Microbial Pathology: Hardest Trivia Quiz On Microorganisms!
-
Bacteria associated with infection of IV catheters and prosthetic devices?
-
Streptococcus Pneumoniae
-
Streotococcus mutans
-
Staphylococci aureus
-
Staphylococci eoidermidis
-
About This Quiz
The quiz below is what is considered by many as the hardest trivia quiz when it comes to what we learned about microorganisms in microbial pathology. It is perfect if you want to see just how much you know about the microbes that cause diseases in both humans and animals. Take it up after reading your whole course thoroughly in preparation for the exam.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
Bloody diarrhea ?
-
E.coli
-
Shigella
-
Vibrio cholerae
-
Bacteriodes
Correct Answer
A. ShigellaExplanation
E.coli ( traveler diarrhea )
Vibrio cholerae ( watery diarrhea )
bacteriodes ( periodontits )Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Herpangina and Hand-foot-and-mouth disease caused by?
-
Echovirus
-
Rhinovirus
-
Coxsackie A virus
-
Coxsackie B virus
Correct Answer
A. Coxsackie A virusExplanation
Echovirus - aseptic meningitis
Rhinovirus - common cold
Coxsackie B virus - oleurodynia, myocarditis, pericarditisRate this question:
-
- 4.
Paramyxovirus cause ?
-
Measles
-
Mumps
-
RSV
-
Parainfluenza
-
All of these
Correct Answer
A. All of theseExplanation
Parainfluenza ( croup, bronchiolitis , common cold )
RSV ( bronchiolitis , pneumonia )
mumps ( parotitis , orchitis , deafnessRate this question:
-
- 5.
Hepatitis B caused by?
-
Delta virus
-
Picornavirus
-
Hepadnavirus
-
Flavivirus
Correct Answer
A. HepadnavirusExplanation
Picornavirus- Hep A
Flavivirus - hep C
Delta virus - hep DRate this question:
-
- 6.
________ is the micro-organism most commonly found on the surface of tongue
Correct Answer
streptococcus salivariusExplanation
Streptococcus salivarius is the correct answer because it is a type of bacteria that is commonly found on the surface of the tongue. It is a normal part of the oral microbiota and is considered beneficial for oral health. Streptococcus salivarius helps to maintain a healthy balance of bacteria in the mouth and can help prevent the colonization of harmful bacteria. Therefore, it is the most commonly found microorganism on the surface of the tongue.Rate this question:
- 7.
Eggshell calcification occur in
Correct Answer
SilicosisExplanation
Eggshell calcification refers to the deposition of calcium in the form of a thin layer on the surface of structures, resembling the shell of an egg. Silicosis is a lung disease caused by inhaling silica dust, usually from occupations such as mining, construction, and sandblasting. In silicosis, the lungs become inflamed and scarred due to the deposition of silica particles. The inflammation and scarring can lead to the formation of eggshell calcifications in the lung tissue. Therefore, eggshell calcification is a characteristic finding in silicosis.Rate this question:
- 8.
Hemosiderin detected histologicaly by
Correct Answer
prussian blue stainExplanation
Hemosiderin is a pigment that indicates the presence of iron in tissues. It can be detected histologically using the Prussian blue stain. This stain specifically reacts with iron, causing hemosiderin to appear blue under a microscope. Therefore, the Prussian blue stain is the appropriate method for identifying hemosiderin in tissue samples.Rate this question:
- 9.
Primary mediator of anaphylaxis
Correct Answer
histamineExplanation
Histamine is the primary mediator of anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that occurs when the immune system overreacts to an allergen. Histamine is released by mast cells and basophils in response to allergens, and it triggers a cascade of immune and inflammatory responses. Histamine causes blood vessels to dilate, leading to a drop in blood pressure and increased permeability of blood vessels, which can result in swelling and hives. It also stimulates the production of mucus and causes bronchoconstriction, leading to difficulty in breathing. Overall, histamine plays a crucial role in the development and progression of anaphylaxis.Rate this question:
- 10.
_____ cells are major dentric cells of gingival epithelium
Correct Answer
Langerhans cellsExplanation
Langerhans cells are major dendritic cells of the gingival epithelium. These cells are a type of antigen-presenting cell that play a crucial role in the immune response by capturing antigens and presenting them to T cells. Langerhans cells are found in the skin and mucosal tissues, including the gingiva. They are responsible for initiating immune responses against pathogens that enter the oral cavity, helping to protect the gingival tissues from infection and inflammation.Rate this question:
- 11.
_____ and _____ are only antibody that activate complement system
Correct Answer
IgM IgGExplanation
IgM and IgG are the only antibodies that can activate the complement system. The complement system is a part of the immune system that helps in the destruction of pathogens. IgM is the first antibody produced during an immune response, and it can activate the complement system by binding to antigens on the surface of pathogens. IgG, on the other hand, is the most abundant antibody in the bloodstream and can also activate the complement system by binding to antigens. Together, IgM and IgG play a crucial role in the activation of the complement system and the elimination of pathogens.Rate this question:
- 12.
Dengue fever caused by?
Correct Answer
ArbovirusExplanation
Dengue fever is caused by a group of viruses known as arboviruses. Arboviruses are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes, particularly the Aedes species. These viruses replicate in the mosquito's salivary glands and are then transmitted to humans when the mosquito bites and feeds on their blood. The most common arbovirus causing dengue fever is the dengue virus itself, which belongs to the Flaviviridae family. Other arboviruses that can cause dengue-like symptoms include Zika virus and chikungunya virus.Rate this question:
- 13.
Only double standard RNA virus is ?
Correct Answer
ReovirusExplanation
Reovirus is the only double-stranded RNA virus. Double-stranded RNA viruses have their genetic material in the form of double-stranded RNA, which is different from other types of viruses that have either single-stranded RNA or DNA as their genetic material. Reovirus is a non-enveloped virus that infects mammals, including humans, and can cause respiratory and gastrointestinal infections. Its unique double-stranded RNA structure allows it to replicate and transcribe its genetic material efficiently within the host cell.Rate this question:
- 14.
Trisomy 18
Correct Answer
Edward syndromeExplanation
Edward syndrome, also known as Trisomy 18, is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 18. This condition is characterized by a variety of physical abnormalities and developmental delays. Babies born with Edward syndrome often have low birth weight, heart defects, clenched fists, and overlapping fingers. They may also experience intellectual disability and have a shortened lifespan. The correct answer, Edward syndrome, refers to this specific genetic disorder and is synonymous with Trisomy 18.Rate this question:
- 15.
XO
Correct Answer
Turner syndrome - 16.
Most common fatal genetic disease in white children?
Correct Answer
Cystic fibrosisExplanation
Cystic fibrosis is the most common fatal genetic disease in white children. It is a hereditary condition that affects the lungs and digestive system, causing thick, sticky mucus to build up in these areas. This mucus can clog the airways and lead to frequent lung infections and difficulty breathing. In the digestive system, it can interfere with the body's ability to absorb nutrients from food. Although cystic fibrosis is not curable, medical advancements have improved the quality of life and life expectancy for those affected.Rate this question:
- 17.
Right sided CHF result in _______ edema
Correct Answer
PeripheralExplanation
Right sided CHF, or right-sided congestive heart failure, occurs when the right side of the heart is unable to pump blood effectively. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the body, particularly in the peripheral areas such as the legs, ankles, and feet. This type of edema is known as peripheral edema. It is caused by increased pressure in the veins and capillaries, which forces fluid out into the surrounding tissues. Peripheral edema is a common symptom of right-sided CHF and can cause swelling, discomfort, and difficulty moving.Rate this question:
- 18.
Left sided CHF result in ________ edema
Correct Answer
PulmonaryExplanation
Left-sided congestive heart failure (CHF) occurs when the left side of the heart is unable to pump blood effectively. This leads to a backup of blood in the lungs, causing fluid to leak into the lung tissue. This accumulation of fluid in the lungs is known as pulmonary edema. Symptoms of pulmonary edema include shortness of breath, coughing, wheezing, and difficulty breathing. Therefore, the correct answer is "Pulmonary" as left-sided CHF results in pulmonary edema.Rate this question:
- 19.
Fat embolism occur in
Correct Answer
Long bone fractureExplanation
Fat embolism occurs in long bone fractures because when a long bone is fractured, the fat from the bone marrow can leak into the bloodstream. This fat can then travel to other parts of the body, such as the lungs, brain, or heart, and cause blockages in the blood vessels. This can lead to serious complications, such as respiratory distress, confusion, or even organ failure. Therefore, long bone fractures are a known risk factor for fat embolism.Rate this question:
- 20.
Gas embolism occur in?
Correct Answer
Caisson's diseaseExplanation
Gas embolism occurs in Caisson's disease. Caisson's disease, also known as decompression sickness, is a condition that can occur when a person ascends too quickly from a high-pressure environment, such as deep-sea diving or working in a pressurized environment like a caisson. The rapid decrease in pressure causes dissolved gases, such as nitrogen, to form bubbles in the bloodstream. These bubbles can then block blood vessels, leading to various symptoms including joint pain, dizziness, and even paralysis or death in severe cases.Rate this question:
- 21.
Most common cause of secondary hypertension
Correct Answer
renal diseaseExplanation
Renal disease is the most common cause of secondary hypertension. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by controlling the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body. When the kidneys are affected by a disease or condition, such as chronic kidney disease or renal artery stenosis, they may not be able to effectively regulate blood pressure, leading to hypertension. Additionally, certain renal conditions, like polycystic kidney disease or glomerulonephritis, can directly cause high blood pressure. Therefore, renal disease is a common underlying factor in the development of secondary hypertension.Rate this question:
- 22.
Diagnosis of Rheumatoid fever with
Correct Answer
Jones criteriaExplanation
The Jones criteria is a set of diagnostic criteria used to identify Rheumatic fever. It includes major criteria such as carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum, and subcutaneous nodules, as well as minor criteria such as fever, arthralgia, elevated acute phase reactants, prolonged PR interval, and previous Rheumatic fever or Rheumatic heart disease. The diagnosis of Rheumatic fever is made when there is evidence of recent streptococcal infection along with the presence of either two major criteria or one major criterion and two minor criteria. Therefore, the Jones criteria is used to diagnose Rheumatic fever.Rate this question:
- 23.
Cardiac enzymes elevated after MI
Correct Answer
CK MB TnT myoglobinExplanation
Cardiac enzymes such as CK MB, TnT, and myoglobin are elevated after a myocardial infarction (MI), also known as a heart attack. These enzymes are released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle. CK MB is an isoenzyme of creatine kinase that is specific to the heart, while TnT is a component of troponin, a protein found in heart muscle cells. Myoglobin is a protein that transports oxygen and is also released into the bloodstream after heart muscle damage. Therefore, the elevated levels of CK MB, TnT, and myoglobin indicate a recent myocardial infarction.Rate this question:
- 24.
Main cause of COPD
Correct Answer
SmokingExplanation
Smoking is the main cause of COPD. COPD, or Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, is a progressive lung disease that makes it difficult to breathe. Smoking damages the airways and air sacs in the lungs, causing inflammation and narrowing of the air passages. This leads to symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Long-term smoking significantly increases the risk of developing COPD, making it the primary cause of the disease. Quitting smoking is crucial in preventing and managing COPD.Rate this question:
- 25.
Pink puffer in?
Correct Answer
EmphysemaExplanation
Emphysema is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by the destruction of the air sacs in the lungs, leading to difficulty in breathing. The term "pink puffer" is often used to describe patients with emphysema because they tend to have a pink complexion due to increased red blood cell production as a compensatory mechanism for low oxygen levels. This nickname distinguishes emphysema from another type of COPD called chronic bronchitis, which is often referred to as "blue bloater" due to the bluish discoloration of the skin caused by low oxygen levels.Rate this question:
- 26.
Blue bloaster in?
Correct Answer
chronic bronchitis - 27.
_________ occur in coal worker = black lung disease
Correct Answer
AnthracosisExplanation
Anthracosis is the correct answer because it is a condition that occurs in coal workers, commonly known as black lung disease. This disease is caused by the inhalation of coal dust over a prolonged period of time, leading to the accumulation of carbon particles in the lungs. The black coloration of the lungs is a characteristic feature of anthracosis. Symptoms of this disease include coughing, shortness of breath, and chest pain.Rate this question:
- 28.
Pnemoconosis caused by inhalation of cotton particles called?
Correct Answer
ByssinosisExplanation
Byssinosis is a type of pneumoconiosis caused by the inhalation of cotton particles. It is commonly seen in workers who are exposed to cotton dust, such as textile workers. Inhalation of these particles over time can lead to inflammation and scarring of the lungs, resulting in symptoms like coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Byssinosis is a specific form of pneumoconiosis that is caused by cotton dust, distinguishing it from other types of pneumoconiosis caused by different particulates.Rate this question:
- 29.
Ferruginous bodies found in?
Correct Answer
asbertosis - 30.
Lesion like millet seed
Correct Answer
Miliary TBExplanation
Miliary TB is a form of tuberculosis that is characterized by the presence of numerous tiny lesions in various organs, resembling millet seeds. These lesions are caused by the spread of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria through the bloodstream. Miliary TB can affect multiple organs, including the lungs, liver, spleen, and brain. It can present with symptoms such as fever, weight loss, cough, and difficulty breathing. Diagnosis is typically made through imaging tests, such as chest X-rays or CT scans, which reveal the characteristic millet seed-like lesions. Treatment involves a combination of antibiotics for an extended period to eradicate the infection.Rate this question:
- 31.
Bird beak appearance on barrium swallow
Correct Answer
achalasiaExplanation
Achalasia is a disorder that affects the esophagus and causes difficulty in swallowing. It occurs when the muscles of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) do not relax properly, leading to the narrowing of the esophagus and the accumulation of food and liquid. This can result in a bird beak appearance on a barium swallow, which is a radiographic test used to evaluate the swallowing function. The narrowing of the esophagus resembles the shape of a bird's beak, hence the term.Rate this question:
- 32.
Complication of GERD
Correct Answer
barrets esophagusExplanation
Barrett's esophagus is a complication of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). It occurs when the lining of the esophagus is damaged by stomach acid and is replaced by abnormal cells similar to those found in the intestine. This condition increases the risk of developing esophageal cancer. Regular monitoring and treatment are necessary to manage Barrett's esophagus and prevent further complications.Rate this question:
- 33.
Zollinger Ellsion triad include all except?
-
Peptic ulcer
-
Increase gastic secretion
-
Kidney stone
-
Pancreatic gastrinoma
Correct Answer
A. Kidney stoneExplanation
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a rare condition characterized by the presence of a gastrin-secreting tumor in the pancreas, known as a gastrinoma. This tumor leads to excessive production of gastric acid, resulting in peptic ulcers. Therefore, peptic ulcer and increased gastric secretion are both features of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. However, kidney stones are not associated with this syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is kidney stone.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Cobblestone appearance and transluminal inflammation in
-
Celiac disease
-
Crohns disease
-
Cholestrolosis
-
Peptic ulcer
Correct Answer
A. Crohns diseaseExplanation
Cholestrolosis - strawberry gallbladerRate this question:
-
- 35.
________ is the classic cause of blood in urine in children
Correct Answer
Streptococcal GMNExplanation
Streptococcal GMN is the classic cause of blood in urine in children. This condition is characterized by the presence of blood in the urine, which is usually caused by an infection with Streptococcus bacteria. The bacteria can cause inflammation and damage to the glomeruli, which are the tiny filters in the kidneys responsible for removing waste from the blood. As a result, blood can leak into the urine, leading to the presence of blood in urine. Streptococcal GMN is commonly seen in children, especially after a streptococcal infection such as strep throat or impetigo.Rate this question:
- 36.
Most important sign of portal hypertension
Correct Answer
spenomegalyExplanation
The most important sign of portal hypertension is splenomegaly, which refers to the enlargement of the spleen. Portal hypertension occurs when there is increased pressure in the portal vein, which carries blood from the digestive organs to the liver. This increased pressure can cause the spleen to enlarge as it tries to filter the blood and compensate for the impaired liver function. Splenomegaly is a key indicator of portal hypertension and is often accompanied by other symptoms such as varices, ascites, and jaundice.Rate this question:
- 37.
APCKD caused by?
Correct Answer
Mutation in PKD geneExplanation
APCKD, or Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease, is caused by a mutation in the PKD gene. This gene provides instructions for making a protein called polycystin-1, which is involved in the normal development and function of the kidneys. When there is a mutation in the PKD gene, it disrupts the production or function of polycystin-1, leading to the formation of fluid-filled cysts in the kidneys. These cysts can grow and multiply over time, causing the kidneys to enlarge and lose their normal function. Therefore, the mutation in the PKD gene is responsible for causing APCKD.Rate this question:
- 38.
Which test measure long term elevated blood glucose
-
HLA-B27
-
HbA1C
-
HbA2C
-
HLA-DR4
Correct Answer
A. HbA1CExplanation
HbA1C - laboratory test gives status of endocrine dz over past 4 weeks
HbA1C - normal value 4-6%. greater thn 6.5% - DM
HLA-B27 - Alkylosing spondylitis and Reiters syndrome
HLA-DR4 - Rhuematoid arthritisRate this question:
-
- 39.
Most common cause of primary hypothyroidism
-
Thyroid surgery
-
Hashimotos thyroiditis
-
XRT
-
Idiopathic
Correct Answer
A. Hashimotos thyroiditisExplanation
All are causes of MYXEDEMIARate this question:
-
- 40.
A patient has prostate cancer. In addition to an increase in prostate-specific antigen (PSA), which serum marker might also be elevated
-
HCG
-
Acid phosphatase
-
CEA-125
-
Bence jones protein
Correct Answer
A. Acid phosphataseExplanation
In addition to an increase in prostate-specific antigen (PSA), acid phosphatase might also be elevated in a patient with prostate cancer. Acid phosphatase is an enzyme that is normally found in high levels in the prostate gland. However, in the presence of prostate cancer, the cancer cells can release this enzyme into the bloodstream, leading to elevated levels. Therefore, measuring acid phosphatase levels can be helpful in diagnosing and monitoring prostate cancer.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
All virus are haploid except ______ which is diploid
Correct Answer
retrovirusExplanation
Retroviruses are the only known group of RNA viruses that have a diploid genome. Unlike other viruses, retroviruses possess two copies of their RNA genome, which allows for greater genetic diversity and adaptability. This unique characteristic of retroviruses is due to the reverse transcription process they undergo, where their RNA genome is converted into DNA and integrated into the host cell's genome. This integration of the viral DNA into the host cell's genome is what distinguishes retroviruses from other viruses and makes them diploid.Rate this question:
- 42.
Virus with reverse transcriptase
Correct Answer
RetrovirusExplanation
A retrovirus is a type of virus that contains the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which allows it to convert its RNA genome into DNA once it infects a host cell. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell's genome, allowing the virus to replicate and persist within the host. Retroviruses are known for their ability to cause chronic infections and can lead to diseases such as HIV/AIDS. Therefore, the presence of reverse transcriptase is a characteristic feature of retroviruses.Rate this question:
- 43.
______ is als called rosenthal syndrome
-
Hemophila A
-
Hemophila B
-
Hemophilia C
-
Hemophila D
Correct Answer
A. Hemophilia CExplanation
Hemophila A - Factor VIII
Hemophila B - Factor IX ( christmas disease)Rate this question:
-
- 44.
_______ is also known as marble bone disease and albers-schonberg disease
-
Osteoporosis
-
Osteopetrosis
-
Osteomalacia
-
Achondroplasia
Correct Answer
A. OsteopetrosisExplanation
Achondroplasia ( dwarfism )Rate this question:
-
- 45.
All are features of osteopetrosis except
-
Multiple fractures
-
Anemia
-
Blindness , deafness
-
Decrease bone density
Correct Answer
A. Decrease bone densityExplanation
Osteopetrosis is a rare genetic disorder characterized by increased bone density, also known as "marble bone disease." This condition is caused by a malfunction in the cells responsible for breaking down and reabsorbing old bone tissue, leading to the accumulation of dense and brittle bones. Therefore, a decrease in bone density is not a feature of osteopetrosis, making it the exception among the given options.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Osteitis deformans also called?
Correct Answer
Pagets diseaseExplanation
Osteitis deformans is another name for Paget's disease. This condition is a chronic bone disorder that causes abnormal bone growth and remodeling. It typically affects older adults and can lead to weakened and deformed bones, causing pain, fractures, and other complications. The disease is named after Sir James Paget, a British surgeon who first described it in the 19th century.Rate this question:
- 47.
RSV treatment, which drug?
Correct Answer
RibavarinExplanation
Ribavarin is the correct answer for the question about RSV treatment. Ribavarin is an antiviral medication that is commonly used to treat respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, thereby reducing the severity and duration of the illness. Ribavarin is typically administered through inhalation or oral routes, depending on the age and condition of the patient. It is an effective treatment option for RSV infections, especially in high-risk individuals such as infants, young children, and those with compromised immune systems.Rate this question:
- 48.
Most common complication of Pericarditis
-
Right heart failure
-
Left heart failure
-
Cardiac temponade
-
Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer
A. Cardiac temponadeExplanation
Cardiac tamponade is the most common complication of pericarditis. Pericarditis is the inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. When inflammation occurs, fluid can accumulate in the pericardial space, leading to increased pressure on the heart. This increased pressure can compress the heart chambers and restrict their ability to fill with blood. As a result, cardiac tamponade can cause a decrease in cardiac output, leading to symptoms such as low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and shortness of breath. It is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
Most common sexually transmitted disease
-
C. Trachomatos
-
HPV
-
HIV
-
Syphillis
Correct Answer
A. C. TrachomatosExplanation
Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common sexually transmitted disease. It is caused by a bacterium and can be transmitted through sexual contact. Chlamydia infections are often asymptomatic, meaning that individuals may not show any symptoms, which can lead to the spread of the infection. If left untreated, chlamydia can lead to serious complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, and ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to get tested regularly and practice safe sex to prevent the transmission of this disease.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
May 26, 2016Quiz Created by
C.mart_cruz_95
Back to top