ISTQB Mock Test - 8

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ISTQB Quizzes & Trivia

ISTQB MOCK TEST - 8


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

    • A.

      Each test stage has a different purpose.

    • B.

      It is easier to manage testing in stages.

    • C.

      We can run different tests in different environments.

    • D.

      The more stages we have, the better the testing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Each test stage has a different purpose.
    Explanation
    Testing is split into distinct stages primarily because each stage serves a different purpose. By dividing testing into stages, it becomes easier to focus on specific objectives and goals at each stage. This allows for a more systematic and organized approach to testing, ensuring that all necessary aspects are covered. Additionally, dividing testing into stages enables better management of the testing process, as it allows for better planning, resource allocation, and tracking of progress.

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  • 2. 

    2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test toolsproviding test capture and replay facilities?

    • A.

      Regression testing

    • B.

      Integration testing

    • C.

      System testing

    • D.

      User acceptance testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Regression testing
    Explanation
    Regression testing is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities. Regression testing involves retesting previously tested functionality to ensure that any changes or fixes made to the system have not introduced new defects or caused existing functionality to fail. Test capture and replay tools allow testers to record test scenarios and then replay them, which can greatly speed up the regression testing process. By automating the execution of previously recorded tests, testers can focus on analyzing the results and identifying any regression issues, rather than spending time manually retesting the same functionality.

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  • 3. 

    3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

    • A.

      A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.

    • B.

      A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.

    • C.

      A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.

    • D.

      A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

    Correct Answer
    D. A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
    Explanation
    A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage. This is because achieving 100% statement coverage means that every statement in the code has been executed at least once during testing, which increases the likelihood of detecting faults. On the other hand, achieving 100% branch coverage only ensures that every branch in the code has been executed at least once, but it does not guarantee that every statement has been executed. Therefore, achieving 100% statement coverage is more comprehensive and effective in detecting faults.

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  • 4. 

    4. Which of the following requirements is testable?

    • A.

      The system shall be user friendly.

    • B.

      The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.

    • C.

      The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.

    • D.

      The system shall be built to be portable.

    Correct Answer
    C. The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
    Explanation
    The requirement "The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load" is testable because it can be objectively measured and verified. Testers can simulate the specified design load and measure the system's response time to determine if it meets the requirement. In contrast, the other requirements such as "The system shall be user friendly" or "The system shall be built to be portable" are subjective and cannot be easily quantified or objectively tested. The requirement about safety-critical parts containing 0 faults may be testable, but it depends on the feasibility of testing for faults in those parts.

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  • 5. 

    5. Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?"IF the customer wants ‘return’Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’Say: "That will be £11:20"ELSESay: "That will be £19:50"ENDIFELSESay: "That will be £9:75"ENDIFNow decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that allthe questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and allreplies given.

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The procedure consists of two main questions: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?" and "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?". The first question has two options (single or return), and the second question has two options (Standard or Cheap-day). In order to ensure that all combinations have occurred, we need to test each possible combination of answers. This can be achieved with 3 tests: one test for the combination of single and Standard, one test for the combination of single and Cheap-day, and one test for the combination of return and Cheap-day. Therefore, the minimum number of tests needed is 3.

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  • 6. 

    6. Error guessing:

    • A.

      Supplements formal test design techniques.

    • B.

      Can only be used in component, integration and system testing.

    • C.

      Is only performed in user acceptance testing.

    • D.

      Is not repeatable and should not be used.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supplements formal test design techniques.
    Explanation
    Error guessing is a technique that complements formal test design techniques. It involves using the tester's experience, intuition, and domain knowledge to identify potential errors or defects in the system under test. While it can be used in various testing phases, such as component, integration, system, or user acceptance testing, it is not limited to any specific phase. Error guessing is a valuable approach to uncovering defects that may not be captured by formal test design techniques alone, making it an important tool in a tester's arsenal.

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  • 7. 

    7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?

    • A.

      Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.

    • B.

      A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.

    • C.

      A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.

    • D.

      Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

    Correct Answer
    C. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
    Explanation
    Test coverage criteria are used to determine the extent to which a test suite has exercised the items being tested. This can be measured in terms of items exercised, such as the percentage of user requirements covered. Test coverage criteria are also commonly used to specify test completion criteria, indicating when testing can be considered complete. However, the percentage of faults found is not a measure of test coverage criteria. While test coverage can help identify areas that have not been adequately tested and may potentially contain faults, it does not directly measure the percentage of faults found.

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  • 8. 

    8. In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to:

    • A.

      Find as many faults as possible.

    • B.

      Test high risk areas.

    • C.

      Obtain good test coverage.

    • D.

      Test whatever is easiest to test.

    Correct Answer
    B. Test high risk areas.
    Explanation
    In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to test high risk areas. This is because high risk areas are more likely to have critical defects that could have a significant impact on the system or business. By focusing on testing these areas first, it allows for early detection and resolution of potential issues that could pose a risk to the overall quality and functionality of the system. This approach helps in ensuring that the most critical aspects of the system are thoroughly tested and any potential faults are identified and addressed promptly.

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  • 9. 

    9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activitydescriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?v - test controlw - test monitoringx - test estimationy - incident managementz - configuration control1 - calculation of required test resources2 - maintenance of record of test results3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun4 - report on deviation from test plan5 - tracking of anomalous test results

    • A.

      V-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4

    • B.

      V-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3

    • C.

      V-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2

    • D.

      V-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

    Correct Answer
    C. V-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
    Explanation
    The given answer pairs the test management terms (v-z) with the corresponding activity descriptions (1-5) in the most appropriate way. According to the answer, v (test control) is paired with activity description 3 (re-allocation of resources when tests overrun), w (test monitoring) is paired with activity description 4 (report on deviation from test plan), x (test estimation) is paired with activity description 1 (calculation of required test resources), y (incident management) is paired with activity description 5 (tracking of anomalous test results), and z (configuration control) is paired with activity description 2 (maintenance of record of test results). This pairing aligns with the definitions and purposes of the test management terms and activity descriptions.

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  • 10. 

    10. Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?

    • A.

      System tests are often performed by independent teams.

    • B.

      Functional testing is used more than structural testing.

    • C.

      Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.

    • D.

      End-users should be involved in system tests.

    Correct Answer
    D. End-users should be involved in system tests.
    Explanation
    End-users should not be involved in system tests. System tests are conducted to evaluate the system as a whole and ensure that it meets the specified requirements. Involving end-users in these tests can lead to biased results as they may focus on their specific needs and preferences rather than the overall functionality and performance of the system. It is more appropriate to involve end-users in user acceptance testing, which is conducted separately to validate that the system meets their specific requirements and expectations.

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  • 11. 

    11. Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      Incidents should always be fixed.

    • B.

      An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.

    • C.

      Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement.

    • D.

      An incident can be raised against documentation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Incidents should always be fixed.
    Explanation
    The statement "Incidents should always be fixed" is false. Incidents are unexpected events or deviations from expected results that occur during testing. While incidents should be identified, recorded, and analyzed, they do not always need to be fixed. Some incidents may be considered low priority or may not impact the overall functionality of the system. The decision to fix an incident depends on various factors such as the severity of the incident, the impact on the system, and the available resources.

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  • 12. 

    12. Enough testing has been performed when:

    • A.

      Time runs out.

    • B.

      The required level of confidence has been achieved.

    • C.

      No more faults are found.

    • D.

      The users won’t find any serious faults.

    Correct Answer
    B. The required level of confidence has been achieved.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the required level of confidence has been achieved." This means that enough testing has been performed when the testers have reached a certain level of confidence in the quality and reliability of the system being tested. This level of confidence is usually determined based on predefined criteria and standards, and it ensures that the system meets the necessary requirements and is ready for deployment.

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  • 13. 

    13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

    • A.

      Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.

    • B.

      Incidents may be raised against user requirements.

    • C.

      Incidents require investigation and/or correction.

    • D.

      Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

    Correct Answer
    A. Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
    Explanation
    The given statement "Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test" is not true. Incident resolution is not solely the responsibility of the software author, but it is a collaborative effort involving various stakeholders such as testers, developers, and project managers. The responsibility for resolving incidents lies with the entire team working on the software project.

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  • 14. 

    14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?

    • A.

      Syntax testing

    • B.

      Equivalence partitioning

    • C.

      Stress testing

    • D.

      Modified condition/decision coverage

    Correct Answer
    C. Stress testing
    Explanation
    Stress testing is not described in a unit test standard. Unit testing focuses on testing individual units of code in isolation, typically at the function or method level. Stress testing, on the other hand, is a type of performance testing that aims to evaluate the system's behavior under extreme or heavy loads. While stress testing is an important aspect of overall testing, it is typically not included in unit test standards, which primarily focus on functional and structural testing techniques like syntax testing, equivalence partitioning, and modified condition/decision coverage.

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  • 15. 

    15. Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      In a system two different failures may have different severities.

    • B.

      A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.

    • C.

      A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.

    • D.

      Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

    Correct Answer
    B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
    Explanation
    The statement "A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault" is false because although debugging can help in identifying and removing faults, it does not guarantee that the system will become more reliable. There may still be other existing faults or new faults that can arise after debugging. Debugging is just one step in the process of improving system reliability, but it does not automatically make the system more reliable.

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  • 16. 

    16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOTcorrect?

    • A.

      They are used to support multi-user testing.

    • B.

      They are used to capture and animate user requirements.

    • C.

      They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.

    • D.

      They capture aspects of user behavior.

    Correct Answer
    B. They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
    Explanation
    Capture-replay tools are commonly used in software testing to record and replay user interactions with a system. They capture aspects of user behavior, such as mouse clicks and keyboard inputs, and can be used to support multi-user testing by simulating multiple users. However, they are not typically used to capture and animate user requirements. User requirements are usually captured through other means, such as interviews, surveys, or user stories, and are then used to inform the development process. Therefore, the statement "They are used to capture and animate user requirements" is not correct.

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  • 17. 

    17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

    • A.

      Metrics from previous similar projects

    • B.

      Discussions with the development team

    • C.

      Time allocated for regression testing

    • D.

      A & b

    Correct Answer
    D. A & b
    Explanation
    To estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required, one can use metrics from previous similar projects and have discussions with the development team. By analyzing data from past projects, one can determine the average amount of re-testing needed based on similarities in the current project. Additionally, having discussions with the development team can provide insights into the complexity and potential areas of concern that may require more re-testing. Therefore, options a and b are both valid approaches to estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required.

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  • 18. 

    18. Which of the following is true of the V-model?

    • A.

      It states that modules are tested against user requirements.

    • B.

      It only models the testing phase.

    • C.

      It specifies the test techniques to be used.

    • D.

      It includes the verification of designs.

    Correct Answer
    D. It includes the verification of designs.
    Explanation
    The V-model is a software development model that emphasizes the verification and validation of designs. It includes the verification of designs, meaning that the designs are checked to ensure they meet the specified requirements and are error-free. This is an important step in the development process to ensure that the final product will function as intended. The V-model also includes testing, but it is not limited to just the testing phase. It encompasses the entire development lifecycle, from requirements gathering to design, coding, testing, and maintenance.

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  • 19. 

    19. The oracle assumption:

    • A.

      Is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.

    • B.

      Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.

    • C.

      Is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.

    • D.

      Is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

    Correct Answer
    B. Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
    Explanation
    The oracle assumption refers to the belief that the tester has the ability to consistently determine the correct result of a test. This means that the tester possesses the necessary knowledge and expertise to accurately evaluate the output of the software being tested. The oracle assumption does not imply that the tester knows everything about the software under test or that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers. It simply highlights the expectation that the tester can reliably identify whether the outcome of a test is correct or not.

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  • 20. 

    20. Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?

    • A.

      They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.

    • B.

      They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.

    • C.

      Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.

    • D.

      Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is stating that faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases. This means that it is easier and less costly to identify and address faults during the early stages of development, such as requirements gathering and design. However, if faults are not detected and fixed during these early phases, they become more difficult and expensive to identify and rectify during the later stages, such as system testing.

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  • 21. 

    21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

    • A.

      To find faults in the software.

    • B.

      To assess whether the software is ready for release.

    • C.

      To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.

    • D.

      To prove that the software is correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. To prove that the software is correct.
    Explanation
    The objective of a test is to identify faults and assess the readiness of the software for release. It is not possible to prove that the software is completely correct through testing, as testing can only identify the presence of defects, not their absence. Therefore, proving the software is correct cannot be a realistic objective for a test.

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  • 22. 

    22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

    • A.

      Boundary value analysis

    • B.

      Usability testing

    • C.

      Performance testing

    • D.

      Security testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Boundary value analysis
    Explanation
    Boundary value analysis is a form of functional testing that involves testing the boundaries or limits of input values. It focuses on testing the behavior of the system at the edges of valid and invalid input values. By testing the minimum and maximum values, as well as values just below and above these boundaries, it helps identify any issues or errors that may occur at these critical points. This type of testing is important in ensuring the robustness and accuracy of the system's functionality.

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  • 23. 

    23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

    • A.

      Features to be tested

    • B.

      Incident reports

    • C.

      Risks

    • D.

      Schedule

    Correct Answer
    B. Incident reports
    Explanation
    A test plan outlines the scope, objectives, and approach for testing a software application. It typically includes details about the features to be tested, risks involved, and the schedule for testing activities. However, incident reports are not typically included in a test plan. Incident reports are documents that describe any issues, defects, or failures encountered during testing or after the software has been released. They are used to track and manage these incidents, but they are not a part of the initial test plan.

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  • 24. 

    24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from theuse of CAST?

    • A.

      Test management

    • B.

      Test design

    • C.

      Test execution

    • D.

      Test planning

    Correct Answer
    C. Test execution
    Explanation
    Test execution provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST because it involves the actual running of test cases and identifying defects in the software. By automating the test execution process with CAST, organizations can save time and resources by reducing the need for manual testing. This can lead to faster testing cycles, quicker identification of defects, and overall cost savings in terms of manpower and time required for testing activities.

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  • 25. 

    25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

    • A.

      Statement testing

    • B.

      Path testing

    • C.

      Data flow testing

    • D.

      State transition testing

    Correct Answer
    D. State transition testing
    Explanation
    State transition testing is not considered a white box technique because it focuses on testing the behavior and functionality of a system based on its different states and transitions, without considering the internal structure or implementation details of the system. White box techniques, on the other hand, involve testing based on the internal structure, code, and logic of the system.

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  • 26. 

    26. Data flow analysis studies:

    • A.

      Possible communications bottlenecks in a program.

    • B.

      The rate of change of data values as a program executes.

    • C.

      The use of data on paths through the code.

    • D.

      The intrinsic complexity of the code.

    Correct Answer
    D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.
    Explanation
    Data flow analysis studies the intrinsic complexity of the code. This analysis focuses on understanding how data is used and manipulated within a program, including identifying dependencies, tracking the flow of data, and analyzing how data values change as the program executes. By studying the data flow, programmers can gain insights into the complexity of the code and make optimizations to improve its efficiency and performance.

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  • 27. 

    27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

    • A.

      £1500

    • B.

      £32001

    • C.

      £33501

    • D.

      £28000

    Correct Answer
    C. £33501
    Explanation
    A valid Boundary Value Analysis test case for this system would be £33501. This is because it falls within the range of the third tax bracket, where any amount above £28000 is taxed at 40%. This test case helps to verify the accuracy of the system's calculations and handling of tax rates for higher income levels.

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  • 28. 

    28. An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

    • A.

      Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.

    • B.

      Can be performed by the person who wrote the code.

    • C.

      Can be performed by inexperienced staff.

    • D.

      Are cheap to perform.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
    Explanation
    Code inspections are a valuable practice in software development as they allow for the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready. This means that potential issues and bugs can be identified and addressed early on, reducing the likelihood of encountering problems during actual execution. Code inspections can be performed by the person who wrote the code or by other experienced staff members, ensuring that multiple perspectives are considered. While code inspections may require some time and effort, they are a cost-effective way to improve code quality and overall software reliability.

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  • 29. 

    29. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for UserAcceptance Test scripts?

    • A.

      Actual results

    • B.

      Program specification

    • C.

      User requirements

    • D.

      System specification

    Correct Answer
    C. User requirements
    Explanation
    The best source of expected outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts is the User requirements. User requirements outline the specific functionalities and features that the system should possess to meet the needs and expectations of the end-users. These requirements serve as a guideline for creating test scripts and determining the expected outcomes. Program specification and system specification may provide additional information about the system, but the user requirements are the primary source for defining the expected outcomes. Actual results, on the other hand, are the outcomes observed during the testing process and cannot be used as a source for defining expected outcomes.

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  • 30. 

    30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

    • A.

      An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.

    • B.

      An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.

    • C.

      Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.

    • D.

      A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

    Correct Answer
    D. A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
    Explanation
    In a walkthrough, the author of the document or software leads the process, while in an inspection, a trained moderator takes charge. This means that in a walkthrough, the author has control and guides the participants through the document or software, providing explanations and clarifications as needed. On the other hand, in an inspection, the trained moderator leads the process, ensuring that the inspection is conducted effectively and efficiently, following established guidelines and procedures.

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  • 31. 

    31. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early inthe life cycle?

    • A.

      It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.

    • B.

      It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.

    • C.

      It reduces defect multiplication.

    • D.

      It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

    Correct Answer
    C. It reduces defect multiplication.
    Explanation
    Verification early in the life cycle refers to the process of checking and reviewing the requirements, design, and code before the actual testing phase begins. By identifying and fixing defects early on, it prevents these defects from propagating and multiplying throughout the development process. This helps in reducing the number of defects in the final product, leading to improved quality and lower costs.

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  • 32. 

    32. Integration testing in the small: 

    • A.

      Tests the individual components that have been developed.

    • B.

      Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.

    • C.

      Only uses components that form part of the live system.

    • D.

      Tests interfaces to other systems.

    Correct Answer
    B. Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
    Explanation
    Integration testing in the small refers to testing the interactions between modules or subsystems. This type of testing focuses on verifying that the components that have been developed work together correctly and that there are no issues or errors in their interactions. It helps to identify any potential problems or conflicts between different parts of the system and ensures that they can communicate and function properly as a whole. This type of testing is essential to ensure the overall functionality and reliability of the system.

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  • 33. 

    33. Static analysis is best described as:

    • A.

      The analysis of batch programs.

    • B.

      The reviewing of test plans.

    • C.

      The analysis of program code.

    • D.

      The use of black box testing.

    Correct Answer
    C. The analysis of program code.
    Explanation
    Static analysis is the process of analyzing program code without executing it. It involves examining the code for potential errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, or compliance issues. This analysis is performed by specialized tools that can identify coding mistakes, security flaws, and other potential issues. By analyzing the program code, static analysis helps to ensure code quality, improve software reliability, and enhance overall software development process. It is different from reviewing test plans or using black box testing, as it focuses specifically on the analysis of program code itself.

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  • 34. 

    34. Alpha testing is:

    • A.

      Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.

    • B.

      The first testing that is performed.

    • C.

      Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.

    • D.

      Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

    Correct Answer
    C. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
    Explanation
    Alpha testing is a type of pre-release testing where end user representatives test the software at the developer's site. This testing is done before the software is released to the public, allowing the developers to gather feedback and identify any issues or bugs that need to be addressed. It helps ensure that the software meets the requirements and expectations of the end users before it is officially released.

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  • 35. 

    35. A failure is:

    • A.

      Found in the software; the result of an error.

    • B.

      Departure from specified behavior.

    • C.

      An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.

    • D.

      A human action that produces an incorrect result.

    Correct Answer
    B. Departure from specified behavior.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "departure from specified behavior." This means that a failure refers to when the software does not perform as intended or does not meet the specified requirements. It is a deviation from the expected behavior and can occur due to errors in the software or incorrect steps, processes, or data definitions in the program. It is not specifically attributed to human actions or the result of an error, but rather the software's failure to meet the specified behavior.

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  • 36. 

    36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

    • A.

      £4800; £14000; £28000

    • B.

      £5200; £5500; £28000

    • C.

      £28001; £32000; £35000

    • D.

      £5800; £28000; £32000

    Correct Answer
    D. £5800; £28000; £32000
    Explanation
    The given groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class because they all have the same taxable income of £28000. The first £4000 of salary is tax-free, so the taxable income for all three numbers is £28000. Therefore, they would all be taxed at the same rates: 10% on the next £1500 (£150), and 22% on the remaining £26500 (£5830). The total tax paid would be the same for all three numbers.

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  • 37. 

    37. The most important thing about early test design is that it:

    • A.

      Makes test preparation easier.

    • B.

      Means inspections are not required.

    • C.

      Can prevent fault multiplication.

    • D.

      Will find all faults.

    Correct Answer
    C. Can prevent fault multiplication.
    Explanation
    Early test design is important because it can prevent fault multiplication. This means that by designing tests early in the development process, potential faults or errors can be identified and addressed before they have the chance to multiply or spread throughout the system. This helps to ensure that the final product is of higher quality and reduces the likelihood of encountering numerous faults later on. It does not mean that all faults will be found or that inspections are not required, but rather emphasizes the importance of early test design in preventing the multiplication of faults.

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  • 38. 

    38. Which of the following statements about reviews is true? 

    • A.

      Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.

    • B.

      Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.

    • C.

      Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.

    • D.

      Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

    Correct Answer
    D. Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
    Explanation
    Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans. This statement is true because reviews are a systematic examination of a document or artifact to find defects, improve quality, and provide feedback. By performing reviews on specifications, code, and test plans, potential faults and errors can be identified and corrected early in the development process, leading to improved quality and efficiency.

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  • 39. 

    39. Test cases are designed during: 

    • A.

      Test recording.

    • B.

      Test planning.

    • C.

      Test configuration.

    • D.

      Test specification.

    Correct Answer
    D. Test specification.
    Explanation
    Test cases are designed during the test specification phase. Test specification involves documenting the detailed requirements and test objectives, as well as defining the test conditions and expected results. Test cases are then derived from these specifications to ensure that all aspects of the system are adequately tested. Test recording refers to capturing and documenting the actual test execution, test planning involves determining the overall approach and resources required for testing, and test configuration refers to setting up the test environment.

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  • 40. 

    40. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

    • A.

      Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.

    • B.

      Facilities to compare test results with expected results.

    • C.

      The precise differences in versions of software component source code.

    • D.

      Restricted access to the source code library.

    Correct Answer
    B. Facilities to compare test results with expected results.
    Explanation
    A configuration management system is primarily used to track and control changes to software components and ensure that different versions are properly managed. It typically provides features such as version control, tracking changes, and managing access to the source code library. However, comparing test results with expected results is a function usually performed by testing tools or frameworks, rather than a configuration management system.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 11, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Minal_akre
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