5 Level Volume 4

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (603) The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the

    • Gyro.
    • Transmitter.
    • Hydraulic unit.
    • Synchronous unit.
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '5 Level Volume 4', assesses knowledge in aircraft maintenance, focusing on troubleshooting practices and engine monitoring systems.

5 Level Volume 4 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (614) Which of these is not considered a cause of FOD?

    • Formation of ice.

    • Ingestion of bolts

    • Ingestion of rocks

    • Failure of internal parts

    Correct Answer
    A. Failure of internal parts
    Explanation
    The ingestion of bolts, rocks, and the formation of ice are all considered causes of Foreign Object Debris (FOD), which refers to any object or substance that is foreign to an aircraft or its systems and has the potential to cause damage. However, failure of internal parts is not typically considered a cause of FOD. FOD is usually the result of external objects or substances entering the aircraft, rather than internal components failing and causing debris.

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  • 3. 

    (615) You can get information such as temperature and barometric pressure from equipment at the test cell site or from

    • The control tower.

    • Information on the radio.

    • The local weather station.

    • Your immediate supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. The control tower.
    Explanation
    The control tower is the correct answer because it is responsible for monitoring and controlling all air traffic in the vicinity of the test cell site. As part of their duties, control tower personnel have access to real-time weather information, including temperature and barometric pressure, which they can provide to individuals at the test cell site. Therefore, if someone at the test cell site needs information about the weather conditions, they should contact the control tower.

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  • 4. 

    (614) When an engine arrives for a test run at the test cell, it must

    • Only need replacing minor parts.

    • Be operable with all known discrepancies corrected.

    • Have the fuel line disconnected from the pump inlet.

    • Only need torquing of minor bits and pieces.

    Correct Answer
    A. Be operable with all known discrepancies corrected.
    Explanation
    When an engine arrives for a test run at the test cell, it must be operable with all known discrepancies corrected. This means that any known issues or problems with the engine must be fixed before it can be tested. This ensures that the engine is in proper working condition and will provide accurate results during the test run. It also helps to prevent any further damage or issues that could arise from running a faulty engine.

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  • 5. 

    (614) Immediately prior to an engine test cell run, you check the engine and QEC kit (if applicable) for loose nuts, bolts, lock wire, tools, or any other material in order to

    • Eliminate items that could possibly cause FOD.

    • Assure that the instrumentation is working properly.

    • Prevent wasted maintenance hours due to shutdown

    • Eliminate items that could cause inaccurate readings.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminate items that could possibly cause FOD.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to eliminate items that could possibly cause FOD. FOD stands for Foreign Object Debris, which refers to any object or material that is not part of an aircraft or engine and has the potential to cause damage. Checking for loose nuts, bolts, lock wire, tools, or any other material before an engine test run helps to ensure that no foreign objects are present that could potentially cause FOD. This is important for the safety and proper functioning of the engine.

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  • 6. 

    615) What should you do with the engine model and serial number when making general entries on the test cell engine log sheet?

    • Type these items.

    • Check past records.

    • Enter these only after the test is complete.

    • Verify these numbers on the engine data plate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Verify these numbers on the engine data plate.
    Explanation
    When making general entries on the test cell engine log sheet, it is important to verify the engine model and serial number on the engine data plate. This ensures that the correct information is recorded and avoids any potential errors or discrepancies. Checking past records and entering these numbers only after the test is complete may be relevant for other purposes, but when it comes to making general entries on the log sheet, the focus should be on verifying the numbers on the engine data plate.

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  • 7. 

    (615) Before installing an engine on the test cell thrust stand, make sure the

    • Engine is 99 percent complete.

    • Rail adapters are properly lubricated.

    • Engine manager has scheduled the engine run.

    • Engine rail adapters and stand are compatible.

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine rail adapters and stand are compatible.
    Explanation
    Before installing an engine on the test cell thrust stand, it is important to ensure that the engine rail adapters and stand are compatible. This means that the rail adapters should fit securely and properly on the stand, allowing for a stable and safe installation. If the rail adapters and stand are not compatible, there is a risk of instability or damage during the engine run, which could be dangerous. Therefore, it is crucial to check the compatibility of the rail adapters and stand before proceeding with the installation.

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  • 8. 

    615) The steps in removing the engine and test equipment from the test cell are

    • Very hazardous.

    • The reverse of the installation sequence.

    • Completed only by 7-level craftsmen.

    • Exactly the same as the installation sequence.

    Correct Answer
    A. The reverse of the installation sequence.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the reverse of the installation sequence." This means that when removing the engine and test equipment from the test cell, the steps should be done in the opposite order of how they were installed. This is likely because the installation sequence would involve specific steps to ensure proper placement and connection, and reversing these steps would ensure the safe and efficient removal of the equipment.

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  • 9. 

     (618) What inspection is given to all newly assigned aircraft?

    • Phased.

    • Special.

    • Calendar

    • Acceptance

    Correct Answer
    A. Acceptance
    Explanation
    The inspection given to all newly assigned aircraft is called the acceptance inspection. This inspection is conducted to ensure that the aircraft meets all the necessary requirements and standards before it is put into service. It involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's systems, components, and documentation to verify its airworthiness and readiness for operation. The acceptance inspection is an important step in the process of introducing a new aircraft into an organization's fleet.

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  • 10. 

    (603) The fuel-flow indicator indicates the rate of fuel flow as

    • Pounds per hour.

    • Gallons per hour.

    • Pounds per minute.

    • Gallons per minute.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pounds per hour.
    Explanation
    The fuel-flow indicator is used to measure the rate at which fuel is flowing in an aircraft. It provides information on the amount of fuel consumed over a specific period of time. The most commonly used unit for measuring fuel flow is pounds per hour (lb/hr). This unit is preferred because it allows for accurate calculations of fuel consumption and helps in determining the aircraft's range and endurance.

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  • 11. 

     (603) Which metals are used in the EGT indicating system thermocouples?

    • Steel and iron.

    • Steel and alumel

    • Iron and chromel

    • Alumel and chromel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Alumel and chromel.
    Explanation
    Alumel and chromel are the metals used in the EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicating system thermocouples. These metals are chosen for their high temperature resistance and stability. Alumel is an alloy of nickel, aluminum, manganese, and silicon, while chromel is an alloy of nickel and chromium. These alloys are able to withstand the high temperatures generated in the exhaust system and provide accurate temperature readings for monitoring and control purposes.

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  • 12. 

    (605) What engine vibration does not persist, but comes and goes?

    • Forced.

    • Transient.

    • Resonance.

    • Externally excited.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transient.
    Explanation
    Transient engine vibration refers to vibrations that occur intermittently or temporarily and do not persist. These vibrations may come and go and are typically caused by temporary disturbances or changes in operating conditions. Unlike resonance or externally excited vibrations, which can persist and are caused by specific frequencies or external forces, transient vibrations are temporary in nature and do not have a consistent pattern or duration. Therefore, the correct answer is transient.

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  • 13. 

    (606) Which type of vibration transducer is made of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals?

    • Velocity.

    • Phase log.

    • Displacement accelerometer.

    • Piezoelectric accelerometer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Piezoelectric accelerometer.
    Explanation
    A piezoelectric accelerometer is made of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals. These materials have the property of generating an electrical charge when subjected to mechanical stress or vibration. This type of transducer is commonly used for measuring vibrations in various applications, such as structural health monitoring, machinery condition monitoring, and automotive testing. It converts the mechanical vibrations into an electrical signal, allowing for accurate measurement and analysis of the vibration levels.

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  • 14. 

    (613) What two types of test cells does the Air Force currently use?

    • Fixed and portable.

    • Single and combined.

    • Permanent and temporary.

    • Functional and progressive.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed and portable.
    Explanation
    The Air Force currently uses two types of test cells: fixed and portable. Fixed test cells are permanent installations that are typically located at air bases or testing facilities. They are designed to conduct various tests on aircraft engines and other equipment. Portable test cells, on the other hand, are temporary setups that can be easily transported and set up in different locations. They are used for field testing or when a fixed test cell is not available.

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  • 15. 

     (618) Which of these inspections is a flight preparedness check?

    • Periodic

    • Preflight.

    • Thruflight.

    • End-of-runway.

    Correct Answer
    A. Preflight.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Preflight." A preflight inspection is conducted before every flight to ensure that the aircraft is in proper working condition and ready for flight. This inspection includes a thorough check of the aircraft's systems, controls, and exterior surfaces to identify any potential issues or hazards that could affect the safety of the flight. It is an essential step in ensuring that the aircraft is prepared for takeoff and that all necessary precautions have been taken.

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  • 16. 

     (622) The pneumatic air bled from the small gas turbine engine cannot be used to

    • Inflate aircraft tires.

    • Remove snow and ice from aircraft surfaces.

    • Supply pneumatic power to aircraft pneumatic starters.

    • Provide pneumatic power for air-conditioning systems.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflate aircraft tires.
    Explanation
    The pneumatic air bled from the small gas turbine engine cannot be used to inflate aircraft tires because the air bled from the engine is not suitable for inflating tires. It may contain impurities or have specific properties that make it unsuitable for this purpose. Therefore, alternative methods or sources of air must be used to inflate aircraft tires.

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  • 17. 

     (601) To become an expert troubleshooter, you must

    • Be a 7-level.

    • Have at least five years experience.

    • Complete college courses in troubleshooting techniques.

    • Understand the function of each unit within each system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Understand the function of each unit within each system.
    Explanation
    To become an expert troubleshooter, it is important to understand the function of each unit within each system. This knowledge allows the troubleshooter to identify and diagnose problems accurately. It enables them to determine which specific component or unit is causing the issue and take appropriate steps to fix it. Understanding the function of each unit within each system also helps troubleshooters to anticipate potential problems and develop effective troubleshooting strategies. This level of expertise comes from studying and gaining in-depth knowledge about the various units and systems involved in the troubleshooting process.

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  • 18. 

     (602) Which F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system component transfers information from the EDU to the GSU?

    • DCU.

    • EAU

    • Mn test system.

    • SCS

    Correct Answer
    A. DCU.
    Explanation
    The F100-PW-220 engine monitoring system component that transfers information from the EDU to the GSU is the DCU.

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  • 19. 

    (623) For engine shutdown on the GTCP 165 engine, what valve closes to ensure that fuel-flow is terminated?

    • Poppet

    • Scheduling.

    • Fuel flow divider.

    • Fuel shutoff solenoid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel shutoff solenoid.
    Explanation
    The fuel shutoff solenoid is the valve that closes to ensure that fuel flow is terminated during engine shutdown on the GTCP 165 engine. This solenoid is responsible for stopping the flow of fuel to the engine, preventing any further combustion and shutting down the engine completely.

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  • 20. 

     (602) What F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system component acquires fault data from the DEEC and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence?

    • DCU.

    • GSU.

    • EAU.

    • EDU.

    Correct Answer
    A. EDU.
    Explanation
    The EDU (Engine Data Unit) is the component of the F100-PW-220 engine monitoring system that acquires fault data from the DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence.

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  • 21. 

     (603) To be considered effective tools for aviators, aircraft instruments must be light weight, easy to read, and

    • Be small in size.

    • Use digital readout.

    • Use analog readout.

    • Cheap to manufacture.

    Correct Answer
    A. Be small in size.
    Explanation
    Aircraft instruments need to be small in size in order to be considered effective tools for aviators. This is because there is limited space inside an aircraft cockpit, and having large instruments would take up too much space and make it difficult for pilots to operate the aircraft. Additionally, small instruments are also lighter in weight, which is another important factor for aircraft instruments to ensure that the overall weight of the aircraft is kept to a minimum.

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  • 22. 

     (603) A typical jet engine EGT indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and

    • A resistor

    • A turbine inlet.

    • A control valve.

    • An exhaust duct.

    Correct Answer
    A. A resistor
    Explanation
    A typical jet engine EGT indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and a resistor. The resistor is an essential component of the system as it helps to regulate the electrical current and temperature readings. It plays a crucial role in converting the temperature measurements from the thermocouples into electrical signals that can be displayed on the indicator. Without the resistor, the system would not be able to accurately measure and display the engine's exhaust gas temperature.

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  • 23. 

     (603) Most jet-powered aircraft engine fuel-flow indicating systems contain a fuel-flow

    • Transmitter and a float valve.

    • Control valve and a float valve.

    • Transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator.

    • Control valve and a fuel-flow transcriber.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator.
    Explanation
    Jet-powered aircraft engine fuel-flow indicating systems typically consist of a fuel-flow transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator. The transmitter measures the rate of fuel flow and sends this information to the indicator, which displays it to the pilot. This allows the pilot to monitor the fuel consumption and ensure that the engine is receiving the appropriate amount of fuel. The other options, control valve and a float valve, and control valve and a fuel-flow transcriber, are not commonly found in fuel-flow indicating systems.

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  • 24. 

    (613) The swivel pads at the bottom of the leveling jacks on the engine thrust trailer of the portable test cell provide all of the following except

    • Leveling the engine being tested.

    • Removing the wheel and tire assemblies.

    • Supporting the thrust trailer at a height of 80 inches.

    • Adjusting for rail compatibility with engine transportation trailers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supporting the thrust trailer at a height of 80 inches.
    Explanation
    The swivel pads at the bottom of the leveling jacks on the engine thrust trailer of the portable test cell provide leveling the engine being tested, removing the wheel and tire assemblies, and adjusting for rail compatibility with engine transportation trailers. However, they do not support the thrust trailer at a height of 80 inches.

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  • 25. 

    (620) What causes over-temperature damage to the combustion chamber from a stall condition?

    • An interruption of cooling airflow.

    • A fluid leak at the engine inlet.

    • An interruption of fuel flow.

    • Faulty fuel nozzles.

    Correct Answer
    A. An interruption of cooling airflow.
    Explanation
    When an aircraft experiences a stall condition, there is a disruption in the smooth airflow over the wings, resulting in a loss of lift. This can cause a decrease in engine power, leading to a reduction in the cooling airflow to the combustion chamber. Without sufficient cooling, the temperature in the combustion chamber can rise to dangerous levels, causing over-temperature damage. Therefore, an interruption of cooling airflow is the most likely cause of over-temperature damage to the combustion chamber from a stall condition.

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  • 26. 

    (606) When using a vibration analyzer how are you notified when a preset signal has been exceeded?

    • A horn alarm

    • Flashing red lights.

    • A buzzer sounding.

    • A flashing channel indicator LED.

    Correct Answer
    A. A flashing channel indicator LED.
    Explanation
    When using a vibration analyzer, a preset signal being exceeded is notified through a flashing channel indicator LED. This means that when the vibration levels surpass the predetermined threshold, the specific channel on the analyzer will display a flashing LED light, indicating that the signal has been exceeded. This visual notification allows the user to quickly identify and address any potential issues or anomalies in the vibration levels being analyzed.

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  • 27. 

     (622) When used for ground operation, the SGT engine can be installed on

    • Pods.

    • An H-frame.

    • A two-wheel trailer.

    • A four-wheel trailer.

    Correct Answer
    A. A four-wheel trailer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a four-wheel trailer. This means that the SGT engine, when used for ground operation, can be installed on a four-wheel trailer.

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  • 28. 

     (601) Which of the following is not a proper troubleshooting practice?

    • Checking the applicable trouble areas.

    • Understanding the function of each engine unit.

    • Inspecting other areas after isolating trouble between points.

    • Performing easy checks, then going to more difficult checks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspecting other areas after isolating trouble between points.
    Explanation
    Inspecting other areas after isolating trouble between points is not a proper troubleshooting practice because it can lead to wasted time and effort. Once trouble has been isolated between specific points, it is more efficient to focus on those points and perform targeted inspections and checks to identify the root cause of the problem. Inspecting other areas that are not directly related to the isolated trouble points can be a distraction and may not provide any relevant information to resolve the issue. It is important to follow a systematic troubleshooting process to save time and resources.

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  • 29. 

     (603) Most engine-monitoring gauges and instruments require some type of

    • Electrical valve to the indicator.

    • Metal tubing for electron flow.

    • Radio frequency transmitter.

    • Transmitter and indicator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmitter and indicator.
    Explanation
    Most engine-monitoring gauges and instruments require a transmitter and indicator because the transmitter is responsible for converting the physical measurements into electrical signals, which are then transmitted to the indicator. The indicator, on the other hand, receives these electrical signals and displays them in a readable format for the operator. Therefore, both the transmitter and indicator are necessary components for the proper functioning of engine-monitoring gauges and instruments.

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  • 30. 

    (607) What supports the fan and low-pressure turbine?

    • Bushings.

    • Brackets.

    • Bearings.

    • Bulkheads.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bearings.
    Explanation
    Bearings are the components that support the fan and low-pressure turbine. They are designed to reduce friction and allow smooth rotation of these components. Bearings are typically made of durable materials such as steel or ceramic and are lubricated to ensure proper functioning. They provide stability and support to the fan and low-pressure turbine, allowing them to operate efficiently and effectively.

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  • 31. 

    (612) Which testing engine is equipped with a QEC kit?

    • TF39-1C

    • F110-GE–129.

    • F100-PW–220.

    • F100-PW–229.

    Correct Answer
    A. TF39-1C
    Explanation
    The TF39-1C testing engine is equipped with a QEC (Quick Engine Change) kit.

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  • 32. 

    (613) The basic portable test cell’s thrust trailer rails adjust to a height of

    • 20 inches.

    • 40 inches.

    • 60 inches.

    • 80 inches.

    Correct Answer
    A. 40 inches.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 40 inches. The basic portable test cell's thrust trailer rails can be adjusted to a height of 40 inches.

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  • 33. 

    (615) Observing oil on the turbine wheel or oil smoke at or near the turbine section during a test cell run is a good indication of

    • A damaged aft bearing oil seal.

    • An underserviced oil system.

    • Leaking external oil lines.

    • A loose aft roller bearing.

    Correct Answer
    A. A damaged aft bearing oil seal.
    Explanation
    Observing oil on the turbine wheel or oil smoke at or near the turbine section during a test cell run is a good indication of a damaged aft bearing oil seal. This is because a damaged seal would allow oil to leak out and come into contact with the turbine wheel, causing oil to be present in that area. This can result in oil smoke being visible during the test run. The other options, underserviced oil system, leaking external oil lines, and a loose aft roller bearing, do not directly explain the presence of oil on the turbine wheel or oil smoke, making them less likely explanations.

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  • 34. 

    (619) Careless operation of the throttle during emergency system operation could cause a compressor stall due to

    • A restricted air inlet.

    • Rapid throttle movement

    • A restricted turbine nozzle.

    • A malfunctioning variable geometry system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rapid throttle movement
    Explanation
    Rapid throttle movement can cause a compressor stall during emergency system operation. This is because sudden changes in throttle position can disrupt the airflow through the engine, leading to an imbalance between the amount of air entering the compressor and the amount of fuel being injected. This can result in a disruption of the combustion process and cause the compressor to stall.

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  • 35. 

    (612) In addition to determining the condition of a repaired or overhauled engine, you also test engines

    • For training practice.

    • In aircraft that have been modified.

    • That have been involved in an incident or a mishap.

    • That have severe FOD damage.

    Correct Answer
    A. That have been involved in an incident or a mishap.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "that have been involved in an incident or a mishap." This is because testing engines that have been involved in an incident or a mishap helps to determine the extent of damage and evaluate the engine's performance after such events. This is important for safety reasons and to ensure that the engine is functioning properly before it is used again.

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  • 36. 

    (623) Air for the load control system on a GTCP 165 engine is extracted from the

    • Torus.

    • Combustor.

    • Turbine plenum.

    • Compressor deswirl vanes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Turbine plenum.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is turbine plenum. In a GTCP 165 engine, air for the load control system is extracted from the turbine plenum. The turbine plenum is a chamber located between the turbine and the combustor. It is responsible for collecting and distributing air to various components of the engine, including the load control system. Extracting air from the turbine plenum ensures that the load control system receives a sufficient and controlled amount of air for its operation.

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  • 37. 

     (601) Where should you begin troubleshooting after reviewing the aircraft/engine forms?

    • Discuss problem with other journeymen in the shop.

    • Check each part of every system.

    • Examine most complex unit.

    • Observe gauge indications.

    Correct Answer
    A. Observe gauge indications.
    Explanation
    After reviewing the aircraft/engine forms, the best place to begin troubleshooting is by observing gauge indications. This is because gauge indications can provide valuable information about the performance of various systems and components. By carefully monitoring the gauge readings, any abnormal or out-of-spec indications can be identified, which can then help in narrowing down the potential issues and determining the appropriate troubleshooting steps. Checking each part of every system or examining the most complex unit may be time-consuming and inefficient, while discussing the problem with other journeymen in the shop may not provide immediate and accurate information. Therefore, observing gauge indications is the most logical and effective starting point for troubleshooting.

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  • 38. 

    (603) One type of overheat detector unit used on aircraft engines consists of a hollow stainless-steel tube that covers

    • One gold contact

    • Two silver contacts.

    • Three bronze contacts.

    • Four copper contacts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two silver contacts.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is two silver contacts. The overheat detector unit used on aircraft engines consists of a hollow stainless-steel tube that covers two silver contacts. This design allows for the detection of excessive heat in the engine by measuring the resistance between the contacts. When the temperature rises, the contacts expand and the resistance decreases, triggering an alarm or warning system. Silver is a good conductor of heat and electricity, making it suitable for this purpose.

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  • 39. 

    (603) For an operational check of the fire warning system, you press

    • Only the TEST switch.

    • Both TEST and NORMAL switches

    • Only the TEST WARNING ON switch.

    • Both TEST ON and TEST OFF switches.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only the TEST switch.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is only the TEST switch. This is because when performing an operational check of the fire warning system, pressing only the TEST switch is sufficient. Pressing both the TEST and NORMAL switches or only the TEST WARNING ON switch would not be necessary for this specific check. Pressing both the TEST ON and TEST OFF switches would also not be required as they are not relevant to the operational check of the fire warning system.

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  • 40. 

    (604) The display range of the test cell IC temperature indicator is

    • –100 to +1,000 °F.

    • –75 to +1,400 °F.

    • –50 to +1,600 °F.

    • –25 to +1,800 °F.

    Correct Answer
    A. –50 to +1,600 °F.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is –50 to +1,600 °F. This means that the test cell IC temperature indicator can display temperatures ranging from -50 degrees Fahrenheit to +1,600 degrees Fahrenheit.

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  • 41. 

     (618) A BPO is done

    • With the thruflight inspection.

    • After the first flight of the day.

    • With the end-of-runway inspection.

    • After the last flight of the flying period.

    Correct Answer
    A. After the last flight of the flying period.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "after the last flight of the flying period." This means that the BPO (Base Pre-operation) is conducted after the final flight of the day. It is done to ensure that all necessary inspections and checks are completed before the aircraft is parked and secured for the night. Conducting the BPO after the last flight helps to ensure that any issues or discrepancies can be addressed and resolved before the aircraft is taken out of service.

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  • 42. 

    (603) The term Pt2 means the

    • Total (t) pressure (P) at flange 2 (2).

    • Total (t) pressure (P) at station 2 (2).

    • Temperature (t) and pressure (P) at flange 2 (2).

    • Temperature (t) and pressure (P) at station 2 (2).

    Correct Answer
    A. Total (t) pressure (P) at station 2 (2).
    Explanation
    The term Pt2 refers to the total pressure (P) at station 2 (2). This means that it represents the combined pressure exerted by all the gases and fluids present at station 2. It does not include temperature information or specify a particular flange.

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  • 43. 

    (611) When inspecting the hush house, you are not required to check the

    • Engine being tested.

    • Concrete deterioration.

    • Fire suppression system.

    • Engine tie-down assemblies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine being tested.
    Explanation
    When inspecting the hush house, the focus is on checking various aspects related to the engine testing process. This includes inspecting the concrete deterioration, ensuring the functionality of the fire suppression system, and examining the engine tie-down assemblies. However, the engine being tested itself does not need to be checked as it is the primary object of the testing process rather than a component of the hush house infrastructure.

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  • 44. 

    (616) What information is used as an aid in test facility inspections?

    • Test cell run procedures

    • Unit serial number listings.

    • Periodic inspection checklists.

    • Monthly requirements listings.

    Correct Answer
    A. Periodic inspection checklists.
    Explanation
    Periodic inspection checklists are used as an aid in test facility inspections. These checklists provide a systematic and comprehensive guide for inspecting the test facility, ensuring that all necessary areas and components are examined. They help inspectors ensure that the facility meets the required standards and regulations, identify any potential issues or deficiencies, and document the findings. By using periodic inspection checklists, inspectors can effectively assess the condition and safety of the test facility and take appropriate actions if needed.

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  • 45. 

     (622) What controls turbine discharge temperature on a GTCP 165 engine?

    • PMG.

    • Fuel flow divider valve.

    • Pneumatic thermostat.

    • Governor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pneumatic thermostat.
    Explanation
    The pneumatic thermostat controls the turbine discharge temperature on a GTCP 165 engine. It regulates the flow of air to the turbine to maintain the desired temperature. This ensures that the engine operates within the specified temperature range, preventing overheating or damage to the turbine components. The other options, PMG, fuel flow divider valve, and governor, are not directly responsible for controlling the turbine discharge temperature.

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  • 46. 

    (623) During a normal start on a GTCP 165 engine, the igniter plug continues firing until engine’s RPM reaches

    • 75 percent.

    • 80 percent.

    • 95 percent.

    • 100 percent.

    Correct Answer
    A. 95 percent.
    Explanation
    During a normal start on a GTCP 165 engine, the igniter plug continues firing until the engine's RPM reaches 95 percent. This means that the igniter plug will remain active and continue to provide a spark to ignite the fuel-air mixture until the engine's RPM reaches this level. Once the RPM reaches 95 percent, the igniter plug can be deactivated as the engine is now running smoothly and does not require additional ignition assistance.

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  • 47. 

     (618) Which inspection is a combination of the BPO/hourly post-flight and periodic inspection (PE) requirements?

    • Minor.

    • Major.

    • Phased

    • Periodic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Phased
    Explanation
    A phased inspection is a combination of the BPO/hourly post-flight and periodic inspection requirements. This type of inspection involves both a detailed examination of specific components and systems after each flight, as well as a more comprehensive inspection that is conducted periodically. It allows for a thorough assessment of the aircraft's condition and ensures that all necessary maintenance tasks are performed.

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  • 48. 

     (603) Understanding the operating principles of engine instruments help you decide

    • If an engine should be removed from an aircraft.

    • If the engine should be sent to the test cell.

    • The meaning of the instrument readings.

    • What tools are required for maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. The meaning of the instrument readings.
    Explanation
    Understanding the operating principles of engine instruments helps you interpret the readings they provide. By knowing the meaning of the instrument readings, you can determine the current state of the engine and whether any maintenance or further action is required. This knowledge allows you to make informed decisions regarding the engine, such as whether it needs to be removed from the aircraft or sent to the test cell for further evaluation.

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  • 49. 

     (603) Which jet engine temperature is not measured?

    • Combustion inlet.

    • Fan turbine inlet.

    • Turbine inlet.

    • Exhaust gas.

    Correct Answer
    A. Combustion inlet.
    Explanation
    The question asks which jet engine temperature is not measured. The correct answer is "Combustion inlet." This means that the temperature of the air entering the combustion chamber of a jet engine is not typically measured. Temperature measurements are commonly taken at the fan turbine inlet, turbine inlet, and exhaust gas, but not at the combustion inlet.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 18, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 18, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 24, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Andrew
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