CDC 3DX5X Cyber Support Journeyman Volume 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    29. (009) Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

    • A. Constitution.
    • B. Bill of Rights.
    • C. United States Title Code 10.
    • D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
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3DX5X Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in various Air Force cyber support roles under the 3DX5X training series. It covers duty position tasks, core competencies, and specific responsibilities in Cyber Systems, Client Systems, Radio Frequency Transmission, and Ground Radar Systems. Essential for trainees in cyber support roles.


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  • 2. 

    4. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and “hands-on” maintenance actions?

    • A. Cyber Surety.

    • B. Client Systems.

    • C. Cyber Transport.

    • D. Cyber Systems Operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Client Systems.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Client Systems. The responsibility of Client Systems in the 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) includes providing local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions. This means that individuals in this AFS are responsible for assisting users with technical issues, troubleshooting problems, and performing maintenance tasks on computer systems at the local base level.

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  • 3. 

    7. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • A. Spectrum Operations.

    • B. Ground Radar Systems.

    • c. Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • d. Radio Frequency Transmission.

    Correct Answer
    A. c. Cable and Antenna Systems.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Cable and Antenna Systems. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large scale network wiring in support of both fixed and deployed operations. This includes the installation and maintenance of cable and antenna systems, which are essential for establishing and maintaining communication networks.

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  • 4. 

    12. (002) What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • A. Modify training.

    • B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • C. Conduct climate training surveys.

    • D. Review the occupational analysis report.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan outlines the education and training requirements for a specific career field, ensuring that personnel receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively. The U&TW aims to develop a comprehensive and well-structured CFETP that meets the needs of the career field and supports career progression and development. This plan serves as a guide for training managers, supervisors, and individuals within the career field, helping to align training efforts with organizational goals and objectives.

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  • 5. 

    44. (014) Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • A. can be altered and are not officially released.

    • B. can’t be altered, but are officially released.

    • C. can’t be altered and are officially signed.

    • D. officially signed and officially released.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. can be altered and are not officially released.
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that they are still in the process of being finalized and may undergo changes before they are officially released and made available to the public or relevant parties. These draft records are not considered as the final version and may contain errors or incomplete information. Therefore, they can be modified or updated before they are officially released.

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  • 6. 

    5. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • A. Spectrum Operations.

    • B. Ground Radar Systems.

    • c. Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • d. Radio Frequency Transmission.

    Correct Answer
    A. d. Radio Frequency Transmission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This includes working with various RF equipment and technologies to ensure effective communication and transmission of signals.

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  • 7. 

    61. (019) The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by

    • A. placing them in approved staging containers.

    • B. shipping it to Federal records centers in approved containers.

    • C. altering the data on the records so in the event is compromised, it is recognizable.

    • D. any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction. This answer suggests that there are multiple acceptable methods for destroying records, as long as the personal data contained within them is rendered unrecognizable and unable to be reconstructed. This ensures that the records cannot be compromised and the information they contain remains secure.

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  • 8. 

    20. (005) Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

    • A. providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.

    • B. taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.

    • C. denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.

    • D. allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.
    Explanation
    Offensive operations in cyberspace support United States objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying, or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. This means that the goal is to hinder the adversary's ability to operate effectively in the digital domain, whether by blocking their access, reducing their capabilities, or causing damage to their systems. The objective is to gain an advantage over the adversary and protect sensitive data and infrastructure.

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  • 9. 

    35. (011) What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?

    • A. myPay.

    • B. E-publishing.

    • C. Air Force Portal.

    • D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Air Force Portal.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Portal is the correct answer because it is a tool that provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location. It serves as a centralized platform where members of the Air Force can access important information, documents, and resources related to their duties and responsibilities. It allows for easy navigation and access to various online tools and services that are necessary for Air Force personnel.

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  • 10. 

    37. (012) Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?

    • A. my base.

    • B. Single-sign-on.

    • C. Community of practice.

    • D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Single-sign-on.
    Explanation
    Single-sign-on is a feature on the Air Force Portal that allows authorized users to enter their password once and gain access to all applications without needing to log in again. This feature simplifies the login process and enhances user convenience by eliminating the need for multiple logins for different applications.

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  • 11. 

    52. (016) An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an

    • A. file.

    • B. record.

    • C. database.

    • D. enterprise.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. database.
    Explanation
    An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a database. A database is a structured set of data that is stored and managed in a way that allows for efficient retrieval, modification, and analysis. It provides a centralized location for storing and organizing large amounts of data, making it easier to access and manipulate the information. A database can consist of multiple tables, each containing related data, and can be accessed and manipulated through a database management system (DBMS).

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  • 12. 

    2. (001) Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • A. Core task.

    • B. Duty competency.

    • C. Core competency.

    • D. Duty position task.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Core competency.
    Explanation
    A core competency is an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills that are specific to a particular career field. It represents the essential skills and abilities that individuals in that career field must possess in order to perform their duties effectively. This term is often used in the context of job descriptions and performance evaluations to identify the key skills and competencies required for success in a particular role.

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  • 13. 

    56. (018) What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office’s file plan?

    • A. National Archives and Records Administration (NARA)

    • B. Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS).

    • C. Local operations instructions.

    • D. Command operations directives.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS). AFRIMS is the authorization that generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan. This system is specifically designed for managing records and information in the Air Force, ensuring proper control and disposition of files. It helps in maintaining records in an organized and efficient manner, allowing for easy retrieval and tracking of files.

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  • 14. 

    6. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

    • A. Spectrum Operations.

    • B. Ground Radar Systems.

    • c. Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • D. Radio Frequency Transmission.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Ground Radar Systems.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Ground Radar Systems. Ground Radar Systems are responsible for the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. These systems are crucial for monitoring and controlling air traffic, as well as providing weather information and air defense capabilities. Spectrum Operations, Cable and Antenna Systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission are not directly involved in the installation and maintenance of radar systems.

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  • 15. 

    11. (002) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • A. Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B. Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C. Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Base functional manager (BFM).
    Explanation
    The on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is normally assigned the title of Base functional manager (BFM). This title indicates that the NCO is responsible for managing the functions and operations related to cyberspace within their base. They oversee the implementation and maintenance of cyberspace systems and ensure that they are functioning effectively and securely. The BFM works closely with other units and personnel to coordinate and support cyberspace operations at the base level.

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  • 16. 

    23. (007) Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

    • A. Area Processing Center (APC).

    • B. Network Control Center (NCC).

    • C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

    • D. Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Network Control Center (NCC).
    Explanation
    The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and is responsible for providing Tier 3 on-site support and implementing technical and physical network changes. This means that the NCC handles local level network operations and is involved in making necessary changes to the network infrastructure. The other options, such as the Area Processing Center (APC), Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC), and Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC), do not specifically mention the role of providing Tier 3 on-site support and implementing network changes, making them incorrect answers.

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  • 17. 

    27. (009) Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

    • A. Constitution.

    • B. Bill of Rights.

    • C. United States Title Code 10.

    • D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Constitution.
    Explanation
    The Constitution is the document that serves as the foundation for drafting and enforcing all federal laws in the United States. It outlines the structure of the government, the powers and limitations of each branch, and the rights and freedoms of the citizens. It is considered the supreme law of the land and provides the framework for the legal system in the country. The Bill of Rights, United States Title Code 10, and the Uniform Code of Military Justice are all important legal documents, but they are not the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws like the Constitution is.

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  • 18. 

    42. (013) When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?

    • A. Keep emails brief and to the point.

    • B. Read your email out loud to yourself.

    • C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.

    • D. Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.
    Explanation
    Using the "Reply-to-All" feature consistently would not follow proper email etiquette. This feature should only be used when it is necessary for everyone in the email chain to receive the response. Using "Reply-to-All" unnecessarily can clutter inboxes and lead to confusion. It is important to consider who truly needs to be included in the response and use the appropriate reply option accordingly.

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  • 19. 

    57. (018) What determines the cutoff for active records?

    • A. End period.

    • B. Archive date.

    • C. Retention period.

    • D. Superseded date.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Retention period.
    Explanation
    The cutoff for active records is determined by the retention period. This refers to the length of time that records need to be kept and maintained before they can be disposed of. Once the retention period has expired, the records are no longer considered active and can be archived or destroyed. The retention period is typically determined by legal and regulatory requirements, as well as the organization's internal policies.

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  • 20. 

    58. (018) A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a

    • A. retire.

    • B. archive.

    • C. acquisition.

    • D. disposition.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. disposition.
    Explanation
    The term "disposition" refers to the overall process of managing records, including their destruction, salvage, donation, transfer to a staging area or records center, and transfer between organizations. It encompasses all aspects of handling records, from their creation to their final disposition. The other options, such as retire, archive, and acquisition, do not encompass the complete range of activities involved in managing records.

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  • 21. 

    70. (023) A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called a/an

    • A. high altitude endurance (HAE).

    • B. unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV).

    • C. type unit equipment detail file (TUDET).

    • D. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV).
    Explanation
    An unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) refers to a remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that is capable of carrying cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads. This term is commonly used to describe drones or aircraft that are operated without a human pilot on board. The use of UAVs has become increasingly popular for various purposes such as surveillance, aerial photography, research, and even delivery services. Therefore, option b, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV), is the correct answer.

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  • 22. 

    19. (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

    • A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels. This principle suggests that risk assessments should be seamlessly integrated into the normal process of conducting a mission, rather than being treated as an additional step or afterthought. This means that risk assessments should be conducted at all levels of operations and planning to ensure that risks are identified and managed effectively. By integrating ORM into operations and planning, organizations can proactively identify and mitigate risks, leading to safer and more efficient mission execution.

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  • 23. 

    31. (010) In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

    • A. 1994.

    • B. 1995.

    • C. 1997.

    • D. 1998.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 1998.
    Explanation
    In August of 1998, the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine. This was the same year in which the Joint Staff also published its doctrine. Therefore, the correct answer is d. 1998.

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  • 24. 

    39. (012) Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?

    • A. my base.

    • B. Single-sign-on.

    • C. Community of practice.

    • D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Community of practice.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Community of practice. A community of practice is a feature on the Air Force Portal that provides a secure, web-based collaborative environment for a specific task or topic. It allows members of a group to share information, tools, and resources to conduct business, manage projects, and solve group problems. This feature promotes knowledge sharing and collaboration among members of the Air Force.

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  • 25. 

    8. (002) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • A. Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B. Base functional manager (BFM).

    • c. Major command functional manager MFM).

    • d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    A. d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They have the expertise and knowledge to provide guidance and support to individuals in the career field. They are responsible for ensuring career development, training, and progression within the field. The AFCFM works closely with other managers and leaders to ensure the needs and concerns of the career field are addressed.

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  • 26. 

    18. (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

    • A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs. This principle of occupational risk management (ORM) emphasizes the need to carefully evaluate the potential risks and benefits before making decisions. It suggests that if the benefits of taking a certain risk outweigh the potential costs or negative consequences, then it may be acceptable to proceed. This principle helps to ensure that decisions are made with a clear understanding of the potential outcomes and the overall impact on unit capability. By weighing the risks against opportunities and benefits, organizations can make informed decisions that maximize their effectiveness and minimize unnecessary risks.

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  • 27. 

    43. (014) Which document is not considered an official government record?

    • A. Published doctrines.

    • B. Geographical base maps.

    • C. Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

    • D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.
    Explanation
    Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by government agencies for the purpose of documenting official activities or transactions. While they may contain valuable information, they are typically created for educational or informational purposes rather than as official records of government operations.

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  • 28. 

    45. (014) Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?

    • A. Officially signed and not released.

    • B. Officially signed and officially released.

    • C. Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • D. Can’t be altered, but are not officially released.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Officially signed and officially released.
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in final format are officially signed and officially released. This means that they have undergone all necessary approvals and are considered complete and ready for use. They have been officially signed to indicate their authenticity and have been officially released for distribution or access to authorized individuals or entities. This characteristic ensures that the records are considered official and can be relied upon for reference or legal purposes.

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  • 29. 

    15. (003) The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

    • A. 91–46.

    • B. 91–50.

    • C. 91–64.

    • D. 91–68.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 91–64.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. 91-64. This AFOSH standard specifically pertains to safety information on data processing facilities.

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  • 30. 

    28. (009) Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • A. Constitution.

    • B. Bill of Rights.

    • C. United States Title Code 10.

    • D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. United States Title Code 10.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. United States Title Code 10. The United States Title Code 10, also known as the U.S.C. Title 10, is a federal law that governs the organization and structure of the Department of Defense (DOD). It authorizes the creation of the DOD as the executive component of the government and establishes all subordinate agencies, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This document outlines the roles, responsibilities, and authorities of the DOD and its components, making it the appropriate choice for this question.

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  • 31. 

    74. (024) Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?

    • A. Mobility.

    • B. Survivability.

    • C. Interoperability.

    • D. Modularity-scalability.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Mobility.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mobility. In a theater deployable communications (TDC) environment, it is crucial to keep the size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times to a minimum in order to support transportation, deployment, and operations. Mobility refers to the ability of the equipment to be easily moved and transported, allowing for quick deployment and flexibility in various operational environments. This characteristic ensures that the TDC equipment can be efficiently utilized in a deployed environment.

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  • 32. 

    3. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

    • A. Cyber Surety.

    • B. Client Systems.

    • C. Cyber Transport.

    • D. Cyber Systems Operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Cyber Systems Operations.
    Explanation
    Cyber Systems Operations is the correct answer because this Air Force Specialty (AFS) specifically deals with the administration of servers and server farms. This AFS focuses on managing and maintaining the functionality of servers and server farms across Air Force installations globally, ensuring their smooth operation and security. It involves tasks such as installing, configuring, and troubleshooting servers, as well as managing network infrastructure and ensuring data integrity.

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  • 33. 

    22. (007) Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

    • A. Area Processing Center (APC).

    • B. Network Control Center (NCC).

    • C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

    • D. Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. This center is responsible for monitoring and managing the Air Force's network infrastructure, ensuring its security, and coordinating network operations. The AFNOC plays a critical role in maintaining the availability and integrity of Air Force networks, making it the correct answer to this question.

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  • 34. 

    34. (011) What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

    • A. Broadcasts.

    • B. Transmissions.

    • C. Telecommunications.

    • D. Voice over Internet Protocol.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Telecommunications.
    Explanation
    Telecommunications refers to the transmission of information over significant distances using analog or digital signals. It encompasses various technologies and methods, including telephone networks, internet protocols, satellite communication, and more. Telecommunications enables the transfer of data, voice, and video over long distances, facilitating communication between individuals or organizations. It is a broad term that encompasses both analog and digital transmission methods, making it the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 35. 

    51. (016) A logical group of record is called a/an

    • A. file.

    • B. field.

    • C. database.

    • D. enterprise.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. file.
    Explanation
    A logical group of records is called a file. A file is a collection of related data that is stored together and can be accessed and manipulated as a whole. It is used to organize and store data in a structured manner, making it easier to manage and retrieve information. Files are commonly used in computer systems to store documents, images, videos, and other types of data.

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  • 36. 

    14. (003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”

    • A. 91–46.

    • B. 91–50.

    • C. 91–64.

    • D. 91–68.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 91–50.
    Explanation
    AFOSH standard document 91-50 would be the appropriate reference for safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems."

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  • 37. 

    17. (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

    • A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Accept no unnecessary risk. This principle emphasizes the importance of minimizing risks to personnel and resources while still accomplishing the mission. It suggests that only risks that are necessary for mission success should be accepted, and any unnecessary risks should be avoided. This principle promotes a proactive approach to risk management, ensuring that risks are carefully evaluated and mitigated to the greatest extent possible. By accepting no unnecessary risk, organizations can prioritize the safety and well-being of their personnel and resources while still achieving their objectives.

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  • 38. 

    64. (020) What places air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a “ready to deploy” state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?

    • A. Posturing.

    • B. Tempo bands.

    • C. Unit type codes.

    • D. Joint manning document.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Posturing.
    Explanation
    Posturing refers to the process of preparing and positioning air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a state where they are ready to deploy. This includes ensuring that they have the necessary training, equipment, and personnel to support global requirements, home station requirements, and the needs of Combatant Commanders (CCDR). By posturing the forces in this way, they can quickly and effectively respond to any mission or tasking that may arise.

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  • 39. 

    67. (021) Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources?

    • A. Designed operational capability.

    • B. Theater deployable communications.

    • C. Manpower and equipment force packaging.

    • D. Joint operation planning and execution system.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Theater deployable communications.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Theater deployable communications. This function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure that is designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications. It can utilize line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources. This infrastructure is specifically designed to be deployed in a theater of operations, providing reliable and efficient communication capabilities for military forces in the field.

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  • 40. 

    90. (033) Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?

    • A. JEWELER.

    • B. SEAMARK.

    • C. NEWSDEALER.

    • D. STREAMLINER.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. SEAMARK.
    Explanation
    SEAMARK was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems.

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  • 41. 

      1. (001) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

    • A. Core task.

    • B. Duty competency.

    • C. Core competency.

    • D. Duty position task.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Duty position task.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Duty position task. According to AFI 36-2201, the duty position task is assigned by the supervisor. This refers to the specific tasks and responsibilities that are associated with a particular duty position within the military. It is the supervisor's responsibility to assign these tasks to the enlisted personnel based on their skills, qualifications, and the needs of the organization.

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  • 42. 

    9. (002) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

    • A. Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B. Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C. Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This individual has the ultimate decision-making power in determining whether or not a waiver should be granted. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing the career field and ensuring that the necessary training and education requirements are met.

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  • 43. 

    26. (008) Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

    • A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

    • D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU). The ESU is responsible for managing AF core services within the AFNetOps community. Their goal is to reduce training and maintenance costs, as well as increase operational flexibility and capacity to support the warfighter. This means that the ESU focuses on optimizing and streamlining the delivery of essential services to enhance the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the Air Force's operations.

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  • 44. 

    69. (022) Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?

    • A. Operational capabilities packages.

    • B. Theater deployable communications.

    • C. Manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK).

    • D. Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK).
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK) function is to provide standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command. This function ensures that there is a standardized and organized approach to packaging manpower and equipment for various contingencies, allowing for effective planning and deployment of forces. It helps in streamlining the process and ensuring that the right resources are available when needed.

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  • 45. 

    94. (036) Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical information to the nation’s warfighters?

    • A. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

    • B. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • C. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

    • D. National Military Command System (NMCS).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS). GBS is a system that utilizes the widely used commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to deliver crucial information to the military personnel involved in warfare operations. It provides a means for rapid and efficient dissemination of critical data, including intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance information, to support decision-making and enhance situational awareness for warfighters. GBS enables real-time communication and information sharing across various military units and platforms, improving operational effectiveness and coordination.

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  • 46. 

    16. (003) From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

    • A. Sunlight.

    • B. Microwaves.

    • C. Ionizing radiation.

    • D. Nonionizing radiation.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Nonionizing radiation.
    Explanation
    Nonionizing radiation refers to electromagnetic radiation that does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, therefore, it is unable to cause ionization in biological tissues. Unlike ionizing radiation, which includes X-rays and gamma rays, nonionizing radiation does not have enough energy to penetrate deeply into the body and cause harm to deep tissue organs. This means that a person can absorb nonionizing radiation without experiencing any sensation of skin heating, while still potentially damaging deep tissue organs.

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  • 47. 

    55. (017) The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure

    • A. historical events are not forgotten.

    • B. the collection of data creates a wealth of information.

    • C. we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed.

    • D. data for individuals is readily available upon request and privacy act information is protected.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed.
    Explanation
    The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure that information can be provided to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed. This suggests that the main reason for keeping records is to have a reliable and accessible source of information that can be used to make informed decisions. This is important because decision makers rely on accurate and up-to-date data to effectively carry out their responsibilities. By maintaining records, organizations can ensure that decision makers have the necessary information at their disposal to make informed choices.

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  • 48. 

    59. (019) For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?

    • A. Casualties.

    • B. Base closures.

    • C. Deployed AF units.

    • D. Joint force operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Base closures.
    Explanation
    Federal records centers will accept records having less than 3 years of retention for base closures. This means that when a military base is closed, the federal records center will accept and store any records related to the base, even if they have not been retained for the usual 3-year period. This exception recognizes the unique circumstances of base closures and the need to preserve and manage the records associated with them.

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  • 49. 

    100. (039) What function provides the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via personal computers (PC), personal digital assistants (PDAs), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in real-time?

    • A. Command Post.

    • B. AtHoc’s solutions.

    • C. Regional warning system.

    • D. Command warning system.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. AtHoc’s solutions.
    Explanation
    AtHoc's solutions provide the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people in real-time through various devices such as personal computers, personal digital assistants, land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and giant voice systems. These solutions enable effective communication and dissemination of information to a large number of individuals across different platforms, ensuring efficient and timely communication within the DOD.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 09, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    NotTheAsianGuy
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