CDC 3DX5X Vol2 Ure2

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3DX5X Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (207) The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit, also called the?

    • A.

      Control unit

    • B.

      Minicomputer

    • C.

      Microprocessor

    • D.

      Arithmetic logic unit

    Correct Answer
    C. Microprocessor
    Explanation
    The microprocessor is the correct answer because it is the computing part of the computer that houses the central processing unit (CPU). The CPU is responsible for executing instructions and performing calculations in a computer system. The microprocessor is a small chip that contains the control unit, arithmetic logic unit, and other components necessary for processing data. It is often referred to as the "brain" of the computer as it carries out all the necessary computations and operations.

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  • 2. 

    (207) What two main components make up the central processing unit?

    • A.

      Control unit and read-only memory.

    • B.

      Control unit and arithmetic logic unit.

    • C.

      Arithmetic logic unit and read-only memory.

    • D.

      Arithmetic logic unit and random access memory.

    Correct Answer
    B. Control unit and arithmetic logic unit.
    Explanation
    The central processing unit (CPU) is made up of two main components: the control unit and the arithmetic logic unit (ALU). The control unit is responsible for coordinating and controlling the operations of the CPU, while the ALU performs arithmetic and logical operations, such as addition, subtraction, and comparison. Together, these two components work together to execute instructions and process data within the computer system.

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  • 3. 

    (207) What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?  

    • A.

      Volatile

    • B.

      Nonvolatile

    • C.

      Secured

    • D.

      Unsecured

    Correct Answer
    B. Nonvolatile
    Explanation
    Nonvolatile memory is a type of memory that retains data even after power is removed or lost. Unlike volatile memory, which loses its data when power is turned off, nonvolatile memory is designed to store information permanently. This type of memory is commonly used in devices like flash drives, solid-state drives (SSDs), and memory cards, where data needs to be preserved even when the device is not powered.

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  • 4. 

    (207) Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

    • A.

      Twisted pair

    • B.

      Fiber optic

    • C.

      Coaxial

    • D.

      Twinax

    Correct Answer
    A. Twisted pair
    Explanation
    Twisted pair is the primary carrier of voice communications in landline transmission. Twisted pair refers to a pair of copper wires that are twisted together, which helps to reduce interference and improve signal quality. This type of transmission medium is commonly used for telephone lines and is capable of carrying voice signals effectively over long distances. Fiber optic, coaxial, and twinax cables are also used in landline transmission, but twisted pair is specifically designed for voice communication.

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  • 5. 

    (207) An optical communications system is comprised of a?

    • A.

      Transmitter, cable, and receiver.

    • B.

      Transmitter, cable, and logic analyzer.

    • C.

      Transmitter, transmission medium, and logic analyzer.

    • D.

      Transmitter, transmission medium, and protocol analyzer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmitter, cable, and receiver.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is transmitter, cable, and receiver. In an optical communications system, the transmitter is responsible for converting electrical signals into optical signals, the cable is used to transmit the optical signals, and the receiver is responsible for converting the optical signals back into electrical signals. The logic analyzer and protocol analyzer are not essential components of an optical communications system.

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  • 6. 

    (207) Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?

    • A.

      Ease of installation

    • B.

      Lower cost

    • C.

      Safety

    • D.

      Mobility

    Correct Answer
    C. Safety
    Explanation
    Wireless technology offers several advantages, including ease of installation, lower cost, and mobility. However, safety is not one of these advantages. While wireless technology can provide convenience and flexibility, it may also pose certain security risks, such as unauthorized access or data breaches. Therefore, safety is not considered a direct advantage of using wireless technology.

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  • 7. 

    (207) The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called?

    • A.

      Mobility

    • B.

      Ease of installations

    • C.

      War driving

    • D.

      Motion capture technology

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobility
    Explanation
    The term "mobility" refers to the ability to move freely without being restricted by wires in wireless technology. This includes the ability to use devices such as smartphones, laptops, and tablets without the need for physical connections. It allows for flexibility and convenience in accessing and using wireless networks and devices.

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  • 8. 

    (207) Which of the following is not one the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?

    • A.

      Rogue Access Points

    • B.

      Direct Connections

    • C.

      War Drivers

    • D.

      Hackers

    Correct Answer
    B. Direct Connections
    Explanation
    Direct Connections is not one of the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network. Rogue Access Points refer to unauthorized access points that are set up by individuals with malicious intent. War Drivers are individuals who drive around with a wireless device to detect and exploit vulnerabilities in wireless networks. Hackers are individuals who attempt to gain unauthorized access to computer systems. However, Direct Connections do not pose a specific security threat to Wireless Local Area Network as they refer to physical connections made between devices, rather than wireless connections.

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  • 9. 

    (207) Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?

    • A.

      Auditor

    • B.

      Employee

    • C.

      War Driver

    • D.

      Hacker

    Correct Answer
    B. Employee
    Explanation
    An employee is an authorized client who may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network. As an authorized user, employees have access to sensitive information and systems within an organization. They may unintentionally compromise network security by falling victim to phishing attacks, using weak passwords, or unknowingly downloading malware. Alternatively, disgruntled or malicious employees may intentionally assist external parties in gaining unauthorized access to the network, either for personal gain or to harm the organization. Therefore, employees pose a significant risk to network security if not properly trained and monitored.

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  • 10. 

    (207) What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today’s wireless networks?

    • A.

      Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers.

    • B.

      International Organization for Standardization.

    • C.

      Internet assigned numbers authority.

    • D.

      National Science Foundation network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers.
    Explanation
    The Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks. These standards ensure that wireless networks are reliable, efficient, and secure, allowing for seamless communication and connectivity. The IEEE is a renowned organization in the field of electrical engineering and is responsible for developing various technological standards.

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  • 11. 

    (208) How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once?

    • A.

      127

    • B.

      128

    • C.

      227

    • D.

      228

    Correct Answer
    A. 127
    Explanation
    A Universal Serial Bus (USB) can handle up to 127 peripherals at once. The USB is a widely used interface for connecting various devices to a computer. It uses a tiered star topology, where multiple devices can be connected through hubs. Each hub can support multiple devices, and up to 7 hubs can be connected in a chain. With each hub supporting multiple devices, the total number of peripherals that can be connected to a USB is limited to 127.

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  • 12. 

    (208) How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus?

    • A.

      63

    • B.

      64

    • C.

      65

    • D.

      66

    Correct Answer
    A. 63
    Explanation
    A FireWire bus can support up to 63 devices. FireWire is a high-speed serial bus interface primarily used for connecting devices such as external hard drives, cameras, and audio interfaces to a computer. The specific number of devices that can be connected is determined by the bus's addressing scheme, which allows for a maximum of 63 unique addresses. Therefore, the correct answer is 63.

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  • 13. 

    (209) What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?

    • A.

      Current

    • B.

      Voltage

    • C.

      Resistance

    • D.

      Inductance

    Correct Answer
    B. Voltage
    Explanation
    Voltage is applied across Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) material to change its alignment and light polarizing property. The application of voltage causes the liquid crystals to align in a specific direction, which in turn affects the polarization of light passing through the material. By adjusting the voltage, the alignment of liquid crystals can be controlled, resulting in changes in the polarization of light and therefore the appearance of the display.

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  • 14. 

    (210) What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

    • A.

      Hub

    • B.

      Bridge

    • C.

      Switch

    • D.

      Router

    Correct Answer
    B. Bridge
    Explanation
    A bridge is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates by examining the destination MAC address of incoming frames and forwarding them only to the appropriate segment, effectively reducing collisions and improving network performance. Unlike a hub, which simply broadcasts all incoming frames to all connected devices, a bridge intelligently filters and forwards frames based on their destination. A switch is a more advanced version of a bridge, providing multiple ports and additional features. A router, on the other hand, operates at the Network layer and is responsible for routing packets between different networks.

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  • 15. 

    (210) What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?

    • A.

      90/10 rule

    • B.

      80/20 rule

    • C.

      70/30 rule

    • D.

      60/40 rule

    Correct Answer
    B. 80/20 rule
    Explanation
    The 80/20 rule establishes that 80% of the data should be local to a segment, meaning it stays within that segment, while 20% of the data should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment. This rule helps to determine the optimal distribution of data between segments and ensures efficient communication and data transfer between them.

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  • 16. 

    (210) This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.

    • A.

      Cross route

    • B.

      Transparent

    • C.

      Translational

    • D.

      Source route

    Correct Answer
    C. Translational
    Explanation
    A translational bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another. It acts as a mediator between two different protocols, allowing them to communicate with each other seamlessly. This type of bridge translates the data frames from one protocol into a format that is compatible with the other protocol, enabling data transmission between different networks or devices using different protocols.

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  • 17. 

    (211) What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?

    • A.

      Store-and-Forward

    • B.

      Cross-over

    • C.

      Fragment-Free

    • D.

      Adaptive

    Correct Answer
    A. Store-and-Forward
    Explanation
    Store-and-Forward is the method where the entire frame is received and stored in the buffer. It then performs an error check to ensure the integrity of the frame before sending it to the appropriate port for delivery. This method ensures that the frame is error-free before forwarding it, preventing any corrupted or incomplete frames from being sent.

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  • 18. 

    (211) What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?

    • A.

      Store-and-forward

    • B.

      Cut-through

    • C.

      Fragment-free

    • D.

      Adaptive

    Correct Answer
    C. Fragment-free
    Explanation
    Fragment-free forwarding method is also known as runtless switching because it examines the first 64 bytes of a frame to ensure that it is not a runt (a frame smaller than the minimum size). This method helps to prevent collisions and improve network performance by reducing the chances of forwarding corrupt or incomplete frames.

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  • 19. 

    (212) What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?

    • A.

      Layer 2

    • B.

      Layer 3

    • C.

      Layer 4

    • D.

      Layer 5

    Correct Answer
    B. Layer 3
    Explanation
    Routers operate at Layer 3 of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model, also known as the network layer. Layer 3 is responsible for logical addressing and routing of data packets across different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding packets from one network to another. By operating at Layer 3, routers can connect multiple networks together and enable communication between devices on different networks.

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  • 20. 

    (212) What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?

    • A.

      Routing times

    • B.

      Routing tables

    • C.

      Longest routes

    • D.

      Shortest routes

    Correct Answer
    B. Routing tables
    Explanation
    Routing algorithms initialize and maintain routing tables to aid the process of path determination. Routing tables contain information about the network topology, including the available routes, their associated costs, and the next hop to reach each destination. By consulting the routing table, the algorithm can determine the best path for forwarding packets to their destination based on factors such as shortest or fastest routes. Routing tables are crucial for efficient and accurate routing in computer networks.

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  • 21. 

    (212) Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?

    • A.

      Open shortest path first

    • B.

      Border Gateway Protocol

    • C.

      Routing Information Protocol

    • D.

      Enhanced Gateway Routing Protocol

    Correct Answer
    B. Border Gateway Protocol
    Explanation
    Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP). BGP is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) on the internet. It is responsible for routing packets between different networks and determines the best path for data transmission. BGP is widely used by internet service providers (ISPs) and large organizations to connect their networks and exchange routing information with other networks. Unlike Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs) like Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Routing Information Protocol (RIP), which are used within a single network, BGP is specifically designed for inter-domain routing.

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  • 22. 

    (212) Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It analyzes various factors such as network congestion, link quality, and shortest distance to determine the optimal route for data transmission. By continuously updating and adapting to network changes, dynamic routing protocols ensure efficient and reliable communication between two specific nodes. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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  • 23. 

    (213) What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?

    • A.

      TSEC/KIV-7

    • B.

      TSEC/KIV-19

    • C.

      TSEC/KG-84

    • D.

      TSEC/KG-194

    Correct Answer
    A. TSEC/KIV-7
    Explanation
    The TSEC/KIV-7 encryption device may rarely be seen due to its lower maximum data rate. This suggests that the device is not commonly used or encountered because it is not able to handle high data rates efficiently.

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  • 24. 

    (213) What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?

    • A.

      TSEC/KIV-7

    • B.

      TSEC/KIV-7HS

    • C.

      TSEC/KIV-7HSA

    • D.

      TSEC/KIV-19

    Correct Answer
    D. TSEC/KIV-19
    Explanation
    The TSEC/KIV-19 encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is capable of encrypting trunk-level high-speed circuits.

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  • 25. 

    (213) What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?

    • A.

      AN/CYZ–10 /DTD.

    • B.

      AN/CYZ–20 /DTD.

    • C.

      Secure DTD1000 System.

    • D.

      Secure DTD2000 System.

    Correct Answer
    A. AN/CYZ–10 /DTD.
    Explanation
    The AN/CYZ–10 /DTD is the correct answer because it is an encryption device that is capable of loading up to 500 keys. The other options, AN/CYZ–20 /DTD, Secure DTD1000 System, and Secure DTD2000 System, are not mentioned to have the capability of loading up to 500 keys.

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  • 26. 

    (213) The classification of a fill device is

    • A.

      Classified when taken out of a safe.

    • B.

      Classified as SECRET when the key has been unloaded.

    • C.

      Unclassified when put back in the safe after a key has been loaded into it.

    • D.

      Classified as soon as a key is loaded, and holds the classification of the loaded key.

    Correct Answer
    D. Classified as soon as a key is loaded, and holds the classification of the loaded key.
    Explanation
    When a key is loaded into a fill device, it becomes classified. The classification of the fill device is determined by the classification of the loaded key. This means that the fill device will hold the same classification as the key that has been loaded into it.

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  • 27. 

    (214) A modem is a device that modulates

    • A.

      Analog data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium

    • B.

      Analog data onto a digital carrier for transmission over a digital medium.

    • C.

      Digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium.

    • D.

      Digital data onto a digital carrier for transmission over an analog medium.

    Correct Answer
    C. Digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium.
    Explanation
    A modem is a device that modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium. This means that the modem takes the digital data from a computer or other digital device and converts it into analog signals that can be transmitted over traditional phone lines or other analog communication channels. The analog carrier refers to the medium through which the signals are transmitted, such as telephone lines. This allows for the transmission of digital information over analog networks.

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  • 28. 

    (214) Analog modems are used over the voice band range of

    • A.

      10Hz to 20 MHz

    • B.

      20Hz to 20 KHz

    • C.

      30Hz to 40 MHz

    • D.

      40Hz to 40 KHz

    Correct Answer
    B. 20Hz to 20 KHz
    Explanation
    Analog modems are used over the voice band range of 20Hz to 20 KHz. This frequency range is commonly used for transmitting voice signals over telephone lines. Analog modems convert digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over the voice band range. This range allows for efficient and reliable transmission of data through the telephone network.

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  • 29. 

    (214) The main function of the Data Service Unit is to

    • A.

      Provide buffering and data flow control.

    • B.

      Manage timing errors and signal regeneration.

    • C.

      Provide the proper electrical termination for the transmission line.

    • D.

      Adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment.

    Correct Answer
    D. Adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment.
    Explanation
    The Data Service Unit (DSU) is responsible for adapting the digital data stream generated by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment. This means that the DSU ensures compatibility between the different equipment used by the customer and the telephone carrier. It converts the data stream into a format that can be transmitted over the transmission line, allowing for seamless communication between the customer and the carrier. The other options mentioned, such as buffering and data flow control, managing timing errors and signal regeneration, and providing electrical termination, are not the main functions of the DSU.

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  • 30. 

    (215) Software is generally divided into

    • A.

      Systems software and applications software.

    • B.

      Operating systems software and systems software.

    • C.

      Operating systems software and applications software.

    • D.

      Systems software, operating systems software, and applications software.

    Correct Answer
    D. Systems software, operating systems software, and applications software.
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because it accurately identifies the three main categories of software: systems software, operating systems software, and applications software. Systems software refers to software that manages and controls the computer hardware, such as operating systems and utility programs. Operating systems software specifically refers to the software that manages and controls the computer's hardware and software resources. Applications software refers to software that is designed for specific tasks or applications, such as word processors, spreadsheets, and graphic design programs. Therefore, the answer correctly identifies all three categories of software.

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  • 31. 

    (215) Which one is not a category of the operating system’s task categories?

    • A.

      User interface

    • B.

      Memory management

    • C.

      Troubleshoot interface

    • D.

      Processor management

    Correct Answer
    C. Troubleshoot interface
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Troubleshoot interface." This is not a category of the operating system's task categories. The operating system is responsible for managing various tasks such as user interface, memory management, and processor management. However, troubleshooting is not a specific category of tasks performed by the operating system.

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  • 32. 

    (215) The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer’s motherboard goes through a special program called a?

    • A.

      Director

    • B.

      Deliver

    • C.

      Driver

    • D.

      Sender

    Correct Answer
    C. Driver
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "driver". A driver is a special program that acts as a bridge between the operating system and hardware devices that are not on the computer's motherboard. It allows the operating system to communicate and control these external hardware devices effectively.

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  • 33. 

    (215) The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the?

    • A.

      Shell

    • B.

      Kernel

    • C.

      Device manager

    • D.

      Processor manager

    Correct Answer
    B. Kernel
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "kernel". The kernel is the core operating-system function that manages the computer system. It is responsible for managing memory, processes, and system resources. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and software, allowing applications to interact with the computer's hardware. It also handles tasks such as file management, device drivers, and input/output operations.

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  • 34. 

    (215) Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?

    • A.

      Specific

    • B.

      General

    • C.

      Special

    • D.

      Broad

    Correct Answer
    A. Specific
    Explanation
    Applications are software programs designed to perform specific tasks. Unlike general software programs that have a wide range of functionalities, applications are created with a particular purpose or set of tasks in mind. They are tailored to meet specific needs and provide focused solutions.

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  • 35. 

    (215) What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses?

    • A.

      Norton and Horton

    • B.

      Horton and McAfee

    • C.

      Norton and McAfee

    • D.

      McAfee and Lotus Pro

    Correct Answer
    C. Norton and McAfee
    Explanation
    The Air Force uses Norton and McAfee as their two anti-virus programs. These programs are widely recognized and trusted in the cybersecurity industry for their effectiveness in detecting and preventing malware and other threats. By using both Norton and McAfee, the Air Force can ensure comprehensive protection for their systems and networks, reducing the risk of cyber attacks and maintaining the security of their operations.

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  • 36. 

    (216) Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?

    • A.

      Workgroup

    • B.

      Domain

    • C.

      Active Directory

    • D.

      User group

    Correct Answer
    A. Workgroup
    Explanation
    Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models: workgroup and domain. In a workgroup model, each computer operates independently and does not rely on a centralized user account system. Instead, each computer has its own user accounts and passwords. This means that user accounts need to be created individually on each computer, and there is no central management or control over user accounts. In contrast, in a domain model, user accounts are managed centrally through a domain controller, allowing for easier management and control of user accounts across multiple computers. Active Directory is a service used in the domain model for managing and organizing user accounts and resources.

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  • 37. 

    (216) Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services?

    • A.

      AERO

    • B.

      Enterprise Edition

    • C.

      Standard Edition

    • D.

      Datacenter Edition

    Correct Answer
    B. Enterprise Edition
    Explanation
    Enterprise Edition is the correct answer because it provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services. These features are typically required in larger organizations that need advanced resource management and directory services capabilities. Standard Edition and Datacenter Edition may not have these features or may have limited support for them. AERO is not a relevant system in this context.

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  • 38. 

    (216) One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers. Which Operating system is it?

    • A.

      Web edition

    • B.

      Datacenter Edition

    • C.

      NT

    • D.

      AERO

    Correct Answer
    B. Datacenter Edition
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Datacenter Edition. This edition of Windows Server is specifically designed to provide support for high-end, high-traffic application servers. It offers advanced features and capabilities that are necessary for handling the demands of such servers. The Datacenter Edition is optimized for scalability, reliability, and performance, making it the ideal choice for organizations that require a robust operating system to run their critical applications.

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  • 39. 

    (217) What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?

    • A.

      C-Plus

    • B.

      UNIX

    • C.

      Fortran

    • D.

      Windows

    Correct Answer
    B. UNIX
    Explanation
    UNIX was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems. It was created in the 1960s at Bell Labs by a group of programmers led by Ken Thompson. UNIX was designed to be portable and flexible, allowing it to run on different hardware architectures. This made it a popular choice for universities, research institutions, and eventually commercial enterprises. Its success and widespread adoption laid the foundation for the development of modern operating systems.

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  • 40. 

    (217) What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?

    • A.

      Restricted Shell

    • B.

      Bourne Shell

    • C.

      Korn Shell

    • D.

      C Shell

    Correct Answer
    B. Bourne Shell
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Bourne Shell. Bourne Shell is the name of the standard all-purpose shell that is most commonly used. It was developed by Stephen Bourne and is the default shell for Unix-like operating systems. It provides a command-line interface for users to interact with the operating system and execute commands. Bourne Shell is known for its simplicity and compatibility with various Unix systems.

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  • 41. 

    (217) What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the “a” partition?

    • A.

      Root

    • B.

      User

    • C.

      Binary

    • D.

      Device

    Correct Answer
    A. Root
    Explanation
    The directory that is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition is the root directory. The root directory is the top-level directory in a file system hierarchy and serves as the starting point for navigating the file system. It contains all other directories and files in the system.

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  • 42. 

    217) Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?

    • A.

      Absolute

    • B.

      Relative

    • C.

      Complex

    • D.

      Simple

    Correct Answer
    B. Relative
    Explanation
    Relative pathnames begin at the current working directory. Unlike absolute pathnames, which start from the root directory, relative pathnames are specified in relation to the current directory. They provide a shorter and more concise way to navigate through directories and access files within the current working directory.

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