CDC 3DX5X Cyber Support Journeyman Volume 1

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| By NotTheAsianGuy

NotTheAsianGuy

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 170

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 170 | Updated: Mar 19, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

1. (001) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?
- A.
  
  A. Core task.
- B.
  
  B. Duty competency.
- C.
  
  C. Core competency.
- D.
  
  D. Duty position task.
Correct Answer
D. D. Duty position task.

Explanation
The correct answer is d. Duty position task. According to AFI 36-2201, the duty position task is assigned by the supervisor. This refers to the specific tasks and responsibilities that are associated with a particular duty position within the military. It is the supervisor's responsibility to assign these tasks to the enlisted personnel based on their skills, qualifications, and the needs of the organization.

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2.

2. (001) Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
- A.
  
  A. Core task.
- B.
  
  B. Duty competency.
- C.
  
  C. Core competency.
- D.
  
  D. Duty position task.
Correct Answer
C. C. Core competency.

Explanation
A core competency is an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills that are specific to a particular career field. It represents the essential skills and abilities that individuals in that career field must possess in order to perform their duties effectively. This term is often used in the context of job descriptions and performance evaluations to identify the key skills and competencies required for success in a particular role.

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3.

3. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
- A.
  
  A. Cyber Surety.
- B.
  
  B. Client Systems.
- C.
  
  C. Cyber Transport.
- D.
  
  D. Cyber Systems Operations.
Correct Answer
D. D. Cyber Systems Operations.

Explanation
Cyber Systems Operations is the correct answer because this Air Force Specialty (AFS) specifically deals with the administration of servers and server farms. This AFS focuses on managing and maintaining the functionality of servers and server farms across Air Force installations globally, ensuring their smooth operation and security. It involves tasks such as installing, configuring, and troubleshooting servers, as well as managing network infrastructure and ensuring data integrity.

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4.

4. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and “hands-on” maintenance actions?
- A.
  
  A. Cyber Surety.
- B.
  
  B. Client Systems.
- C.
  
  C. Cyber Transport.
- D.
  
  D. Cyber Systems Operations.
Correct Answer
B. B. Client Systems.

Explanation
The correct answer is b. Client Systems. The responsibility of Client Systems in the 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) includes providing local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions. This means that individuals in this AFS are responsible for assisting users with technical issues, troubleshooting problems, and performing maintenance tasks on computer systems at the local base level.

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5.

5. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
  
  A. Spectrum Operations.
- B.
  
  B. Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
  
  c. Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
  
  d. Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
D. d. Radio Frequency Transmission.

Explanation
The correct answer is d. Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This includes working with various RF equipment and technologies to ensure effective communication and transmission of signals.

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6.

6. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?
- A.
  
  A. Spectrum Operations.
- B.
  
  B. Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
  
  c. Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
  
  D. Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
B. B. Ground Radar Systems.

Explanation
The correct answer is b. Ground Radar Systems. Ground Radar Systems are responsible for the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. These systems are crucial for monitoring and controlling air traffic, as well as providing weather information and air defense capabilities. Spectrum Operations, Cable and Antenna Systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission are not directly involved in the installation and maintenance of radar systems.

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7.

7. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
  
  A. Spectrum Operations.
- B.
  
  B. Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
  
  c. Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
  
  d. Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
C. c. Cable and Antenna Systems.

Explanation
The correct answer is c. Cable and Antenna Systems. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large scale network wiring in support of both fixed and deployed operations. This includes the installation and maintenance of cable and antenna systems, which are essential for establishing and maintaining communication networks.

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8.

8. (002) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
  
  A. Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
  
  B. Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
  
  c. Major command functional manager MFM).
- D.
  
  d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They have the expertise and knowledge to provide guidance and support to individuals in the career field. They are responsible for ensuring career development, training, and progression within the field. The AFCFM works closely with other managers and leaders to ensure the needs and concerns of the career field are addressed.

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9.

9. (002) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
  
  A. Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
  
  B. Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
  
  C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
  
  D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This individual has the ultimate decision-making power in determining whether or not a waiver should be granted. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing the career field and ensuring that the necessary training and education requirements are met.

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10.

10. (002) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
  
  A. Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
  
  B. Base functional manager BFM).
- C.
  
  C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
  
  D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
C. C. Major command functional manager (MFM).

Explanation
The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the career development and training within their specific major command, and they have the knowledge and expertise to identify individuals who can contribute to the development of tests and courses in their respective fields.

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11.

11. (002) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
  
  A. Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
  
  B. Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
  
  C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
  
  D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
B. B. Base functional manager (BFM).

Explanation
The on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is normally assigned the title of Base functional manager (BFM). This title indicates that the NCO is responsible for managing the functions and operations related to cyberspace within their base. They oversee the implementation and maintenance of cyberspace systems and ensure that they are functioning effectively and securely. The BFM works closely with other units and personnel to coordinate and support cyberspace operations at the base level.

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12.

12. (002) What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
  
  A. Modify training.
- B.
  
  B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- C.
  
  C. Conduct climate training surveys.
- D.
  
  D. Review the occupational analysis report.
Correct Answer
B. B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

Explanation
The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan outlines the education and training requirements for a specific career field, ensuring that personnel receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively. The U&TW aims to develop a comprehensive and well-structured CFETP that meets the needs of the career field and supports career progression and development. This plan serves as a guide for training managers, supervisors, and individuals within the career field, helping to align training efforts with organizational goals and objectives.

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13.

13. (003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment?”
- A.
  
  A. 91–46.
- B.
  
  B. 91–50.
- C.
  
  C. 91–64.
- D.
  
  D. 91–68.
Correct Answer
A. A. 91–46.

Explanation
AFOSH standard 91-46 is the correct answer because it specifically addresses safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment." This standard provides guidelines and procedures for safely handling and storing materials in the Air Force. It covers topics such as equipment maintenance, inspection, and proper use to prevent accidents and injuries. By referencing AFOSH standard 91-46, individuals can ensure they are following the recommended safety practices when working with material handling and storage equipment.

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14.

14. (003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”
- A.
  
  A. 91–46.
- B.
  
  B. 91–50.
- C.
  
  C. 91–64.
- D.
  
  D. 91–68.
Correct Answer
B. B. 91–50.

Explanation
AFOSH standard document 91-50 would be the appropriate reference for safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems."

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15.

15. (003) The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
- A.
  
  A. 91–46.
- B.
  
  B. 91–50.
- C.
  
  C. 91–64.
- D.
  
  D. 91–68.
Correct Answer
C. C. 91–64.

Explanation
The correct answer is c. 91-64. This AFOSH standard specifically pertains to safety information on data processing facilities.

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16.

16. (003) From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
- A.
  
  A. Sunlight.
- B.
  
  B. Microwaves.
- C.
  
  C. Ionizing radiation.
- D.
  
  D. Nonionizing radiation.
Correct Answer
D. D. Nonionizing radiation.

Explanation
Nonionizing radiation refers to electromagnetic radiation that does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, therefore, it is unable to cause ionization in biological tissues. Unlike ionizing radiation, which includes X-rays and gamma rays, nonionizing radiation does not have enough energy to penetrate deeply into the body and cause harm to deep tissue organs. This means that a person can absorb nonionizing radiation without experiencing any sensation of skin heating, while still potentially damaging deep tissue organs.

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17.

17. (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?
- A.
  
  A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
  
  B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
  
  C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
  
  D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
A. A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

Explanation
The correct answer is a. Accept no unnecessary risk. This principle emphasizes the importance of minimizing risks to personnel and resources while still accomplishing the mission. It suggests that only risks that are necessary for mission success should be accepted, and any unnecessary risks should be avoided. This principle promotes a proactive approach to risk management, ensuring that risks are carefully evaluated and mitigated to the greatest extent possible. By accepting no unnecessary risk, organizations can prioritize the safety and well-being of their personnel and resources while still achieving their objectives.

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18.

18. (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?
- A.
  
  A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
  
  B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
  
  C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
  
  D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
C. C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

Explanation
The correct answer is c. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs. This principle of occupational risk management (ORM) emphasizes the need to carefully evaluate the potential risks and benefits before making decisions. It suggests that if the benefits of taking a certain risk outweigh the potential costs or negative consequences, then it may be acceptable to proceed. This principle helps to ensure that decisions are made with a clear understanding of the potential outcomes and the overall impact on unit capability. By weighing the risks against opportunities and benefits, organizations can make informed decisions that maximize their effectiveness and minimize unnecessary risks.

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19.

19. (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
- A.
  
  A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
  
  B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
  
  C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
  
  D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
D. D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

Explanation
The correct answer is d. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels. This principle suggests that risk assessments should be seamlessly integrated into the normal process of conducting a mission, rather than being treated as an additional step or afterthought. This means that risk assessments should be conducted at all levels of operations and planning to ensure that risks are identified and managed effectively. By integrating ORM into operations and planning, organizations can proactively identify and mitigate risks, leading to safer and more efficient mission execution.

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20.

20. (005) Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by
- A.
  
  A. providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.
- B.
  
  B. taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.
- C.
  
  C. denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.
- D.
  
  D. allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from.
Correct Answer
C. C. denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.

Explanation
Offensive operations in cyberspace support United States objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying, or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. This means that the goal is to hinder the adversary's ability to operate effectively in the digital domain, whether by blocking their access, reducing their capabilities, or causing damage to their systems. The objective is to gain an advantage over the adversary and protect sensitive data and infrastructure.

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21.

21. (006) Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
- A.
  
  A. Joint Operability network.
- B.
  
  B. Tactical data links network.
- C.
  
  C. Strategic data control network.
- D.
  
  D. Supervisory control and data acquisition.
Correct Answer
D. D. Supervisory control and data acquisition.

Explanation
Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are used in various industries, such as manufacturing, energy, and transportation, to gather and analyze real-time data, provide remote control capabilities, and optimize operational processes. These systems allow operators to monitor and control different processes and equipment from a central location, improving efficiency, safety, and productivity.

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22.

22. (007) Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?
- A.
  
  A. Area Processing Center (APC).
- B.
  
  B. Network Control Center (NCC).
- C.
  
  C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
- D.
  
  D. Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).
Correct Answer
C. C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

Explanation
The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. This center is responsible for monitoring and managing the Air Force's network infrastructure, ensuring its security, and coordinating network operations. The AFNOC plays a critical role in maintaining the availability and integrity of Air Force networks, making it the correct answer to this question.

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23.

23. (007) Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
- A.
  
  A. Area Processing Center (APC).
- B.
  
  B. Network Control Center (NCC).
- C.
  
  C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
- D.
  
  D. Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).
Correct Answer
B. B. Network Control Center (NCC).

Explanation
The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and is responsible for providing Tier 3 on-site support and implementing technical and physical network changes. This means that the NCC handles local level network operations and is involved in making necessary changes to the network infrastructure. The other options, such as the Area Processing Center (APC), Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC), and Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC), do not specifically mention the role of providing Tier 3 on-site support and implementing network changes, making them incorrect answers.

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24.

24. (008) Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
- A.
  
  A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
  
  B. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C.
  
  C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D.
  
  D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
Correct Answer
C. C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

Explanation
The correct answer is c. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS). This organization's mission varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages. This implies that they have the capability to handle both small-scale and large-scale communication needs in a deployed environment. The other options, such as the Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS), may have different missions or focus areas that do not necessarily include the full range of communication capabilities described in the question.

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25.

25. (008) Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?
- A.
  
  A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
  
  B. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C.
  
  C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D.
  
  D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
Correct Answer
D. D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

Explanation
The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF). This suggests that the ECS is responsible for providing communication support and services to the AETF during their operations. The other options, such as the Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Combat Communications Squadron (CCS), do not specifically mention their role in supporting an AETF, making them less likely to be the correct answer.

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26.

26. (008) Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
- A.
  
  A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
  
  B. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C.
  
  C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D.
  
  D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
Correct Answer
A. A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

Explanation
The correct answer is a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU). The ESU is responsible for managing AF core services within the AFNetOps community. Their goal is to reduce training and maintenance costs, as well as increase operational flexibility and capacity to support the warfighter. This means that the ESU focuses on optimizing and streamlining the delivery of essential services to enhance the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the Air Force's operations.

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27.

27. (009) Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
- A.
  
  A. Constitution.
- B.
  
  B. Bill of Rights.
- C.
  
  C. United States Title Code 10.
- D.
  
  D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer
A. A. Constitution.

Explanation
The Constitution is the document that serves as the foundation for drafting and enforcing all federal laws in the United States. It outlines the structure of the government, the powers and limitations of each branch, and the rights and freedoms of the citizens. It is considered the supreme law of the land and provides the framework for the legal system in the country. The Bill of Rights, United States Title Code 10, and the Uniform Code of Military Justice are all important legal documents, but they are not the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws like the Constitution is.

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28.

28. (009) Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- A.
  
  A. Constitution.
- B.
  
  B. Bill of Rights.
- C.
  
  C. United States Title Code 10.
- D.
  
  D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer
C. C. United States Title Code 10.

Explanation
The correct answer is c. United States Title Code 10. The United States Title Code 10, also known as the U.S.C. Title 10, is a federal law that governs the organization and structure of the Department of Defense (DOD). It authorizes the creation of the DOD as the executive component of the government and establishes all subordinate agencies, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This document outlines the roles, responsibilities, and authorities of the DOD and its components, making it the appropriate choice for this question.

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29.

29. (009) Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
- A.
  
  A. Constitution.
- B.
  
  B. Bill of Rights.
- C.
  
  C. United States Title Code 10.
- D.
  
  D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer
D. D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.

Explanation
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breaches in binding instruction and law. It is a federal law that outlines the legal system for the military and governs the conduct of military personnel. The UCMJ covers a wide range of offenses, including crimes that are not covered by civilian law. It provides a framework for maintaining discipline and ensuring justice within the military.

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30.

30. (010) In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?
- A.
  
  A. 1994.
- B.
  
  B. 1995.
- C.
  
  C. 1997.
- D.
  
  d. 1998.
Correct Answer
B. B. 1995.

Explanation
In 1995, the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD.

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31.

31. (010) In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?
- A.
  
  A. 1994.
- B.
  
  B. 1995.
- C.
  
  C. 1997.
- D.
  
  D. 1998.
Correct Answer
D. D. 1998.

Explanation
In August of 1998, the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine. This was the same year in which the Joint Staff also published its doctrine. Therefore, the correct answer is d. 1998.

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32.

32. (010) Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
- A.
  
  A. Air Force Doctrines.
- B.
  
  B. Air Force Pamphlets.
- C.
  
  C. Air Force Instructions.
- D.
  
  D. Air Force Policy Directives.
Correct Answer
D. D. Air Force Policy Directives.

Explanation
Air Force Policy Directives are directive policy statements of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF that are used to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct within their specified areas of responsibility. These directives provide clear guidance and instructions for Air Force personnel to follow in order to ensure consistency and compliance with established policies and procedures. Air Force Doctrines, Air Force Pamphlets, and Air Force Instructions may also provide guidance and instructions, but they do not have the same level of authority as Air Force Policy Directives.

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33.

33. (010) Which publication type are informational publications which are “how to” documents?
- A.
  
  A. Air Force Pamphlets.
- B.
  
  B. Air Force Instructions.
- C.
  
  C. Air Force Publications.
- D.
  
  D. Air Force Policy Directives.
Correct Answer
A. A. Air Force Pamphlets.

Explanation
Air Force Pamphlets are informational publications that provide "how to" documents. They are typically shorter in length and provide step-by-step instructions or guidance on specific topics. Air Force Instructions, Air Force Publications, and Air Force Policy Directives may also contain informational content, but they are not specifically focused on providing "how to" documents.

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34.

34. (011) What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
- A.
  
  A. Broadcasts.
- B.
  
  B. Transmissions.
- C.
  
  C. Telecommunications.
- D.
  
  D. Voice over Internet Protocol.
Correct Answer
C. C. Telecommunications.

Explanation
Telecommunications refers to the transmission of information over significant distances using analog or digital signals. It encompasses various technologies and methods, including telephone networks, internet protocols, satellite communication, and more. Telecommunications enables the transfer of data, voice, and video over long distances, facilitating communication between individuals or organizations. It is a broad term that encompasses both analog and digital transmission methods, making it the correct answer for the given question.

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35.

35. (011) What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?
- A.
  
  A. myPay.
- B.
  
  B. E-publishing.
- C.
  
  C. Air Force Portal.
- D.
  
  D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
C. C. Air Force Portal.

Explanation
The Air Force Portal is the correct answer because it is a tool that provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location. It serves as a centralized platform where members of the Air Force can access important information, documents, and resources related to their duties and responsibilities. It allows for easy navigation and access to various online tools and services that are necessary for Air Force personnel.

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36.

36. (011) What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
- A.
  
  A. myPay.
- B.
  
  B. E-publishing.
- C.
  
  C. Air Force Portal.
- D.
  
  D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
C. C. Air Force Portal.

Explanation
The Air Force Portal is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces. It provides a centralized location for Air Force personnel to access information, resources, and tools necessary to carry out their duties. The portal allows for efficient communication, collaboration, and information sharing, making it an essential tool for the Air Force's transformation efforts.

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37.

37. (012) Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?
- A.
  
  A. my base.
- B.
  
  B. Single-sign-on.
- C.
  
  C. Community of practice.
- D.
  
  D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
B. B. Single-sign-on.

Explanation
Single-sign-on is a feature on the Air Force Portal that allows authorized users to enter their password once and gain access to all applications without needing to log in again. This feature simplifies the login process and enhances user convenience by eliminating the need for multiple logins for different applications.

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38.

38. (012) Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?
- A.
  
  A. my base.
- B.
  
  B. Single-sign-on.
- C.
  
  C. Community of practice.
- D.
  
  D. virtual Military Personnel Flight
Correct Answer
D. D. virtual Military Personnel Flight

Explanation
The virtual Military Personnel Flight (MPF) is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal. This feature allows Air Force personnel to access and manage their personnel information and records online, without the need to physically visit an MPF office. It provides convenience and efficiency by allowing users to update their personal information, view their leave and earnings statements, access training records, and perform other personnel-related tasks from anywhere with internet access. This feature saves time and resources for both the Air Force and its personnel.

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39.

39. (012) Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?
- A.
  
  A. my base.
- B.
  
  B. Single-sign-on.
- C.
  
  C. Community of practice.
- D.
  
  D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
C. C. Community of practice.

Explanation
The correct answer is c. Community of practice. A community of practice is a feature on the Air Force Portal that provides a secure, web-based collaborative environment for a specific task or topic. It allows members of a group to share information, tools, and resources to conduct business, manage projects, and solve group problems. This feature promotes knowledge sharing and collaboration among members of the Air Force.

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40.

40. (013) Which document would you reference for guidance on “Web management and Internet use?”
- A.
  
  A. AFI 33−118.
- B.
  
  B. AFI 33−119.
- C.
  
  C. AFI 33−127.
- D.
  
  D. AFI 33−129.
Correct Answer
D. D. AFI 33−129.

Explanation
AFI 33-129 is the document that provides guidance on "Web management and Internet use."

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41.

41. (013) Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?
- A.
  
  A. AFI 33−127.
- B.
  
  B. AFI 33−129.
- C.
  
  C. AFI 35−101.
- D.
  
  D. AFI 35−108.
Correct Answer
C. C. AFI 35−101.

Explanation
AFI 35−101 provides guidance on public affairs procedures, including clearance and approval procedures for posting information to the internet and public websites. This document would be the appropriate reference for ensuring compliance with local clearance and approval procedures for posting web content on an Air Force web page.

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42.

42. (013) When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?
- A.
  
  A. Keep emails brief and to the point.
- B.
  
  B. Read your email out loud to yourself.
- C.
  
  C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.
- D.
  
  D. Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message.
Correct Answer
C. C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.

Explanation
Using the "Reply-to-All" feature consistently would not follow proper email etiquette. This feature should only be used when it is necessary for everyone in the email chain to receive the response. Using "Reply-to-All" unnecessarily can clutter inboxes and lead to confusion. It is important to consider who truly needs to be included in the response and use the appropriate reply option accordingly.

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43.

43. (014) Which document is not considered an official government record?
- A.
  
  A. Published doctrines.
- B.
  
  B. Geographical base maps.
- C.
  
  C. Photographs of a retreat ceremony.
- D.
  
  D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.
Correct Answer
D. D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.

Explanation
Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by government agencies for the purpose of documenting official activities or transactions. While they may contain valuable information, they are typically created for educational or informational purposes rather than as official records of government operations.

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44.

44. (014) Records that are considered to be in draft format
- A.
  
  A. can be altered and are not officially released.
- B.
  
  B. can’t be altered, but are officially released.
- C.
  
  C. can’t be altered and are officially signed.
- D.
  
  D. officially signed and officially released.
Correct Answer
A. A. can be altered and are not officially released.

Explanation
Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that they are still in the process of being finalized and may undergo changes before they are officially released and made available to the public or relevant parties. These draft records are not considered as the final version and may contain errors or incomplete information. Therefore, they can be modified or updated before they are officially released.

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45.

45. (014) Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?
- A.
  
  A. Officially signed and not released.
- B.
  
  B. Officially signed and officially released.
- C.
  
  C. Can be altered and are not officially released.
- D.
  
  D. Can’t be altered, but are not officially released.
Correct Answer
B. B. Officially signed and officially released.

Explanation
Records that are considered to be in final format are officially signed and officially released. This means that they have undergone all necessary approvals and are considered complete and ready for use. They have been officially signed to indicate their authenticity and have been officially released for distribution or access to authorized individuals or entities. This characteristic ensures that the records are considered official and can be relied upon for reference or legal purposes.

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46.

46. (015) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
- A.
  
  A. Base records manager.
- B.
  
  B. Chief of Office of Records.
- C.
  
  C. Command records manager.
- D.
  
  D. Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer
C. C. Command records manager.

Explanation
The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role is specifically designated to ensure that base records managers receive the necessary training and guidance to effectively carry out their duties. The command records manager has the expertise and knowledge to develop appropriate training programs that align with the requirements and standards of the organization. Therefore, option c is the correct answer.

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47.

47. (015) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
- A.
  
  A. Base records manager.
- B.
  
  B. Chief of Office of Records.
- C.
  
  C. Command records manager.
- D.
  
  D. Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer
A. A. Base records manager.

Explanation
The correct answer is a. Base records manager. The base records manager is responsible for providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training. This role involves overseeing the organization and maintenance of records within a specific base or location. They ensure that records are properly stored, accessible, and in compliance with regulations. They also provide support and training to other personnel in managing records effectively.

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48.

48. (015) Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
- A.
  
  A. Base records manager.
- B.
  
  B. Chief of Office of Records.
- C.
  
  C. Command records manager.
- D.
  
  D. Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer
D. D. Functional area records manager.

Explanation
The functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with regulations and policies related to record keeping. They work closely with other records managers and personnel to ensure the proper organization and retention of records for their functional area.

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49.

49. (015) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
- A.
  
  A. Base records manager.
- B.
  
  B. Chief of Office of Records.
- C.
  
  C. Command records manager.
- D.
  
  D. Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer
B. B. Chief of Office of Records.

Explanation
The Chief of Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the office and has the authority to delegate specific responsibilities to record custodians. The Chief of Office of Records ensures that records are properly organized, stored, and accessible, and appointing custodians is part of their role in ensuring effective record management.

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50.

50. (016) A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an
- A.
  
  A. file.
- B.
  
  B. record.
- C.
  
  C. database.
- D.
  
  D. enterprise.
Correct Answer
B. B. record.

Explanation
A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a record. In databases, records are used to store and retrieve specific information about a particular entity or object. Each record typically consists of multiple data fields that hold different types of information related to the entity.

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Current Version
Mar 19, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Feb 09, 2013

Quiz Created by
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CDC 3DX5X Cyber Support Journeyman Volume 1

1. (001) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

2. (001) Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

3. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

4. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and “hands-on” maintenance actions?

5. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

6. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

7. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

8. (002) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

9. (002) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

10. (002) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

11. (002) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

12. (002) What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

13. (003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment?”

14. (003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”

15. (003) The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

16. (003) From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

17. (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

18. (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

19. (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

20. (005) Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

21. (006) Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

22. (007) Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

23. (007) Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

24. (008) Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

25. (008) Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?

26. (008) Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

27. (009) Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

28. (009) Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

29. (009) Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

30. (010) In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?

31. (010) In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

32. (010) Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?

33. (010) Which publication type are informational publications which are “how to” documents?

34. (011) What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

35. (011) What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?

36. (011) What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?

37. (012) Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?

38. (012) Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?

39. (012) Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?

40. (013) Which document would you reference for guidance on “Web management and Internet use?”

41. (013) Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?

42. (013) When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?

43. (014) Which document is not considered an official government record?

44. (014) Records that are considered to be in draft format

45. (014) Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?

46. (015) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

47. (015) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

48. (015) Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

49. (015) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

50. (016) A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an