3DX5X Vol 1 Ure
- 1.Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?
- A.
Core task.
- B.
Duty competency.
- C.
Core competency.
- D.
Duty position task.
- 2.Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
- A.
Core task.
- B.
Duty competency.
- C.
Core competency.
- D.
Duty position task.
- 3.Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
- A.
Cyber Surety.
- B.
Client Systems.
- C.
Cyber Transport.
- D.
Cyber Systems Operations.
- 4.Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and “hands-on” maintenance actions?
- A.
Cyber Surety.
- B.
Client Systems.
- C.
Cyber Transport.
- D.
Cyber Systems Operations.
- 5.Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
- 6.Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
- 7.Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
- 8.Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
- 9.Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
- 10.Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
- 11.What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
- 12.What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Modify training.
- B.
Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- C.
Conduct climate training surveys.
- D.
Review the occupational analysis report.
- 13.Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment?”
- A.
91–46.
- B.
91–50.
- C.
91–64.
- D.
91–68.
- 14.Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”
- A.
91–46.
- B.
91–50.
- C.
91–64.
- D.
91–68.
- 15.The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
- A.
91–46.
- B.
91–50.
- C.
91–64.
- D.
91–68.
- 16.From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
- A.
Sunlight.
- B.
Microwaves.
- C.
Ionizing radiation.
- D.
Nonionizing radiation.
- 17.Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
- 18.Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
- 19.Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
- 20.Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by
- A.
Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.
- B.
Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.
- C.
Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.
- D.
Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from.
- 21.Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
- A.
Joint Operability network.
- B.
Tactical data links network.
- C.
Strategic data control network.
- D.
Supervisory control and data acquisition.
- 22.Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?
- A.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- B.
Network Control Center (NCC).
- C.
Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
- D.
Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).
- 23.Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
- A.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- B.
Network Control Center (NCC).
- C.
Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
- D.
Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).
- 24.Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C.
Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D.
Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
- 25.Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C.
Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D.
Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
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