3DX5X Vol 1 & 2

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1. Records that are considered to be in draft format

Explanation

Records that are in draft format are still undergoing revisions and are not considered final versions. As a result, they can be altered or modified before being officially released. These records have not yet been approved or finalized, so they are not officially released to the public or other stakeholders.

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About This Quiz
3DX5X Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz assesses knowledge in the Air Force specialty of 3DX5X, focusing on roles like RF transmission and cable systems, and understanding of Air Force training and management... see moreprotocols, essential for personnel involved in military communications and operations. see less

2. Which network provides a private tunnel through the internet?

Explanation

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the internet. It allows users to securely access and transmit data over public networks by creating an encrypted connection between the user's device and the VPN server. This ensures that the data transmitted is protected from unauthorized access and provides privacy and anonymity. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to connect remote users to their internal networks or to access restricted websites or services while maintaining security.

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3. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Explanation

Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This includes ensuring that the network wiring is properly installed and functioning, as well as maintaining and repairing any issues that may arise. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the network infrastructure is reliable and efficient, allowing for effective communication and connectivity in both fixed and deployed operations.

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4. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of teh United States Departement of 

Explanation

The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of Labor. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards, providing training, and conducting inspections. It promotes workplace safety and protects workers' rights.

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5. What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

Explanation

A bus topology is a network arrangement where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. This means that data is transmitted in a sequential manner from one device to another. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology as it accurately describes the physical layout of the network.

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6. Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

Explanation

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected together within a small geographic area, such as a building or campus. They share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server. This allows for efficient communication and resource sharing among the connected devices, making it suitable for small-scale networks.

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7. What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

Explanation

The characteristic of "Cost to install and train technicians" is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. While fiber optic cable offers many advantages such as low attenuation, electromagnetic immunity, and security, the cost associated with installation and training technicians is a disadvantage. Fiber optic cable installation requires specialized equipment and expertise, which can be costly. Additionally, training technicians to work with fiber optic cable requires time and resources. Therefore, this characteristic is not considered an advantage of fiber optic cable.

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8. Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

Explanation

Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is a type of malicious software that can secretly monitor and record a user's online activities, including keystrokes, passwords, browsing history, and more. Spyware is often installed on a user's device without their knowledge, usually through deceptive methods such as bundled with other software or disguised as legitimate programs. Once installed, it operates covertly in the background, sending the collected information to a remote server.

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9. Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNet). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

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10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is the primary legal foundation for the armed forces of the United States and it outlines the roles, responsibilities, and regulations governing military personnel. The UCMJ is a set of laws that applies to all members of the military and covers a wide range of offenses, including military-specific crimes such as desertion and insubordination.

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11. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

Explanation

Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

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12. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

Explanation

Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This realignment was done to enhance the Air Force's capabilities in the cyberspace domain and ensure effective operations in this critical area. By bringing together the expertise and resources of these two commands, the Air Force aimed to better defend its networks, conduct cyberspace operations, and protect vital information. The 24th Air Force, as a numbered Air Force under the Air Force Space Command, plays a key role in executing cyberspace operations and providing cyber capabilities to support the Air Force's overall mission.

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13. What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

Explanation

A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to condense the main ideas and key points of the message into a concise and clear statement, demonstrating your comprehension of the message's main purpose.

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14. What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to prevent any harm or negative consequences that may occur as a result of accidents, mishaps, or unsafe practices. By implementing safety measures and promoting risk management, the program works towards ensuring the well-being and preservation of both physical and human resources within an organization.

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15. What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

Explanation

Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, uneven surfaces, cluttered walkways, or inadequate safety measures. Falls can result in serious injuries like fractures, sprains, or head injuries. It is important for employers to ensure a safe working environment by implementing proper housekeeping practices, providing slip-resistant flooring, and conducting regular inspections to identify potential fall hazards.

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16. What topology offers centralized management of a network?

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch. This central hub acts as a central point of control, allowing for easy management and administration of the network. It also provides a high level of reliability, as if one device fails, it does not affect the rest of the network. Additionally, the star topology allows for easy scalability, as new devices can be easily added to the network by connecting them to the central hub.

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17. What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Header Checksum." The header checksum is a field in the IP datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a mathematical sum of all the 16-bit words in the header. When a datagram is received, the receiving IP checks the header checksum to verify if the header has been corrupted during transmission. If the checksum does not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted, and the datagram is discarded. This helps ensure the integrity of the IP datagram during transmission.

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18. Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

Explanation

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It does this by using a light source to illuminate the object and then capturing the reflected light with a photosensitive element. The captured image is then converted into a digital format that can be stored or manipulated on a computer. Unlike a printer, monitor, or camera lens, a scanner is specifically designed for the purpose of digitizing physical documents or objects.

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19. Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Explanation

Encryption is the best described method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption involves converting plaintext into ciphertext using an algorithm and a key, making the message unreadable to unauthorized individuals. This method ensures the confidentiality and integrity of the message, protecting it from being intercepted or tampered with during transmission over a wireless local area network (WLAN).

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20. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground-bases satellite devices?

Explanation

Radio Frequency Transmission is the correct answer because this specialty involves the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This means that individuals in this role are responsible for ensuring that the RF transmission systems are functioning properly and are able to transmit signals effectively. They may also be involved in setting up and maintaining communication networks using RF technology.

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21. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in their career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for professional growth and development. The AFCFM works closely with Unit Training Managers (UTM), Base Functional Managers (BFM), and Major Command Functional Managers (MFM) to coordinate and implement career field policies and initiatives.

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22. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

Explanation

Trend Analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality of processes over time. By analyzing this data, organizations can make informed decisions and improvements to their quality assurance processes. Quality System refers to the overall framework and procedures in place for ensuring quality, while Quality Assessments and Managerial Assessments are methods used to evaluate and assess the quality of processes and managerial performance, respectively.

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23. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

Explanation

The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This type of inspection evaluates the overall effectiveness of a unit, including its compliance with regulations and its readiness to perform its mission. It combines various aspects of inspection to provide a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and effectiveness.

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24. What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets. It covers the process from procurement, where IT assets are acquired, to retirement, where they are disposed of or replaced. Remedy helps organizations track and manage their IT assets efficiently, ensuring proper utilization, maintenance, and disposal. It streamlines the asset management process, allowing organizations to optimize their IT investments and ensure compliance with regulations.

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25. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title specifically outlines the organization and structure of the DOD and provides the legal framework for its operations and functions.

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26. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)?

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk (ESD) is to improve efficiency. By consolidating the NCC and forming the ESD, there is a centralization of resources and expertise, allowing for streamlined processes and faster response times. This consolidation eliminates redundancy and promotes collaboration, ultimately leading to improved efficiency in managing network control and providing services.

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27. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that is specifically designed to manage the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is a comprehensive system that ensures efficient and accurate distribution of technical orders, which are essential for various technical operations. ETIMS streamlines the process by automating the distribution and printing tasks, thereby improving productivity and reducing errors. It is a reliable and effective system that is widely used in organizations that rely on paper technical orders for their operations.

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28. Whose responsibility is it to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force Installation?

Explanation

The Installation Safety Office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force Installation. They are specifically designated to ensure that safety protocols and procedures are followed and to provide guidance and support in maintaining a safe working environment.

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29. What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards?

Explanation

The use of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is only a last line of defense and should be used in conjunction with other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, and substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE can be easily compromised or misused, and it does not eliminate the hazard at its source. Therefore, it is important to prioritize other control methods over relying solely on PPE.

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30. How are fires classified?

Explanation

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. The different types of fuel can include solid materials such as wood or paper, liquid fuels like gasoline or oil, or even gases like propane. Understanding the fuel type is important in determining the behavior of the fire and the appropriate methods for extinguishing it. Heat source, temperature, and atmospheric conditions may also play a role in a fire, but they are not the primary factors used to classify fires.

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31. What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

Explanation

When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the fire alarm, you are initiating the emergency response protocol and ensuring that everyone is aware of the danger. This action takes priority over extinguishing the fire or calling the fire department because the safety of personnel is the primary concern in any fire emergency.

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32. What step is the fourth in the fire fighting procedure?

Explanation

The fourth step in the fire fighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate fire extinguishing methods and equipment to try and put out the fire before it spreads further. It is important to prioritize the safety of personnel and evacuate them from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire. Calling the fire department and sounding the fire alarm are also important steps, but they come before attempting to extinguish the fire.

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33. Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

Explanation

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a risk of electric shock or electrocution. However, it is important to note that other safety precautions should still be followed, such as ensuring the ladder is stable and secure before use.

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34. What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

Explanation

The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is a comprehensive document that includes important information related to the installation and maintenance of communication and information systems. The administrative record section of the CSIR contains details about the administrative aspects of the installation, such as project management and coordination. The drawing record section includes diagrams and technical drawings of the systems and their components. Lastly, the maintenance record section documents the maintenance activities performed on the systems, including repairs, upgrades, and routine maintenance tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is "Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record."

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35. What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions will be disrupted, causing a negative effect on the overall network connectivity.

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36. What range of numbers are those of well known ports

Explanation

The range of numbers 0-1023 are well known ports. Well known ports are used by specific services or applications and are standardized by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). These ports are commonly used for protocols such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22).

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37. Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Explanation

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a network that connects multiple Local Area Networks (LANs) and Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs) together using long-distance communication links obtained from a telecommunications company. This allows for communication and data sharing between LANs and MANs that are geographically dispersed.

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38. Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

Explanation

A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. It acts as a transceiver, allowing communication between different types of network media. This conversion is necessary when connecting copper-based devices to fiber optic networks, as the two types of cabling use different signaling methods. A media converter enables seamless integration and communication between these two types of networks.

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39. Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the user's own end terminals?

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information is fully encoded from the sender's end terminal all the way through the network to the user's own end terminal. This means that only the sender and the intended recipient have access to the decrypted information, ensuring that it remains secure and protected from any potential eavesdroppers or hackers along the network.

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40. Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

Explanation

Cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials. The combination should only be changed when there is a suspected compromise of the combination or when the container is placed in or removed from service. Cleaning the container does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials, therefore it does not require a change in the combination.

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41. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about the tasks and responsibilities associated with specific job roles. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC). A CDC is a training program designed to enhance the skills and knowledge of individuals in a particular career field. By using the information gathered from occupational surveys, the CDC can be tailored to address the specific needs and requirements of the job role, ensuring that individuals receive the necessary training to excel in their careers.

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42. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

Explanation

Military Deception (MILDEC) activities are designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating information, disguising intentions, and creating false impressions. Since MISO and PA share a common specific audience, MILDEC can be used to mislead that audience as well. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing enemy intelligence activities, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves collecting and analyzing information. These activities are not specifically designed to mislead, unlike MILDEC.

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43. Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. The GIG infrastructure refers to the interconnected information systems used by the Department of Defense (DoD) to support its missions. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and availability of these systems, as well as coordinating efforts to identify and address any vulnerabilities or threats.

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44. What basic building block is used in the joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Explanation

Unit Type Code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in the joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit Type Codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes help to ensure that the right units with the right capabilities are deployed to support specific missions or operations. They also facilitate coordination and interoperability between different branches of the military and international partners.

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45. Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by the government for official purposes. Official government records typically include documents that are created, received, or maintained by government agencies in the course of their official duties. Published doctrine, geographical base maps, and photographs of a retreat ceremony can be considered official government records as they are created and maintained by the government for official purposes.

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46. Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

Explanation

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This change in classification occurs because the introduction of an electric current can cause these fuels to become conductive, increasing the risk of electrical hazards. Class C fuels are those that are flammable and can conduct electricity, making them more dangerous in the presence of electrical equipment or currents.

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47. Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)

Explanation

The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves consistently and systematically identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks. Applying the process irregularly would lead to inconsistent and ineffective risk management practices. Continuous application of the process is necessary to ensure that risks are regularly monitored and addressed. Therefore, applying the process irregularly and continuously goes against the principles of risk management.

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48. Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefullness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments. OMB is responsible for making strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. They assess the effectiveness and efficiency of IT investments requested by agencies and ensure that these investments align with the overall goals and priorities of the government. OMB plays a crucial role in ensuring that agencies make informed decisions regarding their IT investments and maximize the value and impact of these investments.

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49. Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communications from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for IT communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and is responsible for managing and providing information technology and communications support to the DOD and all branches of the military. They oversee the DOD information network and ensure that IT communications are secure and efficient. DISA plays a crucial role in enabling effective communication and information sharing among all levels of the DOD, including the warfighters in the field.

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50. What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

Explanation

The kernel is the correct answer because it is the core component of the UNIX system software that interacts directly with the hardware. It manages the system's resources, such as the CPU, memory, and input/output devices, and provides essential services and functionalities to other parts of the operating system and user programs. The kernel acts as an intermediary between the hardware and the user, allowing user programs to access and utilize the hardware resources effectively.

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51. Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

Explanation

The given question is asking for a vulnerability that is not present in a computer system. The first three options, attacker's capability to exploit the flaw, system's susceptibility to a flaw, and attacker's access to the flaw, all refer to vulnerabilities that can exist in a computer system. However, the fourth option, attacker's lack of ability, does not refer to a vulnerability. Instead, it suggests that the attacker does not have the necessary skills or knowledge to exploit any existing vulnerabilities. Therefore, the correct answer is attacker's lack of ability.

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52. Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public internet?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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53. What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provide as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force Personnel?

Explanation

The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force Personnel. The Air Force Portal offers a centralized platform where personnel can access various resources, tools, and services specific to their needs. It acts as a hub for communication, collaboration, and information sharing within the Air Force community.

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54. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is in a position of authority or influence over them. In this context, the question suggests that having household members or close relatives in such a situation can create a covered relationship, which can potentially lead to ethical concerns. Therefore, the correct answer is covered relationship.

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55. Who is the second highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

Explanation

The Deputy Secretary is the second highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. This individual serves as the principal deputy and advisor to the Secretary of Defense. They assist in the overall management and oversight of the department's activities and policies. While the President is the Commander-in-Chief and holds the highest authority, the Deputy Secretary holds a significant position in the department's hierarchy. The Chief of Staff and the Vice President do not hold positions within the Department of Defense.

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56. Which action is a physiological factor?

Explanation

Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders can be considered a physiological factor as it involves a person's mental and emotional state, which can affect their ability to follow instructions. This action may be influenced by factors such as stress, lack of focus, or cognitive impairment, which are all related to the individual's physiological condition.

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57. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall than non-office workers?

Explanation

Office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). This suggests that the risk of falling and getting injured is significantly higher for office workers, potentially due to factors such as slippery floors, poor lighting, or inadequate safety measures in office environments.

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58. What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

Explanation

The purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is to regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This allows for flow control, ensuring that the sender does not overwhelm the receiver with data and preventing network congestion.

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59. What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

Explanation

Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides tools and features for creating, managing, and analyzing data in a structured manner. With Access, users can design tables, define relationships between tables, create forms and reports, and write queries to retrieve and manipulate data. It is widely used for creating small to medium-sized databases for personal or business purposes.

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60. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable career field education and training plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive plan for education and training within a specific career field. This plan will outline the necessary skills, knowledge, and qualifications required for individuals in that field, as well as the training programs and resources available to develop those skills. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop ensures that there is a clear and effective pathway for individuals to advance and succeed in their chosen career field.

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61. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty

Explanation

The On-The-Job Training (OJT) Program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while actually performing their job duties, under the guidance and supervision of experienced professionals. It offers hands-on experience and practical training, which is essential for individuals to gain the necessary expertise and proficiency in their specific field.

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62. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

Explanation

Covered relationships refers to an unethical situation in which an employee or employer relationship leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that there is a personal or familial connection between the individuals involved, which can compromise the fairness and objectivity of decision-making processes. It is important to avoid covered relationships in order to maintain a level playing field and ensure that all individuals are treated fairly and without bias.

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63. What unit installs, reconstitutes, and tests critical C4 systems for con=mbatant commanders anywhere at any time?

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. This unit is capable of providing these services anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the C4 systems are operational and effective for military operations.

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64. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

Explanation

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. This article pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations and encompasses a wide range of offenses, including those related to information systems.

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65. What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratify the use of gigabit ethernet (GbE)?

Explanation

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE technology, which allows for data transmission at speeds of up to 1 gigabit per second over Ethernet networks.

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66. What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is widely used for managing emails, calendars, contacts, and tasks. With its user-friendly interface and various features, Outlook allows users to stay organized and efficient in managing their personal and professional information. It also integrates with other Microsoft applications, such as Word and PowerPoint, making it a comprehensive tool for personal information management.

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67. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Explanation

The Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to identify vulnerabilities and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system helps to ensure the security of cyberspace by identifying potential weaknesses and allowing for proactive measures to mitigate risks. The other options mentioned are not directly related to vulnerability assessment and do not provide the same level of comprehensive assessment and risk analysis.

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68. The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

Explanation

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for overseeing and coordinating air operations within a joint force, ensuring that all air assets are effectively employed to support the overall mission objectives. The JFC is the overall commander of a joint force, responsible for the planning and execution of all military operations across multiple services. Therefore, the COMAFFOR's role is to provide unity of command to the JFC, ensuring that air operations are integrated seamlessly with other elements of the joint force.

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69. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Time Compliance Technical Orders." This is because the question asks for something that does NOT describe the information outlined in TO 00-5-1. The other options, such as resources, infrastructure, and training, all describe aspects that are necessary to manage and use TOs, but Time Compliance Technical Orders are not specifically mentioned in TO 00-5-1.

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70. Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to an electrical current of 50 milliamps, it could potentially disrupt the normal functioning of the heart and lead to a cardiac arrest. It is important to note that this is a dangerous level of current and immediate medical attention should be sought in such cases.

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71. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and providing engineering data?

Explanation

The Drawing Record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) displays the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section typically includes diagrams, schematics, and other visual representations that depict the placement and configuration of the systems. It is a crucial component of the CSIR as it helps in understanding the physical setup and aids in troubleshooting and maintenance activities.

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72. What is a peripheral device?

Explanation

A peripheral device refers to any external or internal device that is not a main component of a computer. These devices are connected to the computer to enhance its functionality or provide additional features. They can include devices such as printers, scanners, keyboards, mice, and external hard drives. Peripheral devices can be either internal, such as a sound card or network card, or external, such as a monitor or a USB drive. They are not considered essential components of a computer, but rather optional additions that expand its capabilities.

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73. Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

Explanation

Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in wireless networks where devices listen for ongoing transmissions before transmitting their own data. This helps to avoid collisions that can occur when multiple devices attempt to transmit data simultaneously. By using CSMA/CA, WLANs ensure that only one device transmits at a time, reducing the chances of collisions and improving the efficiency of data transmission.

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74. What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between two different networks. It acts as an entry point for data to flow between the remote network and the host network. It translates protocols and manages the traffic between the networks, allowing devices from the remote network to communicate with devices in the host network. A switch, modem, or converter do not provide this specific functionality of connecting a remote network to a host network.

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75. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). The AFCFM has the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exemptions or waivers based on specific circumstances or needs within the career field. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field and has the knowledge and expertise to make informed decisions regarding training and development requirements.

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76. Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

Quality Assurance is the correct answer because it is stated in the question that it is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program. Therefore, Quality Assurance is not necessary for a QA program.

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77. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

The given correct answer is "Standard Evaluation." In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation focuses on assessing the technical aspects and performance of the program. Personnel Evaluation involves evaluating the individuals involved in the program, such as their skills and competencies. Managerial Evaluation assesses the managerial aspects of the program, such as leadership and decision-making. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific type of evaluation commonly used in QA programs.

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78. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

Explanation

The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that the necessary technical orders are available to personnel who need them and manage the distribution process. This office plays a crucial role in maintaining the organization's technical order system and ensuring that personnel have access to the information they need to perform their duties effectively.

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79. Who developes standards for iinterconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Explanation

The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards.

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80. What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a Job Safety Analysis (JSA). This involves analyzing the task to identify potential hazards and develop appropriate safety measures. The JSA helps ensure that employees are aware of the risks involved and are trained on how to safely complete the task. It is an essential step in promoting a safe work environment and preventing accidents or injuries.

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81. The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. The Data Link layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between two directly connected devices. The LLC sublayer specifically handles the flow control, error checking, and sequencing of data frames.

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82. When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's

Explanation

The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, "topology" typically refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout of devices and connections in a network. This includes the placement of routers, switches, and other network components, as well as the physical medium used for data transmission, such as Ethernet cables or wireless signals. The physical topology helps determine how data flows within the network and how devices are interconnected.

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83. What action is the main purpose of system cache?

Explanation

The main purpose of system cache is to reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve it when needed, instead of accessing it from the slower main memory. This helps to improve the overall performance of the system by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access data.

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84. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor I accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?

Explanation

According to AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program, the supervisor assigns the Duty Position Task as the enlisted training element.

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85. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Explanation

During career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW), the Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative. This individual is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM in discussions and decisions related to utilization and training within the career field. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the MAJCOM's perspective is considered and represented during these workshops.

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86. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Explanation

The title that is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base Functional Manager (BFM).

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87. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

Explanation

Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: Unified Command and Subordinate Unified Command. The Unified Command level represents the higher-level command responsible for overall strategic planning and coordination of the JTF's mission. The Subordinate Unified Command level represents the lower-level command responsible for executing specific tasks and operations assigned by the Unified Command. This division allows for effective command and control within the JTF, ensuring clear lines of communication and coordination between different levels of command.

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88. What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

Explanation

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and enhancing service quality over time. CSI involves regularly assessing and improving the effectiveness and efficiency of IT service management processes. It aims to identify areas of improvement, implement changes, and monitor the results to ensure that services are meeting the needs of the business and customers. CSI is an ongoing process that helps organizations adapt to changing business requirements and continuously improve their IT services.

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89. What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall recieve initial Information Assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher afterwards?

Explanation

DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems must receive initial Information Assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and complete annual IA refresher thereafter. This directive outlines the requirements for IA training, certification, and workforce management to ensure the security of DOD information systems.

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90. What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

Explanation

Non-Directive publications in the Air Force are informational and suggest guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. These publications provide general information and suggestions rather than specific instructions or orders. They allow for flexibility and adaptation based on the specific situation or needs of the unit or individual. Unlike directives, which provide specific instructions, non-directive publications offer more freedom to interpret and apply the guidance in a way that best suits the circumstances.

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91. What three sub-catergories make up human factors?

Explanation

The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. These three sub-categories make up human factors. Physical factors include the physical environment and equipment that individuals interact with. Physiological factors involve the physical and mental capabilities and limitations of individuals. Organizational factors refer to the social and organizational aspects that influence human performance, such as communication, teamwork, and workload.

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92. What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)

Explanation

The maximum value of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) is 255. An octet is a unit of digital information that consists of 8 bits, allowing for a total of 256 possible values (2^8). However, since the numbering in IPv4 starts from 0, the highest value an octet can have is 255.

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93. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM) publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD). This means that AFPM publications have a limited lifespan and may need to be updated or replaced by a higher-level directive. AFPMs are typically used to provide temporary guidance or to address specific policy issues within the Air Force. Once their expiration date is reached or if they are superseded by an AFPD, they no longer hold authority and should be disregarded.

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94. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

Explanation

Any user may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data. This means that as long as a user has the necessary training and permission to access the data, they have the ability to make updates to a technical order. The other options mentioned, such as TODA, TODO, and Library Custodian, do not necessarily have the same level of access and authorization as any user.

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95. What requirements mandate to develope of Air Force Architectures?

Explanation

The development of Air Force Architectures is mandated at the Federal level. This means that the requirements for these architectures are set by the federal government, which includes various agencies and departments. These requirements are likely to be more comprehensive and overarching, taking into account national security interests and coordination with other branches of the military. State, Congressional, and Department of Defense levels may also have their own requirements, but the federal level is likely to have the highest authority and influence in shaping Air Force Architectures.

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96. What functions do the seven layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

Explanation

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions related to network communication. The Network layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. It determines the best path for data transmission and handles addressing and logical connections. The other layers mentioned in the question, such as Programming, Transport, and Data, are not part of the OSI model and do not specify functions within it.

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97. What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

Explanation

A Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket is a combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This means that when a process wants to communicate over a network using TCP, it needs to specify the port number and IP address of the destination device. The TCP socket acts as a unique identifier for the process and helps establish a connection between the sending and receiving devices.

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98. What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D is reserved for multicast addressing. In IPv4, multicast addresses are used to send data packets to a group of devices rather than a single device. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, and they are identified by the first four bits of the address being set to 1110. These addresses are used for various purposes such as streaming media, online gaming, and video conferencing.

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99. Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, a classified message incident occurs. This incident refers to the unauthorized transfer or leakage of classified information to an unauthorized recipient. It could happen due to human error, technical vulnerabilities, or malicious intent. This incident poses a significant risk to national security and can lead to potential data breaches or compromise of sensitive information.

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100. Who has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday-Sunday?

Explanation

The security manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday-Sunday. This individual is responsible for overseeing and implementing security protocols within an organization, including the handling and transportation of classified materials. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to assess the risks and ensure that all necessary precautions are taken when shipping such materials.

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101. What policy outlines to United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

Explanation

The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on the military's role in cyberspace and provides guidance on how to achieve and maintain superiority in this domain. It is different from the other options listed, such as the National Security Policy, National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace, and Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative, which may address broader cybersecurity issues but do not specifically focus on the military's strategic approach in cyberspace operations.

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102. How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

Explanation

There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. The question asks for the number of rules, and the correct answer is six.

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103. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices. It focuses on the standard procedures and practices for installing equipment and systems, ensuring that they are properly installed and meet the required specifications.

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104. Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the potential risks and develop strategies to minimize or eliminate them. This includes conducting risk assessments, implementing control measures, and providing guidance to ensure the health and safety of individuals in the environment. The other options listed, such as the Installation Safety Office, Base Civil Engineering, and Supervisors, may play a role in implementing these controls but Bioenvironmental Engineering is specifically tasked with recommending them.

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105. What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

Explanation

The correct answer is Five GB/S. USB 3.0 SuperSpeed transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second. This mode provides faster data transfer compared to previous versions of USB technology, allowing for quicker file transfers and improved performance when using USB devices.

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106. What network routing protocol allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

Explanation

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. Autonomous systems are individual networks that are under separate administrative control. EGP is specifically designed to exchange routing information between autonomous systems, enabling them to communicate and share network traffic. Unlike Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs) such as OSPF and EIGRP, which are used within a single autonomous system, EGP is used for interconnecting different autonomous systems.

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107. What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established sunject groups and sub subject groups?

Explanation

The Chief, Directive Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) is responsible for assigning numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups.

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108. What Joint Publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

Explanation

JP 6-0, Joint Communications System, is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. This means that it serves as the foundational and essential document for other publications in this series. It likely provides the overarching guidance, principles, and standards for communication systems used in joint military operations. JP 5-0, Joint Communications System, is not the correct answer as it is not the keystone document for this series. JP 5-0, Joint Operations Planning, and JP 6-0, Joint Operations Series, are also incorrect as they do not specifically pertain to the communications-system series.

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109. How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

Explanation

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact. The classifications typically include a lower level of impact protection for objects falling from a lower height, and a higher level of impact protection for objects falling from a higher height. Having two impact classifications allows hardhats to provide adequate protection in a variety of work environments and situations.

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110. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

Explanation

The maintenance record is normally retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains all the information related to the maintenance activities carried out on the communication and information systems. It includes details such as the date of maintenance, the nature of the maintenance performed, any repairs or replacements made, and any other relevant information. Retaining this record in the production work center allows for easy access to the maintenance history of the systems, facilitating future troubleshooting and ensuring proper upkeep of the systems.

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111. Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?

Explanation

The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide high-quality and secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management purposes. The DRSN is a dedicated voice network used by the Department of Defense (DoD) for secure and reliable communication between senior military and government officials. It ensures that sensitive and classified information can be transmitted securely during critical situations, making it the ideal network for C2 and crisis management operations.

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112. Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decison makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the mission for completion?

Explanation

GSORTS is the system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) that monitors the status of resources and training systems. It ensures that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the mission for completion. Therefore, GSORTS is the correct answer to the question.

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113. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

Explanation

The correct answer is "National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace." This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. It provides a framework for coordinating and prioritizing efforts to protect critical infrastructure, enhance cybersecurity capabilities, and promote international cooperation in cyberspace. The document emphasizes the importance of public-private partnerships and the need for a collective approach to address the evolving cyber threats faced by the United States.

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114. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides the overall strategic direction and priorities for the Department of Defense, including its approach to securing cyberspace. It outlines the goals, objectives, and strategies that guide the development of the National Military Strategic Plan, ensuring a coordinated and comprehensive approach to cybersecurity within the military.

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115. What year did the Air Force Institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

Explanation

In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that instead of having multiple ticketing systems for different locations, they consolidated it into one system, making it more efficient and streamlined.

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116. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

Explanation

The stage that is NOT one of the ITIL Service Life Cycle stages is Service Contact. The correct stages in the ITIL Service Life Cycle are Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not a recognized stage in the ITIL framework.

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117. The vision  of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

Explanation

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools that enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to utilize the information available within an organization to its fullest potential, allowing users to extract valuable insights, make informed decisions, and drive business growth. By leveraging the information effectively, EIM helps organizations gain a competitive advantage, improve decision-making processes, and enhance overall performance.

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118. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

Explanation

An AF Handbook (AFH) is a type of non-directive Air Force publication that is not subject to frequent change. Unlike AF Doctrine, AF Pamphlet, and AF Visual Aid, which may need to be updated regularly to reflect changes in policies, procedures, or technology, an AFH is typically a more comprehensive and stable reference document that provides guidance and information on a specific topic. It is designed to be a reliable source of information that can be used over an extended period without frequent updates.

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119. What Information System (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Explanation

Hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and information systems. These operations involve intentional and malicious activities carried out by external entities or individuals with the objective of disrupting or compromising an organization's information systems. This can include activities such as hacking, espionage, or spreading false information. Unlike other threats like malware or denial of service attacks, hostile information operations specifically target an organization's critical information and can cause significant damage to its operations and reputation.

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120. Which classified document marking identifies the highest level of classification?

Explanation

Banner Lines are used to identify the highest level of classification in a classified document. They are placed at the top and bottom of each page and contain information such as the classification level, special handling instructions, and the document's control number. These banner lines serve as a visual indicator to ensure that the document is handled and stored appropriately according to its level of classification.

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121. Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?

Explanation

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the form used by the Air Force to record the destruction of Top Secret classified material. This form ensures that proper procedures are followed and that there is a documented record of the destruction process. It helps maintain accountability and security when it comes to handling and disposing of sensitive information.

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122. Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

Explanation

The Aerial Layer service provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas. This means that it utilizes both manned and unmanned vehicles to host communication equipment, allowing for a wider range of coverage in terms of communication capabilities. This service is particularly useful in areas where traditional communication infrastructure may be lacking or in situations where continuous and uninterrupted communication is necessary.

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123. Which system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?

Explanation

The Global High Frequency (HF) System provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war.

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124. What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Explanation

The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's intranet, ensuring that only authorized personnel have access and protecting against cyber threats. It serves as a critical component of the Air Force's overall cyber defense strategy, safeguarding sensitive information and maintaining the integrity of the network.

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125. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record"?

Explanation

AFI 33-322 defines an "official government record."

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126. What directive publication perscribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of major commands (MAJCOm), field operating agencies (FOA), and direct reporting units (DRU) with their respective units?

Explanation

The Air Force Mission Directive (AFMD) is a directive publication that prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization, and relationships of major commands (MAJCOM), field operating agencies (FOA), and direct reporting units (DRU) with their respective units. This publication provides guidance and instructions on how these entities should operate and interact with each other. It helps ensure that all units within the Air Force are aligned and working towards the same goals and objectives.

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127. What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

Explanation

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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128. Which class allows for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

Explanation

Class C allows for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. This is because Class C networks use a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which provides 8 bits for the host portion of the IP address. With 8 bits, there are 2^8 - 2 = 254 possible host addresses. The remaining 2 addresses are reserved for the network address and the broadcast address.

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129. How many T1  Defense Switched Network (DSN) access ciruits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?

Explanation

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits.

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130. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authoirty?

Explanation

Chartering directives are a type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) that establishes the official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships, and authority of Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies. These directives outline the specific goals and objectives of the OSD and provide guidance on how it should operate and interact with other entities within the Department of Defense. They serve as a formal document that defines the scope and purpose of the OSD and its various components.

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131. Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

AFI 91-202 is the correct answer because it is an Air Force Instruction (AFI) that specifically addresses the implementation of the Mishap Prevention Program. This publication provides guidance and procedures for preventing mishaps and promoting safety within the Air Force.

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132. Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret classified information?

Explanation

The Information Assurance Officer is the correct person to seek out for information on transporting Top Secret classified information. This individual is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and information systems. They have the knowledge and expertise to provide guidance and procedures for securely transporting classified information, ensuring that all necessary security protocols are followed. The Classified Information Program Manager may also have some knowledge in this area, but the Information Assurance Officer specifically focuses on the security of information and would be the best point of contact for this specific need.

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133. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

Explanation

The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This unit focuses on providing enterprise-level services and support to enhance operational capabilities. By streamlining training and increasing the warfighter capacity, the ESU aims to improve the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the AFNetOps community.

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134. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within a office of record?

Explanation

The Chief of the Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the office, including the appointment of custodians who will be responsible for the day-to-day management of specific records.

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135. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

Explanation

Air Force Instructions (AFI) are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions serve as the primary source of guidance for Air Force personnel to understand and follow the policies and procedures established by the Air Force. They outline specific steps and actions that need to be taken in order to comply with the policies and laws, ensuring consistency and standardization across the Air Force. AFIs are an important tool in maintaining discipline, efficiency, and effective operations within the Air Force.

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136. What layers make up the two categories of the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model?

Explanation

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The Data Transport layer (also known as the Transport layer) is responsible for ensuring reliable delivery of data across the network, while the Application layer is responsible for providing network services to applications. Therefore, the two categories of layers mentioned in the answer are Data Transport (Transport) and Application.

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137. Which system's mission is to provide reliable, rapid two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS). This system's mission is to provide reliable, rapid two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. The HF-GCS operates using high frequency radio waves, allowing for long-range communication capabilities. This network is crucial for military operations as it enables effective communication across different platforms and locations. The other options listed do not specifically focus on providing two-way communications between air, land, and sea-based users.

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138. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic plan?

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a policy that focuses on preventing cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. It outlines key strategic plans and initiatives to enhance the security and resilience of the nation's cyber infrastructure. This policy aims to protect vital sectors such as energy, transportation, and communication from cyber threats and ensure the uninterrupted functioning of critical services. By implementing this strategy, the government aims to safeguard the country's critical infrastructure from cyber attacks and mitigate potential risks to national security.

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139. What classification do flammable liquids receive?

Explanation

Flammable liquids receive the classification of Class B. This classification is used to categorize substances that can easily ignite and burn, such as gasoline, oil, and alcohol. Class B flammable liquids have a flashpoint below 100°F (37.8°C) and can be extinguished using fire extinguishers specifically designed for flammable liquid fires.

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140. Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system that takes inputs from long-range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?

Explanation

The correct answer is Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F). BCS-F is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server-based computer system. It takes inputs from both long-range and short-range radars and displays the information on a scope. This system is designed for battle control and provides real-time situational awareness to military personnel. It helps in tracking and correlating radar data, allowing for effective decision-making and coordination in military operations.

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141. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, web access, and storage?

Explanation

An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, web access, and storage. This center is responsible for managing and maintaining these services for the organization. It serves as a centralized hub for processing and storing data, allowing users to access these services efficiently and securely. The APC ensures that the organization's enterprise services are available and reliable for its users.

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142. What does the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices communicate and access the network medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies. The MAC sublayer ensures that devices can transmit and receive data without interference or collisions, by implementing protocols like Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) in Ethernet networks. It also handles addressing and frame synchronization to ensure reliable data transmission.

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143. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?

Explanation

There are three workflow capabilities available on a SharePoint Server.

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144. The risk management process includes how many steps?

Explanation

The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. Each step is essential in effectively managing and minimizing potential risks. Risk identification involves identifying and understanding potential risks. Risk assessment involves evaluating the likelihood and impact of each risk. Risk mitigation involves developing strategies to reduce or eliminate risks. Risk monitoring involves continuously monitoring and reviewing risks to ensure they are effectively managed. Risk communication involves effectively communicating risks and risk management strategies to stakeholders.

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145. Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Classification Authority". This marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and serves to indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. It helps to identify who has the responsibility and authority to classify the document and for how long it should remain classified.

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146. Which system us a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Broadcast System (GBS). GBS is a space-based high data rate communications link that allows for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It provides a reliable and secure method of transmitting data, such as video, imagery, and intelligence reports, to military personnel in remote locations. This system enables real-time situational awareness and enhances command and control capabilities for military operations.

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147. What  system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN)  that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Explanation

The National Military Command System (NMCS) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. This system is specifically designed to facilitate communication, command, and control functions at the highest levels of the military hierarchy. It ensures that critical information can be shared and acted upon quickly and efficiently, enabling effective decision-making and execution of military operations.

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148. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Explanation

The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology involves organizing and deploying Air Force personnel and resources in a structured and rotational manner to support combat operations. The AEF ensures that the Air Force is able to provide the necessary capabilities and support to meet the operational requirements of the combatant commanders.

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149. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

Explanation

The correct answer is 978. The Air Force uses AF Form 978 to report ground mishaps. This form is used to document any accidents or incidents that occur on the ground, such as vehicle collisions or equipment damage. It is important to report these mishaps in order to investigate the causes and take appropriate corrective actions to prevent similar incidents in the future.

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150. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT), in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). This means that the AFCFM, who oversees the career field, works together with the TPM, who manages the training pipeline, to schedule the STRT. They collaborate to ensure that the training requirements for the specialty are properly scheduled and met.

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151. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

Explanation

My current version does not show 457, it shows 475, hwever, 457 is the correct form.

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152. What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. This network is specifically designed to support the Department of Defense's information sharing and decision-making processes, ensuring that the necessary infrastructure and resources are in place to maintain information superiority.

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153. Describe a network bridge?

Explanation

A network bridge is a Data Link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in ethernet networks. It allows for the segmentation of a network, preventing collisions and improving network performance. By dividing the network into smaller segments, a bridge can effectively manage network traffic and improve the overall efficiency of the network.

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154. Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?

Explanation

The Global Command and Control System (GCCS) is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. This system allows for the coordination and execution of military operations, providing real-time situational awareness, decision-making support, and information sharing across all levels of command. It integrates various data sources and enables the DOD to effectively plan, monitor, and control military activities worldwide. GCCS is a critical tool in achieving the DOD's objective of full spectrum dominance, which refers to the ability to control all domains of warfare (land, sea, air, space, and cyberspace) and ensure superiority over any adversary.

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155. How many air defense sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F) divided into?

Explanation

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F) is divided into two air defense sectors. This means that the system is designed to cover and control two separate areas of airspace for defense purposes. Each sector is responsible for monitoring and coordinating air defense operations within its designated area.

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156. What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communication between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing a reliable and error-free transmission of data between the sender and receiver over a single link. It handles flow control, error control, and sequencing of frames to ensure that data is transmitted accurately and efficiently. The LLC sublayer also handles addressing and multiplexing, allowing multiple protocols to access the same network link.

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157. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD) are publications issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements. These directives are used to initiate, govern, and regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities. They provide clear guidance and instructions for Air Force personnel to follow in order to ensure consistency and adherence to established policies. AFPDs serve as a means of communicating the SECAF's intentions and expectations to the entire Air Force community. Therefore, AFPDs are the correct answer as they best fit the description provided in the question.

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158. Which system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions?

Explanation

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the correct answer because it provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. SACCS is responsible for the communication and coordination of strategic forces, ensuring the security and reliability of these critical operations. It enables the Air Force to effectively and efficiently manage and control its strategic assets, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of its missions.

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159. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

Explanation

The Base Records Manager is responsible for providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training. This role involves ensuring that records are properly maintained and accessible, coordinating with other departments to support record-keeping needs, and training staff on records management procedures. The Base Records Manager plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and organization of records within the base or organization.

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160. How many different types of Department of Defese Instructions (DODI) are there?

Explanation

There are two different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI).

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161. How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is comprised of four volumes. Each volume focuses on different aspects of the framework, including the overall architecture, systems and services, products and standards, and implementation guidance. These volumes provide a comprehensive guide for developing and managing architectures within the Department of Defense.

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162. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Explanation

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

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163. In general, how many operating system task categories are there?

Explanation

There are six operating system task categories in general.

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164. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests (SKT) and career development courses (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the career field within a major command and ensuring that the appropriate resources and expertise are available for training and development purposes. They work closely with the Unit Training Manager (UTM), Base Functional Manager (BFM), and Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) to coordinate and support the career development of individuals within their command.

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165. What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Network (DISN) is a system that provides the exchange of information in a global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. It is specifically designed for the Department of Defense and its various agencies to ensure secure and reliable communication across different locations and networks. DISN allows for interoperability and connectivity between different systems and users, enabling effective communication and information sharing within the defense community. The other options listed are all related to defense and telecommunications networks but do not specifically match the given description.

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166. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed Base Records Managers?

Explanation

The Command Records Manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed Base Records Managers. This role ensures that these managers are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively manage records within their respective bases. By establishing training programs, the Command Records Manager ensures consistency and adherence to records management policies and procedures across all bases.

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167. Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Explanation

The correct answer is Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS). SACCS is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field. SACCS is a secure and reliable communication system that allows for the rapid dissemination of critical information and instructions during emergency situations. It ensures that the necessary commands reach the appropriate commanders in a timely manner, enabling them to respond effectively to the situation at hand.

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168. What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Security and Control System includes the Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. This system is responsible for ensuring the security and control of cyberspace operations within the Air Force. It includes various components and functions that work together to protect the Air Force's networks and systems from cyber threats.

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169. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

Explanation

A Functional Area Records Manager is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with regulations and policies related to records management. They play a critical role in organizing and safeguarding important documents, facilitating access to information, and ensuring the proper disposal of records when necessary.

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170. What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally-managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command specific networks into a centrally-managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC). It is designed to provide security and control over the Air Force's cyberspace operations.

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171. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is designed to provide effective command and control over cyberspace operations, ensuring the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of critical information. It allows the Air Force to effectively defend against cyber threats and maintain operational capabilities in cyberspace, enabling successful worldwide operations.

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172. Which system is the Air Force's primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). DCGS is the Air Force's primary ISR collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system. It is a network of systems and sensors that collect and analyze intelligence data from various sources, such as satellites, drones, and other platforms. DCGS provides commanders with real-time situational awareness and intelligence to support decision-making and mission planning. It plays a crucial role in enhancing the Air Force's ISR capabilities and ensuring effective intelligence support to operations.

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173. What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

Explanation

The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM has slower access time compared to RAM. This means that it takes more time to read data from ROM compared to RAM. RAM is a volatile memory, meaning that its contents are lost when the power is turned off, while ROM is non-volatile, meaning its contents are retained even when the power is turned off. However, the question specifically asks for the major difference between the two, which is the slower access time of ROM compared to RAM.

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174. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?

Explanation

Active defense involves continuous monitoring and analyzing of network activity to identify and counter threats in real-time. Reactive defense focuses on responding to and terminating ongoing intrusions, mitigating damage, and restoring systems to a secure state.

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175. Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

Explanation

Class C helmets are designed for impact and penetration protection but do not provide electrical insulation. Class E helmets provide the highest level of electrical protection, while Class G helmets offer some protection against low-voltage conductors.

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176. How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

Explanation

The General Service Administration (GSA) is responsible for making the decision on whether an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient. This implies that the GSA has the authority and expertise to assess the security needs and risks of the organization, and based on that, determine the appropriate level of protection required. The GSA's decision-making process may involve factors such as the organization's size, nature of operations, sensitivity of information, and potential threats. Ultimately, their decision will be based on a comprehensive evaluation of the risks and the available control options.

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177. Computer Security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?

Explanation

Computer Security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are categorized into eight main areas:

Physical access

Environmental

Communications

Hardware

Software

Human

Procedural

Emanations

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Records that are considered to be in draft format
Which network provides a private tunnel through the internet?
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the...
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of...
What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that...
What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?
Which computer software is designed to collect personal information...
Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what...
When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber...
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to...
What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability...
What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
What topology offers centralized management of a network?
What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP...
Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and...
Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best...
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the...
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles,...
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with...
What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of...
What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the...
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control...
What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical...
Whose responsibility is it to advise commanders, function managers,...
What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards...
How are fires classified?
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
What step is the fourth in the fire fighting procedure?
Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems...
What negative effect could occur when star networks are...
What range of numbers are those of well known ports
Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and...
Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical...
Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection...
Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a...
Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test...
Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public...
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What basic building block is used in the joint force planning and...
Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what...
Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)
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Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT)...
What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?
Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?
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What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force...
Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close...
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According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC),...
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What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to...
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An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of...
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Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN...
What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers...
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What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides...
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air...
Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in...
Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause...
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation...
What is a peripheral device?
Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance...
What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a...
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training...
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Who developes standards for iinterconnect, passive and...
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The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open...
When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a...
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What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D...
What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an...
What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all...
What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance...
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What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4...
What directive publications expire one year after their effective date...
Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained...
What requirements mandate to develope of Air Force Architectures?
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What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject...
What Information System (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an...
Which classified document marking identifies the highest level of...
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What directive publication perscribes the mission, area of...
What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force...
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How many T1  Defense Switched Network (DSN) access ciruits do...
What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office...
Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
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What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on...
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Which system's mission is to provide reliable, rapid two-way...
Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's...
What classification do flammable liquids receive?
Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on...
What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services...
What does the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer of the data link...
How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint...
The risk management process includes how many steps?
Which classified document marking appears on the face of each...
Which system us a space-based high data rate communications link for...
What  system is the priority component of the Department of...
What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to...
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements...
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing...
Describe a network bridge?
Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and...
How many air defense sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed...
What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link...
What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force...
Which system provides a secure communications path for command and...
Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and...
How many different types of Department of Defese Instructions (DODI)...
How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture...
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of...
In general, how many operating system task categories are there?
Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter...
What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange...
Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for...
Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency...
What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrated Network...
Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within...
What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative...
What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission...
Which system is the Air Force's primary intelligence, surveillance...
What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access...
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and...
Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with...
How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required...
Computer Security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how...
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