3DX5X Vol 1 Ure
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?
- A.
Core task.
- B.
Duty competency.
- C.
Core competency.
- D.
Duty position task.
Correct Answer
D. Duty position task.Explanation
The correct answer is Duty position task. According to AFI 36-2201, the duty position task is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with the guidelines. This task refers to the specific responsibilities and duties associated with a particular position within the military. It is the supervisor's responsibility to assign and ensure that the individual is trained and competent in performing the duties required for their specific duty position.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
- A.
Core task.
- B.
Duty competency.
- C.
Core competency.
- D.
Duty position task.
Correct Answer
C. Core competency.Explanation
A core competency is a comprehensive package of expert knowledge and organizational skills that are specific to a particular career field. It encompasses the essential skills and expertise required for individuals to perform their duties effectively within that field. Core competencies are crucial for career development and advancement as they enable individuals to excel in their respective roles and contribute to the overall success of their organization.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
- A.
Cyber Surety.
- B.
Client Systems.
- C.
Cyber Transport.
- D.
Cyber Systems Operations.
Correct Answer
D. Cyber Systems Operations.Explanation
Cyber Systems Operations is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) specifically deals with the administration of servers and server farms across Air Force installations globally. This AFS focuses on managing and maintaining the operation of computer systems, including servers, networks, and associated hardware and software. They are responsible for ensuring the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of data and information within the Air Force's network infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and “hands-on” maintenance actions?
- A.
Cyber Surety.
- B.
Client Systems.
- C.
Cyber Transport.
- D.
Cyber Systems Operations.
Correct Answer
B. Client Systems.Explanation
The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility that includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions is Client Systems. This role involves providing technical support to users at the local base, troubleshooting and resolving client system issues, and performing maintenance tasks on hardware and software.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
D. Radio Frequency Transmission.Explanation
The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks such as deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with RF technology to ensure effective communication and transmission of signals.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
B. Ground Radar Systems.Explanation
Ground Radar Systems is the correct answer because this specialty involves the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. This specialty focuses specifically on radar systems used for ground operations, making it the appropriate choice for this question.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
C. Cable and Antenna Systems.Explanation
Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large scale network wiring in support of both fixed and deployed operations. This involves setting up and maintaining the physical infrastructure required for communication networks, including cables, antennas, and other related equipment. They ensure that the network wiring is properly installed and functioning to support the operational needs of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in their career development, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities to succeed in their chosen field. The AFCFM has a comprehensive understanding of the career field and can provide valuable insight and advice to help individuals make informed decisions about their career path. They play a crucial role in shaping the future of the career field and ensuring its continued success.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). The AFCFM has the ultimate decision-making power and authority in determining whether or not to waive these requirements for an individual. The unit training manager (UTM), base functional manager (BFM), and major command functional manager (MFM) may have some influence or input in the decision-making process, but the final decision lies with the AFCFM.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM).Explanation
The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of the specialty knowledge test (SKT) and the career development course (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the training and development of personnel within their specific command, and they have the knowledge and expertise to identify individuals who are qualified to contribute to the development of these tests and courses.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
B. Base functional manager (BFM).Explanation
The on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is normally assigned the title of Base functional manager (BFM). This title indicates that the NCO is responsible for managing the functions and operations of the cyberspace unit at the base level. They oversee the day-to-day activities, ensure proper training and coordination within the unit, and serve as a point of contact for higher-level management. This title reflects their role in managing the functional aspects of the cyberspace operations at the base.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Modify training.
- B.
Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- C.
Conduct climate training surveys.
- D.
Review the occupational analysis report.
Correct Answer
B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).Explanation
The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive and effective plan for education and training within a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary skills, knowledge, and training requirements for individuals in that field, ensuring that they are properly prepared and equipped for their roles. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop helps to standardize and improve the training process, ultimately leading to a more skilled and competent workforce.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment?”
- A.
91–46.
- B.
91–50.
- C.
91–64.
- D.
91–68.
Correct Answer
A. 91–46.Explanation
The correct answer is 91-46. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard specifically covers safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment." Therefore, if you need information or guidelines related to the safe handling and storage of materials, you would reference AFOSH standard 91-46.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”
- A.
91–46.
- B.
91–50.
- C.
91–64.
- D.
91–68.
Correct Answer
B. 91–50.Explanation
The correct answer is 91-50. This document, titled "Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standard 91-50," would provide safety information specifically related to "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems." It is likely to contain guidelines, regulations, and best practices for ensuring safety when working with these systems in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
- A.
91–46.
- B.
91–50.
- C.
91–64.
- D.
91–68.
Correct Answer
C. 91–64.Explanation
The correct answer is 91-64. This is the AFOSH standard that specifically addresses safety information on data processing facilities. It provides guidelines and regulations to ensure the safety and health of personnel working in these facilities.Rate this question:
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- 16.
From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
- A.
Sunlight.
- B.
Microwaves.
- C.
Ionizing radiation.
- D.
Nonionizing radiation.
Correct Answer
D. Nonionizing radiation.Explanation
Nonionizing radiation refers to types of radiation that do not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms or molecules, leading to less potential for tissue damage. Unlike ionizing radiation, which can cause significant harm to deep tissue and organs, nonionizing radiation, such as sunlight and microwaves, does not have the same level of energy and therefore does not cause the same level of damage. This explains why a person can absorb selectively damaging amounts of nonionizing radiation without experiencing the sensation of skin heating.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
A. Accept no unnecessary risk.Explanation
The principle of "Accept no unnecessary risk" states that the most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk. This means that risks should only be taken when they are necessary for the successful completion of the mission, and any unnecessary risks should be avoided. This principle emphasizes the importance of balancing the potential benefits of a mission with the potential risks involved. By accepting no unnecessary risk, organizations can ensure the safety and well-being of their personnel and resources while still achieving their mission objectives.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.Explanation
This principle of occupational risk management (ORM) suggests that it is acceptable to take on certain risks when the benefits gained from doing so outweigh the potential costs or negative consequences. This means that organizations should carefully evaluate the potential risks and rewards associated with a particular action or decision, and if the benefits are deemed to be greater than the costs, it may be appropriate to accept the risk. This principle emphasizes the importance of balancing risk and reward in order to maximize the overall capability and effectiveness of a unit or organization.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.Explanation
The principle of integrating ORM into operations and planning at all levels means that risk assessments are a regular part of conducting a mission, rather than being treated as an additional step or process. This approach ensures that risk assessments are incorporated into all aspects of the mission, allowing for a more comprehensive understanding of potential risks and the development of appropriate risk management strategies. It emphasizes the importance of considering and managing risks throughout the entire mission, rather than treating it as a separate or optional activity.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by
- A.
Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.
- B.
Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.
- C.
Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.
- D.
Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from.
Correct Answer
C. Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.Explanation
Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace. This means that offensive measures are taken to hinder the adversary's capability to operate effectively in the cyberspace domain. By doing so, the United States aims to weaken the adversary's ability to launch cyber attacks, defend their own systems, or gather intelligence. This ensures that the United States maintains an advantage in cyberspace and protects its own sensitive data and infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
- A.
Joint Operability network.
- B.
Tactical data links network.
- C.
Strategic data control network.
- D.
Supervisory control and data acquisition.
Correct Answer
D. Supervisory control and data acquisition.Explanation
Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are used in various industries such as energy, water, and transportation to gather and analyze data in real-time, enabling operators to make informed decisions and control processes remotely. This technology plays a crucial role in ensuring the efficient and safe operation of industrial sites and is essential for managing complex systems over large geographical areas.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?
- A.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- B.
Network Control Center (NCC).
- C.
Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
- D.
Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).Explanation
The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. AFNOC is a centralized facility that monitors and manages the Air Force's network infrastructure, ensuring its security and availability. It coordinates with other centers and units to ensure effective network operations and cybersecurity measures are in place. The AFNOC plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and functionality of Air Force networks.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
- A.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- B.
Network Control Center (NCC).
- C.
Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
- D.
Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).
Correct Answer
B. Network Control Center (NCC).Explanation
The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and is responsible for providing Tier 3 (local level) on-site support. It also implements technical and physical network changes. The other options, such as the Area Processing Center (APC), Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC), and Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC), do not specifically mention these responsibilities. Therefore, the correct answer is the Network Control Center (NCC).Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C.
Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D.
Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
Correct Answer
C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).Explanation
The correct answer is Combat Communications Squadron (CCS). This function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages. This suggests that the CCS is responsible for providing a wide range of communication services, from portable and temporary setups to more permanent and extensive communication infrastructure for air bases in expeditionary settings.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C.
Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D.
Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
Correct Answer
D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).Explanation
The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF). This organization specializes in providing communication support and services in expeditionary environments. They are responsible for setting up and maintaining communication networks, ensuring that the AETF has reliable and secure communication capabilities during operations. The ECS plays a crucial role in enabling effective command and control, situational awareness, and coordination among various units within the AETF.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C.
Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D.
Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
Correct Answer
A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).Explanation
The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) is the correct answer because it is responsible for managing AF core services within the AFNetOps community. The ESU's goal is to reduce training and maintenance costs while increasing operational flexibility and capacity for the warfighter. This means that the ESU focuses on optimizing the efficiency and effectiveness of the core services provided to the Air Force, ensuring that they meet the needs of the warfighter while minimizing costs and maximizing operational capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
- A.
Constitution.
- B.
Bill of Rights.
- C.
United States Title Code 10.
- D.
Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer
A. Constitution.Explanation
The Constitution is the document that is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States. It outlines the structure and powers of the government, establishes the rights and freedoms of the citizens, and provides a framework for the functioning of the legal system. The Bill of Rights is a part of the Constitution that guarantees certain individual liberties and limits the power of the government. The United States Title Code 10 refers to the compilation of federal laws related to the armed forces, while the Uniform Code of Military Justice is the legal code that governs the conduct of military personnel.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- A.
Constitution.
- B.
Bill of Rights.
- C.
United States Title Code 10.
- D.
Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer
C. United States Title Code 10.Explanation
The correct answer is United States Title Code 10. The United States Title Code 10, also known as the U.S. Code Title 10, is a federal law that authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government. It establishes all subordinate agencies, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This code outlines the roles, responsibilities, and organization of the DOD and its branches, making it the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
- A.
Constitution.
- B.
Bill of Rights.
- C.
United States Title Code 10.
- D.
Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer
D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.Explanation
The Uniform Code of Military Justice serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breaches in binding instruction and law. It is a set of laws and regulations that govern the conduct of members of the United States military. It outlines the legal rights and responsibilities of military personnel and establishes the military justice system, including procedures for disciplinary action and courts-martial. The UCMJ ensures that military members are held accountable for their actions and maintains discipline within the military.Rate this question:
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- 30.
In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?
- A.
1994.
- B.
1995.
- C.
1997.
- D.
1998.
Correct Answer
B. 1995.Explanation
In 1995, the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD.Rate this question:
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- 31.
In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?
- A.
1994.
- B.
1995.
- C.
1997.
- D.
1998.
Correct Answer
D. 1998.Explanation
The Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine. Since the question is asking for the year when this happened, the correct answer is 1998.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
- A.
Air Force Doctrines.
- B.
Air Force Pamphlets.
- C.
Air Force Instructions.
- D.
Air Force Policy Directives.
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Policy Directives.Explanation
Directive policy statements of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF are known as Air Force Policy Directives. These directives are used to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct within their specified areas of responsibility. Air Force Doctrines, Air Force Pamphlets, and Air Force Instructions may contain policies and procedures, but they do not specifically refer to the directive policy statements of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which publication type are informational publications which are “how to” documents?
- A.
Air Force Pamphlets.
- B.
Air Force Instructions.
- C.
Air Force Publications.
- D.
Air Force Policy Directives.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Pamphlets.Explanation
Air Force Pamphlets are informational publications that provide instructions on how to perform certain tasks or procedures. They are designed to guide individuals in understanding and implementing specific processes within the Air Force. Unlike other publication types such as Air Force Instructions, Air Force Publications, or Air Force Policy Directives, Air Force Pamphlets specifically focus on providing step-by-step guidance and practical advice on various topics.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
- A.
Broadcasts.
- B.
Transmissions.
- C.
Telecommunications.
- D.
Voice over Internet Protocol.
Correct Answer
C. Telecommunications.Explanation
Telecommunications is the correct answer because it refers to the transmission of information over long distances. It includes both analog and digital signals, allowing for the conveyance of data over significant geographical distances. Broadcasts and transmissions are specific methods within the broader field of telecommunications, while Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is a specific technology used for transmitting voice communication over the internet.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?
- A.
MyPay.
- B.
E-publishing.
- C.
Air Force Portal.
- D.
Virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Portal.Explanation
The Air Force Portal is the tool that provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location. It serves as a central hub for accessing various online tools, resources, and information related to the Air Force. It allows users to access official documents, news, training materials, and other important resources that are necessary for the Air Force personnel. The other options mentioned, such as myPay, E-publishing, and virtual Military Personnel Flight, may provide specific services or resources, but they do not offer the comprehensive range of resources available on the Air Force Portal.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
- A.
MyPay.
- B.
E-publishing.
- C.
Air Force Portal.
- D.
Virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Portal.Explanation
The Air Force Portal is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces. It provides a centralized platform for accessing information, resources, and services related to the Air Force. It allows personnel to securely access their pay information, e-publishing documents, and other important resources. Additionally, it serves as a virtual hub for various tasks and functions, making it an essential tool for the Air Force's information technology initiatives and overall transformation efforts.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?
- A.
My base.
- B.
Single-sign-on.
- C.
Community of practice.
- D.
Virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
B. Single-sign-on.Explanation
Single-sign-on is a feature that allows authorized users to enter their passwords once and gain access to all applications without needing to log in again. This feature eliminates the need for multiple log-ins, making it more convenient and efficient for users to access various applications within the Air Force Portal. It enhances user experience and saves time by eliminating the hassle of remembering and entering multiple passwords for different applications.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?
- A.
My base.
- B.
Single-sign-on.
- C.
Community of practice.
- D.
Virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
D. Virtual Military Personnel Flight.Explanation
The virtual Military Personnel Flight is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal because it allows Air Force personnel to access and manage their personnel information and records online. This feature eliminates the need for physical visits to the Military Personnel Flight office, saving time and increasing convenience for the users. It provides a streamlined and efficient way for personnel to handle administrative tasks, such as updating personal information, requesting leave, or accessing service records.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?
- A.
My base.
- B.
Single-sign-on.
- C.
Community of practice.
- D.
Virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
C. Community of practice.Explanation
A community of practice is a feature in the Air Force Portal that provides a secure, web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic. It allows members of a group to share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and solve group problems. This feature enables individuals with similar interests or responsibilities to come together, exchange knowledge, and learn from each other's experiences. It promotes collaboration and enhances the effectiveness of group work within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which document would you reference for guidance on “Web management and Internet use?”
- A.
AFI 33−118.
- B.
AFI 33−119.
- C.
AFI 33−127.
- D.
AFI 33−129.
Correct Answer
D. AFI 33−129. -
- 41.
Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?
- A.
AFI 33−127.
- B.
AFI 33−129.
- C.
AFI 35−101.
- D.
AFI 35−108.
Correct Answer
C. AFI 35−101. -
- 42.
When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?
- A.
Keep emails brief and to the point.
- B.
Read your email out loud to yourself.
- C.
Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.
- D.
Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message.
Correct Answer
C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.Explanation
Consistently using the "Reply-to-All" feature would not follow proper email etiquette. This feature should only be used when it is necessary for all recipients to be included in the reply. Using "Reply-to-All" unnecessarily can clutter inboxes and waste recipients' time. It is important to consider who needs to be included in the conversation and use the appropriate reply option, whether it is "Reply" or "Reply-to-All".Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which document is not considered an official government record?
- A.
Published doctrines.
- B.
Geographical base maps.
- C.
Photographs of a retreat ceremony.
- D.
Library reference or museum exhibitions.
Correct Answer
D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.Explanation
Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by government agencies for official purposes. While they may contain valuable information and historical artifacts, they are not part of the official documentation and record-keeping of the government. Published doctrines, geographical base maps, and photographs of a retreat ceremony, on the other hand, can be considered official government records as they are created and maintained by government agencies for official purposes.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Records that are considered to be in draft format
- A.
Can be altered and are not officially released.
- B.
Can’t be altered, but are officially released.
- C.
Can’t be altered and are officially signed.
- D.
Officially signed and officially released.
Correct Answer
A. Can be altered and are not officially released.Explanation
The correct answer is "can be altered and are not officially released." This means that records in draft format can be changed or modified and are not yet officially released to the public or authorized for distribution.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?
- A.
Officially signed and not released.
- B.
Officially signed and officially released.
- C.
Can be altered and are not officially released.
- D.
Can’t be altered, but are not officially released.
Correct Answer
B. Officially signed and officially released.Explanation
Records that are considered to be in final format have the characteristic of being officially signed and officially released. This means that the records have undergone the necessary approvals and authorizations, and they are ready to be shared or distributed to the intended recipients or the public. This ensures that the records are in their completed and authorized state, providing credibility and validity to the information contained within them.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
- A.
Base records manager.
- B.
Chief of Office of Records.
- C.
Command records manager.
- D.
Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer
C. Command records manager.Explanation
The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role ensures that these managers have the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively manage and maintain records within their respective bases. The command records manager is in charge of overseeing the training process and ensuring that all newly appointed base records managers receive the required training to carry out their duties effectively.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
- A.
Base records manager.
- B.
Chief of Office of Records.
- C.
Command records manager.
- D.
Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer
A. Base records manager.Explanation
The duties mentioned in the question, such as providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training, are typically the responsibilities of a base records manager. This role involves overseeing the organization and maintenance of records within a specific base or location. The other options mentioned, such as Chief of Office of Records, Command records manager, and Functional area records manager, may have different duties and responsibilities within the records management field, but they do not specifically include the tasks mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
- A.
Base records manager.
- B.
Chief of Office of Records.
- C.
Command records manager.
- D.
Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer
D. Functional area records manager.Explanation
A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining the records specific to their functional area within the organization. They ensure that records are properly organized, stored, and disposed of according to regulations and policies. This role is crucial in ensuring the accuracy, accessibility, and security of records within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
- A.
Base records manager.
- B.
Chief of Office of Records.
- C.
Command records manager.
- D.
Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer
B. Chief of Office of Records.Explanation
The Chief of Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and organization of records within the office, including designating custodians who will be responsible for specific records. They have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that the custodians are qualified and capable of fulfilling their duties effectively.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an
- A.
File.
- B.
Record.
- C.
Database.
- D.
Enterprise.
Correct Answer
B. Record.Explanation
A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a record. In a database, a record represents a single instance or entry of data that is stored and organized in a structured manner. It typically consists of multiple data fields that are related to each other and collectively represent a complete set of information about a specific entity or object. The record serves as a unit of data that can be accessed, manipulated, and analyzed within the database system.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 15, 2012Quiz Created by
Huroku
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