2A651H EOC Pretest 1

1. What must be done to a component after removing it from the engine?

Preserve with fuel.

Wrap in barrier paper.

Preserve with engine oil.

Cap and plug all openings.

After removing a component from the engine, it is necessary to cap and plug all openings. This is important to prevent any dust, debris, or contaminants from entering the engine and causing damage. By sealing off the openings, the component remains protected and ensures that it can be safely stored or transported without any risk of contamination. Preserving with fuel, wrapping in barrier paper, or preserving with engine oil are not suitable actions to take after removing a component from the engine.

Explanation

After removing a component from the engine, it is necessary to cap and plug all openings. This is important to prevent any dust, debris, or contaminants from entering the engine and causing damage. By sealing off the openings, the component remains protected and ensures that it can be safely stored or transported without any risk of contamination. Preserving with fuel, wrapping in barrier paper, or preserving with engine oil are not suitable actions to take after removing a component from the engine.

2. When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?

Debrief

Specialist

Deployment

Training

As an engine troop in an aircraft maintenance squadron, you will most likely be attached to the Specialist flight. This is because engine troops are responsible for the maintenance and repair of aircraft engines, and the Specialist flight typically handles specialized tasks and responsibilities related to specific aircraft systems or components. Therefore, being assigned to the Specialist flight would align with your role and expertise in engine maintenance.

Explanation

As an engine troop in an aircraft maintenance squadron, you will most likely be attached to the Specialist flight. This is because engine troops are responsible for the maintenance and repair of aircraft engines, and the Specialist flight typically handles specialized tasks and responsibilities related to specific aircraft systems or components. Therefore, being assigned to the Specialist flight would align with your role and expertise in engine maintenance.

3. What should you use to check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container?

Oil

Dry nitrogen

Leak detector

Soap-water solution

To check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container, a soap-water solution should be used. This solution is commonly used in leak detection as it can easily identify any escaping air or gas. When applied to the container, if there is a leak, the solution will form bubbles at the site of the leak, indicating the presence of a pressure leak. This method is cost-effective and simple to use, making it a popular choice for checking for leaks in various industries.

Explanation

To check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container, a soap-water solution should be used. This solution is commonly used in leak detection as it can easily identify any escaping air or gas. When applied to the container, if there is a leak, the solution will form bubbles at the site of the leak, indicating the presence of a pressure leak. This method is cost-effective and simple to use, making it a popular choice for checking for leaks in various industries.

4. Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all AF employees?

MSDS

AFOSH

ORM

Flight-line saftey

AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health program. Its purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. AFOSH sets standards and guidelines to prevent accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace. This program covers a wide range of areas including hazard identification, risk assessment, training, and enforcement of safety regulations. By implementing AFOSH, the Air Force aims to protect its personnel and maintain a productive and efficient work environment.

Explanation

AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health program. Its purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. AFOSH sets standards and guidelines to prevent accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace. This program covers a wide range of areas including hazard identification, risk assessment, training, and enforcement of safety regulations. By implementing AFOSH, the Air Force aims to protect its personnel and maintain a productive and efficient work environment.

5. What is the purpose and goal of the AFOSH Program?

To protect personnel

MSDS

To identify the workcenter hazards

The purpose and goal of the AFOSH Program is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. The program aims to protect personnel from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses. It achieves this by identifying workcenter hazards and implementing measures to mitigate them. The program also emphasizes the importance of providing appropriate training and resources to personnel to promote safety and prevent accidents or health issues in the workplace.

Explanation

The purpose and goal of the AFOSH Program is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. The program aims to protect personnel from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses. It achieves this by identifying workcenter hazards and implementing measures to mitigate them. The program also emphasizes the importance of providing appropriate training and resources to personnel to promote safety and prevent accidents or health issues in the workplace.

6. When you are assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?

Maintenance

Accessories

Fabrication

Munitions

As an engine troop assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron, it is most likely that you will be attached to the Maintenance flight. This is because the role of an engine troop involves the maintenance and repair of engines, which falls under the responsibilities of the Maintenance flight. The Accessories flight typically handles the maintenance of aircraft accessories, the Fabrication flight deals with metal fabrication and repair, and the Munitions flight is responsible for handling and maintaining weapons and ammunition.

Explanation

As an engine troop assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron, it is most likely that you will be attached to the Maintenance flight. This is because the role of an engine troop involves the maintenance and repair of engines, which falls under the responsibilities of the Maintenance flight. The Accessories flight typically handles the maintenance of aircraft accessories, the Fabrication flight deals with metal fabrication and repair, and the Munitions flight is responsible for handling and maintaining weapons and ammunition.

7. This statement applies when either the auxiliary power unit (APU) or the gas turbine compressor (GTC) is installed on C-130 aircraft.

GTC can only be operated while the aircraft is flying.

APU can only be operated while the aircraft is on the ground

APU can be operated whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying.

GTC can be operated whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying

The APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) can be operated whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying. This means that the APU provides power to the aircraft's systems and equipment regardless of its state (on the ground or in the air). On the other hand, the GTC (Gas Turbine Compressor) can only be operated while the aircraft is flying, indicating that it is specifically designed to provide power to the aircraft's systems during flight.

Explanation

The APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) can be operated whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying. This means that the APU provides power to the aircraft's systems and equipment regardless of its state (on the ground or in the air). On the other hand, the GTC (Gas Turbine Compressor) can only be operated while the aircraft is flying, indicating that it is specifically designed to provide power to the aircraft's systems during flight.

8. If the main filter becomes clogged, which valve opens to assure continued flow?

Check

Bypass

Low pressure relief

High pressure relief

When the main filter becomes clogged, the bypass valve opens to ensure that there is continued flow. This valve allows the fluid to bypass the clogged filter and continue moving through the system. By opening the bypass valve, the flow is redirected and the system can continue to operate, albeit with reduced filtration efficiency.

Explanation

When the main filter becomes clogged, the bypass valve opens to ensure that there is continued flow. This valve allows the fluid to bypass the clogged filter and continue moving through the system. By opening the bypass valve, the flow is redirected and the system can continue to operate, albeit with reduced filtration efficiency.

9. Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

Psychomotor

Thermometer

Barometer

Potentiometer

A barometer is the instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure. It consists of a glass tube filled with mercury or other liquid, with one end closed and the other end open. The open end is placed in contact with the atmosphere, and the pressure of the air pushes the liquid up the tube. The height of the liquid column in the tube is a measure of the atmospheric pressure. Barometers are commonly used in weather forecasting and also in aviation to monitor changes in air pressure.

Explanation

A barometer is the instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure. It consists of a glass tube filled with mercury or other liquid, with one end closed and the other end open. The open end is placed in contact with the atmosphere, and the pressure of the air pushes the liquid up the tube. The height of the liquid column in the tube is a measure of the atmospheric pressure. Barometers are commonly used in weather forecasting and also in aviation to monitor changes in air pressure.

10. How many months must you have in the AF before you attend Airman Leadership School (ALS)?

24

36

48

18

In order to attend Airman Leadership School (ALS) in the Air Force, you must have completed 48 months of service. ALS is a professional military education program that provides leadership training for airmen. This requirement ensures that airmen have a sufficient amount of experience and time in service before attending the school, allowing them to better apply the leadership skills and knowledge gained during the program.

Explanation

In order to attend Airman Leadership School (ALS) in the Air Force, you must have completed 48 months of service. ALS is a professional military education program that provides leadership training for airmen. This requirement ensures that airmen have a sufficient amount of experience and time in service before attending the school, allowing them to better apply the leadership skills and knowledge gained during the program.

11. What type of sump system is an auxiliary power unit (APU) considered if the oil is not stored within the engine itself?

Wet

Dry

Reserve

Emergency

An auxiliary power unit (APU) is considered a dry sump system when the oil is not stored within the engine itself. In a dry sump system, the oil is stored in a separate reservoir or tank, rather than in the engine's crankcase. This allows for better oil control and lubrication, as well as improved engine performance and reliability. By keeping the oil separate from the engine, a dry sump system can also help prevent oil starvation during high-speed or high-g turns, ensuring that the engine remains properly lubricated at all times.

Explanation

An auxiliary power unit (APU) is considered a dry sump system when the oil is not stored within the engine itself. In a dry sump system, the oil is stored in a separate reservoir or tank, rather than in the engine's crankcase. This allows for better oil control and lubrication, as well as improved engine performance and reliability. By keeping the oil separate from the engine, a dry sump system can also help prevent oil starvation during high-speed or high-g turns, ensuring that the engine remains properly lubricated at all times.

12. What function is a task of the low pitch stop assembly?

Prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle in is alpha range

Limits cam travel and prevents the prop from exceeding feather and reverse blade angles

Prevents blades from decreasing pitch if an overspeed condition occurs

Transmits engine torque to the blades

The low pitch stop assembly prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle is in the alpha range. This means that it restricts the propeller from going into a range where the blades are at a low pitch angle, which is typically used for reverse thrust or fine-tuning the propeller pitch. By preventing this, the low pitch stop assembly ensures that the propeller operates within the desired pitch range and avoids any potential issues or malfunctions that could occur if the propeller went into the beta range while the throttle is in the alpha range.

Explanation

The low pitch stop assembly prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle is in the alpha range. This means that it restricts the propeller from going into a range where the blades are at a low pitch angle, which is typically used for reverse thrust or fine-tuning the propeller pitch. By preventing this, the low pitch stop assembly ensures that the propeller operates within the desired pitch range and avoids any potential issues or malfunctions that could occur if the propeller went into the beta range while the throttle is in the alpha range.

13. Once the synthetic oil (MIL-L-23699) container is opened, any oil not immediately used should be

Pour in the trashcan

Disposed of as used oil

Placed in an oil can for shop use

Stored in special metal cabinets until it can be used

Once the synthetic oil (MIL-L-23699) container is opened, any oil not immediately used should be disposed of as used oil. This is because once the container is opened, the oil may have been exposed to contaminants or air, which can degrade its quality and effectiveness. Therefore, it is recommended to dispose of the oil properly as used oil to prevent any potential damage or issues when using it in the future.

Explanation

Once the synthetic oil (MIL-L-23699) container is opened, any oil not immediately used should be disposed of as used oil. This is because once the container is opened, the oil may have been exposed to contaminants or air, which can degrade its quality and effectiveness. Therefore, it is recommended to dispose of the oil properly as used oil to prevent any potential damage or issues when using it in the future.

14. Through which section of a jet engine is energy expended into the atmosphere, resulting in thrust?

Power Turbine (PT)

Exhaust

Trust Reverser (TR)

Combustion

The correct answer is "Exhaust" because the exhaust section of a jet engine is where energy is expended into the atmosphere, resulting in thrust. This is where the high-pressure and high-temperature gases produced by the combustion process are expelled from the engine, creating a forward force that propels the aircraft forward.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Exhaust" because the exhaust section of a jet engine is where energy is expended into the atmosphere, resulting in thrust. This is where the high-pressure and high-temperature gases produced by the combustion process are expelled from the engine, creating a forward force that propels the aircraft forward.

15. The amount of twisting deflection is determined by the

Pinion gear

Reference shaft

Safety coupling

Torque shaft

The amount of twisting deflection is determined by the reference shaft. The reference shaft is a fixed component that serves as a point of comparison for measuring the twisting or bending of other components. It provides a stable and known reference point, allowing engineers to accurately measure and analyze the deflection or deformation of other parts in a system. By comparing the deflection of the reference shaft to the deflection of other components, engineers can assess the structural integrity and performance of the system.

Explanation

The amount of twisting deflection is determined by the reference shaft. The reference shaft is a fixed component that serves as a point of comparison for measuring the twisting or bending of other components. It provides a stable and known reference point, allowing engineers to accurately measure and analyze the deflection or deformation of other parts in a system. By comparing the deflection of the reference shaft to the deflection of other components, engineers can assess the structural integrity and performance of the system.

16. Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?

Ensure humidity indicator is blue.

Release all pressure before removing lid.

Ensure pressure is below 5 psi before loosening bolts.

Loosen bolts in a staggered pattern to prevent warping

Before removing a shipping container lid, it is important to release all pressure. This is necessary to ensure the safety of those handling the container and to prevent any potential accidents or injuries. By releasing the pressure, the lid can be safely removed without any risk of sudden release of pressure or explosion.

Explanation

Before removing a shipping container lid, it is important to release all pressure. This is necessary to ensure the safety of those handling the container and to prevent any potential accidents or injuries. By releasing the pressure, the lid can be safely removed without any risk of sudden release of pressure or explosion.

17. A rigid borescope requires

An angle shot at the inspection area.

More skill to operate compared to a flexscope.

An angulation lever to control the bending section.

A direct and lateral straight shot at the inspection area.

A rigid borescope requires a direct and lateral straight shot at the inspection area because it does not have the ability to bend or flex like a flexscope. This means that the operator must position the borescope in such a way that it can directly view the area of interest without any obstructions. This requires more skill and precision compared to a flexscope, which can easily navigate around corners and obstacles. Additionally, a rigid borescope does not have an angulation lever to control the bending section, further emphasizing the need for a straight shot at the inspection area.

Explanation

A rigid borescope requires a direct and lateral straight shot at the inspection area because it does not have the ability to bend or flex like a flexscope. This means that the operator must position the borescope in such a way that it can directly view the area of interest without any obstructions. This requires more skill and precision compared to a flexscope, which can easily navigate around corners and obstacles. Additionally, a rigid borescope does not have an angulation lever to control the bending section, further emphasizing the need for a straight shot at the inspection area.

18. Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?

Experience.

Maturity

Rank.

Age

Age is not considered for borescope operator certification. Certification is typically based on factors such as experience, maturity, and rank. Age alone does not determine an individual's ability to operate a borescope effectively.

Explanation

Age is not considered for borescope operator certification. Certification is typically based on factors such as experience, maturity, and rank. Age alone does not determine an individual's ability to operate a borescope effectively.

19. How many fuel nozzles are in the AE2100D3 engine?

8

12

16

18

The AE2100D3 engine has 16 fuel nozzles.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 engine has 16 fuel nozzles.

20. Once an overspeed condition is corrected and the pilot valve is returned to the center position, what is the result?

Hydraulic fluid flow to the dome assembly is increased

Blades will move to the feather position

Prop will start to underspeed

Prop is on-speed

When the overspeed condition is corrected and the pilot valve is returned to the center position, the result is that the propeller is brought back to its intended speed. This means that the propeller is operating at the correct rotational speed, ensuring optimal performance and efficiency.

Explanation

When the overspeed condition is corrected and the pilot valve is returned to the center position, the result is that the propeller is brought back to its intended speed. This means that the propeller is operating at the correct rotational speed, ensuring optimal performance and efficiency.

21. Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series?

55

66

91

92

AFOSH standards are located within Air Force publication series 91. This means that the guidelines and regulations related to Occupational Safety and Health in the Air Force can be found in the publications under series 91.

Explanation

AFOSH standards are located within Air Force publication series 91. This means that the guidelines and regulations related to Occupational Safety and Health in the Air Force can be found in the publications under series 91.

22. Which type of valve is normally incorporated in an oil filter assembly?

Check

Bypass

Relief

Pressurizing

A bypass valve is normally incorporated in an oil filter assembly. This valve allows oil to bypass the filter element when it becomes clogged or when the oil is cold and thick, ensuring that the engine continues to receive oil flow. This prevents damage to the engine and allows for continuous lubrication even when the filter is unable to effectively remove contaminants.

Explanation

A bypass valve is normally incorporated in an oil filter assembly. This valve allows oil to bypass the filter element when it becomes clogged or when the oil is cold and thick, ensuring that the engine continues to receive oil flow. This prevents damage to the engine and allows for continuous lubrication even when the filter is unable to effectively remove contaminants.

23. Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their

Soft metal construction, these seals can be damaged easily

Soft metal construction, they are sharp and can cut your hand

Hard metal construction, they are sharp and can cut your hand

Hard metal construction, these seals can damage the bearing races

Labyrinth seals are made of soft metal, which makes them susceptible to damage. The softness of the metal means that they can easily be bent, dented, or scratched, leading to a loss of effectiveness in sealing. This is especially important to consider when working with labyrinth seals because any damage to the seals can compromise their ability to prevent leakage and protect the bearing races. Therefore, it is crucial to handle them with extreme care to avoid causing any damage.

Explanation

Labyrinth seals are made of soft metal, which makes them susceptible to damage. The softness of the metal means that they can easily be bent, dented, or scratched, leading to a loss of effectiveness in sealing. This is especially important to consider when working with labyrinth seals because any damage to the seals can compromise their ability to prevent leakage and protect the bearing races. Therefore, it is crucial to handle them with extreme care to avoid causing any damage.

24. If you were tasked to measure the clearance between two surfaces, what type of gauge would you use?

Steel-rule.

Micrometer

Dial-indicator

Thickness gauge.

A thickness gauge would be the most suitable tool for measuring the clearance between two surfaces. This is because a thickness gauge is specifically designed to measure the distance between two surfaces, providing an accurate and precise measurement. Steel-rule, micrometer, and dial-indicator are not specifically designed for measuring clearance between surfaces and may not provide the required level of accuracy and precision.

Explanation

A thickness gauge would be the most suitable tool for measuring the clearance between two surfaces. This is because a thickness gauge is specifically designed to measure the distance between two surfaces, providing an accurate and precise measurement. Steel-rule, micrometer, and dial-indicator are not specifically designed for measuring clearance between surfaces and may not provide the required level of accuracy and precision.

25. The requirements for storing engines in a metal container is to maintain

Nitrogen pressure.

Engine dehydration

Warehouse facilities

Ventilator plugs and caps.

The correct answer is "nitrogen pressure." Storing engines in a metal container requires maintaining nitrogen pressure to prevent corrosion and oxidation of the engine components. Nitrogen is an inert gas that helps create a controlled and oxygen-free environment, which reduces the risk of damage to the engines during storage. By maintaining nitrogen pressure, the container can effectively protect the engines from moisture, rust, and other potential hazards that could affect their performance and lifespan.

Explanation

The correct answer is "nitrogen pressure." Storing engines in a metal container requires maintaining nitrogen pressure to prevent corrosion and oxidation of the engine components. Nitrogen is an inert gas that helps create a controlled and oxygen-free environment, which reduces the risk of damage to the engines during storage. By maintaining nitrogen pressure, the container can effectively protect the engines from moisture, rust, and other potential hazards that could affect their performance and lifespan.

26. What is the total gear reduction ratio of the reduction gearbox (RGB)?

13,54 : 1

13.54 : 1

13'54 : 1

1.354 : 1

The total gear reduction ratio of the reduction gearbox (RGB) is 13.54 : 1.

Explanation

The total gear reduction ratio of the reduction gearbox (RGB) is 13.54 : 1.

27. For a borescope inspection and for a maximum benefit, which is not necessary for the inspector to have?

Experience.

Flexiblity

Integrity

Ability

Flexibility is not necessary for the inspector to have during a borescope inspection. This is because a borescope is a rigid and fixed tool that allows for limited movement and maneuverability. The inspector does not need to be flexible in order to effectively use the borescope. However, experience, integrity, and ability are important qualities for the inspector to possess in order to successfully conduct the inspection and obtain maximum benefit from it.

Explanation

Flexibility is not necessary for the inspector to have during a borescope inspection. This is because a borescope is a rigid and fixed tool that allows for limited movement and maneuverability. The inspector does not need to be flexible in order to effectively use the borescope. However, experience, integrity, and ability are important qualities for the inspector to possess in order to successfully conduct the inspection and obtain maximum benefit from it.

28. Carrying a handtool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause

Injury to you.

Torn clothing.

Electrical shock.

Damage to the tool.

Carrying a handtool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it can cause injury to you. When a tool is placed in a pocket, it can easily shift or move around, leading to accidental contact with your body. This can result in cuts, bruises, or even more serious injuries. Therefore, it is important to always carry handtools in a secure and appropriate manner to avoid any harm to yourself.

Explanation

Carrying a handtool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it can cause injury to you. When a tool is placed in a pocket, it can easily shift or move around, leading to accidental contact with your body. This can result in cuts, bruises, or even more serious injuries. Therefore, it is important to always carry handtools in a secure and appropriate manner to avoid any harm to yourself.

29. How is the AE2100D3 starter control valve actuated?

Pneumatically.

Electrically.

Hydraulically.

Hydro-electrically.

The AE2100D3 starter control valve is actuated electrically. This means that an electrical signal is used to control the valve, allowing it to open or close as needed. This method of actuation is commonly used in many systems and provides precise control and quick response times.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 starter control valve is actuated electrically. This means that an electrical signal is used to control the valve, allowing it to open or close as needed. This method of actuation is commonly used in many systems and provides precise control and quick response times.

30. Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health?

Operations Support Center

Logistics Support Squadron

Operations Support Squadron

Maintenance Operations Center

The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health. They ensure that aircraft are properly maintained and serviced, and coordinate with other units to schedule maintenance activities. This allows for efficient and effective management of the fleet, ensuring that aircraft are available and in optimal condition for missions.

Explanation

The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health. They ensure that aircraft are properly maintained and serviced, and coordinate with other units to schedule maintenance activities. This allows for efficient and effective management of the fleet, ensuring that aircraft are available and in optimal condition for missions.

31. The amount of ram air passing through the oil cooler core is regulated by the

Thermostat

Flap actuator

Size of the core

Regulating valve

The flap actuator is responsible for regulating the amount of ram air passing through the oil cooler core. This component controls the position of the flap, which in turn controls the airflow. By adjusting the flap position, the flap actuator can increase or decrease the amount of air passing through the core, allowing for efficient cooling of the oil. The other options, such as the thermostat, size of the core, and regulating valve, may play a role in the overall functioning of the oil cooler system, but they are not specifically responsible for regulating the amount of ram air passing through the core.

Explanation

The flap actuator is responsible for regulating the amount of ram air passing through the oil cooler core. This component controls the position of the flap, which in turn controls the airflow. By adjusting the flap position, the flap actuator can increase or decrease the amount of air passing through the core, allowing for efficient cooling of the oil. The other options, such as the thermostat, size of the core, and regulating valve, may play a role in the overall functioning of the oil cooler system, but they are not specifically responsible for regulating the amount of ram air passing through the core.

32. What is the overall reduction ratio of the reduction gearbox's (RGB) main reduction gear train?

3.124 to1

13,54 to 1

13.54 to 1

13,80 to 1

The overall reduction ratio of the reduction gearbox's main reduction gear train is 13.54 to 1. This means that for every 13.54 rotations of the input gear, the output gear will rotate once. This ratio indicates the level of reduction in speed and increase in torque that the gear train provides.

Explanation

The overall reduction ratio of the reduction gearbox's main reduction gear train is 13.54 to 1. This means that for every 13.54 rotations of the input gear, the output gear will rotate once. This ratio indicates the level of reduction in speed and increase in torque that the gear train provides.

33. What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

OJT

Task qualification

CDCs

NCOA

CDCs stands for Career Development Courses. These courses are designed to provide training and education to individuals in order to help them learn the knowledge portion of their job. CDCs are typically self-paced and cover a wide range of topics related to the specific job or career field. They are often used in military training and are intended to enhance job performance and career progression.

Explanation

CDCs stands for Career Development Courses. These courses are designed to provide training and education to individuals in order to help them learn the knowledge portion of their job. CDCs are typically self-paced and cover a wide range of topics related to the specific job or career field. They are often used in military training and are intended to enhance job performance and career progression.

34. In most modern engine, which type of turbine is normally used?

Reaction

Pulsation

Impulse-reaction

Pulsation-reaction

In most modern engines, the type of turbine that is normally used is the impulse-reaction turbine. This type of turbine combines both the principles of impulse and reaction to generate power. The high-pressure steam or gas first passes through a set of fixed nozzles, where it experiences a sudden change in velocity and pressure, creating an impulse. The steam or gas then enters the moving blades, where it further expands and generates a reaction force. This combination of impulse and reaction allows for efficient power generation in modern engines.

Explanation

In most modern engines, the type of turbine that is normally used is the impulse-reaction turbine. This type of turbine combines both the principles of impulse and reaction to generate power. The high-pressure steam or gas first passes through a set of fixed nozzles, where it experiences a sudden change in velocity and pressure, creating an impulse. The steam or gas then enters the moving blades, where it further expands and generates a reaction force. This combination of impulse and reaction allows for efficient power generation in modern engines.

35. During the "over 180 days" preservation period, the fuel system is maintained full of

Fuel.

MIL-L–7808

MIL-L–6081 (grade 1010).

Preservation fluid

During the "over 180 days" preservation period, the fuel system is maintained full of MIL-L-6081 (grade 1010) fuel. This specific grade of fuel is used to preserve the fuel system during long periods of inactivity. It helps prevent corrosion and degradation of the fuel system components, ensuring that the system remains in good condition when it is eventually used again. MIL-L-7808 and preservation fluid are not suitable for this purpose.

Explanation

During the "over 180 days" preservation period, the fuel system is maintained full of MIL-L-6081 (grade 1010) fuel. This specific grade of fuel is used to preserve the fuel system during long periods of inactivity. It helps prevent corrosion and degradation of the fuel system components, ensuring that the system remains in good condition when it is eventually used again. MIL-L-7808 and preservation fluid are not suitable for this purpose.

36. Which functions form a maintenance group?

Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying

Maintenance, operations, QA

QA, support, aircraft maintenance

Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA

The functions that form a maintenance group are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA. These functions are essential for ensuring the proper maintenance and operation of aircraft. Maintenance operations involve coordinating and managing maintenance activities, while maintenance refers to the actual repair and upkeep of the aircraft. Aircraft maintenance specifically focuses on the maintenance of the aircraft itself. QA (Quality Assurance) is responsible for ensuring that maintenance procedures and standards are followed correctly. Together, these functions work together to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft.

Explanation

The functions that form a maintenance group are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA. These functions are essential for ensuring the proper maintenance and operation of aircraft. Maintenance operations involve coordinating and managing maintenance activities, while maintenance refers to the actual repair and upkeep of the aircraft. Aircraft maintenance specifically focuses on the maintenance of the aircraft itself. QA (Quality Assurance) is responsible for ensuring that maintenance procedures and standards are followed correctly. Together, these functions work together to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft.

37. Constant speed can only occur when the throttle is positioned from

GND IDLE to FLT IDLE

FLT IDLE to TAKE OFF

RVS to GRND IDLE

RVS to FLT IDLE

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

38. What does the fifth position of the AFSC 3A652 represent?

Career field subdivision

Specific AFSC

Career field

Skill level

The fifth position of the AFSC 3A652 represents the specific AFSC. AFSC stands for Air Force Specialty Code, which is a code used to identify specific jobs within the Air Force. The fifth position in this code indicates the specific job within the career field of 3A652.

Explanation

The fifth position of the AFSC 3A652 represents the specific AFSC. AFSC stands for Air Force Specialty Code, which is a code used to identify specific jobs within the Air Force. The fifth position in this code indicates the specific job within the career field of 3A652.

39. How many sparks per second can the AE2100D3 ignition exciters produce?

2-5

4-7

1-3

3-6

The AE2100D3 ignition exciters can produce a range of 4-7 sparks per second.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 ignition exciters can produce a range of 4-7 sparks per second.

40. In the power section pressure oil system, which valve located in the main pump is used to bypass the excess oil?

Pressure-regulating

Breather-regulating

Scavenge-regulating

Anti-icing-regulating

The valve located in the main pump that is used to bypass the excess oil in the power section pressure oil system is the pressure-regulating valve. This valve is responsible for regulating the pressure of the oil and ensuring that it does not exceed the desired level. By bypassing the excess oil, it helps maintain the proper pressure and prevent any damage or malfunction in the system.

Explanation

The valve located in the main pump that is used to bypass the excess oil in the power section pressure oil system is the pressure-regulating valve. This valve is responsible for regulating the pressure of the oil and ensuring that it does not exceed the desired level. By bypassing the excess oil, it helps maintain the proper pressure and prevent any damage or malfunction in the system.

41. Torque is transferred from the power unit to the safety coupling on the reduction gearbox (RGB) by the

Compressor extension shaft

Reference shaft

Torque meter housing

Torque shaft

The torque is transferred from the power unit to the safety coupling on the reduction gearbox (RGB) by the torque shaft.

Explanation

The torque is transferred from the power unit to the safety coupling on the reduction gearbox (RGB) by the torque shaft.

42. What component provides the mounting pad for the bottom surface of the AE2100D3 air inlet housing?

PUAD

GMAD

FPMU

Inlet scroll case

PUAD stands for Power Unit Accessory Drive. It is a component that provides the mounting pad for the bottom surface of the AE2100D3 air inlet housing.

Explanation

PUAD stands for Power Unit Accessory Drive. It is a component that provides the mounting pad for the bottom surface of the AE2100D3 air inlet housing.

43. Which compressor section assembly disperses compressor discharge air and directs it to the combustion chambers (liners)?

Compressor rotor

14th stage stator vane assembly

Diffuser

Compressor air despenser

The correct answer is the diffuser. The diffuser is responsible for dispersing the compressor discharge air and directing it to the combustion chambers (liners). It is a section assembly that helps in slowing down the high-velocity air from the compressor and converting it into high-pressure air for combustion.

Explanation

The correct answer is the diffuser. The diffuser is responsible for dispersing the compressor discharge air and directing it to the combustion chambers (liners). It is a section assembly that helps in slowing down the high-velocity air from the compressor and converting it into high-pressure air for combustion.

44. When the engine is operating at a throttle setting of Flight Idle or above, what preset limit of inch-pounds of torque must be exceeded in order for the negative torque signal (NTS) system to actuate the actuator rod?

-1,020 + 400

-1,140 + 500

-1,260 + or - 600

1,260 + 600

The correct answer is -1,260 + or - 600. This means that when the engine is operating at a throttle setting of Flight Idle or above, the negative torque signal (NTS) system will actuate the actuator rod if the torque exceeds -1,260 inch-pounds, with a tolerance of plus or minus 600 inch-pounds.

Explanation

The correct answer is -1,260 + or - 600. This means that when the engine is operating at a throttle setting of Flight Idle or above, the negative torque signal (NTS) system will actuate the actuator rod if the torque exceeds -1,260 inch-pounds, with a tolerance of plus or minus 600 inch-pounds.

45. During feather operation, between approximately what pounds per square inch (psi) are the pressure cutout switch contacts opened?

900 to 1,100

300 to 500

600 to 800

0 to 200

During feather operation, the pressure cutout switch contacts are opened between approximately 600 to 800 pounds per square inch (psi).

Explanation

During feather operation, the pressure cutout switch contacts are opened between approximately 600 to 800 pounds per square inch (psi).

46. In the control quadrant, the throttle lever gate that separates alpha and beta ranges represent the

Highest degree setting on the coordinator protractor

Lowest degree setting on the coordinator protector

Highest possible power setting for flight

Lowest possible power setting for flight

The throttle lever gate that separates alpha and beta ranges represents the lowest possible power setting for flight. This gate is used to restrict the throttle lever from being moved into the beta range, which is reverse thrust. Therefore, when the throttle lever is within the alpha range, it indicates the lowest power setting that can be achieved for normal forward flight.

Explanation

The throttle lever gate that separates alpha and beta ranges represents the lowest possible power setting for flight. This gate is used to restrict the throttle lever from being moved into the beta range, which is reverse thrust. Therefore, when the throttle lever is within the alpha range, it indicates the lowest power setting that can be achieved for normal forward flight.

47. During flight range operation, what maintains the T56 engine at a constant engine speed of 13,820 revolutions per minute (RPM)?

Hydro system

Electric system

Propeller governing system

FADEC

The propeller governing system is responsible for maintaining the T56 engine at a constant engine speed of 13,820 RPM during flight range operation. This system controls the pitch of the propeller blades to ensure that the engine operates at the desired speed. By adjusting the pitch, the propeller governing system can regulate the amount of power generated by the engine, allowing it to maintain a consistent RPM throughout the flight.

Explanation

The propeller governing system is responsible for maintaining the T56 engine at a constant engine speed of 13,820 RPM during flight range operation. This system controls the pitch of the propeller blades to ensure that the engine operates at the desired speed. By adjusting the pitch, the propeller governing system can regulate the amount of power generated by the engine, allowing it to maintain a consistent RPM throughout the flight.

48. The output of what pump is sufficient to supply hydraulic pressure for normal propeller operation?

AUX pressure

Main pressure

Backup pressure

Standby pressure

The main pressure pump is responsible for supplying hydraulic pressure for normal propeller operation. This pump is designed to provide sufficient pressure to ensure the propeller functions properly. The other options, such as AUX pressure, backup pressure, and standby pressure, may have different roles or may not provide the necessary pressure for normal propeller operation.

Explanation

The main pressure pump is responsible for supplying hydraulic pressure for normal propeller operation. This pump is designed to provide sufficient pressure to ensure the propeller functions properly. The other options, such as AUX pressure, backup pressure, and standby pressure, may have different roles or may not provide the necessary pressure for normal propeller operation.

49. Which tester is used to accomplish the checkout procedures for the T56 engine ignition system?

Fuel nozzle

Thermocouple

Temp datum

Electrical components

Electrical components are used to accomplish the checkout procedures for the T56 engine ignition system. This is because the ignition system relies on electrical components such as spark plugs, ignition coils, and control modules to generate and control the spark that ignites the fuel-air mixture in the engine. By testing these electrical components, the functionality and performance of the ignition system can be evaluated and any issues can be identified and addressed.

Explanation

Electrical components are used to accomplish the checkout procedures for the T56 engine ignition system. This is because the ignition system relies on electrical components such as spark plugs, ignition coils, and control modules to generate and control the spark that ignites the fuel-air mixture in the engine. By testing these electrical components, the functionality and performance of the ignition system can be evaluated and any issues can be identified and addressed.

50. The actual amount of the water vapor in a mixture of air and water is the definition of

Pressure altitude (PA)

Relative humidity

Absolute humidity

Atmospheric pressure

Absolute humidity is the correct answer because it refers to the actual amount of water vapor present in a mixture of air and water. It is a measure of the mass of water vapor per unit volume of air, regardless of the air's temperature and pressure. Pressure altitude (PA) is a measure of altitude above a standard reference plane, relative humidity is the amount of water vapor present in the air compared to the maximum amount it could hold at a specific temperature, and atmospheric pressure is the force exerted by the weight of the atmosphere.

Explanation

Absolute humidity is the correct answer because it refers to the actual amount of water vapor present in a mixture of air and water. It is a measure of the mass of water vapor per unit volume of air, regardless of the air's temperature and pressure. Pressure altitude (PA) is a measure of altitude above a standard reference plane, relative humidity is the amount of water vapor present in the air compared to the maximum amount it could hold at a specific temperature, and atmospheric pressure is the force exerted by the weight of the atmosphere.

51. The temperature of compressor air in a jet engine must be raised to

Increase air efficiency

Decrease energy

Increase energy

Decrease volume

The temperature of compressor air in a jet engine must be raised to increase energy. This is because increasing the temperature of the air before it enters the combustion chamber allows for more efficient combustion, resulting in a higher energy output. By increasing the energy, the jet engine can generate more thrust and power, enabling the aircraft to fly at higher speeds and altitudes.

Explanation

The temperature of compressor air in a jet engine must be raised to increase energy. This is because increasing the temperature of the air before it enters the combustion chamber allows for more efficient combustion, resulting in a higher energy output. By increasing the energy, the jet engine can generate more thrust and power, enabling the aircraft to fly at higher speeds and altitudes.

52. The compressor bleed air supplied by small gas turbine (SGT) engines is not used for the

Heating the fuel supplied to the engines

Starting the main engines.

Pressurizing the aircraft.

Air-conditioning system.

The compressor bleed air from the small gas turbine engines is not used for heating the fuel supplied to the engines. This means that the air taken from the compressor is not used to warm up the fuel before it enters the engine.

Explanation

The compressor bleed air from the small gas turbine engines is not used for heating the fuel supplied to the engines. This means that the air taken from the compressor is not used to warm up the fuel before it enters the engine.

53. When the engine is running above 23% revolutions per minute (RPM), the propeller brake is held in the position by the

Release spring

Outer member and accessory drive gear

Starter gear

RGB oil pressure

The correct answer is RGB oil pressure. When the engine is running above 23% RPM, the propeller brake is held in position by the RGB (reduction gearbox) oil pressure. This oil pressure is responsible for applying force to keep the propeller brake engaged, preventing the propeller from spinning freely.

Explanation

The correct answer is RGB oil pressure. When the engine is running above 23% RPM, the propeller brake is held in position by the RGB (reduction gearbox) oil pressure. This oil pressure is responsible for applying force to keep the propeller brake engaged, preventing the propeller from spinning freely.

54. The major sections of a turboprop engine are the power unit, torquemeter assembly, and

Turbine section

Compressor section

Combustion section

RGB

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

55. During feather operation, the feather valve is positioned to meter hydraulic fluid to where?

Aft end of the dome piston

Forward end of the dome piston

Increase-pitch side of the pilot valve

Decrease-pitch side of the pilot valve

During feather operation, the feather valve is positioned to meter hydraulic fluid to the forward end of the dome piston.

Explanation

During feather operation, the feather valve is positioned to meter hydraulic fluid to the forward end of the dome piston.

56. The percent of revolutions per minute (RPM) the speed-sensitive control lets electrical current flow to the fuel and ignition system is

16%

26%

65%

94%

The correct answer is 16%. This means that the speed-sensitive control allows electrical current to flow to the fuel and ignition system at a rate of 16% of the revolutions per minute (RPM). This suggests that the control regulates the flow of current based on the speed of the engine, potentially adjusting the fuel and ignition system to optimize performance and efficiency at different RPM levels.

Explanation

The correct answer is 16%. This means that the speed-sensitive control allows electrical current to flow to the fuel and ignition system at a rate of 16% of the revolutions per minute (RPM). This suggests that the control regulates the flow of current based on the speed of the engine, potentially adjusting the fuel and ignition system to optimize performance and efficiency at different RPM levels.

57. Bleed air flowing through which component increases airflow through the cooler?

Oil cooler flap

Oil cooler ejector

Augmentation valve

Augmentation manifold

The oil cooler ejector increases airflow through the cooler by utilizing the principle of ejector effect. It creates a low-pressure region by accelerating the flow of bleed air, which in turn draws in more air through the cooler. This increased airflow helps in efficiently cooling the oil, preventing overheating and ensuring optimal performance of the system.

Explanation

The oil cooler ejector increases airflow through the cooler by utilizing the principle of ejector effect. It creates a low-pressure region by accelerating the flow of bleed air, which in turn draws in more air through the cooler. This increased airflow helps in efficiently cooling the oil, preventing overheating and ensuring optimal performance of the system.

58. When the engine is operating below Flight Idle, the negative torque signal (NTS) system is

Mechanically locked out

Electrically locked out

Spring pressure locked

Hydraulically locked out

When the engine is operating below Flight Idle, the negative torque signal (NTS) system is mechanically locked out. This means that the system is physically prevented from responding to any changes in torque demand. This lockout is typically achieved through mechanical mechanisms or linkages that prevent the NTS system from engaging or adjusting the engine's torque output. By locking out the NTS system, the engine's torque remains constant and unaffected by any external factors, ensuring stable operation at low power settings.

Explanation

When the engine is operating below Flight Idle, the negative torque signal (NTS) system is mechanically locked out. This means that the system is physically prevented from responding to any changes in torque demand. This lockout is typically achieved through mechanical mechanisms or linkages that prevent the NTS system from engaging or adjusting the engine's torque output. By locking out the NTS system, the engine's torque remains constant and unaffected by any external factors, ensuring stable operation at low power settings.

59. What type of compressor rotor assembly is used on the AE2100D3 engine?

14-stage axial-flow

5-stage axial, 1-stage centrifugal

14-stage dual spool compressor

14-stage axial-flow, 1-stage centrifugal

The correct answer is 14-stage axial-flow. This means that the compressor rotor assembly on the AE2100D3 engine consists of 14 stages of axial-flow compressors. Axial-flow compressors are commonly used in gas turbine engines and are designed to provide a smooth and continuous flow of air through the compressor stages. This type of compressor assembly is efficient and capable of handling high volumes of air, making it suitable for use in aircraft engines.

Explanation

The correct answer is 14-stage axial-flow. This means that the compressor rotor assembly on the AE2100D3 engine consists of 14 stages of axial-flow compressors. Axial-flow compressors are commonly used in gas turbine engines and are designed to provide a smooth and continuous flow of air through the compressor stages. This type of compressor assembly is efficient and capable of handling high volumes of air, making it suitable for use in aircraft engines.

60. Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

21-110

00-20-1

00-20-2

21-101

Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and mandates that maintenance personnel exhibit integrity and adhere to all written guidance.

Explanation

Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and mandates that maintenance personnel exhibit integrity and adhere to all written guidance.

61. Which component provides a means for balancing the propeller?

Deicer contact ring holder

Hub mounting bulkhead

Front spinner

Afterbody

The hub mounting bulkhead is the correct answer because it is the component that provides a means for balancing the propeller. The hub mounting bulkhead is a structural component that connects the propeller hub to the engine and helps to distribute the load evenly. It ensures that the propeller remains balanced during operation, which is crucial for smooth and efficient performance.

Explanation

The hub mounting bulkhead is the correct answer because it is the component that provides a means for balancing the propeller. The hub mounting bulkhead is a structural component that connects the propeller hub to the engine and helps to distribute the load evenly. It ensures that the propeller remains balanced during operation, which is crucial for smooth and efficient performance.

62. Which valve contained in the valve housing assembly, controls the hydraulic fluid flow to and from the dome assembly?

Standby

Feather

Pilot

Backup

The pilot valve, contained in the valve housing assembly, controls the hydraulic fluid flow to and from the dome assembly.

Explanation

The pilot valve, contained in the valve housing assembly, controls the hydraulic fluid flow to and from the dome assembly.

63. The standard atmospheric pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) is equal to

29.93 psi

29.92 psi

13.54 psi

14.7 psi

The standard atmospheric pressure at sea level is approximately 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi). This value is commonly used as a reference point in various calculations and measurements. It represents the average pressure exerted by the Earth's atmosphere at sea level under normal conditions.

Explanation

The standard atmospheric pressure at sea level is approximately 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi). This value is commonly used as a reference point in various calculations and measurements. It represents the average pressure exerted by the Earth's atmosphere at sea level under normal conditions.

64. From where does the AE2100D3 ignition system receive its electrical power?

FADEC

Alternator stator 20-40 VAC

Aircraft battery

28 VDC

The AE2100D3 ignition system receives its electrical power from the alternator stator, which produces an output of 20-40 VAC. This voltage is used to power the ignition system and provide the necessary electrical energy for the engine to operate efficiently. The alternator stator is a critical component in the electrical system of the aircraft, as it helps generate the power needed for various systems and equipment onboard.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 ignition system receives its electrical power from the alternator stator, which produces an output of 20-40 VAC. This voltage is used to power the ignition system and provide the necessary electrical energy for the engine to operate efficiently. The alternator stator is a critical component in the electrical system of the aircraft, as it helps generate the power needed for various systems and equipment onboard.

65. The ratio of the amount of water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure is the definition of

Pressure altitude

Relative humidity

Atmospheric pressure

Absolute humidity

Relative humidity is defined as the ratio of the amount of water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure. It is a measure of how close the air is to being saturated with water vapor.

Explanation

Relative humidity is defined as the ratio of the amount of water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure. It is a measure of how close the air is to being saturated with water vapor.

66. The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC) is the

Touch-hold push-button switch.

Function selector rotary switch

Range-mode pushbutton switch.

Volts, ohms, diode test input jack.

The function selector rotary switch is used to set the Fluke 8025A multimeter to check for alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC). This switch allows the user to select the desired function or measurement mode, such as voltage, resistance, or diode test. By rotating the switch to the appropriate position, the user can easily switch between AC and DC modes and accurately measure the desired electrical parameter.

Explanation

The function selector rotary switch is used to set the Fluke 8025A multimeter to check for alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC). This switch allows the user to select the desired function or measurement mode, such as voltage, resistance, or diode test. By rotating the switch to the appropriate position, the user can easily switch between AC and DC modes and accurately measure the desired electrical parameter.

67. At what percent of engine revolutions per minute (RPM) is the ignition system turned off?

26%

16%

94%

65%

The ignition system is turned off at 65% of engine revolutions per minute (RPM). This means that when the engine is running at 65% of its maximum RPM, the ignition system is shut off, causing the engine to stop running.

Explanation

The ignition system is turned off at 65% of engine revolutions per minute (RPM). This means that when the engine is running at 65% of its maximum RPM, the ignition system is shut off, causing the engine to stop running.

68. During an underspeed condition, what moves the pilot valve?

Decreased hydraulic pressure

Increased hydraulic pressure

Speeder spring

Flyweights

During an underspeed condition, the speeder spring moves the pilot valve. The speeder spring is designed to respond to changes in the engine speed and adjust the position of the pilot valve accordingly. In an underspeed condition, where the engine speed is lower than the desired level, the speeder spring will contract and move the pilot valve to increase the flow of hydraulic pressure, thus helping to increase the engine speed and bring it back to the desired level.

Explanation

During an underspeed condition, the speeder spring moves the pilot valve. The speeder spring is designed to respond to changes in the engine speed and adjust the position of the pilot valve accordingly. In an underspeed condition, where the engine speed is lower than the desired level, the speeder spring will contract and move the pilot valve to increase the flow of hydraulic pressure, thus helping to increase the engine speed and bring it back to the desired level.

69. Newton's Third Law of Motion explains why an operating jet engine produces

Forward acceleration

Reverse thrust

Reverse acceleration

Forward thrust

Newton's Third Law of Motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. In the case of an operating jet engine, the action is the expulsion of high-speed exhaust gases from the rear of the engine. As a result of this action, there is an equal and opposite reaction, which is the forward thrust that propels the jet engine and the aircraft forward. Therefore, the correct answer is forward thrust.

Explanation

Newton's Third Law of Motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. In the case of an operating jet engine, the action is the expulsion of high-speed exhaust gases from the rear of the engine. As a result of this action, there is an equal and opposite reaction, which is the forward thrust that propels the jet engine and the aircraft forward. Therefore, the correct answer is forward thrust.

70. During normal propeller operation, the output of which pumps is used?

Main pressure and main scavenge

Standby pressure and main scavenge.

Auxiliary pressure and main pressure

Auxiliary pressure and auxiliary scavenge.

During normal propeller operation, the output of the main pressure and main scavenge pumps is used. These pumps are responsible for maintaining the required pressure and scavenging the system to remove any contaminants or debris. The main pressure pump ensures that there is sufficient pressure for proper operation, while the main scavenge pump helps to remove any excess oil or gases from the system. Therefore, the output of these pumps is crucial for the propeller's normal operation.

Explanation

During normal propeller operation, the output of the main pressure and main scavenge pumps is used. These pumps are responsible for maintaining the required pressure and scavenging the system to remove any contaminants or debris. The main pressure pump ensures that there is sufficient pressure for proper operation, while the main scavenge pump helps to remove any excess oil or gases from the system. Therefore, the output of these pumps is crucial for the propeller's normal operation.

71. What type of energy does the C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) turbine section converts the hot gases produced by the combustion section into?

Electric

Hydro

Pneumatic

Mechanical

The C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) turbine section converts the hot gases produced by the combustion section into mechanical energy. This mechanical energy can be used to power various systems and components of the aircraft, such as generators, pumps, and hydraulic systems.

Explanation

The C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) turbine section converts the hot gases produced by the combustion section into mechanical energy. This mechanical energy can be used to power various systems and components of the aircraft, such as generators, pumps, and hydraulic systems.

72. Which two gears make up the first stage of reduction in the reduction gearbox (RGB)?

Sun and Planetary

Accessory drive and starter

Ring and ring coupling

Pinion input and main drive

The first stage of reduction in the reduction gearbox (RGB) is made up of the pinion input and main drive gears. These gears are responsible for transferring power from the input shaft to the main drive shaft, reducing the speed and increasing the torque in the process. The pinion input gear receives the rotational force from the input shaft, while the main drive gear is connected to the main drive shaft and transmits the power to the next stage of reduction.

Explanation

The first stage of reduction in the reduction gearbox (RGB) is made up of the pinion input and main drive gears. These gears are responsible for transferring power from the input shaft to the main drive shaft, reducing the speed and increasing the torque in the process. The pinion input gear receives the rotational force from the input shaft, while the main drive gear is connected to the main drive shaft and transmits the power to the next stage of reduction.

73. Which type of oil pump is used on the T56 engine?

Gear

Float

Gearotor

Centrifugal

The T56 engine uses a gear oil pump. This type of pump is commonly used in engines as it is reliable and efficient in delivering oil to lubricate various engine components. The gear pump consists of two gears that mesh together and rotate, creating a suction force that draws oil into the pump and then pushes it out under pressure to the necessary areas of the engine. This design allows for consistent and controlled oil flow, making it suitable for the T56 engine.

Explanation

The T56 engine uses a gear oil pump. This type of pump is commonly used in engines as it is reliable and efficient in delivering oil to lubricate various engine components. The gear pump consists of two gears that mesh together and rotate, creating a suction force that draws oil into the pump and then pushes it out under pressure to the necessary areas of the engine. This design allows for consistent and controlled oil flow, making it suitable for the T56 engine.

74. Which propeller subassembly will retain the prop blades?

Barrel

Prop hub

Blade retainer

PGB

The propeller subassembly that will retain the prop blades is the barrel. The barrel is designed to securely hold and encase the prop blades, ensuring that they remain in place during operation. This helps to maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the propeller system.

Explanation

The propeller subassembly that will retain the prop blades is the barrel. The barrel is designed to securely hold and encase the prop blades, ensuring that they remain in place during operation. This helps to maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the propeller system.

75. Oil from the interior of the air inlet housing drains into the bottom of the

Main oil pump

Accessory drive housing

External scavenge oil pump

Compressor front bearing cage

The correct answer is the Accessory drive housing. The oil from the interior of the air inlet housing drains into the bottom of the accessory drive housing. This is because the accessory drive housing is responsible for driving various engine accessories such as the alternator, power steering pump, and air conditioning compressor. It is designed to house these components and also serves as a reservoir for oil to lubricate them. Therefore, it makes sense for the oil to drain into the accessory drive housing to ensure proper lubrication and functioning of these accessories.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Accessory drive housing. The oil from the interior of the air inlet housing drains into the bottom of the accessory drive housing. This is because the accessory drive housing is responsible for driving various engine accessories such as the alternator, power steering pump, and air conditioning compressor. It is designed to house these components and also serves as a reservoir for oil to lubricate them. Therefore, it makes sense for the oil to drain into the accessory drive housing to ensure proper lubrication and functioning of these accessories.

76. Which type of horsepower is the power developed within the combustion chambers without reference to friction losses within the engine?

Brake

Indicated

Frictional

Equivalent shaft

Indicated horsepower is the power developed within the combustion chambers without considering friction losses within the engine. It represents the theoretical power output of the engine based on the pressure and volume changes occurring during the combustion process. This measurement is important for evaluating the efficiency and performance of the engine, as it provides an indication of the power generated solely by the combustion process itself, disregarding any losses caused by friction.

Explanation

Indicated horsepower is the power developed within the combustion chambers without considering friction losses within the engine. It represents the theoretical power output of the engine based on the pressure and volume changes occurring during the combustion process. This measurement is important for evaluating the efficiency and performance of the engine, as it provides an indication of the power generated solely by the combustion process itself, disregarding any losses caused by friction.

77. This C-130 aircraft auxiliary power unit (APU) component calibrates the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator to the thermocouple.

Thermocouple resistor.

Pneumatic thermostat.

EGT thermocouple

EGT power supply

The thermocouple resistor is the correct answer because it is the component that calibrates the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator to the thermocouple. A thermocouple resistor is a device that measures temperature by utilizing the principle of the Seebeck effect, which states that a temperature difference between two dissimilar metals creates a voltage difference. In this case, the thermocouple resistor is used to calibrate the EGT indicator to accurately measure the exhaust gas temperature in the C-130 aircraft.

Explanation

The thermocouple resistor is the correct answer because it is the component that calibrates the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator to the thermocouple. A thermocouple resistor is a device that measures temperature by utilizing the principle of the Seebeck effect, which states that a temperature difference between two dissimilar metals creates a voltage difference. In this case, the thermocouple resistor is used to calibrate the EGT indicator to accurately measure the exhaust gas temperature in the C-130 aircraft.

78. What is a function of the differential gear train assembly?

Drives the main and standby pressure pumps

Controls operation of the pilot valve and serves as an electrical ground.

Drives the rotating sleeve when the throttle is positioned in the beta range.

Transmits blade angle movement to the valve housing and drives the propeller governor flyweights

The differential gear train assembly is responsible for transmitting the blade angle movement to the valve housing and driving the propeller governor flyweights. This allows for the adjustment of the propeller blade angle and the regulation of engine power output.

Explanation

The differential gear train assembly is responsible for transmitting the blade angle movement to the valve housing and driving the propeller governor flyweights. This allows for the adjustment of the propeller blade angle and the regulation of engine power output.

79. Which pump assists the main pressure pump when large blade angle movements are required?

Main pump

Standby pressure

AUX pressure

AUX scavenge

The standby pressure pump assists the main pressure pump when large blade angle movements are required. This pump provides additional pressure to support the main pump in situations where the blade angle needs to be adjusted significantly.

Explanation

The standby pressure pump assists the main pressure pump when large blade angle movements are required. This pump provides additional pressure to support the main pump in situations where the blade angle needs to be adjusted significantly.

80. Which section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating?

3rd and 4th stage Low pressure Turbine (LPT)

Turbine section

Power Turbine (PT)

Combustion

The turbine section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating. As the hot gases from the combustion chamber pass through the turbine section, they cause the turbine blades to rotate. This rotation is then transferred to the compressor, which is located at the front of the engine. The compressor plays a crucial role in sucking in air, compressing it, and then passing it on to the combustion chamber. Therefore, the turbine section is responsible for maintaining the rotation of the compressor, ensuring the continuous flow of air through the engine.

Explanation

The turbine section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating. As the hot gases from the combustion chamber pass through the turbine section, they cause the turbine blades to rotate. This rotation is then transferred to the compressor, which is located at the front of the engine. The compressor plays a crucial role in sucking in air, compressing it, and then passing it on to the combustion chamber. Therefore, the turbine section is responsible for maintaining the rotation of the compressor, ensuring the continuous flow of air through the engine.

81. What switch in the control quadrant activates the governor speed bias servo when the throttle moves to flight idle gate?

Weight on wheels

Low speed ground idle

Synchrophaser disarming

Prop feather override

When the throttle moves to the flight idle gate, the governor speed bias servo is activated by the synchrophaser disarming switch in the control quadrant. This switch is responsible for disarming the synchrophaser, which is a device used to synchronize the propellers on multi-engine aircraft. By disarming the synchrophaser, the governor speed bias servo is able to adjust the propeller speed independently, allowing for better control and performance during flight idle.

Explanation

When the throttle moves to the flight idle gate, the governor speed bias servo is activated by the synchrophaser disarming switch in the control quadrant. This switch is responsible for disarming the synchrophaser, which is a device used to synchronize the propellers on multi-engine aircraft. By disarming the synchrophaser, the governor speed bias servo is able to adjust the propeller speed independently, allowing for better control and performance during flight idle.

82. What component monitors and records the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate?

NIU

FADEC

DEC

Mission computer

The NIU (Nonessential Integrated Unit) component monitors and records the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate. It is responsible for overseeing the ignition system and ensuring that the spark rate is within the desired range. This helps to maintain proper engine performance and reliability. The NIU plays a crucial role in monitoring and recording this specific aspect of the ignition system.

Explanation

The NIU (Nonessential Integrated Unit) component monitors and records the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate. It is responsible for overseeing the ignition system and ensuring that the spark rate is within the desired range. This helps to maintain proper engine performance and reliability. The NIU plays a crucial role in monitoring and recording this specific aspect of the ignition system.

83. Which switch energizes the starter control valve to the OPEN position?

Ground start

Speed-sensitive

Fuel enrichment

Secondary fuel pump pressure

The switch that energizes the starter control valve to the OPEN position is the ground start switch. This switch provides the necessary power to activate the starter control valve and initiate the starting process. It is specifically designed to engage the starter motor and allow fuel to flow into the engine for ignition. The ground start switch is an essential component in starting the engine and ensuring a smooth ignition sequence.

Explanation

The switch that energizes the starter control valve to the OPEN position is the ground start switch. This switch provides the necessary power to activate the starter control valve and initiate the starting process. It is specifically designed to engage the starter motor and allow fuel to flow into the engine for ignition. The ground start switch is an essential component in starting the engine and ensuring a smooth ignition sequence.

84. Which position is the propeller brake in when the aircraft is on the ground and the engine is stopped?

Locked

Applied

Engaged

Released

When the aircraft is on the ground and the engine is stopped, the propeller brake is "applied". This means that the brake is engaged or activated, preventing the propeller from rotating freely. The applied propeller brake ensures that the propeller remains stationary and prevents any unintended movement, providing safety and control while the aircraft is on the ground.

Explanation

When the aircraft is on the ground and the engine is stopped, the propeller brake is "applied". This means that the brake is engaged or activated, preventing the propeller from rotating freely. The applied propeller brake ensures that the propeller remains stationary and prevents any unintended movement, providing safety and control while the aircraft is on the ground.

85. The AE2100D3 starter control valve is spring-loaded to what position?

Opened

Closed

Fixed

Actuated

The AE2100D3 starter control valve is spring-loaded to the closed position. This means that when the spring is not being compressed, the valve remains closed, preventing the flow of any fluid or air.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 starter control valve is spring-loaded to the closed position. This means that when the spring is not being compressed, the valve remains closed, preventing the flow of any fluid or air.

86. What is the purpose of the front and rear cones?

Prevents the barrel from sliding off the prop shaft

Transfers hydraulic fluid to the dome piston

Provides torque transmission and alignment

Locks the dome piston at a position.

The front and rear cones in this context are used to provide torque transmission and alignment. This means that they help in transferring the rotational force (torque) from one component to another and also ensure that the components are properly aligned. They play a crucial role in maintaining the stability and efficiency of the system by ensuring that the torque is transmitted accurately and the components are properly aligned to prevent any issues or malfunctions.

Explanation

The front and rear cones in this context are used to provide torque transmission and alignment. This means that they help in transferring the rotational force (torque) from one component to another and also ensure that the components are properly aligned. They play a crucial role in maintaining the stability and efficiency of the system by ensuring that the torque is transmitted accurately and the components are properly aligned to prevent any issues or malfunctions.

87. Which valve assists the feather solenoid valve with positioning of the feather and pilot valves?

Feather actuating valve

High pressure relief

Standby

Backup

The feather actuating valve assists the feather solenoid valve with positioning of the feather and pilot valves. It is responsible for controlling the movement and positioning of these valves, ensuring that they function properly and accurately. Without the assistance of the feather actuating valve, the feather and pilot valves may not be able to operate effectively, leading to potential malfunctions or failures in the system.

Explanation

The feather actuating valve assists the feather solenoid valve with positioning of the feather and pilot valves. It is responsible for controlling the movement and positioning of these valves, ensuring that they function properly and accurately. Without the assistance of the feather actuating valve, the feather and pilot valves may not be able to operate effectively, leading to potential malfunctions or failures in the system.

88. What is not a propeller brake position?

Locked

Applied

Released

Engaged

The propeller brake position "engaged" is not a valid option because engaging the propeller brake means activating it, which is a propeller brake position. Therefore, "engaged" cannot be the answer to the question.

Explanation

The propeller brake position "engaged" is not a valid option because engaging the propeller brake means activating it, which is a propeller brake position. Therefore, "engaged" cannot be the answer to the question.

89. Which technical order (TO) covers calibration procedures for torque wrenches?

1–1A–8 series.

1–1A–14 series.

32–1–101series

33K6 series.

The 33K6 series is the correct answer because it covers calibration procedures for torque wrenches.

Explanation

The 33K6 series is the correct answer because it covers calibration procedures for torque wrenches.

90. Which law may you sum up with the words action and reaction?

Bernoulli's Principle

Newton's First Law of Motion

Newton's Second Law of Motion

Newton's Third Law of Motion

Newton's Third Law of Motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. This means that whenever an object exerts a force on another object, the second object exerts a force of equal magnitude but in the opposite direction on the first object. Therefore, the law can be summed up with the words "action" and "reaction", making it the correct answer for this question.

Explanation

Newton's Third Law of Motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. This means that whenever an object exerts a force on another object, the second object exerts a force of equal magnitude but in the opposite direction on the first object. Therefore, the law can be summed up with the words "action" and "reaction", making it the correct answer for this question.

91. What is coordinated by the throttle in the controllable pitch range?

Prop pitch and engine fuel flow

Blade pitch and temperature limiting

Engine fuel flow and constant speed governing

Temperature limiting and constant speed governing

The throttle is responsible for coordinating the prop pitch and engine fuel flow in the controllable pitch range. The prop pitch refers to the angle of the propeller blades, which can be adjusted to control the amount of thrust generated. The engine fuel flow, on the other hand, determines the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine, which affects the power output. By coordinating these two factors, the throttle ensures optimal performance and efficiency in the controllable pitch range.

Explanation

The throttle is responsible for coordinating the prop pitch and engine fuel flow in the controllable pitch range. The prop pitch refers to the angle of the propeller blades, which can be adjusted to control the amount of thrust generated. The engine fuel flow, on the other hand, determines the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine, which affects the power output. By coordinating these two factors, the throttle ensures optimal performance and efficiency in the controllable pitch range.

92. Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provide at engine takeoff power?

3

7

5

9

The AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provides approximately 5 gallons per minute (GPM) at engine takeoff power.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provides approximately 5 gallons per minute (GPM) at engine takeoff power.

93. The power section and reduction gearbox (RGB) oil systems are joined together at the

Fuel heater and strainer

External scavenge oil filter

External scavenge oil pump

Scavenge element of the main pump

The power section and reduction gearbox (RGB) oil systems are joined together at the external scavenge oil filter. This filter is responsible for removing any contaminants or debris from the oil before it is circulated back into the system. By having the power section and RGB oil systems connected at this point, it ensures that both systems benefit from the filtration process and have clean oil for optimal performance and lubrication.

Explanation

The power section and reduction gearbox (RGB) oil systems are joined together at the external scavenge oil filter. This filter is responsible for removing any contaminants or debris from the oil before it is circulated back into the system. By having the power section and RGB oil systems connected at this point, it ensures that both systems benefit from the filtration process and have clean oil for optimal performance and lubrication.

94. When standby pump output is not required, where is it routed?

Atmospheric sump

Pressurized sump

Dome assembly

Pilot valve

The standby pump output is routed to the pressurized sump when it is not required. This means that the pump's output is directed to a sump that is already under pressure. This allows for the pump to maintain the pressure in the system even when it is not actively being used. Routing the output to the pressurized sump ensures that the system remains pressurized and ready for use at all times.

Explanation

The standby pump output is routed to the pressurized sump when it is not required. This means that the pump's output is directed to a sump that is already under pressure. This allows for the pump to maintain the pressure in the system even when it is not actively being used. Routing the output to the pressurized sump ensures that the system remains pressurized and ready for use at all times.

95. Which component functions as an on-off control for the air supply that is sent to the starter?

Air turbine

Ground start switch

Secondary fuel pump pressure switch

Starter control valve

The starter control valve functions as an on-off control for the air supply that is sent to the starter. It regulates the flow of air to the starter, allowing it to be turned on or off as needed. This valve is responsible for controlling the air supply and starting the engine.

Explanation

The starter control valve functions as an on-off control for the air supply that is sent to the starter. It regulates the flow of air to the starter, allowing it to be turned on or off as needed. This valve is responsible for controlling the air supply and starting the engine.

96. Which is a function of the pitch lock regulator?

Prevents the blades from increasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost.

Prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost.

Prevents the cam bearing rollers from bottoming out in the track slopes

Prevents the propeller from going into beta range when throttle is in alpha range.

The pitch lock regulator is responsible for preventing the blades from decreasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost. This is important because if the blades were allowed to decrease pitch without hydraulic pressure, it could result in a loss of control or stability of the aircraft. By maintaining the pitch of the blades, the pitch lock regulator ensures that the aircraft can still maintain a safe and controlled flight even in the event of hydraulic pressure loss.

Explanation

The pitch lock regulator is responsible for preventing the blades from decreasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost. This is important because if the blades were allowed to decrease pitch without hydraulic pressure, it could result in a loss of control or stability of the aircraft. By maintaining the pitch of the blades, the pitch lock regulator ensures that the aircraft can still maintain a safe and controlled flight even in the event of hydraulic pressure loss.

97. After combustion, the resulting hot gases flow through the bottom of the C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) combustion can and into the

Deswirl ring.

Turbine torus.

Exhaust flange.

Turbine plenum

After combustion, the hot gases from the C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) flow through the bottom of the APU combustion can. From there, the gases enter the turbine torus, which is a component that helps to direct and control the flow of exhaust gases. The turbine torus is responsible for ensuring that the gases are properly channeled towards the exhaust flange and the turbine plenum, where further processes occur.

Explanation

After combustion, the hot gases from the C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) flow through the bottom of the APU combustion can. From there, the gases enter the turbine torus, which is a component that helps to direct and control the flow of exhaust gases. The turbine torus is responsible for ensuring that the gases are properly channeled towards the exhaust flange and the turbine plenum, where further processes occur.

98. Which switch located in the valve housing is opened by a cam from 81 to 85 degrees propeller blade angle?

NTS

Beta indicator

Pressure cutout backup (PCBS)

Governor

The correct answer is Pressure cutout backup (PCBS). The PCBS switch is opened by a cam from 81 to 85 degrees propeller blade angle. This switch is located in the valve housing and serves as a backup in case of pressure cutout failure. It helps to ensure the safe operation of the propeller system by activating when the propeller blade angle reaches a certain range.

Explanation

The correct answer is Pressure cutout backup (PCBS). The PCBS switch is opened by a cam from 81 to 85 degrees propeller blade angle. This switch is located in the valve housing and serves as a backup in case of pressure cutout failure. It helps to ensure the safe operation of the propeller system by activating when the propeller blade angle reaches a certain range.

99. Which valve sets and maintains a PSID of about 100 pounds per square inch (psi) between system pressure and the increase- or decrease-pitch pressure?

Check

Bypass

Low pressure relief

High pressure relief

The low pressure relief valve is responsible for setting and maintaining a PSID of about 100 psi between system pressure and the increase- or decrease-pitch pressure. This valve is designed to release excess pressure when it falls below the desired level, ensuring that the pressure remains within the specified range.

Explanation

The low pressure relief valve is responsible for setting and maintaining a PSID of about 100 psi between system pressure and the increase- or decrease-pitch pressure. This valve is designed to release excess pressure when it falls below the desired level, ensuring that the pressure remains within the specified range.

100. The AE2100D3 GMAD supplies the pads and drives for the AC generator, hydraulic pump, PGB lube and scavenge pump, propeller overspeed governor (OSG) and high-pressure pump, and the

FPMU

Starter

PCU

Alternator stator

The given answer "PCU" is correct because it stands for Power Control Unit. In the given context, the AE2100D3 GMAD supplies the pads and drives for various components, including the PCU. The PCU is responsible for controlling and regulating the power distribution to different systems and components in an aircraft. Therefore, it makes sense for the PCU to be included in the list of components supplied by the AE2100D3 GMAD.

Explanation

The given answer "PCU" is correct because it stands for Power Control Unit. In the given context, the AE2100D3 GMAD supplies the pads and drives for various components, including the PCU. The PCU is responsible for controlling and regulating the power distribution to different systems and components in an aircraft. Therefore, it makes sense for the PCU to be included in the list of components supplied by the AE2100D3 GMAD.

101. The four sections of the T56 engine power unit are the compressor, combustion, turbine, and

PUAD

Tourquemeter

RGB

Accessory drive housing assembly

The four sections of the T56 engine power unit are the compressor, combustion, turbine, and accessory drive housing assembly. The accessory drive housing assembly is responsible for driving various accessories such as generators, hydraulic pumps, and fuel pumps. It is an essential component that helps to power and operate these accessories, ensuring the proper functioning of the engine.

Explanation

The four sections of the T56 engine power unit are the compressor, combustion, turbine, and accessory drive housing assembly. The accessory drive housing assembly is responsible for driving various accessories such as generators, hydraulic pumps, and fuel pumps. It is an essential component that helps to power and operate these accessories, ensuring the proper functioning of the engine.

102. Which component does the thermostat bleed air pressure away from during the C-130 aircraft auxiliary power unit's (APU) start and acceleration?

Load control valve.

Acceleration control diaphragm.

Pneumatic thermostat.

Compressor discharge solenoid.

During the start and acceleration of the C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU), the thermostat bleeds air pressure away from the acceleration control diaphragm. This component is responsible for controlling the acceleration of the APU. By bleeding air pressure, the thermostat helps regulate and maintain the proper acceleration of the APU, ensuring smooth and efficient operation.

Explanation

During the start and acceleration of the C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU), the thermostat bleeds air pressure away from the acceleration control diaphragm. This component is responsible for controlling the acceleration of the APU. By bleeding air pressure, the thermostat helps regulate and maintain the proper acceleration of the APU, ensuring smooth and efficient operation.

103. During beta range operation, the rotation of which cam moves the mechanical linkage to center the governor pilot valve?

Beta set

Speed set

Beta follow-up

Backup valve

During beta range operation, the rotation of the beta set cam moves the mechanical linkage to center the governor pilot valve.

Explanation

During beta range operation, the rotation of the beta set cam moves the mechanical linkage to center the governor pilot valve.

104. "An unbalanced force on a body produces or tends to produce acceleration in the direction of the force and that the acceleration, if any, is directly proportional to the force and inversely proportional to the mass of the body." This statement is?

Bernoulli's Principle

Newton's First Law of Motion

Newton's Second Law of Motion

Newton's Third Law of Motion

This statement describes Newton's Second Law of Motion. According to this law, an unbalanced force acting on an object will cause the object to accelerate in the direction of the force. The acceleration is directly proportional to the force applied and inversely proportional to the mass of the object. This law is often summarized by the equation F = ma, where F represents the force, m represents the mass, and a represents the acceleration.

Explanation

This statement describes Newton's Second Law of Motion. According to this law, an unbalanced force acting on an object will cause the object to accelerate in the direction of the force. The acceleration is directly proportional to the force applied and inversely proportional to the mass of the object. This law is often summarized by the equation F = ma, where F represents the force, m represents the mass, and a represents the acceleration.

105. What component contains the alternating current (AC) generator located on C-130 type aircraft that incorporates the gas turbine compressor (GTC)?

GTC compressor section.

GTC accessory gearbox

Air turbine motor.

Right wheel well.

The air turbine motor is the component that contains the alternating current (AC) generator located on C-130 type aircraft that incorporates the gas turbine compressor (GTC). The air turbine motor is responsible for driving the AC generator, which produces the alternating current needed for various electrical systems on the aircraft.

Explanation

The air turbine motor is the component that contains the alternating current (AC) generator located on C-130 type aircraft that incorporates the gas turbine compressor (GTC). The air turbine motor is responsible for driving the AC generator, which produces the alternating current needed for various electrical systems on the aircraft.

106. Between the blade angles of 25 and 55 degrees, what will keep the rotating and stationary ratchets disengaged?

The pitch lock control cam

A loss of hydraulic pressure

Increase- or decrease pitch-pressure

An overspeed of 103.5%

The pitch lock control cam is the correct answer because it is responsible for keeping the rotating and stationary ratchets disengaged within the specified blade angles. It ensures that the blades do not engage or lock in position when they are not supposed to, allowing for proper control and adjustment of the pitch.

Explanation

The pitch lock control cam is the correct answer because it is responsible for keeping the rotating and stationary ratchets disengaged within the specified blade angles. It ensures that the blades do not engage or lock in position when they are not supposed to, allowing for proper control and adjustment of the pitch.

107. Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located?

On the dial face.

At the end of the anvil.

At the end of the thimble.

At the end of a pivoted lever.

The contact point on a dial indicator is located at the end of a pivoted lever. This lever is used to transfer the displacement of the measured object to the dial face, allowing for accurate readings. The anvil and thimble are not the contact points on a dial indicator, but rather serve other functions in the measurement process.

Explanation

The contact point on a dial indicator is located at the end of a pivoted lever. This lever is used to transfer the displacement of the measured object to the dial face, allowing for accurate readings. The anvil and thimble are not the contact points on a dial indicator, but rather serve other functions in the measurement process.

108. Which switch, within the multiple centrifugal switch assembly, opens a circuit to stop the C- 130 aircraft auxiliary power unit's (APU) ignition unit?

15

65

95

110

The correct answer is 95. Within the multiple centrifugal switch assembly, the switch labeled 95 opens a circuit to stop the C-130 aircraft auxiliary power unit's (APU) ignition unit. This switch is specifically designed to interrupt the flow of electricity and prevent the APU from igniting, ensuring the safety of the aircraft.

Explanation

The correct answer is 95. Within the multiple centrifugal switch assembly, the switch labeled 95 opens a circuit to stop the C-130 aircraft auxiliary power unit's (APU) ignition unit. This switch is specifically designed to interrupt the flow of electricity and prevent the APU from igniting, ensuring the safety of the aircraft.

109. During propeller feathering operation, which valve blocks off the standby pump output and causes hydraulic pressure to increase?

Feather solenoid

Feather

Standby check

Feather actuating

The feather actuating valve blocks off the standby pump output and causes hydraulic pressure to increase during propeller feathering operation. This valve is responsible for controlling the movement of the propeller blades into the feathered position. By blocking off the standby pump output, it ensures that hydraulic pressure is directed towards the feathering mechanism, allowing the propeller blades to be properly feathered.

Explanation

The feather actuating valve blocks off the standby pump output and causes hydraulic pressure to increase during propeller feathering operation. This valve is responsible for controlling the movement of the propeller blades into the feathered position. By blocking off the standby pump output, it ensures that hydraulic pressure is directed towards the feathering mechanism, allowing the propeller blades to be properly feathered.

110. Which valve is a backup in case the feather valve fails during feathering operation?

Pilot

Feather actuating

Governor

Feather backup

The pilot valve is a backup in case the feather valve fails during feathering operation. This valve helps to control the flow of fluid or air and is designed to activate the feather actuating mechanism when the feather valve fails. It acts as a safety measure to ensure that the feathering operation can still be performed even if the main feather valve malfunctions.

Explanation

The pilot valve is a backup in case the feather valve fails during feathering operation. This valve helps to control the flow of fluid or air and is designed to activate the feather actuating mechanism when the feather valve fails. It acts as a safety measure to ensure that the feathering operation can still be performed even if the main feather valve malfunctions.

111. The acceleration control valve compares these two inputs to schedule the proper fuel-flow to the atomizer during a C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) acceleration.

RPM and EGT

CDP and fuel pressure

CIT and RPM

EGT and fuel pressure

The acceleration control valve uses the inputs of CDP (Compressor Discharge Pressure) and fuel pressure to determine the appropriate fuel-flow to the atomizer during the acceleration of a C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU). These two parameters are crucial in ensuring that the APU receives the correct amount of fuel for optimal performance during acceleration. RPM and EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) are not mentioned in relation to the acceleration control valve, so they are not the correct inputs for this particular system.

Explanation

The acceleration control valve uses the inputs of CDP (Compressor Discharge Pressure) and fuel pressure to determine the appropriate fuel-flow to the atomizer during the acceleration of a C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU). These two parameters are crucial in ensuring that the APU receives the correct amount of fuel for optimal performance during acceleration. RPM and EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) are not mentioned in relation to the acceleration control valve, so they are not the correct inputs for this particular system.

112. Which cam disarms the negative torque signal (NTS) system linkage when the throttle is positioned in the beta range?

Manual feather

Beta set

Beta follow-up

Speed set

The correct answer is "Manual feather". When the throttle is positioned in the beta range, the negative torque signal (NTS) system linkage is disarmed by the manual feather cam. This cam is responsible for controlling the feathering of the propeller blades, and in the beta range, it ensures that the NTS system does not interfere with the throttle control.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Manual feather". When the throttle is positioned in the beta range, the negative torque signal (NTS) system linkage is disarmed by the manual feather cam. This cam is responsible for controlling the feathering of the propeller blades, and in the beta range, it ensures that the NTS system does not interfere with the throttle control.

113. The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the

Shaft index

Lock

Hand grip

Broached opening

The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the shaft index. The shaft index refers to the point on the shaft where the torque is applied. This distance is crucial in determining the torque applied to a fastener, as it affects the leverage and force exerted on the fastener.

Explanation

The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the shaft index. The shaft index refers to the point on the shaft where the torque is applied. This distance is crucial in determining the torque applied to a fastener, as it affects the leverage and force exerted on the fastener.

114. Which valve joins the main, standby, and auxiliary pumps to increase pitch during NTS conditions?

High pressure relief

Feather

Pilot

Governor

During NTS (Negative Torque Sensing) conditions, the valve that joins the main, standby, and auxiliary pumps to increase pitch is called the feather valve. This valve controls the flow of oil to the propeller blades, allowing them to move into the feathered position. Feathering the propeller reduces drag and allows the aircraft to maintain a controlled descent in the event of an engine failure or other NTS conditions.

Explanation

During NTS (Negative Torque Sensing) conditions, the valve that joins the main, standby, and auxiliary pumps to increase pitch is called the feather valve. This valve controls the flow of oil to the propeller blades, allowing them to move into the feathered position. Feathering the propeller reduces drag and allows the aircraft to maintain a controlled descent in the event of an engine failure or other NTS conditions.

115. Which cam cancels the beta set cam command and stop blade movement at the proper blade angle?

Alpha back-up valve

Beta follow-up

Manual feather

Speed set

The alpha back-up valve cancels the beta set cam command and stops the blade movement at the proper blade angle. This suggests that the alpha back-up valve is a mechanism or device that overrides or counteracts the beta set cam command, ensuring that the blade is positioned correctly.

Explanation

The alpha back-up valve cancels the beta set cam command and stops the blade movement at the proper blade angle. This suggests that the alpha back-up valve is a mechanism or device that overrides or counteracts the beta set cam command, ensuring that the blade is positioned correctly.