performance and reduce the possibility of transmitting errors.

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58. Analog modems are used over the voice band range of

Explanation

Analog modems are used over the voice band range of 20 Hz to 20 kHz. This range is commonly referred to as the audio frequency range and is the range of frequencies that can be heard by the human ear. Analog modems use these frequencies to transmit and receive data over telephone lines. Frequencies below 20 Hz are too low to carry data effectively, while frequencies above 20 kHz are typically filtered out by the telephone system. Therefore, the voice band range of 20 Hz to 20 kHz is the appropriate range for analog modems to operate within.

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59. Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

Explanation

IPv4 addresses are expressed in dotted decimal notation to make them more user-friendly. In this format, the address is divided into four parts, each representing a byte of the address, and separated by periods. Each byte is expressed in decimal form, ranging from 0 to 255. This format is easier for users to read and understand compared to binary or hexadecimal formats, which are more commonly used in computer systems.

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60. What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site?

Explanation

Site-local addresses are designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site. These addresses are used within a specific site or organization and are not meant to be globally unique. They provide a way for devices within the same site to communicate with each other without the need for global routing. Site-local addresses were deprecated in favor of Unique Local Addresses (ULA) in IPv6, but they were commonly used in IPv4 networks.

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61. What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?

Explanation

The TSEC/KIV-7 encryption device may rarely be seen due to its lower maximum data rate. This suggests that the TSEC/KIV-7 is not commonly used or preferred in situations where high data rates are required.

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62. What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?

Explanation

The default classful subnet mask for class B networks is 255.255.0.0. In classful networking, the IP address is divided into three parts: network, subnet, and host. Class B networks have a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0, which means that the first two octets are used for the network portion and the last two octets are used for the host portion. This allows for a maximum of 65,534 hosts on each network.

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63. What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and lightpolarizing property? 

Explanation

To change the alignment and light polarizing property of Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) material, voltage is applied. Voltage is used to control the orientation of the liquid crystal molecules, which affects the alignment and polarization of light passing through the LCD material. By applying different voltages, the liquid crystal molecules can be aligned in different directions, allowing control over the transmission or blocking of light, thus enabling the display of different colors and images on the LCD screen.

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64. An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

Explanation

A full accreditation is an accreditation decision that allows a system to operate in the environment it was originally intended for. This means that the system has met all the necessary requirements and standards to function effectively and safely in its designated environment. It signifies that the system has undergone a thorough evaluation and has been deemed capable of operating at its full potential.

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65. Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?

Explanation

OPSEC, or Operations Security, is the correct answer. OPSEC is a security program that involves identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions related to military operations and other activities. It aims to prevent potential adversaries from obtaining information that could be used against the organization or operation. EMSEC, COMSEC, and COMPUSEC are also security programs, but they focus on different aspects of security such as electronic security, communication security, and computer security, respectively.

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66. Software is generally divided into

Explanation

The correct answer is "systems software, operating systems software, and applications software". This answer is correct because it accurately identifies the three main categories of software. Systems software refers to software that manages and controls the computer hardware, such as operating systems and utility programs. Operating systems software specifically refers to the software that manages the computer's hardware and provides a platform for other software to run on. Applications software refers to software that is designed for specific tasks or applications, such as word processors or video editing programs.

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67. The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the

Explanation

The correct answer is "kernel". The kernel is responsible for managing the computer system's core operating system functions. It is the central component of the operating system that interacts with the hardware, manages memory and processes, and provides essential services to other software components. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and software, ensuring that the different parts of the system work together smoothly. It is the heart of the operating system and plays a crucial role in maintaining system stability and performance.

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68. What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

Explanation

The COMSEC program is designed to detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information. This means that the program aims to identify any vulnerabilities or flaws in the procedures related to the handling and protection of sensitive information, and take corrective measures to prevent any potential compromise of critical information. By doing so, the program helps to enhance the overall security and safeguard the confidentiality of important data.

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69. What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP?

Explanation

The correct answer is File Transfer Protocol (FTP). FTP is a standard network protocol used to transfer files from one host to another over a TCP-based network, such as the internet. It provides a simple and reliable way to send and receive files between computers. FTP uses a client-server architecture, where one computer acts as the server, hosting the files, and another computer acts as the client, requesting and downloading the files. FTP is widely used for uploading website files, downloading software updates, and sharing large files over the internet.

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70. Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?

Explanation

INFOCON 5 indicates the lowest level of threat to computer networks. In this condition, there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks. This means that there are no known or observed threats or attacks on computer networks by terrorists. It suggests a state of normalcy and minimal risk to the security and integrity of computer networks.

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71. What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?

Explanation

The maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is 19.2 Kbps. This means that the network can transmit data at a rate of 19.2 kilobits per second.

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72. Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

Explanation

When the condition INFOCON 4 is present, it indicates an increased risk of attack. Therefore, it requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities.

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73. Final reports of a communication security incident are due

Explanation

The correct answer is 30 days after the initial report is issued because issuing a report refers to the act of officially releasing or distributing it to the relevant parties. Therefore, the final reports of a communication security incident are expected to be completed and submitted within 30 days after the initial report is officially issued.

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74. What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment? 

Explanation

The 80/20 rule establishes that 80% of the data should be local to a segment, meaning it stays within the segment, while 20% of the data should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment. This rule helps in optimizing network traffic by keeping a majority of the data within the local segment and reducing the need for data to traverse between segments.

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75. The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code?

Explanation

The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within 1 microsecond of universal time code. This means that the GPS system ensures that the time displayed by GPS devices is accurate to within 1 microsecond compared to the universal time code. This level of precision is important for various applications that rely on accurate time synchronization, such as navigation, communication, and scientific research.

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76. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

Explanation

When the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts, the resources designated priority would be provided by option C.

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77. What two main components make up the central processing unit?

Explanation

The central processing unit (CPU) is composed of two main components: the control unit and the arithmetic logic unit (ALU). The control unit is responsible for managing and coordinating the operations of the CPU, including fetching instructions, decoding them, and executing them. The ALU, on the other hand, performs arithmetic and logical operations, such as addition, subtraction, and comparison. Together, these two components form the core of the CPU and are essential for carrying out the processing and execution of instructions in a computer system.

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78. Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?

Explanation

The responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network lies with the service that owns the installation. This means that the specific branch of the military that operates and maintains the installation is responsible for the upkeep and maintenance of the network.

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79. Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?

Explanation

A deployed warfighter refers to a person who is actively serving in a combat area or a deployed area of responsibility. This can include soldiers, sailors, airmen, or marines who are physically present in a war zone or actively engaged in military operations. This is in contrast to a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles away from combat, who would not be considered a deployed warfighter. Therefore, the correct answer is "Deployed warfighter".

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80. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?

Explanation

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is the correct answer because it is the network layer protocol that provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address. ARP is used to resolve the IP address to the corresponding MAC address so that data can be properly transmitted over the network.

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81. Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories

Explanation

The correct answer is "Troubleshoot interface" because it is not a category of the operating system's task categories. The operating system is responsible for managing tasks such as user interface, memory management, and processor management. However, troubleshooting is not a specific category of tasks performed by the operating system. It is a separate activity that involves identifying and resolving issues or problems that may arise in the system.

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82. What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?

Explanation

Routers operate at Layer 3 of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. Layer 3 is the network layer, responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding packets from the source to the destination network. They make decisions based on network layer protocols, such as Internet Protocol (IP), and can connect networks with different protocols. Therefore, routers play a crucial role in connecting and directing traffic between different networks in a network infrastructure.

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83. Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?

Explanation

A workgroup is a network model in which computers are connected together and users have their own individual accounts on their respective computers. In this model, there is no centralized user account management. Each computer maintains its own user accounts and permissions. This is different from a domain or active directory model, where there is a centralized server that manages user accounts and permissions for all computers in the network. User groups, on the other hand, are a feature within both workgroup and domain models that allow for easier management of permissions and access rights.

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84. What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment/

Explanation

Emanation best describes unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment. Emanation refers to the unintentional release of electromagnetic or acoustic signals from electronic devices, which can be intercepted and potentially exploited by attackers. These emanations can include radio frequency emissions, electromagnetic radiation, or sound waves that can be used to gather information or disrupt communications.

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85. An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

Explanation

The correct answer is "Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions". This term refers to the technical investigations conducted to protect electronic material from emitting spurious transmissions. It specifically focuses on the security of telecommunications and electronic equipment to prevent any compromising emanations.

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86. A modem is a device that modulates

Explanation

A modem is a device that takes digital data and converts it into analog signals to be transmitted over an analog medium. This allows the digital data to be transmitted over traditional telephone lines, which are analog in nature. The analog carrier refers to the continuous wave that carries the modulated digital data. By converting the digital data into analog signals, the modem enables communication between digital devices and analog networks.

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87. One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers. Which Operating system is it?

Explanation

Datacenter Edition is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to support high-end, high traffic application servers. This edition of Windows Server provides advanced features and scalability options that are necessary for handling large workloads and managing critical applications. It offers features like unlimited virtualization rights, high availability, and enhanced security measures, making it suitable for data centers and enterprise-level environments where the demand for resources and performance is high.

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88. How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once? 

Explanation

A Universal Serial Bus (USB) can handle up to 127 peripherals at once. This is because USB uses a 7-bit addressing system, allowing for a maximum of 127 unique addresses for connected devices. Each peripheral connected to the USB is assigned a unique address, and the USB controller can communicate with all these devices simultaneously. Therefore, the correct answer is 127.

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89. What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

Explanation

A bridge is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates by examining the MAC addresses of the incoming frames and forwarding them only to the appropriate segment, based on the destination MAC address. This helps to reduce collisions and improve network performance by isolating traffic within each segment. Unlike a hub, which simply broadcasts all incoming frames to all connected devices, a bridge selectively forwards frames, making it a more efficient option for segmenting networks.

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90. What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation? 

Explanation

Aggregatable Global is the correct answer because it refers to a unicast address scope that is publicly accessible and allows for hierarchical design and allocation. This means that the Network ID portion of the address can be broken up into different areas, enabling efficient routing and management of IP addresses on a global scale.

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91. Which security program is covered under AFI 10-701

Explanation

AFI 10-701 is a document that outlines the guidelines and procedures for Operations Security (OPSEC) in the United States Air Force. OPSEC is a security program designed to identify and protect critical information that could be exploited by adversaries. It involves analyzing potential threats, vulnerabilities, and risks to determine the best methods for safeguarding sensitive information. Therefore, OPSEC is the correct answer as it is the security program covered under AFI 10-701.

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92. What is the difference between a hub router and premise router?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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93. What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?

Explanation

The given answer, 1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234, is expressed in leading zero compression notation for IPv6. This notation allows consecutive sets of zeros to be replaced with a double colon (::), reducing the length of the IPv6 address. In this case, the two sets of consecutive zeros, 0:0 and 0:0, are compressed into ::, resulting in the given answer.

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94. What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?

Explanation

The DISN backbone provides a conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System (JWICS) data transmission from one location to another. The DISN backbone is a high-speed, secure, and reliable network infrastructure that connects various military and government agencies. It serves as the backbone for transmitting sensitive and classified information, including JWICS data, ensuring secure and efficient communication between different locations.

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95. What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?

Explanation

The Bourne shell is the correct answer because it is the most commonly used standard all-purpose shell. It was developed by Stephen Bourne and is the default shell for many Unix-like operating systems. It provides a wide range of features and functionalities, making it versatile and widely adopted by users and developers. The other options, such as the restricted shell, Korn shell, and C shell, are also commonly used but not as widely as the Bourne shell.

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96. Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information Transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?

Explanation

Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs will help increase network security because it centralizes and streamlines the network operation and security functions. By consolidating these functions into two Integrated NOSCs, there is better coordination and control over network security measures, allowing for more effective monitoring and response to potential threats. This consolidation also reduces the complexity and potential vulnerabilities associated with multiple separate NOSCs.

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97. This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches

Explanation

Common policy and standards refer to a set of guidelines and rules that are followed by all service branches in the Global Information Grid. By having a common policy and standards, it ensures that information is transmitted seamlessly between different service branches. This means that all branches are using the same protocols, formats, and procedures, which eliminates any compatibility issues and allows for smooth communication and sharing of information.

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98. At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) to ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management?

Explanation

Regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) at Tier 2 level. This level ensures operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management.

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99. What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?

Explanation

The purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal is to provide a secure and reliable communication link between commanders in the field and the National Command Authority. This terminal allows commanders to establish a direct line of communication, even in remote and challenging environments such as foxholes. It ensures that critical information can be transmitted quickly and effectively, enabling commanders to make informed decisions and maintain situational awareness.

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100. Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?

Explanation

COMPUSEC, or computer security, is an applied discipline that applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized disclosure, modification, or destruction. This includes implementing various security measures such as firewalls, encryption, access controls, and intrusion detection systems to safeguard computer systems and the data they contain.

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101. Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks?

Explanation

KG-84 is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks.

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102. How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus? 

Explanation

A FireWire bus can support up to 63 devices connected to it. This is because the FireWire standard allows for a maximum of 63 devices to be connected in a daisy-chain configuration. Each device on the FireWire bus has a unique identifier, allowing them to communicate with the computer independently. Therefore, the correct answer is 63.

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103. What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?

Explanation

Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) is the method that borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet. CIDR allows for more flexibility in subnetting by allowing the allocation of variable-length subnet masks, unlike Classful Subnet Masking which uses fixed-length subnet masks. Virtual Private Networking (VPN) and Virtual Local Area Networking (VLAN) are unrelated to subnetting and do not involve borrowing bits from the host field of an IP address.

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104. What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be preempted?

Explanation

Flash Override is a type of Defense Switched Network (DSN) precedence call that cannot be preempted. Preemption refers to the ability to interrupt or override a call of lower precedence. In the case of Flash Override calls, they are given the highest priority and cannot be interrupted by any other type of call, including Flash, Priority, and Intermediate. This ensures that critical and emergency communications are not disrupted or delayed.

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105. Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as

Explanation

Sensitive but unclassified information refers to information that is not classified but still requires protection due to its potential impact on national security if disclosed. This type of information may include sensitive government operations, critical infrastructure details, or other sensitive data that, if accessed or modified without authorization, could have adverse effects on national security.

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106. What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?

Explanation

AF Form 3227 is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material.

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107. Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?

Explanation

The Air Force Communications Agency is responsible for assigning communication security incident report case numbers.

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108. At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used? 

Explanation

Common data compression and encryption schemes are used at the Presentation layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Presentation layer is responsible for formatting, encrypting, and compressing data to be sent across the network. It ensures that the data is in a format that can be understood by the receiving system. Therefore, at this layer, data compression and encryption techniques are applied to optimize the transmission and secure the data being transmitted.

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109. At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?

Explanation

Tier 1 is the correct answer because at this level, responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure is globally managed. This means that Tier 1 is responsible for managing and overseeing the defense information infrastructure on a global scale.

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110. Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 31-501. This is because AFI 31-501 provides the official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information. It outlines the procedures and requirements for obtaining and maintaining security clearances, as well as the responsibilities of individuals with access to classified information. AFI 31-301, AFI 31-401, and AFI 31-601 may contain related information, but they do not specifically address individual security clearances and access to classified information.

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111. Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of Privacy Act Statement?

Explanation

The correct answer is Routine use. The question asks for the mandatory item of the Privacy Act Statement that best describes providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD. Routine use refers to the specific purposes for which a system of records may be used or disclosed outside of the Department of Defense (DOD). It includes a list of the entities or individuals with whom the information may be shared and the purposes for which it will be shared. Therefore, the routine use best describes this scenario.

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112. What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force?

Explanation

The first step in merging voice, data, and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force is to integrate traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems. This involves combining the existing traditional time division multiplexing (TDM) switches with voice over IP (VoIP) technology to enable the transmission of voice signals over an IP network. This integration allows for the convergence of voice, data, and video traffic onto a single network, improving efficiency and reducing costs.

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113. Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?

Explanation

Relative pathnames begin at the current working directory. Unlike absolute pathnames, which start from the root directory, relative pathnames are specified in relation to the current directory. They provide a way to navigate through directories without specifying the entire path. For example, if the current working directory is "home/user", a relative pathname like "documents/file.txt" would refer to the file.txt located in the "documents" directory within the current working directory.

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114. What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

Explanation

AFI 33-119 is the correct reference for guidance on Air Force messaging. This document provides instructions and standards for the proper use of messaging systems within the Air Force. It outlines the procedures for creating, sending, and managing messages, as well as the security and confidentiality measures that need to be followed. By referring to AFI 33-119, Air Force personnel can ensure that their messaging practices align with the established guidelines and maintain effective communication within the organization.

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115. This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network

Explanation

The warrior component refers to the items that directly connect the warfighter to the global network. This means that it includes the necessary equipment, devices, and systems that enable communication and information sharing between the warfighter and the global network. This component is essential for ensuring that the warfighter has access to the information and resources they need to carry out their tasks effectively and efficiently.

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116. Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

Explanation

AF Form 1109 is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of documenting visitor information and ensuring proper security measures are followed. It helps in keeping track of who enters and leaves restricted areas, providing a record that can be used for reference or investigation purposes if needed.

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117. What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from,or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?

Explanation

Link-local addresses are used for communication within a single network segment and do not require a router for directing traffic. These addresses are automatically assigned to interfaces and are only valid within the local network. They are typically used for neighbor discovery, address autoconfiguration, and other local network protocols. Link-local addresses cannot be routed outside the local network and are not globally unique.

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118. How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?

Explanation

The DSN provides responsiveness by offering precedence access thresholding. This means that certain users or types of communication can be given priority access to the network, ensuring that critical communications are not delayed or disrupted. This feature allows the DSN to effectively manage and prioritize network traffic, ensuring that important messages are delivered promptly.

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119. Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?

Explanation

The form used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package is SF 153.

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120. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

Explanation

Resource B is provided priority when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts. This suggests that Resource B is specifically designed or allocated to deter and prevent hostile acts. It is likely that Resource B has enhanced security measures, protocols, or capabilities that make it more effective in deterring potential threats compared to the other resources listed (A, C, and D).

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121. The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 33-200. This Air Force Instruction (AFI) provides detailed information about the Air Force Information Assurance Program. It outlines the policies, procedures, and guidelines that must be followed to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of Air Force information systems. AFI 33-200 covers topics such as information assurance training, incident response, risk management, and compliance with federal regulations.

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122. Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "confidential" information?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 708 because SF 708 is the form used to properly label removable storage media containing "confidential" information. The other options (SF 706, SF 707, SF 709) are not the correct forms for this purpose.

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123. Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network. DISA is an agency of the United States Department of Defense and it provides information technology and communication support to the military. The Defense Switched Network is a global telecommunications network that enables secure voice and data communication for the Department of Defense. DISA's role includes overseeing the design and procurement of the network infrastructure, as well as managing its operations and maintenance.

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124. Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 33-129. This Air Force Instruction provides guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites. It outlines the specific rules and regulations that must be followed when creating and managing content on these websites. It ensures that all information posted is accurate, secure, and in compliance with Air Force policies and procedures.

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The classification of a fill device is
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An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially...
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The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not...
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer...
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What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer...
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Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?
What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6? 
Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how...
What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?
Which system provides support for features such as Windows System...
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
The main function of the Data Service Unit is to
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An optical communications system is comprised of a
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What is the COMSEC program designed to do?
What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet...
Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity...
What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch...
Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all...
Final reports of a communication security incident are due
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The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining...
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of...
What two main components make up the central processing unit?
Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base...
Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be...
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer...
Which one is not a category of the operating system's task...
What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers...
Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network...
What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external...
An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for...
A modem is a device that modulates
One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support...
How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once? 
What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a...
What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID...
Which security program is covered under AFI 10-701
What is the difference between a hub router and premise router?
What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?
What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication...
What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?
Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what...
This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless...
At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations...
What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?
Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data...
Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly...
How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus? 
What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to...
What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be...
Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse,...
What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
Which organization assigns communication security incident report case...
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At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management...
Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting...
Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed...
What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into...
Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?
What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?
This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items...
Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into...
What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will...
How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?
Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC...
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of...
The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in
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Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and...
Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in
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