2A651H EOC Pretest 1

115 Questions

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Economy Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying

    • B. 

      Maintenance, operations, QA

    • C. 

      QA, support, aircraft maintenance

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Operations Support Center

    • B. 

      Logistics Support Squadron

    • C. 

      Operations Support Squadron

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

  • 3. 
    When you  are assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?
    • A. 

      Maintenance

    • B. 

      Accessories

    • C. 

      Fabrication

    • D. 

      Munitions

  • 4. 
    When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?
    • A. 

      Debrief

    • B. 

      Specialist

    • C. 

      Deployment

    • D. 

      Training

  • 5. 
    What does the fifth position of the AFSC 3A652 represent?
    • A. 

      Career field subdivision

    • B. 

      Specific AFSC

    • C. 

      Career field

    • D. 

      Skill level

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      OJT

    • B. 

      Task qualification

    • C. 

      CDCs

    • D. 

      NCOA

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      36

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      18

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      MSDS

    • B. 

      AFOSH

    • C. 

      ORM

    • D. 

      Flight-line saftey

  • 9. 
    Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series?
    • A. 

      55

    • B. 

      66

    • C. 

      91

    • D. 

      92

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      21-110

    • B. 

      00-20-1

    • C. 

      00-20-2

    • D. 

      21-101

  • 11. 
    The compressor bleed air supplied by small gas turbine (SGT) engines is not used for the
    • A. 

      Heating the fuel supplied to the engines

    • B. 

      Starting the main engines.

    • C. 

      Pressurizing the aircraft.

    • D. 

      Air-conditioning system.

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      GTC compressor section.

    • B. 

      GTC accessory gearbox

    • C. 

      Air turbine motor.

    • D. 

      Right wheel well.

  • 13. 
    This statement applies when either the auxiliary power unit (APU) or the gas turbine compressor (GTC) is installed on C-130 aircraft.
    • A. 

      GTC can only be operated while the aircraft is flying.

    • B. 

      APU can only be operated while the aircraft is on the ground

    • C. 

      APU can be operated whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying.

    • D. 

      GTC can be operated whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying

  • 14. 
    After combustion, the resulting hot gases flow through the bottom of the C-130 aircraft’s auxiliary power unit (APU) combustion can and into the
    • A. 

      Deswirl ring.

    • B. 

      Turbine torus.

    • C. 

      Exhaust flange.

    • D. 

      Turbine plenum

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Electric

    • B. 

      Hydro

    • C. 

      Pneumatic

    • D. 

      Mechanical

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      65

    • C. 

      95

    • D. 

      110

  • 17. 
    This C-130 aircraft auxiliary power unit (APU) component calibrates the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator to the thermocouple.
    • A. 

      Thermocouple resistor.

    • B. 

      Pneumatic thermostat.

    • C. 

      EGT thermocouple

    • D. 

      EGT power supply

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      Wet

    • B. 

      Dry

    • C. 

      Reserve

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 19. 
    The acceleration control valve compares these two inputs to schedule the proper fuel-flow to the atomizer during a C-130 aircraft’s auxiliary power unit (APU) acceleration.
    • A. 

      RPM and EGT

    • B. 

      CDP and fuel pressure

    • C. 

      CIT and RPM

    • D. 

      EGT and fuel pressure

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      Load control valve.

    • B. 

      Acceleration control diaphragm.

    • C. 

      Pneumatic thermostat.

    • D. 

      Compressor discharge solenoid.

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      PUAD

    • B. 

      GMAD

    • C. 

      FPMU

    • D. 

      Inlet scroll case

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      14-stage axial-flow

    • B. 

      5-stage axial, 1-stage centrifugal

    • C. 

      14-stage dual spool compressor

    • D. 

      14-stage axial-flow, 1-stage centrifugal

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      16

    • D. 

      18

  • 24. 
    The AE2100D3 GMAD supplies the pads and drives for the AC generator, hydraulic pump, PGB lube and scavenge pump, propeller overspeed governor (OSG) and high-pressure pump, and the
    • A. 

      FPMU

    • B. 

      Starter

    • C. 

      PCU

    • D. 

      Alternator stator

  • 25. 
    The AE2100D3 starter control valve is spring-loaded to what position?
    • A. 

      Opened

    • B. 

      Closed

    • C. 

      Fixed

    • D. 

      Actuated

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Pneumatically.

    • B. 

      Electrically.

    • C. 

      Hydraulically.

    • D. 

      Hydro-electrically.

  • 27. 
    From where does the AE2100D3 ignition system receive its electrical power? 
    • A. 

      FADEC

    • B. 

      Alternator stator 20-40 VAC

    • C. 

      Aircraft battery

    • D. 

      28 VDC

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      NIU

    • B. 

      FADEC

    • C. 

      DEC

    • D. 

      Mission computer

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      2-5

    • B. 

      4-7

    • C. 

      1-3

    • D. 

      3-6

  • 30. 
    Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provide at engine takeoff power?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      9

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      Barrel

    • B. 

      Prop hub

    • C. 

      Blade retainer

    • D. 

      PGB

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      Prevents the barrel from sliding off the prop shaft

    • B. 

      Transfers hydraulic fluid to the dome piston

    • C. 

      Provides torque transmission and alignment

    • D. 

      Locks the dome piston at a position.

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      Prevents the blades from increasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost.

    • B. 

      Prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost.

    • C. 

      Prevents the cam bearing rollers from bottoming out in the track slopes

    • D. 

      Prevents the propeller from going into beta range when throttle is in alpha range.

  • 34. 
    • A. 

      Prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle in is alpha range

    • B. 

      Limits cam travel and prevents the prop from exceeding feather and reverse blade angles

    • C. 

      Prevents blades from decreasing pitch if an overspeed condition occurs

    • D. 

      Transmits engine torque to the blades

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Deicer contact ring holder

    • B. 

      Hub mounting bulkhead

    • C. 

      Front spinner

    • D. 

      Afterbody

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      Drives the main and standby pressure pumps

    • B. 

      Controls operation of the pilot valve and serves as an electrical ground.

    • C. 

      Drives the rotating sleeve when the throttle is positioned in the beta range.

    • D. 

      Transmits blade angle movement to the valve housing and drives the propeller governor flyweights

  • 37. 
    During normal propeller operation, the output of which pumps is used?
    • A. 

      Main pressure and main scavenge

    • B. 

      Standby pressure and main scavenge.

    • C. 

      Auxiliary pressure and main pressure

    • D. 

      Auxiliary pressure and auxiliary scavenge.

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      Main pump

    • B. 

      Standby pressure

    • C. 

      AUX pressure

    • D. 

      AUX scavenge

  • 39. 
    Which cam disarms the negative torque signal (NTS) system linkage when the throttle is positioned in the beta range?
    • A. 

      Manual feather

    • B. 

      Beta set

    • C. 

      Beta follow-up

    • D. 

      Speed set

  • 40. 
    Which cam cancels the beta set cam command and stop blade movement at the proper blade angle?
    • A. 

      Alpha back-up valve

    • B. 

      Beta follow-up

    • C. 

      Manual feather

    • D. 

      Speed set

  • 41. 
    • A. 

      Standby

    • B. 

      Feather

    • C. 

      Pilot

    • D. 

      Backup

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      High pressure relief

    • B. 

      Feather

    • C. 

      Pilot

    • D. 

      Governor

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      Feather actuating valve

    • B. 

      High pressure relief

    • C. 

      Standby

    • D. 

      Backup

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      NTS

    • B. 

      Beta indicator

    • C. 

      Pressure cutout backup (PCBS)

    • D. 

      Governor

  • 45. 
    In the control quadrant, the throttle lever gate that separates alpha and beta ranges represent the
    • A. 

      Highest degree setting on the coordinator protractor

    • B. 

      Lowest degree setting on the coordinator protector

    • C. 

      Highest possible power setting for flight

    • D. 

      Lowest possible power setting for flight

  • 46. 
    What switch in the control quadrant activates the governor speed bias servo when the throttle moves to flight idle gate?
    • A. 

      Weight on wheels

    • B. 

      Low speed ground idle

    • C. 

      Synchrophaser disarming

    • D. 

      Prop feather override

  • 47. 
    The output of what pump is sufficient to supply hydraulic pressure for normal propeller operation?
    • A. 

      AUX pressure

    • B. 

      Main pressure

    • C. 

      Backup pressure

    • D. 

      Standby pressure

  • 48. 
    If the main filter becomes clogged, which valve opens to assure continued flow? 
    • A. 

      Check

    • B. 

      Bypass

    • C. 

      Low pressure relief

    • D. 

      High pressure relief

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      Check

    • B. 

      Bypass

    • C. 

      Low pressure relief

    • D. 

      High pressure relief

  • 50. 
    When standby pump output is not required, where is it routed? 
    • A. 

      Atmospheric sump

    • B. 

      Pressurized sump

    • C. 

      Dome assembly

    • D. 

      Pilot valve

  • 51. 
    • A. 

      The pitch lock control cam

    • B. 

      A loss of hydraulic pressure

    • C. 

      Increase- or decrease pitch-pressure

    • D. 

      An overspeed of 103.5%

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      Prop pitch and engine fuel flow

    • B. 

      Blade pitch and temperature limiting

    • C. 

      Engine fuel flow and constant speed governing

    • D. 

      Temperature limiting and constant speed governing

  • 53. 
    Constant speed can only occur when the throttle is positioned from
    • A. 

      GND IDLE to FLT IDLE

    • B. 

      FLT IDLE to TAKE OFF

    • C. 

      RVS to GRND IDLE

    • D. 

      RVS to FLT IDLE

  • 54. 
    During beta range operation, the rotation of which cam moves the mechanical linkage to center the governor pilot valve?
    • A. 

      Beta set

    • B. 

      Speed set

    • C. 

      Beta follow-up

    • D. 

      Backup valve

  • 55. 
    Once an overspeed condition is corrected and the pilot valve is returned to the center position, what is the result?
    • A. 

      Hydraulic fluid flow to the dome assembly is increased

    • B. 

      Blades will move to the feather position

    • C. 

      Prop will start to underspeed

    • D. 

      Prop is on-speed

  • 56. 
    During an underspeed condition, what moves the pilot valve?
    • A. 

      Decreased hydraulic pressure

    • B. 

      Increased hydraulic pressure

    • C. 

      Speeder spring

    • D. 

      Flyweights

  • 57. 
    During feather operation, the feather valve is positioned to meter hydraulic fluid to where?
    • A. 

      Aft end of the dome piston

    • B. 

      Forward end of the dome piston

    • C. 

      Increase-pitch side of the pilot valve

    • D. 

      Decrease-pitch side of the pilot valve

  • 58. 
    Which valve is a backup in case the feather valve fails during feathering operation?
    • A. 

      Pilot

    • B. 

      Feather actuating

    • C. 

      Governor

    • D. 

      Feather backup

  • 59. 
    During propeller feathering operation, which valve blocks off the standby pump output and causes hydraulic pressure to increase?
    • A. 

      Feather solenoid

    • B. 

      Feather

    • C. 

      Standby check

    • D. 

      Feather actuating

  • 60. 
    During feather operation, between approximately what pounds per square inch (psi) are the pressure cutout switch contacts opened?
    • A. 

      900 to 1,100

    • B. 

      300 to 500

    • C. 

      600 to 800

    • D. 

      0 to 200

  • 61. 
    "An unbalanced force on a body produces or tends to produce acceleration in the direction of the force and that the acceleration, if any, is directly proportional to the force and inversely proportional to the mass of the body." This statement is?
    • A. 

      Bernoulli's Principle

    • B. 

      Newton's First Law of Motion

    • C. 

      Newton's Second Law of Motion

    • D. 

      Newton's Third Law of Motion

  • 62. 
    Newton's Third Law of Motion explains why an operating jet engine produces
    • A. 

      Forward acceleration

    • B. 

      Reverse thrust

    • C. 

      Reverse acceleration

    • D. 

      Forward thrust

  • 63. 
    Which law may you sum up with the words action and reaction?
    • A. 

      Bernoulli's Principle

    • B. 

      Newton's First Law of Motion

    • C. 

      Newton's Second Law of Motion

    • D. 

      Newton's Third Law of Motion

  • 64. 
    The temperature of compressor air in a jet engine must be raised to
    • A. 

      Increase air efficiency

    • B. 

      Decrease energy

    • C. 

      Increase energy

    • D. 

      Decrease volume

  • 65. 
    Which section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating?
    • A. 

      3rd and 4th stage Low pressure Turbine (LPT)

    • B. 

      Turbine section

    • C. 

      Power Turbine (PT)

    • D. 

      Combustion

  • 66. 
    Through which section of a jet engine is energy expended into the atmosphere, resulting in thrust?
    • A. 

      Power Turbine (PT)

    • B. 

      Exhaust

    • C. 

      Trust Reverser (TR)

    • D. 

      Combustion

  • 67. 
    Which type of horsepower is the power developed within the combustion chambers without reference to friction losses within the engine?
    • A. 

      Brake

    • B. 

      Indicated

    • C. 

      Frictional

    • D. 

      Equivalent shaft

  • 68. 
    Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?
    • A. 

      Psychomotor

    • B. 

      Thermometer

    • C. 

      Barometer

    • D. 

      Potentiometer

  • 69. 
    The standard atmospheric pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) is equal to
    • A. 

      29.93 psi

    • B. 

      29.92 psi

    • C. 

      13.54 psi

    • D. 

      14.7 psi

  • 70. 
    The actual amount of the water vapor in a mixture of air and water is the definition of
    • A. 

      Pressure altitude (PA)

    • B. 

      Relative humidity

    • C. 

      Absolute humidity

    • D. 

      Atmospheric pressure

  • 71. 
    The ratio of the amount of water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure is the definition of
    • A. 

      Pressure altitude

    • B. 

      Relative humidity

    • C. 

      Atmospheric pressure

    • D. 

      Absolute humidity

  • 72. 
    The major sections of a turboprop engine are the power unit, torquemeter assembly, and
    • A. 

      Turbine section

    • B. 

      Compressor section

    • C. 

      Combustion section

    • D. 

      RGB

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      3.124 to1

    • B. 

      13,54 to 1

    • C. 

      13.54 to 1

    • D. 

      13,80 to 1

  • 74. 
    The four sections of the T56 engine power unit are the compressor, combustion, turbine, and 
    • A. 

      PUAD

    • B. 

      Tourquemeter

    • C. 

      RGB

    • D. 

      Accessory drive housing assembly

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      Compressor rotor

    • B. 

      14th stage stator vane assembly

    • C. 

      Diffuser

    • D. 

      Compressor air despenser

  • 76. 
    During flight range operation, what maintains the T56 engine at a constant engine speed of 13,820 revolutions per minute (RPM)?
    • A. 

      Hydro system

    • B. 

      Electric system

    • C. 

      Propeller governing system

    • D. 

      FADEC

  • 77. 
    • A. 

      Sun and Planetary

    • B. 

      Accessory drive and starter

    • C. 

      Ring and ring coupling

    • D. 

      Pinion input and main drive

  • 78. 
    • A. 

      13,54 : 1

    • B. 

      13.54 : 1

    • C. 

      13'54 : 1

    • D. 

      1.354 : 1

  • 79. 
    • A. 

      Locked

    • B. 

      Applied

    • C. 

      Released

    • D. 

      Engaged

  • 80. 
    When the engine is running above 23% revolutions per minute (RPM), the propeller brake is held in the position by the 
    • A. 

      Release spring

    • B. 

      Outer member and accessory drive gear

    • C. 

      Starter gear

    • D. 

      RGB oil pressure

  • 81. 
    • A. 

      Locked

    • B. 

      Applied

    • C. 

      Engaged

    • D. 

      Released

  • 82. 
    When the engine is operating at a throttle setting of Flight Idle or above, what preset limit of inch-pounds of torque must be exceeded in order for the negative torque signal (NTS) system to actuate the actuator rod? 
    • A. 

      -1,020 + 400

    • B. 

      -1,140 + 500

    • C. 

      -1,260 + or - 600

    • D. 

      1,260 + 600

  • 83. 
    When the engine is operating below Flight Idle, the negative torque signal (NTS) system is 
    • A. 

      Mechanically locked out

    • B. 

      Electrically locked out

    • C. 

      Spring pressure locked

    • D. 

      Hydraulically locked out

  • 84. 
    Torque is transferred from the power unit to the safety coupling on the reduction gearbox (RGB) by the 
    • A. 

      Compressor extension shaft

    • B. 

      Reference shaft

    • C. 

      Torque meter housing

    • D. 

      Torque shaft

  • 85. 
    The amount of twisting deflection is determined by the 
    • A. 

      Pinion gear

    • B. 

      Reference shaft

    • C. 

      Safety coupling

    • D. 

      Torque shaft

  • 86. 
    In most modern engine, which type of turbine is normally used?
    • A. 

      Reaction

    • B. 

      Pulsation

    • C. 

      Impulse-reaction

    • D. 

      Pulsation-reaction

  • 87. 
    Which switch energizes the starter control valve to the OPEN position?
    • A. 

      Ground start

    • B. 

      Speed-sensitive

    • C. 

      Fuel enrichment

    • D. 

      Secondary fuel pump pressure

  • 88. 
    Which component functions as an on-off control for the air supply that is sent to the starter?
    • A. 

      Air turbine

    • B. 

      Ground start switch

    • C. 

      Secondary fuel pump pressure switch

    • D. 

      Starter control valve

  • 89. 
    The percent of revolutions per minute (RPM) the speed-sensitive control lets electrical current flow to the fuel and ignition system is
    • A. 

      16%

    • B. 

      26%

    • C. 

      65%

    • D. 

      94%

  • 90. 
    At what percent of engine revolutions per minute (RPM) is the ignition system turned off?
    • A. 

      26%

    • B. 

      16%

    • C. 

      94%

    • D. 

      65%

  • 91. 
    Which tester is used to accomplish the checkout procedures for the T56 engine ignition system?
    • A. 

      Fuel nozzle

    • B. 

      Thermocouple

    • C. 

      Temp datum

    • D. 

      Electrical components

  • 92. 
    Which type of oil pump is used on the T56 engine?
    • A. 

      Gear

    • B. 

      Float

    • C. 

      Gearotor

    • D. 

      Centrifugal

  • 93. 
    The amount of ram air passing through the oil cooler core is regulated by the
    • A. 

      Thermostat

    • B. 

      Flap actuator

    • C. 

      Size of the core

    • D. 

      Regulating valve

  • 94. 
    Bleed air flowing through which component increases airflow through the cooler?
    • A. 

      Oil cooler flap

    • B. 

      Oil cooler ejector

    • C. 

      Augmentation valve

    • D. 

      Augmentation manifold

  • 95. 
    Which type of valve is normally incorporated in an oil filter assembly?
    • A. 

      Check

    • B. 

      Bypass

    • C. 

      Relief

    • D. 

      Pressurizing

  • 96. 
    Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their
    • A. 

      Soft metal construction, these seals can be damaged easily

    • B. 

      Soft metal construction, they are sharp and can cut your hand

    • C. 

      Hard metal construction, they are sharp and can cut your hand

    • D. 

      Hard metal construction, these seals can damage the bearing races

  • 97. 
    Once the synthetic oil (MIL-L-23699) container is opened, any oil not immediately used should be
    • A. 

      Pour in the trashcan

    • B. 

      Disposed of as used oil

    • C. 

      Placed in an oil can for shop use

    • D. 

      Stored in special metal cabinets until it can be used

  • 98. 
    In the power section pressure oil system, which valve located in the main pump is used to bypass the excess oil?
    • A. 

      Pressure-regulating

    • B. 

      Breather-regulating

    • C. 

      Scavenge-regulating

    • D. 

      Anti-icing-regulating

  • 99. 
    Oil from the interior of the air inlet housing drains into the bottom of the
    • A. 

      Main oil pump

    • B. 

      Accessory drive housing

    • C. 

      External scavenge oil pump

    • D. 

      Compressor front bearing cage

  • 100. 
    The power section and reduction gearbox (RGB) oil systems are joined together at the
    • A. 

      Fuel heater and strainer

    • B. 

      External scavenge oil filter

    • C. 

      External scavenge oil pump

    • D. 

      Scavenge element of the main pump

  • 101. 
    What is the purpose and goal of the AFOSH Program?
    • A. 

      To protect personnel

    • B. 

      MSDS

    • C. 

      To identify the workcenter hazards

    • D. 

      To ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. Its ultimate goal is to protect personnel from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses.

  • 102. 
    What must be done to a component after removing it from the engine?
    • A. 

      Preserve with fuel.

    • B. 

      Wrap in barrier paper.

    • C. 

      Preserve with engine oil.

    • D. 

      Cap and plug all openings.

  • 103. 
    The requirements for storing engines in a metal container is to maintain
    • A. 

      Nitrogen pressure.

    • B. 

      Engine dehydration

    • C. 

      Warehouse facilities

    • D. 

      Ventilator plugs and caps.

  • 104. 
    What should you use to check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container?
    • A. 

      Oil

    • B. 

      Dry nitrogen

    • C. 

      Leak detector

    • D. 

      Soap-water solution

  • 105. 
    Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?
    • A. 

      Ensure humidity indicator is blue.

    • B. 

      Release all pressure before removing lid.

    • C. 

      Ensure pressure is below 5 psi before loosening bolts.

    • D. 

      Loosen bolts in a staggered pattern to prevent warping

  • 106. 
    During the “over 180 days” preservation period, the fuel system is maintained full of
    • A. 

      Fuel.

    • B. 

      MIL-L–7808

    • C. 

      MIL-L–6081 (grade 1010).

    • D. 

      Preservation fluid

  • 107. 
    Which technical order (TO) covers calibration procedures for torque wrenches?
    • A. 

      1–1A–8 series.

    • B. 

      1–1A–14 series.

    • C. 

      32–1–101series

    • D. 

      33K6 series.

  • 108. 
    Carrying a handtool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause
    • A. 

      Injury to you.

    • B. 

      Torn clothing.

    • C. 

      Electrical shock.

    • D. 

      Damage to the tool.

  • 109. 
    The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of thesquare drive and the center of the
    • A. 

      Shaft index

    • B. 

      Lock

    • C. 

      Hand grip

    • D. 

      Broached opening

  • 110. 
    If you were tasked to measure the clearance between two surfaces, what type of gaugewould you use? 
    • A. 

      Steel-rule.

    • B. 

      Micrometer

    • C. 

      Dial-indicator

    • D. 

      Thickness gauge.

  • 111. 
    Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located?
    • A. 

      On the dial face.

    • B. 

      At the end of the anvil.

    • C. 

      At the end of the thimble.

    • D. 

      At the end of a pivoted lever.

  • 112. 
    The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for alternatingcurrent (AC) and direct current (DC) is the
    • A. 

      Touch-hold push-button switch.

    • B. 

      Function selector rotary switch

    • C. 

      Range-mode pushbutton switch.

    • D. 

      Volts, ohms, diode test input jack.

  • 113. 
    For a borescope inspection and for a maximum benefit, which is not necessary for theinspector to have?
    • A. 

      Experience.

    • B. 

      Flexiblity

    • C. 

      Integrity

    • D. 

      Ability

  • 114. 
    A rigid borescope requires
    • A. 

      An angle shot at the inspection area.

    • B. 

      More skill to operate compared to a flexscope.

    • C. 

      An angulation lever to control the bending section.

    • D. 

      A direct and lateral straight shot at the inspection area.

  • 115. 
    Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?
    • A. 

      Experience.

    • B. 

      Maturity

    • C. 

      Rank.

    • D. 

      Age