3DX5X Vol 1 -- Random Questions

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

3DX5X CDC Quiz.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which AFSC is primarily concerned with the function of handling data, information, and knowledge-sharing services? Also concerning the management of the Air Force Portal.

    • A.

      Knowledge Operations Management

    • B.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    • C.

      Cyber Surety

    • D.

      Cyberspace Systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Knowledge Operations Management
    Explanation
    Knowledge Operations Management is primarily concerned with the function of handling data, information, and knowledge-sharing services. This AFSC is also responsible for managing the Air Force Portal, which is a platform used for information sharing and collaboration within the Air Force.

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  • 2. 

    Which AFSC is 3D0X3?

    • A.

      RF Transmission Systems

    • B.

      Spectrum Operations

    • C.

      Cyber Surety

    • D.

      Computer System Programming

    Correct Answer
    C. Cyber Surety
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cyber Surety. This is because AFSC 3D0X3 refers to the job code for Cyber Surety in the Air Force. Cyber Surety personnel are responsible for ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems and networks, protecting them from unauthorized access, and identifying and mitigating potential vulnerabilities and threats.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is Cyber Systems Operations?

    • A.

      3D1X3

    • B.

      3D0X4

    • C.

      3D1X1

    • D.

      3D0X2

    Correct Answer
    D. 3D0X2
    Explanation
    Cyber Systems Operations is the correct answer. This job specialty, designated as 3D0X2, involves managing and maintaining computer networks and systems, ensuring their security and functionality. Cyber Systems Operators are responsible for troubleshooting network issues, implementing security measures, and providing technical support to users. They play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and availability of computer systems, protecting them from cyber threats, and ensuring smooth operations within an organization.

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  • 4. 

    Which career field is responsible for administering the Air Force Information Assurance (IA) program, which includes COMSEC, EMSEC, and COMPUSEC?

    • A.

      Knowledge Operations Management

    • B.

      Cyber Surety

    • C.

      Airfield Systems

    • D.

      Spectrum Operations

    Correct Answer
    B. Cyber Surety
    Explanation
    Cyber Surety is responsible for administering the Air Force Information Assurance (IA) program, which includes COMSEC, EMSEC, and COMPUSEC. This career field focuses on ensuring the security and integrity of information systems and networks within the Air Force. They are responsible for implementing measures to protect against unauthorized access, disclosure, and destruction of sensitive information. Cyber Surety professionals also conduct risk assessments, develop security policies and procedures, and provide training and guidance to personnel on information security practices.

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  • 5. 

    What are the two sub-groups of the cyberspace support family of career fields?

    • A.

      Cyberspace Surety and Cyberspace Systems

    • B.

      Cyberspace Systems and Cyberspace Programming

    • C.

      Cyberspace Transmissions and Cyberspace Managers

    • D.

      Cyberspace Operations and Cyberspace Systems

    Correct Answer
    D. Cyberspace Operations and Cyberspace Systems
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cyberspace Operations and Cyberspace Systems. These two sub-groups are part of the cyberspace support family of career fields. Cyberspace Operations involves the planning and execution of defensive and offensive cyberspace operations, while Cyberspace Systems focuses on the design, implementation, and maintenance of cyberspace systems and networks.

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  • 6. 

    Which career field is the central source for software development, maintenance, and testing?

    • A.

      Computer System Programming

    • B.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    • C.

      Client Systems

    • D.

      Cyber Transport

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer System Programming
    Explanation
    Computer System Programming is the correct answer because it is the career field that is primarily responsible for software development, maintenance, and testing. This field involves writing, debugging, and optimizing code, as well as ensuring that software systems are functioning properly. Computer System Programmers work with programming languages and tools to create and modify software applications, operating systems, and other computer programs. They play a crucial role in the development and maintenance of software systems, making them the central source for these activities.

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  • 7. 

    Which sub-group is responsible for the maintenance and operation of cyberspace systems that include voice, data, video, and radar systems?

    • A.

      Cyberspace Systems

    • B.

      Cyberspace Operations

    • C.

      Cyberspace Spectrum Operations

    • D.

      Client Systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyberspace Systems
    Explanation
    Cyberspace Systems is the correct answer because this sub-group is responsible for the maintenance and operation of various cyberspace systems, including voice, data, video, and radar systems. This implies that they are in charge of ensuring the proper functioning and upkeep of these systems, which are crucial for the operation of cyberspace.

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  • 8. 

    How many specialties fall under the heading of Cyberspace Systems specialties?

    • A.

      11

    • B.

      9

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    D. 7
    Explanation
    There are a total of 7 specialties that fall under the heading of Cyberspace Systems specialties.

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  • 9. 

    Which career field operates and maintains studio and broadcast equipment for the Armed Forces Network (AFN)?

    • A.

      RF Transmissions Systems

    • B.

      Spectrum Operations

    • C.

      Cyberspace Systems

    • D.

      Cyber Transport

    Correct Answer
    D. Cyber Transport
    Explanation
    Cyber Transport is the correct answer because this career field is responsible for operating and maintaining studio and broadcast equipment for the Armed Forces Network (AFN). They are specifically trained in managing and troubleshooting the technical aspects of broadcasting, ensuring that the equipment is functioning properly and that the network is able to transmit signals efficiently.

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  • 10. 

    Which specialists coorinate radio, radar, and all other electromagnetic spectrum access requirements?

    • A.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • B.

      Airfield Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Spectrum Operations

    Correct Answer
    D. Spectrum Operations
    Explanation
    Spectrum Operations specialists are responsible for coordinating radio, radar, and all other electromagnetic spectrum access requirements. They ensure that different systems and devices can operate within the electromagnetic spectrum without interfering with each other. This involves managing and allocating frequencies, monitoring spectrum usage, and resolving any conflicts or issues that may arise. Spectrum Operations specialists play a crucial role in ensuring efficient and effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum across various military operations.

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  • 11. 

    Which AFSC includes friend-or-foe identification systems, visual display systems, and remote equipment?

    • A.

      3D1X4 Ground Radar Systems

    • B.

      3D1X5 Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      3D1X5 Airfield Systems

    • D.

      3D1X6 Airfield Systems

    Correct Answer
    B. 3D1X5 Ground Radar Systems
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3D1X5 Ground Radar Systems. This AFSC includes friend-or-foe identification systems, visual display systems, and remote equipment.

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  • 12. 

    These 3D1X6 technicians provide expertise in the area of meteorological, navigation and air traffic control ground-to-air radio systems.

    • A.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Airfield Systems

    • D.

      Cyber Transport

    Correct Answer
    C. Airfield Systems
    Explanation
    Airfield Systems is the correct answer because the given statement mentions that the 3D1X6 technicians provide expertise in the area of meteorological, navigation, and air traffic control ground-to-air radio systems. Among the given options, Airfield Systems is the most relevant as it involves the management and operation of various systems related to airfields, including communication systems. This aligns with the mentioned expertise in air traffic control ground-to-air radio systems.

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  • 13. 

    Members of this AFSC are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • A.

      3D1X7

    • B.

      3D1X3

    • C.

      3D0X3

    • D.

      3D1X1

    Correct Answer
    A. 3D1X7
    Explanation
    Members of AFSC 3D1X7 are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This means that they are trained and equipped to handle the setup and maintenance of complex network infrastructure in various operational environments. They are likely to be involved in tasks such as running network cables, troubleshooting connectivity issues, and ensuring that the network is secure and functioning properly.

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  • 14. 

    How many "3D" career fields are there?

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      9

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      11

    Correct Answer
    D. 11
    Explanation
    There are a total of 11 "3D" career fields.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following are the three very important positions within the 3D career field?

    • A.

      Air Force Career Field Manager, Unit Training Manager, Base Functional Manager

    • B.

      Base Functional Manager, MAJCOM Functional Manager, Air Force Career Field Manager

    • C.

      Unit Training Manager, MAJCOM Functional Manager, Base Functional Manager

    • D.

      Base Functional Manager, MAJCOM Functional Manager, Unit Training Manager

    Correct Answer
    B. Base Functional Manager, MAJCOM Functional Manager, Air Force Career Field Manager
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Base Functional Manager, MAJCOM Functional Manager, Air Force Career Field Manager. These three positions are crucial within the 3D career field as they oversee different aspects of operations. The Base Functional Manager is responsible for managing and coordinating the functional activities at the base level. The MAJCOM Functional Manager oversees functional activities at the major command level. The Air Force Career Field Manager is in charge of managing and directing career field policies and programs at the Air Force level. Together, these positions ensure effective management and coordination of activities within the 3D career field.

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  • 16. 

    Which Manager assists AETC training managers and supervisors as well as serving as the final authority to waive career field education training plan requirments, including your CDCs?

    • A.

      Air Force Career Field Manager

    • B.

      MAJCOM Functional Manager

    • C.

      Base Functional Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Career Field Manager
    Explanation
    The Air Force Career Field Manager assists AETC training managers and supervisors and has the authority to waive career field education training plan requirements, including CDCs. This role serves as the final authority in making decisions regarding training and education within the career field.

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  • 17. 

    Which Manager assists in identifying qualified subject matter experts to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests and CDCs?

    • A.

      AFCFM

    • B.

      MFM

    • C.

      BFM

    • D.

      UTM

    Correct Answer
    B. MFM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MFM. MFM stands for Manager of Functional Managers, and one of their responsibilities is to assist in identifying qualified subject matter experts for the development of specialty knowledge tests and CDCs. This role requires a deep understanding of the subject matter and the ability to identify individuals who possess the necessary expertise to contribute to the development process.

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  • 18. 

    Who offers the overall management of the unit's training program?

    • A.

      BFM

    • B.

      MFM

    • C.

      AFCFM

    • D.

      UTM

    Correct Answer
    D. UTM
    Explanation
    UTM, or Unit Training Manager, offers the overall management of the unit's training program. This role involves coordinating and overseeing all aspects of training within the unit, including planning, scheduling, and evaluating training activities. The UTM ensures that training requirements are met, tracks individual and unit training progress, and collaborates with other stakeholders to develop and implement effective training strategies.

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  • 19. 

    Which managers are normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3DXXX cyberspace superintendent or chief enlisted manager (CEM)?

    • A.

      MAJCOM

    • B.

      Base

    • C.

      Unit Training

    Correct Answer
    B. Base
  • 20. 

    Which managers are normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3DXXX cyberspace superintendent or chief enlisted manager (CEM)?

    • A.

      MAJCOM

    • B.

      Base

    • C.

      Unit Training

    Correct Answer
    B. Base
    Explanation
    The managers that are normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3DXXX cyberspace superintendent or chief enlisted manager (CEM) are based on the base. This means that the managers are assigned according to the specific base where the cyberspace superintendent or CEM is located. The MAJCOM and Unit Training are not mentioned as factors in determining the assignment of managers to the on-station ranking 3DXXX cyberspace superintendent or CEM.

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  • 21. 

    Workshops are provided by whom?

    • A.

      HQ AETC Airman Advancement Division, Randolph AFB

    • B.

      HQ AETC Airman Advancement Division, Keesler AFB

    • C.

      HQ AETC Airman Advancement Division, Schriever AFB

    • D.

      HQ AETC Airman Advancement Division, Travis AFB

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ AETC Airman Advancement Division, Randolph AFB
  • 22. 

    The occupational analysis report contains over how many duty descriptions?

    • A.

      110

    • B.

      120

    • C.

      130

    • D.

      140

    Correct Answer
    D. 140
    Explanation
    The occupational analysis report contains over 140 duty descriptions.

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  • 23. 

    Typically, at what month mark should personnel be considered for job rotation?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      18

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      24

    Correct Answer
    D. 24
    Explanation
    Personnel should typically be considered for job rotation at the 24-month mark. This is because job rotation helps employees gain new skills, knowledge, and experiences, which can enhance their overall performance and prevent burnout. By rotating employees every two years, organizations can ensure that their workforce remains motivated, engaged, and adaptable to different roles and responsibilities. Job rotation also promotes cross-functional collaboration and a broader understanding of the organization's operations.

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  • 24. 

    What does AFOSH stand for?

    • A.

      Air Force Occupational Safety and Health

    • B.

      Air Force Occupational Security and Health

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Occupational Safety and Health
    Explanation
    AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. This acronym refers to the set of regulations, policies, and procedures established by the United States Air Force to ensure the safety and health of its personnel. It encompasses various aspects such as workplace safety, hazard identification, risk assessment, and accident prevention. The Air Force places a strong emphasis on maintaining a safe and healthy work environment for its personnel, and AFOSH plays a crucial role in achieving this goal.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following AFOSH Standard is Data Processing Facilities?

    • A.

      91-68

    • B.

      91-64

    • C.

      48-20

    • D.

      58-92

    Correct Answer
    B. 91-64
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-64. This AFOSH Standard specifically pertains to Data Processing Facilities.

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  • 26. 

    Material Handling and Storage Equipment is which of the following?

    • A.

      AFOSH Standard 91-50

    • B.

      AFOSH Standard 91-64

    • C.

      AFOSH Standard 91-46

    • D.

      AFOSH Standard 90-8

    Correct Answer
    C. AFOSH Standard 91-46
  • 27. 

    How much current flow may result in cardiac arrest?

    • A.

      40uA

    • B.

      50mA

    • C.

      25mA

    • D.

      55uA

    Correct Answer
    B. 50mA
    Explanation
    A current of 50mA may result in cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the electrical signals in the heart become disrupted, leading to an irregular heartbeat or the heart stopping altogether. Currents above 50mA can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially causing cardiac arrest. It is important to note that even lower currents can be dangerous, and any electrical shock should be taken seriously and medical attention sought immediately.

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  • 28. 

    What is electromagnetic radiation whose waves contain energy sufficient to overcome the binding energy of electrons in atoms or molecules?

    • A.

      Nonionizing radiation

    • B.

      Electron tubes

    • C.

      Arcing Radiation

    • D.

      Ionizing Radiation

    Correct Answer
    D. Ionizing Radiation
    Explanation
    Ionizing radiation refers to electromagnetic radiation that carries enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms or molecules, resulting in the formation of ions. This radiation can cause damage to living tissues and DNA, leading to potential health risks such as cancer and genetic mutations. Examples of ionizing radiation include X-rays, gamma rays, and certain types of ultraviolet (UV) radiation. It is important to note that nonionizing radiation, such as radio waves and visible light, does not possess enough energy to cause ionization and is generally considered to be less harmful to biological systems.

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  • 29. 

    It is possible for a person to absorb selectively damaging amounts of nonionizing radiation in deep tissue, harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Nonionizing radiation refers to electromagnetic radiation that does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms or molecules, such as radio waves, microwaves, and infrared radiation. While nonionizing radiation is generally considered to be less harmful than ionizing radiation, it can still cause harm if absorbed in high amounts. This statement suggests that a person can selectively absorb damaging amounts of nonionizing radiation in deep tissues, which can harm organs without causing noticeable skin heating. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 30. 

    Which AFI contains information concerning Self-Aid and Buddy Care Training?

    • A.

      36-2903

    • B.

      32-5409

    • C.

      36-2238

    • D.

      22-3638

    Correct Answer
    C. 36-2238
    Explanation
    AFI 36-2238 contains information concerning Self-Aid and Buddy Care Training.

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  • 31. 

    How many ORM principles are there?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4 because Object-Relational Mapping (ORM) principles are a set of guidelines that help in mapping objects to relational databases. The four main principles of ORM include: 1) Encapsulation, which involves hiding the internal details of the object and exposing only necessary information. 2) Association, which represents the relationship between objects. 3) Inheritance, which allows objects to inherit properties and behaviors from parent objects. 4) Polymorphism, which enables objects to take on multiple forms and behave differently based on the context.

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  • 32. 

    The ORM program can be found in which reference document?

    • A.

      AFI 90-901

    • B.

      AFI 91-900

    • C.

      AFI 92-901

    • D.

      AFI 92-900

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 90-901
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 90-901. This reference document contains the ORM (Operational Risk Management) program. It provides guidelines and procedures for identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in operational activities. AFI 91-900, AFI 92-901, and AFI 92-900 are not the correct reference documents for the ORM program.

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  • 33. 

    Areas which a noise level about how many dB much be clearly identified at the entrances?

    • A.

      89

    • B.

      80

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      85

    Correct Answer
    D. 85
    Explanation
    At the entrances, areas with a noise level of 85 dB must be clearly identified. This means that any area where the noise level exceeds or reaches 85 dB should have clear signage or markings to indicate this. This is important for the safety and comfort of individuals entering those areas, as prolonged exposure to high levels of noise can be harmful to hearing.

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  • 34. 

    Class I ESD range covers?

    • A.

      0-999 V

    • B.

      1000-3999 V

    • C.

      4000-14999 V

    Correct Answer
    A. 0-999 V
    Explanation
    The Class I ESD range covers voltages from 0 to 999 V.

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  • 35. 

    What term refers to centralized systems which monitor and control undustial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

    • A.

      SCADA

    • B.

      TDL Networks

    • C.

      AFSPC

    • D.

      RTU

    Correct Answer
    A. SCADA
    Explanation
    SCADA stands for Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition. It refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are used to collect and analyze data in real-time, allowing operators to remotely control and manage various processes and equipment. These systems are commonly used in industries such as manufacturing, energy, and transportation to improve efficiency, safety, and productivity.

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  • 36. 

    The Air Force Network Operations Center is a crucial element for the AFNetOps/Commander for comand and control of all Air Force networks.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Air Force Network Operations Center plays a critical role in the command and control of all Air Force networks. It is an essential element for AFNetOps/Commander, enabling them to effectively manage and oversee the operations of the networks. This center ensures the smooth functioning and security of the Air Force networks, making it a crucial component in maintaining communication and information flow within the Air Force. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 37. 

    Who's goal is to manage AF core Services, within the AFNetOps community?

    • A.

      Integrated Network Ops

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Unit

    • C.

      Enterprise Service Desk

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadrons

    Correct Answer
    B. Enterprise Service Unit
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Service Unit's goal is to manage AF core Services within the AFNetOps community. This means that they are responsible for overseeing and coordinating the various services provided by the Air Force in the realm of network operations. They ensure that these services are efficiently managed and meet the needs of the AFNetOps community.

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  • 38. 

    Which US Code Title contains the subtitle "Uniform Code of Military Justice"?

    • A.

      USC Title 10, Military Forces

    • B.

      USC Title 18, Military Forces

    • C.

      USC Title 10, Armed Forces

    • D.

      USC Title 18, Armed Forces

    Correct Answer
    C. USC Title 10, Armed Forces
    Explanation
    The correct answer is USC Title 10, Armed Forces. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is a federal law that governs the military justice system in the United States. It is contained in Title 10 of the United States Code (USC), which is the codification of the general and permanent federal laws of the United States. Title 10 specifically pertains to the organization and structure of the Armed Forces, making it the appropriate title for the subtitle "Uniform Code of Military Justice."

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  • 39. 

    US Code Title 18 is?

    • A.

      Crimes and Criminal Procedure

    • B.

      Armed Forces

    • C.

      National Guard

    • D.

      War and National Defense

    Correct Answer
    A. Crimes and Criminal Procedure
    Explanation
    US Code Title 18 is the section of the United States Code that deals with Crimes and Criminal Procedure. It encompasses laws related to various criminal offenses, including but not limited to, fraud, theft, assault, and murder. It also outlines the procedures and rules that govern the investigation, prosecution, and punishment of these crimes. This section of the US Code is an essential legal resource for understanding and enforcing criminal laws in the United States.

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  • 40. 

    US Code Title 32 is?

    • A.

      Crimes and Criminal Procedure

    • B.

      National Guard

    • C.

      Armed Forces

    • D.

      War and National Defense

    Correct Answer
    B. National Guard
    Explanation
    US Code Title 32 is the section of the United States Code that specifically pertains to the National Guard. It outlines the organization, roles, responsibilities, and regulations related to the National Guard, which is a reserve component of the United States Armed Forces. This section of the code also covers the activation, training, and deployment of the National Guard in times of national emergencies or defense needs.

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  • 41. 

    US Code Title 50 is?

    • A.

      Crimes and Criminal Procedure

    • B.

      National Guard

    • C.

      UCMJ

    • D.

      War and National Defense

    Correct Answer
    D. War and National Defense
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "War and National Defense." US Code Title 50 is a compilation of laws related to war and national defense. It includes provisions for the organization and operation of the military, national security, defense procurement, and emergency powers. This code is an important legal framework that governs the country's actions and policies during times of war and national defense.

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  • 42. 

    What is used to classify actions as either military or diplomatic?

    • A.

      Schmitt Analysis

    • B.

      Schmitt Doctrine

    • C.

      Paradigm Analysis

    • D.

      Paradigm Doctrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Schmitt Analysis
    Explanation
    Schmitt Analysis is used to classify actions as either military or diplomatic. This analysis is named after Carl Schmitt, a German jurist and political theorist. It involves examining the nature and characteristics of an action to determine whether it falls under the category of military or diplomatic. This analysis helps in understanding the strategic implications and consequences of different actions, allowing for informed decision-making in international relations and conflict resolution.

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  • 43. 

    When did the Air Force finalize and publish its IO doctrine?

    • A.

      August 1999

    • B.

      August 1998

    • C.

      August 1997

    • D.

      August 1996

    Correct Answer
    B. August 1998
    Explanation
    The Air Force finalized and published its IO doctrine in August 1998.

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  • 44. 

    Who is the principal defense policy advisor to the president?

    • A.

      Joint Chief of Staff

    • B.

      Department of Defense

    • C.

      Secretary of Defense

    Correct Answer
    C. Secretary of Defense
    Explanation
    The Secretary of Defense serves as the principal defense policy advisor to the president. They are responsible for providing guidance and recommendations on matters related to national defense and security. This role involves advising the president on defense strategies, military operations, and the overall defense policy of the country. As the head of the Department of Defense, the Secretary is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the activities of the military and ensuring the readiness and effectiveness of the armed forces.

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  • 45. 

    What publication are "how to" documents?

    • A.

      AF pamphlets

    • B.

      AF manuals

    • C.

      AF instructions

    • D.

      AF doctrines

    Correct Answer
    A. AF pamphlets
    Explanation
    AF pamphlets are the correct answer because "how to" documents are typically short, concise publications that provide step-by-step instructions on how to perform a specific task or procedure. Pamphlets are often used for this purpose as they can be easily distributed and are designed to provide quick and practical information. AF manuals, AF instructions, and AF doctrines may contain more comprehensive information and guidelines, but they are not specifically focused on providing "how to" instructions.

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  • 46. 

    What are guidance documents for procedures that contain examples for performing standard tasks, or supporting education and training programs?

    • A.

      AF policy directives

    • B.

      AF pamphlets

    • C.

      AF manuals

    • D.

      AF doctrines

    Correct Answer
    C. AF manuals
    Explanation
    AF manuals are guidance documents for procedures that contain examples for performing standard tasks, or supporting education and training programs. They provide detailed instructions and information on how to carry out specific tasks and procedures within the Air Force. These manuals serve as a reference for personnel and serve to ensure consistency and standardization in the execution of tasks. They are an important resource for training and education within the Air Force.

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  • 47. 

    Where can you find applications such as myPay, Fitness management, and vMPF?

    • A.

      AF Portal

    • B.

      AF Profile

    • C.

      AF Page

    • D.

      AF Program

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Portal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Portal. The AF Portal is a web-based platform that provides access to a wide range of applications and resources for members of the United States Air Force. It serves as a central hub for various tools and services, including myPay (which allows for managing pay and benefits), Fitness management (which helps with tracking and managing physical fitness), and vMPF (which is the virtual Military Personnel Flight). By accessing the AF Portal, users can conveniently find and utilize these applications and more.

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  • 48. 

    Who is considered the most knowledgeable, on-site contact concerning the Air Force portal?

    • A.

      Content Manager

    • B.

      Content Publisher

    • C.

      Advanced Content Manager

    Correct Answer
    C. Advanced Content Manager
    Explanation
    The Advanced Content Manager is considered the most knowledgeable, on-site contact concerning the Air Force portal. This role implies a higher level of expertise and understanding of the portal's content management system compared to the Content Manager and Content Publisher roles. The Advanced Content Manager is likely responsible for overseeing and managing the more complex aspects of the portal, such as advanced content creation, editing, and publishing, making them the go-to person for any inquiries or issues related to the portal.

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  • 49. 

    Web Management and Internet Use is contained in which AFI?

    • A.

      36-2903

    • B.

      10-2501

    • C.

      33-129

    • D.

      19-129

    Correct Answer
    C. 33-129
  • 50. 

    What provides web conferencing availability to those using a Flash player?

    • A.

      Microsoft Office SharePoint

    • B.

      Defense Connect Online

    • C.

      Closed Community

    • D.

      Yahoo Messenger

    Correct Answer
    B. Defense Connect Online
    Explanation
    Defense Connect Online provides web conferencing availability to those using a Flash player. This platform allows users to connect and collaborate through web conferences, making it accessible for individuals who have a Flash player installed on their devices. Microsoft Office SharePoint, Closed Community, and Yahoo Messenger do not specifically provide web conferencing availability with a Flash player.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 14, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Tmoney182
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