3DX5X Vol 1 & 2

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  • 1/177 Questions

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3DX5X Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in the Air Force specialty of 3DX5X, focusing on roles like RF transmission and cable systems, and understanding of Air Force training and management protocols, essential for personnel involved in military communications and operations.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    Which network provides a private tunnel through the internet?

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    • Wide Area Network (WAN)

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
    Explanation
    A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the internet. It allows users to securely access and transmit data over public networks by creating an encrypted connection between the user's device and the VPN server. This ensures that the data transmitted is protected from unauthorized access and provides privacy and anonymity. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to connect remote users to their internal networks or to access restricted websites or services while maintaining security.

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  • 3. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • Spectrum Operations

    • Ground Radar Systems

    • Cable and Antenna Systems

    • Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable and Antenna Systems
    Explanation
    Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This includes ensuring that the network wiring is properly installed and functioning, as well as maintaining and repairing any issues that may arise. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the network infrastructure is reliable and efficient, allowing for effective communication and connectivity in both fixed and deployed operations.

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  • 4. 

    The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of teh United States Departement of 

    • Commerse

    • The Treasury

    • Defense

    • Labor

    Correct Answer
    A. Labor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of Labor. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards, providing training, and conducting inspections. It promotes workplace safety and protects workers' rights.

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  • 5. 

    What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Loop

    • Linear

    Correct Answer
    A. Linear
    Explanation
    A bus topology is a network arrangement where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. This means that data is transmitted in a sequential manner from one device to another. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology as it accurately describes the physical layout of the network.

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  • 6. 

    Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    • Wide Area Network (WAN)

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Local Area Network (LAN)
    Explanation
    A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected together within a small geographic area, such as a building or campus. They share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server. This allows for efficient communication and resource sharing among the connected devices, making it suitable for small-scale networks.

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  • 7. 

    What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

    • Cost to install and train technicians

    • Electomagnetic immunity

    • Low attenuation

    • Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost to install and train technicians
    Explanation
    The characteristic of "Cost to install and train technicians" is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. While fiber optic cable offers many advantages such as low attenuation, electromagnetic immunity, and security, the cost associated with installation and training technicians is a disadvantage. Fiber optic cable installation requires specialized equipment and expertise, which can be costly. Additionally, training technicians to work with fiber optic cable requires time and resources. Therefore, this characteristic is not considered an advantage of fiber optic cable.

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  • 8. 

    Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

    • Malware

    • Spyware

    • Adware

    • Trojans

    Correct Answer
    A. Spyware
    Explanation
    Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is a type of malicious software that can secretly monitor and record a user's online activities, including keystrokes, passwords, browsing history, and more. Spyware is often installed on a user's device without their knowledge, usually through deceptive methods such as bundled with other software or disguised as legitimate programs. Once installed, it operates covertly in the background, sending the collected information to a remote server.

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  • 9. 

    Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

    • Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNet)

    • Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNet)

    • Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data

    • Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNet)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNet). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

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  • 10. 

    The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

    • Title 3

    • Title 8

    • Title 10

    • Title 18

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is the primary legal foundation for the armed forces of the United States and it outlines the roles, responsibilities, and regulations governing military personnel. The UCMJ is a set of laws that applies to all members of the military and covers a wide range of offenses, including military-specific crimes such as desertion and insubordination.

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  • 11. 

    When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

    • Title 10

    • Title 30

    • Title 50

    • Title 52

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

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  • 12. 

    What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

    • Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force

    • Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

    • Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force

    • Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
    Explanation
    Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This realignment was done to enhance the Air Force's capabilities in the cyberspace domain and ensure effective operations in this critical area. By bringing together the expertise and resources of these two commands, the Air Force aimed to better defend its networks, conduct cyberspace operations, and protect vital information. The 24th Air Force, as a numbered Air Force under the Air Force Space Command, plays a key role in executing cyberspace operations and providing cyber capabilities to support the Air Force's overall mission.

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  • 13. 

    What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

    • A rewriting of the main point

    • A well-written summary

    • A postscript message

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A well-written summary
    Explanation
    A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to condense the main ideas and key points of the message into a concise and clear statement, demonstrating your comprehension of the message's main purpose.

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  • 14. 

    What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • Prevent the use of unsafe equipment

    • Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices

    • Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practies

    • Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to prevent any harm or negative consequences that may occur as a result of accidents, mishaps, or unsafe practices. By implementing safety measures and promoting risk management, the program works towards ensuring the well-being and preservation of both physical and human resources within an organization.

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  • 15. 

    What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • Falls

    • Poor lighting

    • Horseplay

    • Poor ergonomics

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, uneven surfaces, cluttered walkways, or inadequate safety measures. Falls can result in serious injuries like fractures, sprains, or head injuries. It is important for employers to ensure a safe working environment by implementing proper housekeeping practices, providing slip-resistant flooring, and conducting regular inspections to identify potential fall hazards.

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  • 16. 

    What topology offers centralized management of a network?

    • Bus

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Radial

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch. This central hub acts as a central point of control, allowing for easy management and administration of the network. It also provides a high level of reliability, as if one device fails, it does not affect the rest of the network. Additionally, the star topology allows for easy scalability, as new devices can be easily added to the network by connecting them to the central hub.

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  • 17. 

    What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • Version Identification

    • Header Checksum

    • Time to Live

    • Flags

    Correct Answer
    A. Header Checksum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Header Checksum." The header checksum is a field in the IP datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a mathematical sum of all the 16-bit words in the header. When a datagram is received, the receiving IP checks the header checksum to verify if the header has been corrupted during transmission. If the checksum does not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted, and the datagram is discarded. This helps ensure the integrity of the IP datagram during transmission.

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  • 18. 

    Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

    • Printer

    • Scanner

    • Monitor

    • Camera Lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Scanner
    Explanation
    A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It does this by using a light source to illuminate the object and then capturing the reflected light with a photosensitive element. The captured image is then converted into a digital format that can be stored or manipulated on a computer. Unlike a printer, monitor, or camera lens, a scanner is specifically designed for the purpose of digitizing physical documents or objects.

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  • 19. 

    Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

    • Service Set Identifier (SSID) Broadcasting

    • Media Access Control (MAC) Filtering

    • Encryption

    • Tunneling

    Correct Answer
    A. Encryption
    Explanation
    Encryption is the best described method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption involves converting plaintext into ciphertext using an algorithm and a key, making the message unreadable to unauthorized individuals. This method ensures the confidentiality and integrity of the message, protecting it from being intercepted or tampered with during transmission over a wireless local area network (WLAN).

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  • 20. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground-bases satellite devices?

    • Spectrum Operations

    • Ground Radar Systems

    • Cable and Antenna Systems

    • Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Radio Frequency Transmission
    Explanation
    Radio Frequency Transmission is the correct answer because this specialty involves the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This means that individuals in this role are responsible for ensuring that the RF transmission systems are functioning properly and are able to transmit signals effectively. They may also be involved in setting up and maintaining communication networks using RF technology.

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  • 21. 

    Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

    • Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in their career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for professional growth and development. The AFCFM works closely with Unit Training Managers (UTM), Base Functional Managers (BFM), and Major Command Functional Managers (MFM) to coordinate and implement career field policies and initiatives.

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  • 22. 

    Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

    • Trend Analysis

    • Quality System

    • Quality Assessments

    • Managerial Assessments

    Correct Answer
    A. Trend Analysis
    Explanation
    Trend Analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality of processes over time. By analyzing this data, organizations can make informed decisions and improvements to their quality assurance processes. Quality System refers to the overall framework and procedures in place for ensuring quality, while Quality Assessments and Managerial Assessments are methods used to evaluate and assess the quality of processes and managerial performance, respectively.

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  • 23. 

    What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

    • Manager Inspection (MI)

    • Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)

    • Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)

    • Commanders Inspection Program (CCIP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)
    Explanation
    The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This type of inspection evaluates the overall effectiveness of a unit, including its compliance with regulations and its readiness to perform its mission. It combines various aspects of inspection to provide a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and effectiveness.

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  • 24. 

    What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

    • Remedy

    • Training Business Area

    • Telephone Management System

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy
    Explanation
    Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets. It covers the process from procurement, where IT assets are acquired, to retirement, where they are disposed of or replaced. Remedy helps organizations track and manage their IT assets efficiently, ensuring proper utilization, maintenance, and disposal. It streamlines the asset management process, allowing organizations to optimize their IT investments and ensure compliance with regulations.

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  • 25. 

    What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • Title 10

    • Title 18

    • Title 32

    • Title 50

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title specifically outlines the organization and structure of the DOD and provides the legal framework for its operations and functions.

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  • 26. 

    What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)?

    • Manpower

    • Efficiency

    • Reduce Cost

    • Department of Defense 8570 Mandate

    Correct Answer
    A. Efficiency
    Explanation
    The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk (ESD) is to improve efficiency. By consolidating the NCC and forming the ESD, there is a centralization of resources and expertise, allowing for streamlined processes and faster response times. This consolidation eliminates redundancy and promotes collaboration, ultimately leading to improved efficiency in managing network control and providing services.

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  • 27. 

    What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

    • Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)

    • Office Automation System (OAS)

    • Decision Support System (DSS)

    • Training Business Area (TBA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that is specifically designed to manage the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is a comprehensive system that ensures efficient and accurate distribution of technical orders, which are essential for various technical operations. ETIMS streamlines the process by automating the distribution and printing tasks, thereby improving productivity and reducing errors. It is a reliable and effective system that is widely used in organizations that rely on paper technical orders for their operations.

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  • 28. 

    Whose responsibility is it to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force Installation?

    • Air Staff

    • Civil Engineering

    • Squadron Commander

    • Installation Safety Office

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation Safety Office
    Explanation
    The Installation Safety Office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force Installation. They are specifically designated to ensure that safety protocols and procedures are followed and to provide guidance and support in maintaining a safe working environment.

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  • 29. 

    What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards?

    • Isolating operations

    • Providing administrative controls

    • Use of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

    • Substituting a less hazardous material or process

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
    Explanation
    The use of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is only a last line of defense and should be used in conjunction with other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, and substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE can be easily compromised or misused, and it does not eliminate the hazard at its source. Therefore, it is important to prioritize other control methods over relying solely on PPE.

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  • 30. 

    How are fires classified?

    • Fuel type

    • Heat source

    • Temperature

    • Atmospheric conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel type
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. The different types of fuel can include solid materials such as wood or paper, liquid fuels like gasoline or oil, or even gases like propane. Understanding the fuel type is important in determining the behavior of the fire and the appropriate methods for extinguishing it. Heat source, temperature, and atmospheric conditions may also play a role in a fire, but they are not the primary factors used to classify fires.

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  • 31. 

    What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    • Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Sound the fire alarm
    Explanation
    When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the fire alarm, you are initiating the emergency response protocol and ensuring that everyone is aware of the danger. This action takes priority over extinguishing the fire or calling the fire department because the safety of personnel is the primary concern in any fire emergency.

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  • 32. 

    What step is the fourth in the fire fighting procedure?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    • Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Extinguish the fire if possible
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the fire fighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate fire extinguishing methods and equipment to try and put out the fire before it spreads further. It is important to prioritize the safety of personnel and evacuate them from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire. Calling the fire department and sounding the fire alarm are also important steps, but they come before attempting to extinguish the fire.

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  • 33. 

    Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

    • Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits

    • Carrying material while ascending and descending a ladder

    • Using a ladder as a scaffold

    • Using a homemade ladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
    Explanation
    Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a risk of electric shock or electrocution. However, it is important to note that other safety precautions should still be followed, such as ensuring the ladder is stable and secure before use.

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  • 34. 

    What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

    • Administrative record, historical statistics, and maintenance reecord

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is a comprehensive document that includes important information related to the installation and maintenance of communication and information systems. The administrative record section of the CSIR contains details about the administrative aspects of the installation, such as project management and coordination. The drawing record section includes diagrams and technical drawings of the systems and their components. Lastly, the maintenance record section documents the maintenance activities performed on the systems, including repairs, upgrades, and routine maintenance tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is "Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record."

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  • 35. 

    What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • There are no negative effects

    • A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication

    • Performance will suffer due to the load of additional devices

    • When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated

    Correct Answer
    A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions will be disrupted, causing a negative effect on the overall network connectivity.

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  • 36. 

    What range of numbers are those of well known ports

    • 0-1023

    • 1024-49151

    • 49152-65535

    • 65536-87000

    Correct Answer
    A. 0-1023
    Explanation
    The range of numbers 0-1023 are well known ports. Well known ports are used by specific services or applications and are standardized by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). These ports are commonly used for protocols such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22).

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  • 37. 

    Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    • Wide Area Network (WAN)

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Wide Area Network (WAN)
    Explanation
    A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a network that connects multiple Local Area Networks (LANs) and Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs) together using long-distance communication links obtained from a telecommunications company. This allows for communication and data sharing between LANs and MANs that are geographically dispersed.

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  • 38. 

    Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

    • Media Converter

    • Modem

    • Switch

    • Router

    Correct Answer
    A. Media Converter
    Explanation
    A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. It acts as a transceiver, allowing communication between different types of network media. This conversion is necessary when connecting copper-based devices to fiber optic networks, as the two types of cabling use different signaling methods. A media converter enables seamless integration and communication between these two types of networks.

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  • 39. 

    Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the user's own end terminals?

    • Internet Protocol

    • End-to-end

    • Bulk

    • Link

    Correct Answer
    A. End-to-end
    Explanation
    End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information is fully encoded from the sender's end terminal all the way through the network to the user's own end terminal. This means that only the sender and the intended recipient have access to the decrypted information, ensuring that it remains secure and protected from any potential eavesdroppers or hackers along the network.

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  • 40. 

    Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

    • When it is placed in service

    • When it is removed from service

    • When the storage container has been cleaned

    • When compromise of the combination is suspected

    Correct Answer
    A. When the storage container has been cleaned
    Explanation
    Cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials. The combination should only be changed when there is a suspected compromise of the combination or when the container is placed in or removed from service. Cleaning the container does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials, therefore it does not require a change in the combination.

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  • 41. 

    Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

    • Modify local training

    • Allocate manpower

    • Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)

    • Assist the Unit Training Manager in course developement

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)
    Explanation
    Occupational surveys are used to gather information about the tasks and responsibilities associated with specific job roles. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC). A CDC is a training program designed to enhance the skills and knowledge of individuals in a particular career field. By using the information gathered from occupational surveys, the CDC can be tailored to address the specific needs and requirements of the job role, ensuring that individuals receive the necessary training to excel in their careers.

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  • 42. 

    Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

    • Counterintelligence (CI)

    • Operation Security (OPSEC)

    • Military Deception (MILDEC)

    • Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Military Deception (MILDEC)
    Explanation
    Military Deception (MILDEC) activities are designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating information, disguising intentions, and creating false impressions. Since MISO and PA share a common specific audience, MILDEC can be used to mislead that audience as well. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing enemy intelligence activities, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves collecting and analyzing information. These activities are not specifically designed to mislead, unlike MILDEC.

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  • 43. 

    Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

    • Defense Industrial Base (DIB)

    • Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

    • National Reconnaissance Office (NRO)

    • Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
    Explanation
    The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. The GIG infrastructure refers to the interconnected information systems used by the Department of Defense (DoD) to support its missions. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and availability of these systems, as well as coordinating efforts to identify and address any vulnerabilities or threats.

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  • 44. 

    What basic building block is used in the joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

    • Coding

    • Positioning

    • Tempo Bands

    • Unit Type Code

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Type Code
    Explanation
    Unit Type Code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in the joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit Type Codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes help to ensure that the right units with the right capabilities are deployed to support specific missions or operations. They also facilitate coordination and interoperability between different branches of the military and international partners.

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  • 45. 

    Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

    • Published doctrine

    • Geographical base maps

    • Photographs of a retreat ceremony

    • Library reference or museum exhibitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Library reference or museum exhibitions
    Explanation
    Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by the government for official purposes. Official government records typically include documents that are created, received, or maintained by government agencies in the course of their official duties. Published doctrine, geographical base maps, and photographs of a retreat ceremony can be considered official government records as they are created and maintained by the government for official purposes.

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  • 46. 

    Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This change in classification occurs because the introduction of an electric current can cause these fuels to become conductive, increasing the risk of electrical hazards. Class C fuels are those that are flammable and can conduct electricity, making them more dangerous in the presence of electrical equipment or currents.

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  • 47. 

    Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Make risk decisions at the apprpriate level

    • Apply the process irregularly and continuously

    • Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the process irregularly and continuously
    Explanation
    The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves consistently and systematically identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks. Applying the process irregularly would lead to inconsistent and ineffective risk management practices. Continuous application of the process is necessary to ensure that risks are regularly monitored and addressed. Therefore, applying the process irregularly and continuously goes against the principles of risk management.

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  • 48. 

    Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefullness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • Office of Administration

    • Office of Communications

    • Office of Public Engagement

    • Office of Management and Budget

    Correct Answer
    A. Office of Management and Budget
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments. OMB is responsible for making strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. They assess the effectiveness and efficiency of IT investments requested by agencies and ensure that these investments align with the overall goals and priorities of the government. OMB plays a crucial role in ensuring that agencies make informed decisions regarding their IT investments and maximize the value and impact of these investments.

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  • 49. 

    Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communications from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

    • Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

    • Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

    • Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

    • Department of Defense (DOD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for IT communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and is responsible for managing and providing information technology and communications support to the DOD and all branches of the military. They oversee the DOD information network and ensure that IT communications are secure and efficient. DISA plays a crucial role in enabling effective communication and information sharing among all levels of the DOD, including the warfighters in the field.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 20, 2025 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 20, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 11, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Sab428

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