3DX5X Cyber Support Journeyman Volume 2. Information Technology Concepts

1. (215) What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses?

A. Norton and Horton.

B. Horton and McAfee.

C. Norton and McAfee.

D. McAfee and Lotus Pro.

The Air Force uses Norton and McAfee as their two anti-virus programs. These programs are commonly used in many organizations and have a strong reputation for their effectiveness in detecting and removing malware and other security threats. By using both Norton and McAfee, the Air Force can benefit from the different features and capabilities offered by each program, providing a more comprehensive protection against cyber threats.

Explanation

The Air Force uses Norton and McAfee as their two anti-virus programs. These programs are commonly used in many organizations and have a strong reputation for their effectiveness in detecting and removing malware and other security threats. By using both Norton and McAfee, the Air Force can benefit from the different features and capabilities offered by each program, providing a more comprehensive protection against cyber threats.

2. (223) What concerns slowed the military's adoption of wireless network technology?

A. Speed and reliability.

B. Security and reliability.

C. Reliability and maintenance.

D. Certification and interoperability.

The military's adoption of wireless network technology was slowed due to concerns regarding both security and reliability. Security was a major concern as wireless networks are more susceptible to hacking and unauthorized access compared to wired networks. The military needed to ensure that their wireless networks were secure enough to protect sensitive information and prevent any potential cyber attacks. Additionally, reliability was also a concern as wireless networks can be affected by interference, signal loss, and other technical issues. The military needed to ensure that their wireless networks were reliable enough to support critical operations without any disruptions.

Explanation

The military's adoption of wireless network technology was slowed due to concerns regarding both security and reliability. Security was a major concern as wireless networks are more susceptible to hacking and unauthorized access compared to wired networks. The military needed to ensure that their wireless networks were secure enough to protect sensitive information and prevent any potential cyber attacks. Additionally, reliability was also a concern as wireless networks can be affected by interference, signal loss, and other technical issues. The military needed to ensure that their wireless networks were reliable enough to support critical operations without any disruptions.

3. (207) The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called

A. mobility.

B. ease of installations.

C. war driving.

D. motion capture technology.

The correct answer is a. mobility. In wireless technology, the ability to move about freely without being restricted by wires is referred to as mobility. This allows users to access and use wireless devices and services from different locations, providing convenience and flexibility. Ease of installations (b) refers to the simplicity and efficiency of setting up wireless systems. War driving (c) is the act of searching for and exploiting wireless networks, often for malicious purposes. Motion capture technology (d) involves capturing and recording the movements of objects or individuals for various applications, such as animation or sports analysis.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. mobility. In wireless technology, the ability to move about freely without being restricted by wires is referred to as mobility. This allows users to access and use wireless devices and services from different locations, providing convenience and flexibility. Ease of installations (b) refers to the simplicity and efficiency of setting up wireless systems. War driving (c) is the act of searching for and exploiting wireless networks, often for malicious purposes. Motion capture technology (d) involves capturing and recording the movements of objects or individuals for various applications, such as animation or sports analysis.

4. (217) What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?

A. C-Plus.

B. UNIX.

C. Fortran.

D. Windows.

UNIX was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems. It was created in the 1960s and was designed to be portable and flexible, allowing it to be used on different hardware platforms. UNIX became widely adopted in the academic and research communities and eventually influenced the development of other operating systems, including Linux and macOS.

Explanation

UNIX was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems. It was created in the 1960s and was designed to be portable and flexible, allowing it to be used on different hardware platforms. UNIX became widely adopted in the academic and research communities and eventually influenced the development of other operating systems, including Linux and macOS.

5. (207) Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

A. Twisted pair cable.

B. Fiber optic cable.

C. Coaxial cable.

D. Twinax cable.

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a widely used and cost-effective transmission medium. It consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together, which helps to reduce electromagnetic interference and crosstalk. Twisted pair cable is capable of transmitting analog signals, making it suitable for carrying voice signals. It is commonly used in telephone systems and is able to support voice communication over long distances without significant loss of quality.

Explanation

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a widely used and cost-effective transmission medium. It consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together, which helps to reduce electromagnetic interference and crosstalk. Twisted pair cable is capable of transmitting analog signals, making it suitable for carrying voice signals. It is commonly used in telephone systems and is able to support voice communication over long distances without significant loss of quality.

6. (207) Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?

A. Auditor.

B. Employee.

C. War Driver.

D. Hacker.

An employee is an authorized client who may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network. Employees have legitimate access to the network and can be manipulated or exploited by external parties to gain unauthorized access. They may unknowingly share sensitive information, fall victim to social engineering attacks, or intentionally breach security protocols. Therefore, it is crucial for organizations to implement robust security measures and educate their employees about the potential risks and best practices to prevent unauthorized access.

Explanation

An employee is an authorized client who may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network. Employees have legitimate access to the network and can be manipulated or exploited by external parties to gain unauthorized access. They may unknowingly share sensitive information, fall victim to social engineering attacks, or intentionally breach security protocols. Therefore, it is crucial for organizations to implement robust security measures and educate their employees about the potential risks and best practices to prevent unauthorized access.

7. (211) What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?

A. Store-and-forward.

B. Cross-over.

C. Fragment-free.

D. Adaptive.

Store-and-forward is the method where the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer. An error check is then performed to ensure the integrity of the frame. Finally, the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery. This method ensures that the entire frame is received before it is forwarded, minimizing the chances of errors or data loss during transmission.

Explanation

Store-and-forward is the method where the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer. An error check is then performed to ensure the integrity of the frame. Finally, the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery. This method ensures that the entire frame is received before it is forwarded, minimizing the chances of errors or data loss during transmission.

8. (201) What Open System Interconnect layer is closest to the end user?

A. Application.

B. Session.

C. Presentation.

D. Transport.

The Open System Interconnect (OSI) model is a conceptual framework that standardizes the functions of a communication system into seven different layers. The layer closest to the end user is the Application layer. This layer provides services directly to the user, such as email, web browsing, and file transfer. It interacts with software applications and enables communication between the user and the network. The Application layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of communication partners, as well as synchronizing and encrypting data for transmission.

Explanation

The Open System Interconnect (OSI) model is a conceptual framework that standardizes the functions of a communication system into seven different layers. The layer closest to the end user is the Application layer. This layer provides services directly to the user, such as email, web browsing, and file transfer. It interacts with software applications and enables communication between the user and the network. The Application layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of communication partners, as well as synchronizing and encrypting data for transmission.

9. (202) What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?

A. Physical.

B. Logical.

C. Star.

D. Hybrid.

The correct answer is b. Logical. Logical topology refers to the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted in a network. It focuses on the logical connections and pathways between devices, rather than the physical layout. This includes concepts such as bus, ring, and mesh topologies.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Logical. Logical topology refers to the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted in a network. It focuses on the logical connections and pathways between devices, rather than the physical layout. This includes concepts such as bus, ring, and mesh topologies.

10. (215) The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer's motherboard goes through a special program called a

A. director.

B. deliver.

C. driver.

D. sender.

The correct answer is c. driver. The explanation for this answer is that a driver is a special program that acts as a bridge between the operating system and hardware devices that are not on the computer's motherboard. It allows the operating system to communicate and control these external hardware devices effectively.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. driver. The explanation for this answer is that a driver is a special program that acts as a bridge between the operating system and hardware devices that are not on the computer's motherboard. It allows the operating system to communicate and control these external hardware devices effectively.

11. (207) Which of the following is not one the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?

A. Rogue Access Points.

B. Direct Connections.

C. War Drivers.

D. Hackers.

Direct Connections is not one of the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network. Rogue Access Points, War Drivers, and Hackers are all common security threats to wireless networks. Rogue Access Points refer to unauthorized access points that are set up by individuals with malicious intent. War Drivers are individuals who drive around with wireless devices to detect and exploit vulnerabilities in wireless networks. Hackers are individuals who attempt to gain unauthorized access to a network or system. Direct Connections, on the other hand, do not pose a specific security threat to wireless networks.

Explanation

Direct Connections is not one of the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network. Rogue Access Points, War Drivers, and Hackers are all common security threats to wireless networks. Rogue Access Points refer to unauthorized access points that are set up by individuals with malicious intent. War Drivers are individuals who drive around with wireless devices to detect and exploit vulnerabilities in wireless networks. Hackers are individuals who attempt to gain unauthorized access to a network or system. Direct Connections, on the other hand, do not pose a specific security threat to wireless networks.

12. (207) What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks?

A. Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers.

B. International Organization for Standardization.

C. Internet assigned numbers authority.

D. National Science Foundation network.

The correct answer is a. Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers. The Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is an organization that has developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks. They have developed standards such as IEEE 802.11 (Wi-Fi) and IEEE 802.15 (Bluetooth), which have become widely adopted in the industry.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers. The Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is an organization that has developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks. They have developed standards such as IEEE 802.11 (Wi-Fi) and IEEE 802.15 (Bluetooth), which have become widely adopted in the industry.

13. (212) What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?

A. Routing times.

B. Routing tables.

C. Longest routes.

D. shortest routes.

Routing algorithms initialize and maintain routing tables to aid the process of path determination. Routing tables contain information about the network topology, including the available routes and their associated metrics or costs. By analyzing this information, the routing algorithm can determine the most efficient path for forwarding packets from the source to the destination. Routing tables are continuously updated and adjusted based on changes in the network, such as link failures or the addition of new routes.

Explanation

Routing algorithms initialize and maintain routing tables to aid the process of path determination. Routing tables contain information about the network topology, including the available routes and their associated metrics or costs. By analyzing this information, the routing algorithm can determine the most efficient path for forwarding packets from the source to the destination. Routing tables are continuously updated and adjusted based on changes in the network, such as link failures or the addition of new routes.

14. (217) What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition?

A. root.

B. user.

C. binary.

D. device.

The directory that is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition is called the root directory.

Explanation

The directory that is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition is called the root directory.

15. (234) Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?

A. INFOCON 2.

B. INFOCON 3.

C. INFOCON 4.

D. INFOCON 5.

INFOCON 2 is the condition that permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication. This indicates that the threat level is high and there is a need to secure critical networks by disconnecting non-essential ones. INFOCON 2 signifies a higher level of readiness and security measures compared to INFOCON 3, 4, and 5.

Explanation

INFOCON 2 is the condition that permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication. This indicates that the threat level is high and there is a need to secure critical networks by disconnecting non-essential ones. INFOCON 2 signifies a higher level of readiness and security measures compared to INFOCON 3, 4, and 5.

16. (204) What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?

A. Local Area Network.

B. Wide Area Network.

C. Virtual Private Network.

D. Metropolitan Area Network.

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enable a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet. VPNs create a secure and encrypted connection between the computers, allowing them to send and receive data privately and securely. This is especially useful for remote workers or businesses that need to connect to their network from outside locations, as it ensures that their communication is protected from potential threats on the public Internet.

Explanation

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enable a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet. VPNs create a secure and encrypted connection between the computers, allowing them to send and receive data privately and securely. This is especially useful for remote workers or businesses that need to connect to their network from outside locations, as it ensures that their communication is protected from potential threats on the public Internet.

17. (205) Using a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?

A. Class A.

B. Class B.

C. Class C.

D. Class D.

The range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address belongs to Class A. Class A addresses have the first bit set to 0, indicating that the address belongs to the network address space. The remaining 7 bits in the first octet are used to represent the network ID, allowing for a large number of networks. The range 1-126 falls within this class, making it the correct answer.

Explanation

The range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address belongs to Class A. Class A addresses have the first bit set to 0, indicating that the address belongs to the network address space. The remaining 7 bits in the first octet are used to represent the network ID, allowing for a large number of networks. The range 1-126 falls within this class, making it the correct answer.

18. (207) What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?

A. Volatile.

B. Nonvolatile.

C. Secured.

D. Unsecured.

Nonvolatile memory is the type of memory that retains data even after power is removed or lost. Unlike volatile memory, which requires a constant power supply to retain data, nonvolatile memory can store information even when power is not available. This type of memory is commonly used in devices such as solid-state drives (SSDs), USB flash drives, and memory cards, where data needs to be preserved even when the device is turned off.

Explanation

Nonvolatile memory is the type of memory that retains data even after power is removed or lost. Unlike volatile memory, which requires a constant power supply to retain data, nonvolatile memory can store information even when power is not available. This type of memory is commonly used in devices such as solid-state drives (SSDs), USB flash drives, and memory cards, where data needs to be preserved even when the device is turned off.

19. (210) What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?

A. 90/10 rule.

B. 80/20 rule.

C. 70/30 rule.

D. 60/40 rule.

The 80/20 rule establishes that 80% of the data should be local to a segment, meaning it stays within that segment, while 20% of the data should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment. This rule helps to balance the distribution of data between segments and optimize network performance.

Explanation

The 80/20 rule establishes that 80% of the data should be local to a segment, meaning it stays within that segment, while 20% of the data should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment. This rule helps to balance the distribution of data between segments and optimize network performance.

20. (212) Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

A. 2.

B. 3.

C. 4.

D. 5.

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It considers factors such as network congestion, link quality, and shortest distance to determine the optimal route. This process is performed dynamically, meaning that the routing decisions can change in real-time based on the current network conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is a. 2.

Explanation

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It considers factors such as network congestion, link quality, and shortest distance to determine the optimal route. This process is performed dynamically, meaning that the routing decisions can change in real-time based on the current network conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is a. 2.

21. (215) Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?

A. specific.

B. general.

C. special.

D. broad.

Applications are software programs that are designed to perform specific tasks. Unlike general software programs that can perform a wide range of tasks, applications are created with a specific purpose in mind. They are tailored to meet the needs of users who require a particular functionality or solve a specific problem. By focusing on specific tasks, applications can provide targeted features and enhanced performance, making them more efficient and effective for users. Therefore, the correct answer is a. specific.

Explanation

Applications are software programs that are designed to perform specific tasks. Unlike general software programs that can perform a wide range of tasks, applications are created with a specific purpose in mind. They are tailored to meet the needs of users who require a particular functionality or solve a specific problem. By focusing on specific tasks, applications can provide targeted features and enhanced performance, making them more efficient and effective for users. Therefore, the correct answer is a. specific.

22. (203) What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP?

A. File Transfer Protocol.

B. Trivial File Transfer Protocol.

C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol.

D. HyperText Transfer Protocol.

The correct answer is File Transfer Protocol (FTP). FTP is a standard network protocol used to transfer files from one host to another over a TCP-based network, such as the internet. It provides a simple and reliable way to send and receive files, allowing users to upload and download files between their local system and a remote server. FTP uses TCP as its transport protocol to ensure the reliable delivery of data packets. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP), Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), and HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) are not designed specifically for file transfer purposes.

Explanation

The correct answer is File Transfer Protocol (FTP). FTP is a standard network protocol used to transfer files from one host to another over a TCP-based network, such as the internet. It provides a simple and reliable way to send and receive files, allowing users to upload and download files between their local system and a remote server. FTP uses TCP as its transport protocol to ensure the reliable delivery of data packets. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP), Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), and HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) are not designed specifically for file transfer purposes.

23. (204) What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world?

A. Local Area Network.

B. Wide Area Network.

C. Virtual Private Network.

D. Metropolitan Area Network.

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a type of network that connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN) which connects devices within a limited area, a WAN allows for long-distance communication and enables organizations to connect their remote offices or branches to a centralized network. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a technology that allows users to securely access a private network over a public network, and a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) connects networks within a specific geographic area, such as a city. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Wide Area Network.

Explanation

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a type of network that connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN) which connects devices within a limited area, a WAN allows for long-distance communication and enables organizations to connect their remote offices or branches to a centralized network. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a technology that allows users to securely access a private network over a public network, and a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) connects networks within a specific geographic area, such as a city. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Wide Area Network.

24. (201) The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

A. High Level Data Link Control and Synchronous Data Link Control.

B. Logical Link Control and Media Access Control.

C. Distance Vector and Link State.

D. RS–232 and RS–530.

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into two sublayers: Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The LLC sublayer is responsible for managing communication between network devices and providing error control and flow control. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the network media and handling data transmission. Therefore, option b, Logical Link Control and Media Access Control, is the correct answer.

Explanation

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into two sublayers: Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The LLC sublayer is responsible for managing communication between network devices and providing error control and flow control. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the network media and handling data transmission. Therefore, option b, Logical Link Control and Media Access Control, is the correct answer.

25. (213) The classification of a fill device is

A. classified when taken out of a safe.

B. classified as SECRET when the key has been unloaded.

C. unclassified when put back in the safe after a key has been loaded into it.

D. classified as soon as a key is loaded, and holds the classification of the loaded key.

The correct answer is d. When a key is loaded into a fill device, it becomes classified and holds the classification of the loaded key. This means that the fill device itself is not classified until a key is loaded into it. Once a key is loaded, the fill device takes on the same classification as the key, indicating the sensitivity of the information it is designed to protect.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. When a key is loaded into a fill device, it becomes classified and holds the classification of the loaded key. This means that the fill device itself is not classified until a key is loaded into it. Once a key is loaded, the fill device takes on the same classification as the key, indicating the sensitivity of the information it is designed to protect.

26. (203) Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?

A. AppleTalk.

B. NetBios Extended User Interface.

C. Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol.

D. Internetwork Packet Exchange/ Sequenced Packet Exchange.

The Department of Defense has chosen the Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) as its standard network protocol to govern the flow of information. TCP/IP is a widely used protocol in computer networks, including the internet, and it provides reliable and secure communication between devices. It allows for the transmission of data packets, ensuring that information is properly delivered and received. TCP/IP also provides addressing and routing functions, allowing for efficient and effective communication across networks.

Explanation

The Department of Defense has chosen the Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) as its standard network protocol to govern the flow of information. TCP/IP is a widely used protocol in computer networks, including the internet, and it provides reliable and secure communication between devices. It allows for the transmission of data packets, ensuring that information is properly delivered and received. TCP/IP also provides addressing and routing functions, allowing for efficient and effective communication across networks.

27. (206) What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site?

A. Site-local.

B. Link-local.

C. Aggregatable Local.

D. Aggregatable Global.

Site-local Unicast addresses are designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site. These addresses are used within a specific site or organization and are not meant to be globally unique. They are typically used for internal communication and are not advertised or routed outside the site.

Explanation

Site-local Unicast addresses are designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site. These addresses are used within a specific site or organization and are not meant to be globally unique. They are typically used for internal communication and are not advertised or routed outside the site.

28. (207) The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit, also called the

A. control unit.

B. minicomputer.

C. microprocessor.

D. arithmetic logic unit.

The computing part of a computer is referred to as the central processing unit (CPU). The CPU is responsible for executing instructions and performing calculations. The microprocessor is a key component of the CPU, as it is the integrated circuit that carries out the actual processing of data. Therefore, the correct answer is c. microprocessor.

Explanation

The computing part of a computer is referred to as the central processing unit (CPU). The CPU is responsible for executing instructions and performing calculations. The microprocessor is a key component of the CPU, as it is the integrated circuit that carries out the actual processing of data. Therefore, the correct answer is c. microprocessor.

29. (207) Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?

A. Ease of installation.

B. Lower Cost.

C. Safety.

D. Mobility.

Wireless technology offers several advantages, including ease of installation, lower cost, and mobility. However, safety is not one of these advantages. While wireless technology may have safety protocols in place, it is not inherently safer than other forms of technology. Safety concerns can still arise with wireless technology, such as security breaches or interference. Therefore, safety is not considered one of the three advantages of using wireless technology.

Explanation

Wireless technology offers several advantages, including ease of installation, lower cost, and mobility. However, safety is not one of these advantages. While wireless technology may have safety protocols in place, it is not inherently safer than other forms of technology. Safety concerns can still arise with wireless technology, such as security breaches or interference. Therefore, safety is not considered one of the three advantages of using wireless technology.

30. (201) What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium?

A. Specification.

B. Standard.

C. Etiquette.

D. Protocol.

A protocol is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium. It outlines the specific format, timing, sequencing, and error control for data transmission. It ensures that devices can communicate effectively and understand each other's messages.

Explanation

A protocol is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium. It outlines the specific format, timing, sequencing, and error control for data transmission. It ensures that devices can communicate effectively and understand each other's messages.

31. (202) What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

A. Bus.

B. Ring.

C. Star.

D. Hybrid.

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that a network can have a combination of bus, ring, star, or other topologies. This allows for more flexibility and scalability in designing a network, as different topologies can be used to suit different needs and requirements. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Hybrid.

Explanation

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that a network can have a combination of bus, ring, star, or other topologies. This allows for more flexibility and scalability in designing a network, as different topologies can be used to suit different needs and requirements. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Hybrid.

32. (202) What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

A. Bus.

B. Ring.

C. Star.

D. Hybrid.

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that the network can have a mix of different topologies such as bus, ring, or star. This allows for more flexibility and scalability in the network design, as different topologies can be used to suit different needs or requirements.

Explanation

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that the network can have a mix of different topologies such as bus, ring, or star. This allows for more flexibility and scalability in the network design, as different topologies can be used to suit different needs or requirements.

33. (203) What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

A. Internet Protocol.

B. Address Resolution Protocol.

C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

D. Internet Control Message Protocol.

The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a network layer protocol that provides messaging capabilities to help with troubleshooting. ICMP messages are used to report errors, congestion, and other information about the network. These messages can be used by network administrators to diagnose and troubleshoot network issues, such as identifying unreachable hosts or determining the round-trip time for packets. ICMP is an integral part of the TCP/IP protocol suite and is essential for the proper functioning and maintenance of IP networks.

Explanation

The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a network layer protocol that provides messaging capabilities to help with troubleshooting. ICMP messages are used to report errors, congestion, and other information about the network. These messages can be used by network administrators to diagnose and troubleshoot network issues, such as identifying unreachable hosts or determining the round-trip time for packets. ICMP is an integral part of the TCP/IP protocol suite and is essential for the proper functioning and maintenance of IP networks.

34. (205) What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?

A. 0.0.0.0.

B. 127.0.0.1.

C. 207.55.157.255.

D. 255.255.255.255.

The loopback address is a reserved IPv4 address used to test network communication within the device itself. The correct answer is b. 127.0.0.1. This address is commonly referred to as the localhost or loopback address, and it allows a device to send and receive data to itself. It is often used for troubleshooting network issues or testing network applications on a local machine.

Explanation

The loopback address is a reserved IPv4 address used to test network communication within the device itself. The correct answer is b. 127.0.0.1. This address is commonly referred to as the localhost or loopback address, and it allows a device to send and receive data to itself. It is often used for troubleshooting network issues or testing network applications on a local machine.

35. (206) What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?

A. 1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234.

B. 10AB::3:0:1234:5678.

C. 255.255.255.255.

D. 127.0.0.1.

The correct answer is b. 10AB::3:0:1234:5678. This notation represents zero compression for IPv6. In IPv6, consecutive blocks of zeros can be compressed to "::". In this answer, "::" is used to compress the consecutive blocks of zeros between "10AB" and "3".

Explanation

The correct answer is b. 10AB::3:0:1234:5678. This notation represents zero compression for IPv6. In IPv6, consecutive blocks of zeros can be compressed to "::". In this answer, "::" is used to compress the consecutive blocks of zeros between "10AB" and "3".

36. (202) What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?

A. Bus.

B. Ring.

C. Star.

D. Hybrid.

The correct answer is a. Bus. In a bus topology, devices are connected to a common cable called a bus. All devices on the network share this cable, and data is transmitted in both directions. Each device receives all the data transmitted on the bus, but only the intended recipient processes the data. This topology is simple and cost-effective, but can be prone to collisions and performance issues as more devices are added to the network.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Bus. In a bus topology, devices are connected to a common cable called a bus. All devices on the network share this cable, and data is transmitted in both directions. Each device receives all the data transmitted on the bus, but only the intended recipient processes the data. This topology is simple and cost-effective, but can be prone to collisions and performance issues as more devices are added to the network.

37. (203) What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address?

A. Internet Protocol.

B. Address Resolution Protocol.

C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

D. Internet Control Message Protocol.

The Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) is a network layer protocol that provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address. RARP allows a device to send its MAC address to a RARP server and request its corresponding IP address. This is useful in situations where a device does not have a configured IP address and needs to obtain one dynamically. RARP is the reverse process of Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), which maps an IP address to a MAC address.

Explanation

The Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) is a network layer protocol that provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address. RARP allows a device to send its MAC address to a RARP server and request its corresponding IP address. This is useful in situations where a device does not have a configured IP address and needs to obtain one dynamically. RARP is the reverse process of Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), which maps an IP address to a MAC address.

38. (205) How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

A. 16 bits.

B. 32 bits.

C. 64 bits.

D. 128 bits.

An IPv4 address is a 32-bit address, which means it consists of 32 binary digits or bits. Each bit can be either a 0 or a 1, allowing for a total of 2^32 (approximately 4.3 billion) unique addresses. This addressing scheme is used to identify and locate devices on a network using the Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) protocol.

Explanation

An IPv4 address is a 32-bit address, which means it consists of 32 binary digits or bits. Each bit can be either a 0 or a 1, allowing for a total of 2^32 (approximately 4.3 billion) unique addresses. This addressing scheme is used to identify and locate devices on a network using the Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) protocol.

39. (201) What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?

A. Physical.

B. Data Link.

C. Network.

D. Transport.

The physical layer of the Open System Interconnect model is responsible for defining the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems. This layer deals with the physical transmission of data, including the physical medium (such as cables and connectors) and the encoding and decoding of data. It ensures that the data is transmitted reliably and accurately over the network.

Explanation

The physical layer of the Open System Interconnect model is responsible for defining the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems. This layer deals with the physical transmission of data, including the physical medium (such as cables and connectors) and the encoding and decoding of data. It ensures that the data is transmitted reliably and accurately over the network.

40. (225) While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?

A. Recorded voice message.

B. Punched computer cards.

C. Liquid crystal display.

D. Punched paper tape.

The liquid crystal display is the feature that lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security while using the Red Switch.

Explanation

The liquid crystal display is the feature that lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security while using the Red Switch.

41. (203) What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

A. Internet Protocol.

B. User Datagram Protocol.

C. Transmission Control Protocol.

D. Internet Control Message Protocol.

The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) provides reliable data delivery services. TCP ensures that data packets are delivered in the correct order and without errors. It uses acknowledgments and retransmissions to guarantee that all data is successfully received by the recipient. TCP also manages congestion control to prevent network congestion and ensure efficient data transmission.

Explanation

The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) provides reliable data delivery services. TCP ensures that data packets are delivered in the correct order and without errors. It uses acknowledgments and retransmissions to guarantee that all data is successfully received by the recipient. TCP also manages congestion control to prevent network congestion and ensure efficient data transmission.

42. (234) When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?

A. INFOCON 2.

B. INFOCON 3.

C. INFOCON 4.

D. INFOCON 5.

INFOCON 3 is the condition that requires all unclassified dial-up connections to be disconnected when a risk of a network system attack has been identified. INFOCON stands for Information Operations Condition and is a system used by the military to assess and communicate the level of information security threats. INFOCON 3 indicates a significant risk of attack, and as a precautionary measure, all unclassified dial-up connections are disconnected to minimize the potential impact of the attack.

Explanation

INFOCON 3 is the condition that requires all unclassified dial-up connections to be disconnected when a risk of a network system attack has been identified. INFOCON stands for Information Operations Condition and is a system used by the military to assess and communicate the level of information security threats. INFOCON 3 indicates a significant risk of attack, and as a precautionary measure, all unclassified dial-up connections are disconnected to minimize the potential impact of the attack.

43. (212) Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?

A. Open Shortest Path First.

B. Border Gateway Protocol.

C. Routing Information Protocol.

D. Enhanced Gateway Routing Protocol.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol. BGP is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) on the internet. It is responsible for determining the best path for data to travel across multiple networks. BGP is widely used by internet service providers (ISPs) to establish and maintain routing tables, allowing for efficient and reliable routing of internet traffic between different networks. Other options mentioned, such as Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), Routing Information Protocol (RIP), and Enhanced Gateway Routing Protocol (EGRP), are examples of Interior Gateway Protocols (IGP), which are used within a single network or autonomous system.

Explanation

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol. BGP is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) on the internet. It is responsible for determining the best path for data to travel across multiple networks. BGP is widely used by internet service providers (ISPs) to establish and maintain routing tables, allowing for efficient and reliable routing of internet traffic between different networks. Other options mentioned, such as Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), Routing Information Protocol (RIP), and Enhanced Gateway Routing Protocol (EGRP), are examples of Interior Gateway Protocols (IGP), which are used within a single network or autonomous system.

44. (205) Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

A. Colon Hexadecimal Format.

B. Dotted Decimal Notation.

C. Hexadecimal.

D. Octal.

IPv4 addresses are expressed in dotted decimal notation to make them more user-friendly. In this format, the address is divided into four sections, each representing one byte of the address. Each section is separated by a dot, making it easier for users to read and understand the address. This format is widely used and allows for easy recognition and interpretation of IPv4 addresses.

Explanation

IPv4 addresses are expressed in dotted decimal notation to make them more user-friendly. In this format, the address is divided into four sections, each representing one byte of the address. Each section is separated by a dot, making it easier for users to read and understand the address. This format is widely used and allows for easy recognition and interpretation of IPv4 addresses.

45. (205) What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?

A. Subnet mask.

B. Broadcast.

C. Multicast.

D. Subnet.

A subnet mask is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number. It is used to determine which part of the IP address represents the network and which part represents the host. By using a subnet mask, the device can identify the network to which the IP address belongs and route the data accordingly.

Explanation

A subnet mask is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number. It is used to determine which part of the IP address represents the network and which part represents the host. By using a subnet mask, the device can identify the network to which the IP address belongs and route the data accordingly.

46. (207) An optical communications system is comprised of a

A. transmitter, cable, and receiver.

B. transmitter, cable, and logic analyzer.

C. transmitter, transmission medium, and logic analyzer.

D. transmitter, transmission medium, and protocol analyzer.

The correct answer is a. transmitter, cable, and receiver. In an optical communications system, the transmitter is responsible for converting electrical signals into optical signals, the cable is used to transmit the optical signals, and the receiver converts the optical signals back into electrical signals for further processing. The logic analyzer and protocol analyzer mentioned in the other options are not essential components of an optical communications system.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. transmitter, cable, and receiver. In an optical communications system, the transmitter is responsible for converting electrical signals into optical signals, the cable is used to transmit the optical signals, and the receiver converts the optical signals back into electrical signals for further processing. The logic analyzer and protocol analyzer mentioned in the other options are not essential components of an optical communications system.

47. (209) What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?

A. Current.

B. Voltage.

C. Resistance.

D. Inductance.

To change the alignment and light polarizing property of Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) material, voltage is applied across it. This voltage helps in reorienting the liquid crystal molecules, which in turn changes the alignment and polarizing properties of the material. By applying voltage, the LCD material can control the passage of light and create the desired display.

Explanation

To change the alignment and light polarizing property of Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) material, voltage is applied across it. This voltage helps in reorienting the liquid crystal molecules, which in turn changes the alignment and polarizing properties of the material. By applying voltage, the LCD material can control the passage of light and create the desired display.

48. (210) This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.

A. Cross route.

B. Transparent.

C. Translational.

D. Source route.

A translational bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another. This means that it can take data from one protocol and translate it into a format that is compatible with another protocol. This type of bridge is commonly used in networking environments where different devices or networks use different protocols, allowing them to communicate with each other effectively. Cross route, transparent, and source route bridges do not specifically perform this protocol conversion function, making them incorrect choices for this question.

Explanation

A translational bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another. This means that it can take data from one protocol and translate it into a format that is compatible with another protocol. This type of bridge is commonly used in networking environments where different devices or networks use different protocols, allowing them to communicate with each other effectively. Cross route, transparent, and source route bridges do not specifically perform this protocol conversion function, making them incorrect choices for this question.

49. (201) At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?

A. Network.

B. Physical.

C. Data Link.

D. Transport.

Routers operate at the Network layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Network layer is responsible for routing packets across different networks, determining the best path for data transmission, and addressing logical network addresses. Routers use IP addresses to make routing decisions and connect different networks together. They analyze the destination IP address of a packet and use routing tables to determine the next hop for forwarding the packet to its destination. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Network.

Explanation

Routers operate at the Network layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Network layer is responsible for routing packets across different networks, determining the best path for data transmission, and addressing logical network addresses. Routers use IP addresses to make routing decisions and connect different networks together. They analyze the destination IP address of a packet and use routing tables to determine the next hop for forwarding the packet to its destination. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Network.

50. (214) Analog modems are used over the voice band range of

A. 10 Hz to 20 MHz.

B. 20 Hz to 20 kHz.

C. 30 Hz to 40 MHz.

D. 40 Hz to 40 kHz.

Analog modems are used to transmit data over telephone lines. The voice band range refers to the frequency range that is used for transmitting voice signals. This range is typically from 20 Hz to 20 kHz, which covers the range of human hearing. Analog modems utilize this voice band range to transmit data by converting the digital signals into analog signals that can be transmitted over the telephone lines. Therefore, option b. 20 Hz to 20 kHz is the correct answer as it accurately represents the frequency range used by analog modems.

Explanation

Analog modems are used to transmit data over telephone lines. The voice band range refers to the frequency range that is used for transmitting voice signals. This range is typically from 20 Hz to 20 kHz, which covers the range of human hearing. Analog modems utilize this voice band range to transmit data by converting the digital signals into analog signals that can be transmitted over the telephone lines. Therefore, option b. 20 Hz to 20 kHz is the correct answer as it accurately represents the frequency range used by analog modems.

51. (215) The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the

A. shell.

B. kernel.

C. device manager.

D. processor manager.

The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system. This function is responsible for managing various tasks such as memory management, process management, and device management. The kernel is the central component of the operating system that performs these functions. It acts as a bridge between the hardware and software, allowing the operating system to interact with the computer's hardware and manage its resources effectively. Therefore, the kernel is the correct answer as it is responsible for the management of the computer system.

Explanation

The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system. This function is responsible for managing various tasks such as memory management, process management, and device management. The kernel is the central component of the operating system that performs these functions. It acts as a bridge between the hardware and software, allowing the operating system to interact with the computer's hardware and manage its resources effectively. Therefore, the kernel is the correct answer as it is responsible for the management of the computer system.

52. (204) Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol servers and proxies?

A. Port 80.

B. Port 110.

C. Port 443.

D. Port 8080.

Port 8080 is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies. HTTP is the protocol used for transmitting web pages and other resources over the internet. Port 8080 is often used as an alternative to the default HTTP port (port 80) when the latter is already in use or blocked. It allows for the hosting of multiple web servers or applications on the same machine without conflicts.

Explanation

Port 8080 is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies. HTTP is the protocol used for transmitting web pages and other resources over the internet. Port 8080 is often used as an alternative to the default HTTP port (port 80) when the latter is already in use or blocked. It allows for the hosting of multiple web servers or applications on the same machine without conflicts.

53. (205) What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?

A. 255.255.0.0.

B. 255.255.240.0.

C. 255.255.255.0.

D. 255.255.255.224.

The default classful subnet mask for class B networks is 255.255.0.0. In classful networking, IP addresses are divided into classes, and class B addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. This subnet mask allows for a larger number of available network addresses compared to class C networks, which have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. The subnet mask 255.255.0.0 allows for 16 bits of network address and 16 bits of host address, providing a total of 65,536 possible network addresses.

Explanation

The default classful subnet mask for class B networks is 255.255.0.0. In classful networking, IP addresses are divided into classes, and class B addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. This subnet mask allows for a larger number of available network addresses compared to class C networks, which have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. The subnet mask 255.255.0.0 allows for 16 bits of network address and 16 bits of host address, providing a total of 65,536 possible network addresses.

54. (207) What two main components make up the central processing unit?

A. Control unit and read-only memory.

B. Control unit and arithmetic logic unit.

C. Arithmetic logic unit and read-only memory.

D. Arithmetic logic unit and random access memory.

The central processing unit (CPU) is made up of two main components: the control unit and the arithmetic logic unit (ALU). The control unit is responsible for coordinating and controlling the operations of the CPU, while the ALU performs arithmetic and logical operations. These two components work together to execute instructions and process data in a computer system.

Explanation

The central processing unit (CPU) is made up of two main components: the control unit and the arithmetic logic unit (ALU). The control unit is responsible for coordinating and controlling the operations of the CPU, while the ALU performs arithmetic and logical operations. These two components work together to execute instructions and process data in a computer system.

55. (202) What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?

A. Physical.

B. Logical.

C. Star.

D. Hybrid.

The correct answer is "a. Physical". Physical topology refers to the physical arrangement of devices and media in a network. It describes how the devices are connected to each other and how they are physically located in the network. This includes the layout of cables, switches, routers, and other hardware components. Logical topology, on the other hand, refers to how data flows in a network and is independent of the physical arrangement. Star and hybrid are types of physical topologies, but physical topology itself defines the layout of a network's devices and media.

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. Physical". Physical topology refers to the physical arrangement of devices and media in a network. It describes how the devices are connected to each other and how they are physically located in the network. This includes the layout of cables, switches, routers, and other hardware components. Logical topology, on the other hand, refers to how data flows in a network and is independent of the physical arrangement. Star and hybrid are types of physical topologies, but physical topology itself defines the layout of a network's devices and media.

56. (203) What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?

A. Internet Protocol.

B. Address Resolution Protocol.

C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

D. Internet Control Message Protocol.

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is responsible for mapping an IP address to a Media Access Control (MAC) address. When a device wants to send data to a destination device, it needs to know the MAC address of that device. ARP allows the device to send an ARP request to the network, asking for the MAC address associated with a specific IP address. The device with the matching IP address will respond with its MAC address, allowing the sender to establish a connection and send data. Therefore, ARP provides the service of matching a known IP address to a MAC address.

Explanation

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is responsible for mapping an IP address to a Media Access Control (MAC) address. When a device wants to send data to a destination device, it needs to know the MAC address of that device. ARP allows the device to send an ARP request to the network, asking for the MAC address associated with a specific IP address. The device with the matching IP address will respond with its MAC address, allowing the sender to establish a connection and send data. Therefore, ARP provides the service of matching a known IP address to a MAC address.

57. (205) What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

A. Class C.

B. Class D.

C. Class E.

D. Class F.

Class C is the correct answer because it is specifically designed for networks with approximately 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which allows for 256 possible network addresses and 254 usable host addresses. This makes it suitable for small to medium-sized networks, such as home networks or small businesses, that require a moderate number of devices to be connected. Class D is used for multicast addresses, Class E is reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F is unassigned.

Explanation

Class C is the correct answer because it is specifically designed for networks with approximately 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which allows for 256 possible network addresses and 254 usable host addresses. This makes it suitable for small to medium-sized networks, such as home networks or small businesses, that require a moderate number of devices to be connected. Class D is used for multicast addresses, Class E is reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F is unassigned.

58. (205) What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?

A. Class C.

B. Class D.

C. Class E.

D. Class F.

IPv4 addresses are divided into different classes based on their range and purpose. Class D addresses are reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a single packet to be sent to multiple hosts simultaneously. This is useful for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and audio conferencing, where data needs to be distributed to multiple recipients. Class C addresses are used for small to medium-sized networks, Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F addresses are reserved for future use.

Explanation

IPv4 addresses are divided into different classes based on their range and purpose. Class D addresses are reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a single packet to be sent to multiple hosts simultaneously. This is useful for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and audio conferencing, where data needs to be distributed to multiple recipients. Class C addresses are used for small to medium-sized networks, Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F addresses are reserved for future use.

59. (232) Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?

A. OPSEC.

B. EMSEC.

C. COMSEC.

D. COMPUSEC.

COMPUSEC, or computer security, is the applied discipline that focuses on implementing measures and controls to protect data in computer systems from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or destruction. It involves the use of various techniques and technologies to safeguard computer systems and their data from potential threats and vulnerabilities. This includes implementing firewalls, encryption, access controls, and other security measures to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data.

Explanation

COMPUSEC, or computer security, is the applied discipline that focuses on implementing measures and controls to protect data in computer systems from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or destruction. It involves the use of various techniques and technologies to safeguard computer systems and their data from potential threats and vulnerabilities. This includes implementing firewalls, encryption, access controls, and other security measures to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data.

60. (235) An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

A. a full accreditation.

B. a type accreditation.

C. a major accreditation.

D. an interim accreditation.

A full accreditation decision allows a system to operate in the environment it was originally intended for. This means that the system has met all the necessary requirements and standards to function effectively and securely in its intended environment. This type of accreditation is comprehensive and ensures that the system is fully capable of meeting its intended purpose without any major limitations or restrictions.

Explanation

A full accreditation decision allows a system to operate in the environment it was originally intended for. This means that the system has met all the necessary requirements and standards to function effectively and securely in its intended environment. This type of accreditation is comprehensive and ensures that the system is fully capable of meeting its intended purpose without any major limitations or restrictions.

61. (208) How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once?

A. 127.

B. 128.

C. 227.

D. 228.

A Universal Serial Bus (USB) can handle up to 127 peripherals at once. This is because USB uses a 7-bit address field to identify devices, allowing for a maximum of 127 unique addresses. Each peripheral connected to the USB is assigned a unique address, and the USB controller can communicate with all these peripherals simultaneously. Therefore, the correct answer is a. 127.

Explanation

A Universal Serial Bus (USB) can handle up to 127 peripherals at once. This is because USB uses a 7-bit address field to identify devices, allowing for a maximum of 127 unique addresses. Each peripheral connected to the USB is assigned a unique address, and the USB controller can communicate with all these peripherals simultaneously. Therefore, the correct answer is a. 127.

62. (213) What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?

A. TSEC/KIV–7.

B. TSEC/KIV–19.

C. TSEC/KG–84.

D. TSEC/KG–194.

The correct answer is a. TSEC/KIV-7. The TSEC/KIV-7 is an encryption device that is rarely seen due to its lower maximum data rate. This suggests that the TSEC/KIV-7 is not as commonly used as the other encryption devices listed (TSEC/KIV-19, TSEC/KG-84, and TSEC/KG-194) because it has a slower data rate.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. TSEC/KIV-7. The TSEC/KIV-7 is an encryption device that is rarely seen due to its lower maximum data rate. This suggests that the TSEC/KIV-7 is not as commonly used as the other encryption devices listed (TSEC/KIV-19, TSEC/KG-84, and TSEC/KG-194) because it has a slower data rate.

63. (222) What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?

A. DISN backbone.

B. JDISS terminal.

C. SIPRNET.

D. NIPRNET.

The DISN backbone is the correct answer because it provides the conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System (JWICS) data transmission from one location to another. The DISN backbone is a high-speed, secure network that connects various military and government sites, allowing for the transfer of classified information. It is specifically designed to handle the transmission of sensitive data and ensure its security and reliability. The other options, such as JDISS terminal, SIPRNET, and NIPRNET, are not specifically designed for JWICS data transmission.

Explanation

The DISN backbone is the correct answer because it provides the conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System (JWICS) data transmission from one location to another. The DISN backbone is a high-speed, secure network that connects various military and government sites, allowing for the transfer of classified information. It is specifically designed to handle the transmission of sensitive data and ensure its security and reliability. The other options, such as JDISS terminal, SIPRNET, and NIPRNET, are not specifically designed for JWICS data transmission.

64. (227) The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code?

A. 2 microseconds.

B. 2 seconds.

C. 1 microsecond.

D. 1 second.

The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within 1 microsecond of universal time code. This means that the GPS time is accurate to within one millionth of a second compared to the universal time code.

Explanation

The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within 1 microsecond of universal time code. This means that the GPS time is accurate to within one millionth of a second compared to the universal time code.

65. (235) At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) to ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management?

A. Tier 1.

B. Tier 2.

C. Tier 3.

D. Tier 4.

Regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) at Tier 2 level. At this level, they ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD) and Information Dissemination Management.

Explanation

Regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) at Tier 2 level. At this level, they ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD) and Information Dissemination Management.

66. (206) Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

A. Colon Hexadecimal Format.

B. Dotted Decimal Notation.

C. Hexadecimal.

D. Octal.

IPv6 addresses are expressed in colon hexadecimal format to make them more user-friendly. In this format, the address is divided into eight groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by colons. This format allows for a larger address space and is easier to read and remember compared to binary representation. Dotted decimal notation, which is used for IPv4 addresses, is not suitable for IPv6 due to the significantly larger address space. Hexadecimal and octal are numerical systems used for representing numbers and are not specific to IPv6 addresses.

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are expressed in colon hexadecimal format to make them more user-friendly. In this format, the address is divided into eight groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by colons. This format allows for a larger address space and is easier to read and remember compared to binary representation. Dotted decimal notation, which is used for IPv4 addresses, is not suitable for IPv6 due to the significantly larger address space. Hexadecimal and octal are numerical systems used for representing numbers and are not specific to IPv6 addresses.

67. (212) What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?

A. Layer 2.

B. Layer 3.

C. Layer 4.

D. Layer 5.

Routers operate at Layer 3 of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing data packets across different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding packets to their destination. Layer 3 also provides logical addressing and handles packet fragmentation and reassembly. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Layer 3.

Explanation

Routers operate at Layer 3 of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing data packets across different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding packets to their destination. Layer 3 also provides logical addressing and handles packet fragmentation and reassembly. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Layer 3.

68. (215) Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories?

A. User interface.

B. Memory management.

C. Troubleshoot interface.

D. Processor management.

The correct answer is c. Troubleshoot interface. This is not a category of the operating system's task categories. The other options, user interface, memory management, and processor management, are all categories of tasks that an operating system performs. The user interface refers to how the user interacts with the system, memory management involves managing the allocation and deallocation of memory, and processor management involves managing the allocation of processing resources. However, troubleshoot interface is not a recognized category of tasks performed by an operating system.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Troubleshoot interface. This is not a category of the operating system's task categories. The other options, user interface, memory management, and processor management, are all categories of tasks that an operating system performs. The user interface refers to how the user interacts with the system, memory management involves managing the allocation and deallocation of memory, and processor management involves managing the allocation of processing resources. However, troubleshoot interface is not a recognized category of tasks performed by an operating system.

69. (217) What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?

A. Restricted shell.

B. Bourne shell.

C. Korn shell.

D. C shell.

The correct answer is b. Bourne shell. The Bourne shell, also known as sh, is a standard all-purpose shell that is widely used in Unix-like operating systems. It was developed by Stephen Bourne and is one of the oldest and most widely used shells. It provides a command-line interface for users to interact with the operating system and execute commands. The Bourne shell is known for its simplicity and efficiency, and it has influenced the development of many other shells.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Bourne shell. The Bourne shell, also known as sh, is a standard all-purpose shell that is widely used in Unix-like operating systems. It was developed by Stephen Bourne and is one of the oldest and most widely used shells. It provides a command-line interface for users to interact with the operating system and execute commands. The Bourne shell is known for its simplicity and efficiency, and it has influenced the development of many other shells.

70. (219) Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?

A. Long-haul transport infrastructure.

B. Deployed warfighter.

C. Theater Battle Management Core System terminal.

D. Sustaining base.

The correct answer is b. Deployed warfighter. A deployed warfighter refers to a person who is physically present in the deployed Area of Responsibility, which could be a combat zone or any other location where military operations are being conducted. This is in contrast to a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles away from combat, who would not be considered a deployed warfighter. Therefore, the segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) that may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility is the deployed warfighter segment.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Deployed warfighter. A deployed warfighter refers to a person who is physically present in the deployed Area of Responsibility, which could be a combat zone or any other location where military operations are being conducted. This is in contrast to a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles away from combat, who would not be considered a deployed warfighter. Therefore, the segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) that may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility is the deployed warfighter segment.

71. (220) What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?

A. Operated and managed as a base communications asset.

B. Considered one of the primary components of the Defense Information Systems Network.

C. Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Modenetwork.

D. Completely protected by encryption devices.

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Explanation

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72. (231) An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC

A. insecurity.

B. deviation.

C. incident.

D. report.

An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as an incident. This term implies that there is a specific event or situation that needs to be addressed and investigated to ensure the security of the information. The other options, insecurity, deviation, and report, do not accurately capture the concept of an uninvestigated occurrence that poses a potential security risk.

Explanation

An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as an incident. This term implies that there is a specific event or situation that needs to be addressed and investigated to ensure the security of the information. The other options, insecurity, deviation, and report, do not accurately capture the concept of an uninvestigated occurrence that poses a potential security risk.

73. (231) Final reports of a communication security incident are due

A. 10 days after the initial report is dated.

B. 20 days after the initial report is signed.

C. 30 days after the initial report is issued.

D. 40 days after the initial report is approved.

The correct answer is c. 30 days after the initial report is issued. This means that the final reports of a communication security incident should be submitted 30 days after the initial report has been officially released or made available to the relevant parties. This allows for sufficient time to gather all necessary information, conduct investigations, and compile a comprehensive and accurate final report.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. 30 days after the initial report is issued. This means that the final reports of a communication security incident should be submitted 30 days after the initial report has been officially released or made available to the relevant parties. This allows for sufficient time to gather all necessary information, conduct investigations, and compile a comprehensive and accurate final report.

74. (233) What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?

A. Emulation.

B. Emanation.

C. Signature.

D. Salutation.

Emanation best describes unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment. Emanation refers to the unintentional release of electromagnetic energy or signals from a device, which can potentially be intercepted or cause interference with other devices. This can occur due to poor shielding or design of the equipment, and can be a security concern in certain situations.

Explanation

Emanation best describes unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment. Emanation refers to the unintentional release of electromagnetic energy or signals from a device, which can potentially be intercepted or cause interference with other devices. This can occur due to poor shielding or design of the equipment, and can be a security concern in certain situations.

75. (234) Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

A. INFOCON 2.

B. INFOCON 3.

C. INFOCON 4.

D. INFOCON 5.

When the INFOCON level is 4, it indicates that there is an increased risk of attack. Therefore, this condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities.

Explanation

When the INFOCON level is 4, it indicates that there is an increased risk of attack. Therefore, this condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities.

76. (213) What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?

A. TSEC/KIV–7.

B. TSEC/KIV–7HS.

C. TSEC/KIV–7HSA.

D. TSEC/KIV–19.

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Explanation

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77. (216) Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services?

A. AERO.

B. Enterprise Edition.

C. Standard Edition.

D. Datacenter Edition.

Enterprise Edition provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services. These features are typically used in larger organizations that require advanced resource management and directory services capabilities. Standard Edition and Datacenter Edition do not provide these specific features, and AERO is not a system that provides support for these features.

Explanation

Enterprise Edition provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services. These features are typically used in larger organizations that require advanced resource management and directory services capabilities. Standard Edition and Datacenter Edition do not provide these specific features, and AERO is not a system that provides support for these features.

78. (230) What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

A. Relocate classified material to strengthen security.

B. Conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security.

C. Deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations.

D. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information.

The COMSEC program is designed to detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information. This means that the program focuses on identifying any vulnerabilities or flaws in the procedures and protocols related to the security of sensitive information. By doing so, it aims to prevent any potential breaches or unauthorized access to critical information. The program does not involve relocating classified material, conducting assessments, or deflecting unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations.

Explanation

The COMSEC program is designed to detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information. This means that the program focuses on identifying any vulnerabilities or flaws in the procedures and protocols related to the security of sensitive information. By doing so, it aims to prevent any potential breaches or unauthorized access to critical information. The program does not involve relocating classified material, conducting assessments, or deflecting unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations.

79. (210) What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

A. Hub.

B. Bridge.

C. Switch.

D. Router.

A bridge is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates by examining the destination MAC address of each frame and forwarding it only to the segment where the destination device is located, effectively reducing collisions and improving network performance.

Explanation

A bridge is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates by examining the destination MAC address of each frame and forwarding it only to the segment where the destination device is located, effectively reducing collisions and improving network performance.

80. (214) The main function of the Data Service Unit is to

A. provide buffering and data flow control.

B. manage timing errors and signal regeneration.

C. provide the proper electrical termination for the transmission line.

D. adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards ofthe telephone carrier equipment.

The Data Service Unit (DSU) is responsible for adapting the digital data stream from the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment. This means that the DSU converts the data format, encoding, and other parameters of the customer's data stream to match the requirements of the telephone carrier's equipment. This ensures compatibility and seamless transmission of data between the customer and the carrier. The DSU does not provide buffering, data flow control, manage timing errors, signal regeneration, or provide electrical termination for the transmission line.

Explanation

The Data Service Unit (DSU) is responsible for adapting the digital data stream from the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment. This means that the DSU converts the data format, encoding, and other parameters of the customer's data stream to match the requirements of the telephone carrier's equipment. This ensures compatibility and seamless transmission of data between the customer and the carrier. The DSU does not provide buffering, data flow control, manage timing errors, signal regeneration, or provide electrical termination for the transmission line.

81. (208) How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus?

A. 63.

B. 64.

C. 65.

D. 66.

A FireWire bus can support up to 63 devices. FireWire, also known as IEEE 1394, is a high-speed serial bus interface that allows for fast data transfer between devices. Each device connected to a FireWire bus is assigned a unique address, and the bus can handle a maximum of 63 addresses. Therefore, the correct answer is a. 63.

Explanation

A FireWire bus can support up to 63 devices. FireWire, also known as IEEE 1394, is a high-speed serial bus interface that allows for fast data transfer between devices. Each device connected to a FireWire bus is assigned a unique address, and the bus can handle a maximum of 63 addresses. Therefore, the correct answer is a. 63.

82. (201) At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?

A. Network.

B. Physical.

C. Data Link.

D. Transport.

Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent network nodes. Network switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN). They examine the destination MAC address of incoming packets and forward them to the appropriate port based on the MAC address table. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Data Link.

Explanation

Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent network nodes. Network switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN). They examine the destination MAC address of incoming packets and forward them to the appropriate port based on the MAC address table. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Data Link.

83. (219) Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?

A. The service that owns the installation.

B. Defense Information System Agency.

C. Infrastructure technicians.

D. Deployed warfighters.

The responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network lies with the service that owns the installation. This means that the specific branch of the military that operates and maintains the installation is responsible for the upkeep and maintenance of the network.

Explanation

The responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network lies with the service that owns the installation. This means that the specific branch of the military that operates and maintains the installation is responsible for the upkeep and maintenance of the network.

84. (234) Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?

A. INFOCON 2.

B. INFOCON 3.

C. INFOCON 4.

D. INFOCON 5.

INFOCON refers to the Information Operations Condition, which is a system used by the United States military to assess and communicate the level of threat to computer networks. INFOCON 5 indicates that there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks, meaning that the threat level is low and there is no immediate danger to the networks. Therefore, the correct answer is d. INFOCON 5.

Explanation

INFOCON refers to the Information Operations Condition, which is a system used by the United States military to assess and communicate the level of threat to computer networks. INFOCON 5 indicates that there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks, meaning that the threat level is low and there is no immediate danger to the networks. Therefore, the correct answer is d. INFOCON 5.

85. (206) What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?

A. Site-local.

B. Link-local.

C. Aggregatable Local.

D. Aggregatable Global.

The correct answer is d. Aggregatable Global. This address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas, allowing for hierarchical design and allocation. This means that the address can be used globally and is designed to be aggregated and summarized at different levels of the network hierarchy. This allows for efficient routing and scalability in large networks.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Aggregatable Global. This address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas, allowing for hierarchical design and allocation. This means that the address can be used globally and is designed to be aggregated and summarized at different levels of the network hierarchy. This allows for efficient routing and scalability in large networks.

86. (213) What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?

A. AN/CYZ–10 /DTD.

B. AN/CYZ–20 /DTD.

C. Secure DTD1000 System.

D. Secure DTD2000 System.

The AN/CYZ-10 /DTD is the correct answer because it is a specific encryption device that is capable of loading up to 500 keys. The other options, AN/CYZ-20 /DTD, Secure DTD1000 System, and Secure DTD2000 System, do not mention the capability of loading up to 500 keys, making them incorrect choices.

Explanation

The AN/CYZ-10 /DTD is the correct answer because it is a specific encryption device that is capable of loading up to 500 keys. The other options, AN/CYZ-20 /DTD, Secure DTD1000 System, and Secure DTD2000 System, do not mention the capability of loading up to 500 keys, making them incorrect choices.

87. (218) This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network

A. Global applications.

B. Warrior component.

C. Network operations.

D. Information management.

The correct answer is the warrior component. The warrior component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network. This includes equipment, devices, and systems that are used by the warfighter to access and utilize the global network for communication, information sharing, and decision-making purposes. The warrior component plays a crucial role in ensuring that the warfighter has seamless and secure connectivity to the global network, enabling them to effectively carry out their missions and tasks.

Explanation

The correct answer is the warrior component. The warrior component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network. This includes equipment, devices, and systems that are used by the warfighter to access and utilize the global network for communication, information sharing, and decision-making purposes. The warrior component plays a crucial role in ensuring that the warfighter has seamless and secure connectivity to the global network, enabling them to effectively carry out their missions and tasks.

88. (228) Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?

A. OPSEC.

B. EMSEC.

C. COMSEC.

D. COMPUSEC.

OPSEC, or Operations Security, is a security program that involves identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions in order to protect military operations and other activities. It focuses on preventing potential adversaries from obtaining information that could be used against the organization. EMSEC, or Emissions Security, is concerned with protecting against unauthorized interception of communications. COMSEC, or Communications Security, involves protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of communications. COMPUSEC, or Computer Security, is focused on protecting computer systems and networks from unauthorized access or damage.

Explanation

OPSEC, or Operations Security, is a security program that involves identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions in order to protect military operations and other activities. It focuses on preventing potential adversaries from obtaining information that could be used against the organization. EMSEC, or Emissions Security, is concerned with protecting against unauthorized interception of communications. COMSEC, or Communications Security, involves protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of communications. COMPUSEC, or Computer Security, is focused on protecting computer systems and networks from unauthorized access or damage.

89. (201) At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?

A. Application.

B. Session.

C. Presentation.

D. Transport.

Common data compression and encryption schemes are used at the Presentation layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for formatting, encrypting, and compressing data to be sent across the network. It ensures that the data is in a format that can be understood by the receiving device. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Presentation.

Explanation

Common data compression and encryption schemes are used at the Presentation layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for formatting, encrypting, and compressing data to be sent across the network. It ensures that the data is in a format that can be understood by the receiving device. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Presentation.

90. (216) One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers. Which Operating system is it?

A. Web Edition.

B. Datacenter Edition.

C. NT.

D. AERO.

The Datacenter Edition of Windows Server provides support for high-end, high-traffic application servers. This edition is specifically designed to handle the demands of large-scale data centers and enterprise-level applications. It offers features such as unlimited virtualization rights, advanced storage capabilities, and enhanced security measures, making it an ideal choice for organizations with heavy workloads and critical applications.

Explanation

The Datacenter Edition of Windows Server provides support for high-end, high-traffic application servers. This edition is specifically designed to handle the demands of large-scale data centers and enterprise-level applications. It offers features such as unlimited virtualization rights, advanced storage capabilities, and enhanced security measures, making it an ideal choice for organizations with heavy workloads and critical applications.

91. (219) Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?

A. The service that owns the installation.

B. Defense Information System Agency.

C. Infrastructure technicians.

D. Deployed warfighters.

The correct answer is a. The service that owns the installation. The responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network lies with the service that owns the installation. This means that the specific branch of the military that operates and maintains the installation is responsible for the upkeep of the network.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. The service that owns the installation. The responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network lies with the service that owns the installation. This means that the specific branch of the military that operates and maintains the installation is responsible for the upkeep of the network.

92. (229) Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in

A. AFI 33–119.

B. AFI 33–129.

C. AFI 33–219.

D. AFI 33–329.

The correct answer is AFI 33-129. This Air Force Instruction provides guidance for posting information on Air Force websites. It outlines the procedures and requirements for managing and maintaining web content, ensuring that information is accurate, up-to-date, and accessible to authorized users.

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 33-129. This Air Force Instruction provides guidance for posting information on Air Force websites. It outlines the procedures and requirements for managing and maintaining web content, ensuring that information is accurate, up-to-date, and accessible to authorized users.

93. (225) What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?

A. 9.6 Kbps.

B. 14.4 Kbps.

C. 19.2 Kbps.

D. 28.8 Kbps.

The maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is 19.2 Kbps.

Explanation

The maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is 19.2 Kbps.

94. (236) Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

A. “A”.

B. “B”.

C. “C”.

D. “D”.

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Explanation

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95. (206) What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?

A. 1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234.

B. 10AB::3:0:1234:5678.

C. 255.255.255.255.

D. 127.0.0.1.

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Explanation

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96. (214) A modem is a device that modulates

A. analog data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium.

B. analog data onto a digital carrier for transmission over a digital medium.

C. digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium.

D. digital data onto a digital carrier for transmission over an analog medium.

A modem is a device that modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium. This means that it takes the digital data, which is in the form of 0s and 1s, and converts it into analog signals that can be transmitted over traditional telephone lines or other analog communication channels. The modem then demodulates the analog signals at the receiving end to convert them back into digital data. This process allows for the transmission of digital information over analog networks.

Explanation

A modem is a device that modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium. This means that it takes the digital data, which is in the form of 0s and 1s, and converts it into analog signals that can be transmitted over traditional telephone lines or other analog communication channels. The modem then demodulates the analog signals at the receiving end to convert them back into digital data. This process allows for the transmission of digital information over analog networks.

97. (215) Software is generally divided into

A. systems software and applications software.

B. operating systems software and systems software.

C. operating systems software and applications software.

D. systems software, operating systems software, and applications software.

The correct answer is d. systems software, operating systems software, and applications software. This answer is correct because software can generally be categorized into three main types: systems software, operating systems software, and applications software. Systems software refers to programs that manage and control the computer hardware, such as operating systems and utility programs. Operating systems software specifically refers to the software that controls and manages the computer's hardware and software resources. Applications software includes programs that are designed for specific tasks or applications, such as word processors, spreadsheets, and web browsers.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. systems software, operating systems software, and applications software. This answer is correct because software can generally be categorized into three main types: systems software, operating systems software, and applications software. Systems software refers to programs that manage and control the computer hardware, such as operating systems and utility programs. Operating systems software specifically refers to the software that controls and manages the computer's hardware and software resources. Applications software includes programs that are designed for specific tasks or applications, such as word processors, spreadsheets, and web browsers.

98. (221) Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks?

A. KG–84.

B. KG–194.

C. KIV–7.

D. KG175.

The KG-84 is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to local area networks. It is a secure communication device that encrypts and decrypts data transmitted over the network, ensuring that the information remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access.

Explanation

The KG-84 is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to local area networks. It is a secure communication device that encrypts and decrypts data transmitted over the network, ensuring that the information remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access.

99. (224) What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be preempted?

A. Flash.

B. Priority.

C. Intermediate.

D. Flash Override.

Flash Override is a type of Defense Switched Network (DSN) precedence call that cannot be preempted. Preemption refers to the ability to interrupt or override a lower precedence call with a higher precedence call. Flash Override is the highest precedence level in the DSN system and is used for critical and emergency communications that cannot be interrupted by any other call. Therefore, it cannot be preempted by any other type of call, making it the correct answer.

Explanation

Flash Override is a type of Defense Switched Network (DSN) precedence call that cannot be preempted. Preemption refers to the ability to interrupt or override a lower precedence call with a higher precedence call. Flash Override is the highest precedence level in the DSN system and is used for critical and emergency communications that cannot be interrupted by any other call. Therefore, it cannot be preempted by any other type of call, making it the correct answer.

100. (230) What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

A. AFI 33–119.

B. AFI 33–129.

C. AFI 33–219.

D. AFI 33–329.

AFI 33-119 is the correct reference for guidance on Air Force messaging. This document provides the guidelines and procedures for creating, sending, and managing messages within the Air Force. It covers topics such as message formats, classification markings, handling instructions, and message precedence. By referring to AFI 33-119, Air Force personnel can ensure that they are following the proper protocols and standards when communicating through messaging systems.

Explanation

AFI 33-119 is the correct reference for guidance on Air Force messaging. This document provides the guidelines and procedures for creating, sending, and managing messages within the Air Force. It covers topics such as message formats, classification markings, handling instructions, and message precedence. By referring to AFI 33-119, Air Force personnel can ensure that they are following the proper protocols and standards when communicating through messaging systems.

101. (226) What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?

A. To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders.

B. To lessen the amount of traffic transmitted through the gateway terminals.

C. To provide one-way communication access for deployed locations.

D. To replace the old tactical satellite communications system.

The purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal is to provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders. This means that the terminal allows commanders to establish a secure and reliable communication link with the National Command Authority, even in remote or tactical locations. It ensures that commanders have access to critical information and can relay their commands effectively, enhancing their ability to make informed decisions and exercise command and control.

Explanation

The purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal is to provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders. This means that the terminal allows commanders to establish a secure and reliable communication link with the National Command Authority, even in remote or tactical locations. It ensures that commanders have access to critical information and can relay their commands effectively, enhancing their ability to make informed decisions and exercise command and control.

102. (205) What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?

A. Classful Subnet Masking.

B. Classless Inter-Domain Routing.

C. Virtual Private Networking.

D. Virtual Local Area Networking.

Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) is a method that borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet. CIDR allows for more flexible allocation of IP addresses by allowing the subnet mask to be of variable length, rather than being fixed based on the class of the IP address. This allows for more efficient use of IP addresses and better scalability of networks.

Explanation

Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) is a method that borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet. CIDR allows for more flexible allocation of IP addresses by allowing the subnet mask to be of variable length, rather than being fixed based on the class of the IP address. This allows for more efficient use of IP addresses and better scalability of networks.

103. (206) What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?

A. Site-local.

B. Link-local.

C. Aggregatable Local.

D. Aggregatable Global.

Link-local addresses are used for communication within a single network segment and do not require a router to direct traffic. They are automatically assigned to interfaces and are not meant to be routed outside of the local network. This makes them ideal for local network communication and for addressing devices that do not have access to a global or external network.

Explanation

Link-local addresses are used for communication within a single network segment and do not require a router to direct traffic. They are automatically assigned to interfaces and are not meant to be routed outside of the local network. This makes them ideal for local network communication and for addressing devices that do not have access to a global or external network.

104. (223) What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force?

A. Adding more traditional time division multiplexing voice switches to handle additional datatraffic.

B. Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems.

C. Complete replacement of TDM switches with VoIP technology.

D. Managing TDM switches in the same way we manage data networks.

The first step in merging voice, data, and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force is to integrate traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems. This means combining the existing traditional time division multiplexing (TDM) switches with voice over IP (VoIP) technology, allowing voice communication to be transmitted over the same network infrastructure as data and video. This integration enables more efficient and cost-effective communication, as well as improved flexibility and scalability of the network.

Explanation

The first step in merging voice, data, and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force is to integrate traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems. This means combining the existing traditional time division multiplexing (TDM) switches with voice over IP (VoIP) technology, allowing voice communication to be transmitted over the same network infrastructure as data and video. This integration enables more efficient and cost-effective communication, as well as improved flexibility and scalability of the network.

105. (224) Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network?

A. Defense Logistics Agency.

B. Communications Squadron.

C. Air Force Communications Agency.

D. Defense Information Systems Agency.

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network. DISA is a combat support agency of the Department of Defense and provides information technology and communication support to the military. They oversee the Defense Switched Network, which is a global voice and data network used by the military for secure and reliable communications.

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network. DISA is a combat support agency of the Department of Defense and provides information technology and communication support to the military. They oversee the Defense Switched Network, which is a global voice and data network used by the military for secure and reliable communications.

106. (228) Which security program is covered under AFI 10–701?

A. OPSEC.

B. EMSEC.

C. COMSEC.

D. COMPUSEC.

AFI 10-701 covers OPSEC, which stands for Operations Security. OPSEC is a process that identifies and protects critical information that can be used by adversaries to exploit vulnerabilities and hinder mission success. It involves analyzing and controlling information that is released to the public, ensuring that sensitive information is not disclosed, and implementing measures to prevent unauthorized access to classified information. This program is essential for safeguarding military operations and ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive information.

Explanation

AFI 10-701 covers OPSEC, which stands for Operations Security. OPSEC is a process that identifies and protects critical information that can be used by adversaries to exploit vulnerabilities and hinder mission success. It involves analyzing and controlling information that is released to the public, ensuring that sensitive information is not disclosed, and implementing measures to prevent unauthorized access to classified information. This program is essential for safeguarding military operations and ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive information.

107. (229) What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?

A. AF Form 2327.

B. AF Form 3217.

C. AF Form 3227.

D. AF Form 3327.

AF Form 3227 is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material.

Explanation

AF Form 3227 is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material.

108. (233) An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

A. Emission security.

B. Communication security.

C. Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions.

D. Computer security.

The term "Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions" refers to the technical investigations conducted to compromise emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment. This term specifically focuses on protecting the electronic material from emitting unwanted or unintended signals that could potentially compromise security. It is a specialized term used in the field of emission security.

Explanation

The term "Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions" refers to the technical investigations conducted to compromise emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment. This term specifically focuses on protecting the electronic material from emitting unwanted or unintended signals that could potentially compromise security. It is a specialized term used in the field of emission security.

109. (217) Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?

A. Absolute.

B. Relative.

C. Complex.

D. Simple.

Relative pathnames begin at the current working directory. They specify the location of a file or directory relative to the current directory. For example, if the current working directory is "/home/user/", a relative pathname like "documents/file.txt" would refer to the file.txt located in the "documents" directory within the current working directory. Unlike absolute pathnames, relative pathnames do not start with a forward slash (/).

Explanation

Relative pathnames begin at the current working directory. They specify the location of a file or directory relative to the current directory. For example, if the current working directory is "/home/user/", a relative pathname like "documents/file.txt" would refer to the file.txt located in the "documents" directory within the current working directory. Unlike absolute pathnames, relative pathnames do not start with a forward slash (/).

110. (218) This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches

A. Joint architecture.

B. Unity of command.

C. Information services.

D. Common policy and standards.

The characteristic of the Global Information Grid that ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches is common policy and standards. This means that there is a set of rules and guidelines that all branches follow, allowing for consistent and compatible communication and information sharing. This helps to avoid any conflicts or difficulties that may arise from differences in policies or standards between the branches.

Explanation

The characteristic of the Global Information Grid that ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches is common policy and standards. This means that there is a set of rules and guidelines that all branches follow, allowing for consistent and compatible communication and information sharing. This helps to avoid any conflicts or difficulties that may arise from differences in policies or standards between the branches.

111. (229) Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as

A. secret.

B. confidential.

C. for official use only.

D. sensitive but unclassified.

Sensitive but unclassified information refers to information that, although not classified as secret, confidential, or for official use only, still needs to be protected from unauthorized disclosure. This type of information may include sensitive business information, personal information, or information that could potentially harm national security if accessed or misused. It is considered less sensitive than classified information but still requires some level of protection to prevent any adverse effects.

Explanation

Sensitive but unclassified information refers to information that, although not classified as secret, confidential, or for official use only, still needs to be protected from unauthorized disclosure. This type of information may include sensitive business information, personal information, or information that could potentially harm national security if accessed or misused. It is considered less sensitive than classified information but still requires some level of protection to prevent any adverse effects.

112. (231) Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?

A. Air Force Communications Agency.

B. Air Force Office of Record.

C. Central Office of Records.

D. National Security Agency.

The Air Force Communications Agency is responsible for assigning communication security incident report case numbers.

Explanation

The Air Force Communications Agency is responsible for assigning communication security incident report case numbers.

113. (230) Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?

A. SF 135.

B. SF 153.

C. SF 351.

D. SF 531.

The form used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package is SF 153.

Explanation

The form used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package is SF 153.

114. (224) How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?

A. End offices are multiple-homed.

B. End offices do not interoperate with allied networks.

C. The DSN offers precedence access thresholding.

D. The DSN offers single level precedence and preemption.

The Defense Switched Network (DSN) provides responsiveness through precedence access thresholding. This means that certain users or types of traffic are given priority over others based on their level of importance or urgency. By setting access thresholds, the DSN ensures that critical communications are prioritized and given immediate access to the network, while lower priority traffic may experience delays or be temporarily blocked. This feature allows the DSN to efficiently handle and prioritize communications in a way that meets the unique needs of the defense system.

Explanation

The Defense Switched Network (DSN) provides responsiveness through precedence access thresholding. This means that certain users or types of traffic are given priority over others based on their level of importance or urgency. By setting access thresholds, the DSN ensures that critical communications are prioritized and given immediate access to the network, while lower priority traffic may experience delays or be temporarily blocked. This feature allows the DSN to efficiently handle and prioritize communications in a way that meets the unique needs of the defense system.

115. (223) Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information Transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?

A. Establishing a Network Operation and Security Center at each base.

B. Creating a security baseline across all MAJCOM areas of responsibility.

C. Fielding standardized tools to all of the MAJCOM Network Operating Security Centers toestablish a baseline security model.

D. Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two IntegratedNOSCs.

The correct answer is d because by eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs, it will help increase network security by streamlining and centralizing the network operation and security functions. This consolidation will allow for better coordination, communication, and oversight of network security measures, leading to a more secure network infrastructure.

Explanation

The correct answer is d because by eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs, it will help increase network security by streamlining and centralizing the network operation and security functions. This consolidation will allow for better coordination, communication, and oversight of network security measures, leading to a more secure network infrastructure.

116. (229) Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?

A. Purpose.

B. Authority.

C. Disclosure.

D. Routine use.

The correct answer is d. Routine use. Routine use refers to the specific purposes for which the information collected will be disclosed outside the Department of Defense (DOD). It involves providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed, ensuring transparency and accountability in the use of personal information. This helps individuals understand how their information may be shared and used outside of the DOD.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Routine use. Routine use refers to the specific purposes for which the information collected will be disclosed outside the Department of Defense (DOD). It involves providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed, ensuring transparency and accountability in the use of personal information. This helps individuals understand how their information may be shared and used outside of the DOD.

117. (229) Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in

A. AFI 31–301.

B. AFI 31–401.

C. AFI 31–501.

D. AFI 31–601.

The correct answer is c. AFI 31–501. This is because AFI 31–501 provides official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information. The other options, AFI 31–301, AFI 31–401, and AFI 31–601, do not specifically address this topic.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. AFI 31–501. This is because AFI 31–501 provides official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information. The other options, AFI 31–301, AFI 31–401, and AFI 31–601, do not specifically address this topic.

118. (236) Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

A. “A”.

B. “B”.

C. “C”.

D. “D”.

The correct answer is "b. 'B'." In situations where the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts, resources designated as priority 'B' are provided. This suggests that these resources are given higher priority and allocated more effectively to ensure a stronger deterrent against potential threats.

Explanation

The correct answer is "b. 'B'." In situations where the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts, resources designated as priority 'B' are provided. This suggests that these resources are given higher priority and allocated more effectively to ensure a stronger deterrent against potential threats.

119. (235) At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?

A. Tier 1.

B. Tier 2.

C. Tier 3.

D. Tier 4.

Tier 1 is the correct answer because at this level, the responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure is globally managed. This implies that Tier 1 is the highest level of management and oversight for the defense information infrastructure.

Explanation

Tier 1 is the correct answer because at this level, the responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure is globally managed. This implies that Tier 1 is the highest level of management and oversight for the defense information infrastructure.

120. (232) The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in

A. AFI 33–100.

B. AFI 33–200.

C. AFI 33–300.

D. AFI 33–400.

The correct answer is b. AFI 33-200. This Air Force Instruction (AFI) provides detailed information about the Air Force Information Assurance Program. It outlines the policies, procedures, and guidelines for safeguarding information systems and networks within the Air Force. This AFI is specifically dedicated to information assurance and serves as a comprehensive resource for Air Force personnel involved in maintaining the security of information systems.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. AFI 33-200. This Air Force Instruction (AFI) provides detailed information about the Air Force Information Assurance Program. It outlines the policies, procedures, and guidelines for safeguarding information systems and networks within the Air Force. This AFI is specifically dedicated to information assurance and serves as a comprehensive resource for Air Force personnel involved in maintaining the security of information systems.

121. (221) How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?

A. Protocols cannot be sent across the SIPRNET.

B. Transmitted from sender to user unchanged.

C. Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across the SIPRNET.

D. Encrypted by a TACLANE before being transmitted across the SIPRNET.

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Explanation

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122. (202) What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

A. Bus.

B. Ring.

C. Star.

D. Hybrid.

A ring topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component. In this topology, the computers are connected in a loop or a ring, where each computer is connected to the next one and the last computer is connected back to the first one, forming a closed loop. This centralized component is responsible for transmitting data between the computers in the network.

Explanation

A ring topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component. In this topology, the computers are connected in a loop or a ring, where each computer is connected to the next one and the last computer is connected back to the first one, forming a closed loop. This centralized component is responsible for transmitting data between the computers in the network.

123. (236) Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "confidential" information?

A. SF 706.

B. SF 707.

C. SF 708.

D. SF 710.

The form SF 708 is the correct answer because it is specifically used for labeling removable storage media containing "confidential" information. The other forms listed (SF 706, SF 707, SF 710) are not intended for this purpose and would not provide the appropriate labeling for the media.

Explanation

The form SF 708 is the correct answer because it is specifically used for labeling removable storage media containing "confidential" information. The other forms listed (SF 706, SF 707, SF 710) are not intended for this purpose and would not provide the appropriate labeling for the media.

124. (216) Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?

A. Workgroup.

B. Domain.

C. Active Directory.

D. User Group.

The correct answer is b. Domain. In a domain network model, centralized user accounts are used to manage access and permissions across multiple computers. This allows for easier administration and control of user accounts. In contrast, a workgroup network model does not use centralized user accounts. In a workgroup, each computer has its own separate user accounts and there is no central authority for managing access and permissions. Active Directory is a service provided by Windows Server that is used to manage and control domain networks. User Group is not a network model, but rather a way to organize users with similar permissions and access rights.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Domain. In a domain network model, centralized user accounts are used to manage access and permissions across multiple computers. This allows for easier administration and control of user accounts. In contrast, a workgroup network model does not use centralized user accounts. In a workgroup, each computer has its own separate user accounts and there is no central authority for managing access and permissions. Active Directory is a service provided by Windows Server that is used to manage and control domain networks. User Group is not a network model, but rather a way to organize users with similar permissions and access rights.

125. (211) What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?

A. Store-and-forward.

B. Cut-through.

C. Fragment-free.

D. Adaptive.

Store-and-forward is the forwarding method that is also known as runtless switching. In this method, the switch receives the entire frame before forwarding it to the destination. It checks for errors and ensures that the frame is complete before forwarding it. This method is called runtless switching because it prevents runt frames, which are frames that are too short to be processed correctly, from being forwarded. The switch waits for the complete frame to arrive before making any forwarding decisions, ensuring reliable and error-free transmission.

Explanation

Store-and-forward is the forwarding method that is also known as runtless switching. In this method, the switch receives the entire frame before forwarding it to the destination. It checks for errors and ensures that the frame is complete before forwarding it. This method is called runtless switching because it prevents runt frames, which are frames that are too short to be processed correctly, from being forwarded. The switch waits for the complete frame to arrive before making any forwarding decisions, ensuring reliable and error-free transmission.

126. (230) Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

A. AF Form 1019.

B. AF Form 1109.

C. AF Form 1119.

D. AF Form 1190.

AF Form 1019 is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas.

Explanation

AF Form 1019 is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas.