ISTQB Mock Test 3

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is the KEY characteristics of Walkthrough?

    • A.

      Pr e-meeting preparations

    • B.

      Formal follow-up process

    • C.

      Includes metrics

    • D.

      Scenario, Dry group, Peer group

    Correct Answer
    D. Scenario, Dry group, Peer group
    Explanation
    Walkthrough is a software development technique where a group of people, known as the peer group, gathers to review and discuss a software product or system. One of the key characteristics of a walkthrough is that it involves the use of scenarios, where the group imagines different situations and evaluates the software's performance. Additionally, the walkthrough typically includes a dry run, where the group goes through the software without actually executing it, to identify any potential issues or improvements. Therefore, the combination of scenarios, dry group, and peer group make up the key characteristics of a walkthrough.

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  • 2. 

    From the choices below, which one is the ' confidence testing' ?

    • A.

      Smoke testing

    • B.

      Sanity Testing

    • C.

      System testing

    • D.

      Regression testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Smoke testing
    Explanation
    Smoke testing is a type of confidence testing that is performed to quickly verify if the most critical functionalities of a software application are working as expected. It is usually performed after a build or release to ensure that the system is stable enough for further testing. Smoke testing focuses on testing the basic functionalities and major components of the system, and it helps identify any major issues or flaws early in the testing process. Therefore, smoke testing is the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 3. 

    Which one of the following life cycle models may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing ( e.g : there may be component integration testing after component testing ) , depending on the project and software product.

    • A.

      V-Model

    • B.

      Waterfall Model

    • C.

      Spiral Model

    • D.

      RAD Model

    Correct Answer
    A. V-Model
    Explanation
    The V-Model is a software development life cycle model that emphasizes a sequential approach to development and testing. It is known for its parallel development and testing phases, where each phase of development is followed by a corresponding phase of testing. However, the V-Model allows for flexibility in the number and order of development and testing levels based on the specific project and software product. This means that depending on the requirements and complexity of the project, the V-Model may have more, fewer, or different levels of development and testing compared to other life cycle models.

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  • 4. 

     For the program below,How many test cases are needed to achieve 100% statement(SC) and condition coverage(CC)?if (( temp < 0 ) or (temp >100 ))  {      alert ("Danger")      if (( speed >100 ) and (load <=50))         {             speed = 50;          }   }else       {         check = false ;       }

    • A.

      SC = 2 ; CC = 5

    • B.

      SC = 4 ; CC = 5;

    • C.

      SC = 3 ; CC = 3

    • D.

      SC = 2 ; CC = 2

    Correct Answer
    A. SC = 2 ; CC = 5
    Explanation
    The given program has two if-else statements. The first if statement has two conditions: temp < 0 and temp > 100. In order to achieve 100% statement coverage (SC), we need to test both conditions separately. So, the SC is 2.

    The second if statement has two conditions: speed > 100 and load 100 and load

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following general testing principles are TRUE ?a. Testing of safety - critical software is similar to testing web applications.b. Testing shows the presence of defects but not the absence of defects.c. Testing should start after the completion of key development tasks.d. Testing of combinations of inputs and outputs will find all defects.

    • A.

      A, b , d are correct ; c is incorrect

    • B.

      D, c is correct ; a, b are incorrect.

    • C.

      B is correct ; a, c, d are incorrect .

    • D.

      B, c are correct ; a, d are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    C. B is correct ; a, c, d are incorrect .
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b is correct ; a, c, d are incorrect. This is because testing can only show the presence of defects, not their absence. Testing safety-critical software is not similar to testing web applications as they have different requirements and considerations. Testing should ideally start as early as possible in the development process, not after the completion of key development tasks. Testing combinations of inputs and outputs may not necessarily find all defects.

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  • 6. 

    From which one of the following are test conditions derived ?

    • A.

      Test Design

    • B.

      Test Cases

    • C.

      Test Data

    • D.

      Requirement specifications

    Correct Answer
    D. Requirement specifications
    Explanation
    Test conditions are derived from requirement specifications. Requirement specifications outline the specific functionalities and behaviors that the system under test should exhibit. Test conditions are derived by analyzing these requirements and identifying the different scenarios, inputs, and conditions that need to be tested to ensure that the system meets the specified requirements. Test design, test cases, and test data are all derived from the identified test conditions, but the primary source of deriving test conditions is the requirement specifications.

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  • 7. 

    Which one of the following statements is TRUE ? 

    • A.

      The more tests you run , the more bugs you will find.

    • B.

      The fewer the bugs, the better the testing you have done.

    • C.

      Component testing is a black-box testing , and system testing is white-box testing.

    • D.

      If you find a lot of bugs while testing, then, you should not be quite confident about the software product.

    Correct Answer
    D. If you find a lot of bugs while testing, then, you should not be quite confident about the software product.
    Explanation
    The answer suggests that finding a lot of bugs during testing is a sign that the software product may have significant issues or flaws. Therefore, it is not advisable to be overly confident about the software product if a large number of bugs are discovered during testing. This implies that the presence of many bugs indicates potential problems with the software's functionality, stability, or quality.

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  • 8. 

    What is a Test Level ?

    • A.

      One or more test design specification documents.

    • B.

      A test type.

    • C.

      A testing technique.

    • D.

      A group of test activities that are organized together.

    Correct Answer
    D. A group of test activities that are organized together.
    Explanation
    A test level refers to a group of test activities that are organized together. It includes various testing activities such as planning, designing, executing, and evaluating tests that are performed at a specific stage of the software development life cycle. These activities are organized together to achieve specific testing objectives and ensure the quality of the software. Test levels can vary depending on the project and may include unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing.

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  • 9. 

    What is the KEY characteristic of specification-based testing technique?

    • A.

      Tests are derived based on the tester's skills and experience.

    • B.

      Tests are derived from models that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components.

    • C.

      Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system/components.

    • D.

      Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Tests are derived from models that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components.
    Explanation
    The key characteristic of specification-based testing technique is that tests are derived from models that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components. This means that the tests are based on a clear understanding of what the software is supposed to do and how it should behave. By using models, testers can ensure that the tests cover all the necessary scenarios and requirements, leading to more effective testing and higher quality software.

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  • 10. 

    Which one of the following technique is BEST suited to find the dead code ?

    • A.

      Statement coverage Tool

    • B.

      Static Analysis Tool

    • C.

      Test Management Tool

    • D.

      Decision coverage Tool

    Correct Answer
    B. Static Analysis Tool
    Explanation
    A static analysis tool is best suited to find dead code. Static analysis involves analyzing the code without actually executing it, looking for potential issues such as unused variables or unreachable code. By using a static analysis tool, developers can easily identify and remove any dead code in their codebase, improving overall code quality and performance.

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  • 11. 

    Which one  of the following standards give the definitions of the testing terms ?

    • A.

      IEEE 829

    • B.

      BS 7925 -1

    • C.

      BS 7925 - 2

    • D.

      IEEE 729

    Correct Answer
    B. BS 7925 -1
    Explanation
    BS 7925 -1 gives the definitions of the testing terms.

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  • 12. 

    From the options below, which one is not described in a unit test standard ?

    • A.

      Equivalence partitioning

    • B.

      Syntax testing

    • C.

      Stress testing

    • D.

      Condition/decision coverage

    Correct Answer
    C. Stress testing
    Explanation
    Stress testing is not described in a unit test standard. Unit test standards typically focus on methods such as equivalence partitioning, syntax testing, and condition/decision coverage. Stress testing, on the other hand, is a type of testing that evaluates the system's performance under extreme conditions to determine its stability and robustness. While stress testing is an important testing technique, it is not typically included in a unit test standard, which primarily focuses on ensuring the correctness and completeness of individual units of code.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is the KEY control task ?

    • A.

      Scheduling test implementation

    • B.

      Determining the scope.

    • C.

      Implementing the test policy.

    • D.

      Initiating the corrective actions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Initiating the corrective actions.
    Explanation
    Initiating the corrective actions is the key control task because it involves identifying and addressing any issues or deviations from the desired outcome. By taking corrective actions, the project can be brought back on track and any potential risks or problems can be mitigated. This task is crucial for ensuring the success of the project and maintaining quality standards.

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  • 14. 

    Which tools needs to interface with the other office automation software in order to generate reports in the format required by the organization ?

    • A.

      Metrics management tools

    • B.

      Progress tracking tools

    • C.

      Test execution tools

    • D.

      Test management tools

    Correct Answer
    D. Test management tools
    Explanation
    Test management tools need to interface with other office automation software in order to generate reports in the format required by the organization. These tools are specifically designed to help manage and organize the testing process, including test planning, test execution, and defect tracking. By integrating with other office automation software, such as word processors or spreadsheet programs, test management tools can easily generate reports that provide detailed information about the testing progress, test results, and any identified defects. This integration ensures that the reports are in the desired format and can be easily shared and communicated with stakeholders.

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  • 15. 

    What are the various phases of a formal review ?

    • A.

      Planning ; kick-off ; Review meeting ; defects logging ; Rework ; Follow-up

    • B.

      Planning ; select personnel ; define entry and exit criteria ; log defects; fix defects; follow-up

    • C.

      Planning ; Kick-off ; individual preparation ; review meeting ; rework ; follow-up

    • D.

      Planning ; kick-off ; individual preparation; fix defects ; rework ; exit phase

    Correct Answer
    C. Planning ; Kick-off ; individual preparation ; review meeting ; rework ; follow-up
    Explanation
    The various phases of a formal review are planning, kick-off, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, and follow-up. During the planning phase, the review objectives and scope are defined. In the kick-off phase, the review team is introduced to the project and its goals. Individual preparation involves the reviewers studying the project materials before the review meeting. The review meeting is where the actual review takes place, with the reviewers discussing and evaluating the project. Rework involves addressing any identified defects or issues. Finally, the follow-up phase ensures that any necessary actions are taken and lessons learned from the review are implemented.

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  • 16. 

    Which set of test data demonstrates  all of the three-value boundaries to check whether a candidate is teenager or not ?

    • A.

      12, 13, 15, 19, 20, 21

    • B.

      11, 12, 13 , 19, 20, 21

    • C.

      12, 13, 14, 18, 19, 20

    • D.

      10, 11, 12, 17, 18, 19

    Correct Answer
    C. 12, 13, 14, 18, 19, 20
    Explanation
    The set of test data 12, 13, 14, 18, 19, 20 demonstrates all of the three-value boundaries to check whether a candidate is a teenager or not. The lower boundary is 13, the middle boundary is 14, and the upper boundary is 18. By including these values in the test data, we are covering all possible scenarios for determining if someone is a teenager.

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  • 17. 

    What is the MOST important factor for the success of a review ?

    • A.

      A reviewed test plan

    • B.

      Availability of tools to support the review process.

    • C.

      Trained participants and leaders.

    • D.

      A separate recorder during the review meeting.

    Correct Answer
    C. Trained participants and leaders.
    Explanation
    Trained participants and leaders are the most important factor for the success of a review because their knowledge and expertise in the subject matter enable them to provide valuable insights and feedback. They are able to effectively analyze the reviewed material, identify areas for improvement, and suggest appropriate solutions. Their training ensures that they have the necessary skills to conduct a thorough and productive review, leading to better outcomes and a higher chance of success.

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  • 18. 

    According to the ISTQB glossary , what is a Testware?

    • A.

      A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests.

    • B.

      A document describing the scope, approach , resources and schedule of intended test activities.

    • C.

      Artifacts produced during the test process required to plan ,design and execute tests , such as documentation, scripts, inputs, expected results , and any additional software or utilities used in testing

    • D.

      A set of several test cases for a component/system under test, where the postcondition of one test is often used as precondition for the next one.

    Correct Answer
    C. Artifacts produced during the test process required to plan ,design and execute tests , such as documentation, scripts, inputs, expected results , and any additional software or utilities used in testing
    Explanation
    Testware refers to the artifacts produced during the test process that are necessary for planning, designing, and executing tests. These artifacts include documentation, scripts, inputs, expected results, and any additional software or utilities used in testing. Testware is essential for ensuring the successful execution of tests and plays a crucial role in the overall testing process.

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  • 19. 

    Which of these is a functional test ?

    • A.

      Measuring response time on an on-line ticket booking system.

    • B.

      Checking how easy the system is to use.

    • C.

      Checking the on-line booking screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers.

    • D.

      Checking the effort of high volumes of traffic in a call-center system.

    Correct Answer
    C. Checking the on-line booking screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is checking the on-line booking screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers. This is a functional test because it involves verifying that the system is functioning correctly by comparing the information displayed on the screen and stored in the database with the information provided in the letter to the customers. This test ensures that the system is accurately capturing and displaying the relevant information, which is a key aspect of its functionality.

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  • 20. 

    During which FUNDAMENTAL test  process activity  do we determine if more tests are needed?

    • A.

      Test implementation and execution

    • B.

      Test analysis and design

    • C.

      Test planning and control

    • D.

      Evaluating test exit criteria

    Correct Answer
    D. Evaluating test exit criteria
    Explanation
    During the process of evaluating test exit criteria, we determine if more tests are needed. Test exit criteria are the conditions that must be met in order to consider the testing phase complete. By evaluating these criteria, we can assess whether all the necessary tests have been executed and if there is a need for additional tests to ensure the quality and completeness of the testing process.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is the BEST definition of 'complete testing' ?

    • A.

      You have completed every test in the test plan.

    • B.

      You have detected every bug in the software .

    • C.

      You have reached the schedule ship date .

    • D.

      You have tested every statement, branch and combination of branches in the program.

    Correct Answer
    A. You have completed every test in the test plan.
    Explanation
    Complete testing refers to the process of executing all the tests outlined in the test plan. This means that all the planned tests have been successfully conducted, including functional, performance, and other types of tests. It does not imply that every bug in the software has been detected, or that the schedule ship date has been reached. Complete testing does not necessarily involve testing every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program, as it depends on the level of coverage specified in the test plan.

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  • 22. 

    What is a test design technique ?

    • A.

      A process of selecting test cases.

    • B.

      A way to measure the quality of the software.

    • C.

      A process of determining expected outputs.

    • D.

      A way to measure in a test plan what has to be done.

    Correct Answer
    A. A process of selecting test cases.
    Explanation
    A test design technique refers to a process of selecting test cases. This technique involves identifying and choosing specific test cases that will be executed to evaluate the functionality and performance of the software under test. It helps in ensuring that the test coverage is comprehensive and that all critical areas of the software are tested. By employing various test design techniques, testers can systematically determine which test cases to execute, thereby improving the efficiency and effectiveness of the testing process.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following are the KEY tasks of a test leader ?a. Using monitoring tools as needed.b. Scheduling tests and other activities.c. Understanding the project risks.d. Measuring performance of components.

    • A.

      C and d

    • B.

      A and c

    • C.

      B and c

    • D.

      B and d

    Correct Answer
    C. B and c
    Explanation
    The key tasks of a test leader include scheduling tests and other activities (option b) and understanding the project risks (option c). Scheduling tests and activities is important for ensuring that the testing process is well-organized and executed according to the project timeline. Understanding project risks is crucial for identifying potential issues and developing appropriate testing strategies to mitigate those risks. Therefore, options b and c are the correct choices.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following tools will you use to detect  a memory leak ?

    • A.

      Dynamic analysis

    • B.

      Memory analysis

    • C.

      State analysis

    • D.

      Coverage analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Dynamic analysis
    Explanation
    Dynamic analysis is the correct answer because it involves analyzing the behavior of a program while it is executing. This technique can be used to detect memory leaks by monitoring the allocation and deallocation of memory during runtime. By tracking memory usage, dynamic analysis can identify any instances where memory is allocated but not properly released, indicating a memory leak. Other options like memory analysis, state analysis, and coverage analysis may be useful for other types of software analysis, but they are not specifically designed for detecting memory leaks.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following are BEST candidates of static testing ?

    • A.

      Requirement specification, website, code , use cases

    • B.

      Requirement specification , user guide, performance

    • C.

      Requirement specification , test cases , user guide

    • D.

      Requirement specification , test plan, test memory leaks

    Correct Answer
    C. Requirement specification , test cases , user guide
    Explanation
    Static testing is a type of testing that is performed without executing the code. It involves reviewing and analyzing the documentation, requirements, and design of the software. The best candidates for static testing are requirement specifications, test cases, and user guides. These documents can be thoroughly reviewed for accuracy, completeness, and consistency, ensuring that the software meets the specified requirements and is well-documented for users. The other options, such as website, code, performance, and test memory leaks, are not suitable for static testing as they involve dynamic aspects of the software that require execution.

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  • 26. 

    Regression testing can be applied to which of the following ?a. Functional testingb. Non-functional testingc. Structural testing

    • A.

      A and b only

    • B.

      A and c only

    • C.

      A, b and c

    • D.

      B and c only

    Correct Answer
    C. A, b and c
    Explanation
    Regression testing can be applied to all of the options mentioned, which are functional testing, non-functional testing, and structural testing. Regression testing is a type of testing that is performed to ensure that previously developed and tested software still performs correctly after it has been changed or interfaced with other software. It is important to apply regression testing to all aspects of the software, including its functionality, non-functional aspects such as performance and security, and the underlying structure or architecture of the software. Therefore, the correct answer is a, b, and c.

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  • 27. 

    Non-functional testing includes which of the following ?

    • A.

      Testing a system feature using only the software required for that action.

    • B.

      Testing to see where the function does not function properly.

    • C.

      Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.

    • D.

      Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability.

    Correct Answer
    D. Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability.
    Explanation
    Non-functional testing refers to testing the quality attributes of a system, such as its performance and usability. This type of testing focuses on evaluating how well the system performs under different conditions and how user-friendly it is. It does not involve testing specific system features using only the required software for that action or function. Therefore, the correct answer is testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability.

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  • 28. 

    For the program below, how many test cases are needed to achieve 100% statement coverage(SC) and 100% branch coverage(BC)?SWITCH PC ONSTART 'OUTLOOK'IF OUTLOOK OPEN SEND MAILCLOSE OUTLOOK

    • A.

      SC = 1 ; BC = 2

    • B.

      SC = 1 ; BC = 1

    • C.

      SC = 2 ; BC = 2

    • D.

      SC = 2 ; BC = 1

    Correct Answer
    A. SC = 1 ; BC = 2
    Explanation
    The program consists of a switch case statement with one case. To achieve 100% statement coverage, we only need to execute this case once. However, for 100% branch coverage, we need to test both the true and false branches of the if statement. Since the switch case statement is the only branching construct in the program, we need to test it twice, resulting in 1 test case for statement coverage and 2 test cases for branch coverage.

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  • 29. 

    In which testing type, 'Test charters' are used?

    • A.

      Exploratory testing

    • B.

      Usability testing

    • C.

      Component testing.

    • D.

      Maintainability testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Exploratory testing
  • 30. 

    Given the following types of tools, which tools would typically be used by developers and which would be used by the independent testers :i. performance testingii. test management iii. dynamic analysisiv. test data preparationv. test runningvi. static analysis

    • A.

      Developers : iv , iii , vi Independent Testers : i, ii, v

    • B.

      Developers : iii , v, vi ; Independent Testers: i, ii, iv

    • C.

      Developers : iii and vi ; Independent Testers: i, ii,iv, v

    • D.

      Developers: iii , i, vi Independent Testers: ii , iv, v

    Correct Answer
    C. Developers : iii and vi ; Independent Testers: i, ii,iv, v
    Explanation
    Developers typically use tools for dynamic analysis (iii) to analyze the behavior of the code during runtime and identify any potential issues. They also use tools for static analysis (vi) to analyze the code without executing it and find any coding errors or vulnerabilities. Independent testers, on the other hand, typically use tools for performance testing (i) to evaluate the performance of the software under different conditions. They also use test management tools (ii) to plan, organize, and track the testing process. Additionally, they use tools for test running (v) to execute the tests and tools for test data preparation (iv) to create test data sets.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following will not be checked in statement testing ?

    • A.

      Missing statements

    • B.

      Unreachable code

    • C.

      Unused statement

    • D.

      Unused branches

    Correct Answer
    A. Missing statements
    Explanation
    In statement testing, the focus is on checking the individual statements within a program to ensure that they are functioning correctly. This includes checking for unreachable code, which refers to sections of code that cannot be executed, as well as unused statements and unused branches, which are statements or branches that do not contribute to the overall functionality of the program. However, missing statements, which are statements that are not present in the program but should be, are not checked in statement testing as the focus is on the existing statements.

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  • 32. 

    What is the MAIN focus of acceptance testing?

    • A.

      Testing for a business perspective.

    • B.

      Finding faults in the system.

    • C.

      Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users.

    • D.

      Testing the system with other systems.

    Correct Answer
    A. Testing for a business perspective.
    Explanation
    The main focus of acceptance testing is to test for a business perspective. This means that the testing is done to ensure that the system meets the requirements and expectations of the business and its stakeholders. It involves verifying that the system functions correctly, performs the intended tasks, and meets the business objectives. Acceptance testing is typically carried out by end-users or business representatives to determine if the system is acceptable and ready for deployment.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following are the activities of equivalence partitioning ?

    • A.

      Identify all inputs and all outputs.

    • B.

      Identify equivalence classes for each input.

    • C.

      Ensure that the test cases test each input and output at least once.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure that the test cases test each input and output at least once.
    Explanation
    Equivalence partitioning is a testing technique where inputs are divided into groups or classes that are expected to exhibit similar behavior. The goal is to reduce the number of test cases while still achieving maximum coverage. The activities of equivalence partitioning include identifying all inputs and outputs, as well as identifying equivalence classes for each input. However, the most important activity is ensuring that the test cases cover each input and output at least once to validate the behavior of the system. Therefore, the correct answer is "Ensure that the test cases test each input and output at least once."

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  • 34. 

    Which acceptance test is USUALLY performed by system administrators ?

    • A.

      Customer

    • B.

      Operational

    • C.

      Regulatory

    • D.

      Contractual

    Correct Answer
    B. Operational
    Explanation
    System administrators are responsible for managing and maintaining the operational aspects of a system. This includes tasks such as monitoring system performance, ensuring availability, and troubleshooting any issues that may arise. Therefore, it is usually the system administrators who perform operational acceptance tests to verify that the system is functioning correctly and meeting the operational requirements.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following a programmer needs to write in order to call a function to be tested and then passes it the test data ?

    • A.

      Stub

    • B.

      Driver

    • C.

      Proxy

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Driver
    Explanation
    A programmer needs to write a driver in order to call a function to be tested and then pass it the test data. The driver is responsible for setting up the test environment, invoking the function being tested with the appropriate test data, and capturing the output or result for validation. It acts as a bridge between the test code and the function being tested, facilitating the execution of the test cases. A driver helps in isolating and testing the specific functionality of the function under test.

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  • 36. 

    Who are the persons involved in a formal review process ?a. managerb. moderatorc. recorderd. assistant manager

    • A.

      A , c are correct ; b , d are incorrect

    • B.

      A , b are correct ; c, d are incorrect

    • C.

      A, b ,c are correct and d is incorrect

    • D.

      A , b , c , d are correct

    Correct Answer
    C. A, b ,c are correct and d is incorrect
    Explanation
    In a formal review process, the persons involved typically include a manager, a moderator, and a recorder. The manager oversees the review process and ensures that it is conducted properly. The moderator facilitates the review discussion and ensures that everyone's opinions are heard. The recorder takes notes during the review and documents any decisions or actions that are made. The assistant manager is not typically involved in the formal review process. Therefore, options a, b, and c are correct, while option d is incorrect.

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  • 37. 

    Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove?

    • A.

      Minor defects that were found by users.

    • B.

      Defects that were detected early .

    • C.

      Usability defects found by customers.

    • D.

      Defects in infrequently used functionality.

    Correct Answer
    B. Defects that were detected early .
    Explanation
    Defects that are detected early are often much cheaper to remove because they can be addressed and fixed before they have a chance to cause further issues or impact other parts of the system. Early detection allows for quicker and more efficient resolution, reducing the potential costs associated with extensive testing, rework, and customer dissatisfaction. Additionally, identifying defects early in the development process can help prevent them from reaching the production stage, saving time and resources.

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  • 38. 

    With a highly experienced tester and with a good business background, which approach to defining test procedures would be effective and most efficient for a project under severe time pressure?

    • A.

      Detailed documentation of all test cases and careful records of each step taken in the testing.

    • B.

      Every step in the test spelled out in detail.

    • C.

      A high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take.

    • D.

      A high-level outline of the test conditions with the steps to take discussed in detail with another experienced tester.

    Correct Answer
    C. A high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take.
    Explanation
    In a project under severe time pressure, a high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take would be the most effective and efficient approach. This approach allows for flexibility and adaptability, enabling the tester to prioritize and focus on the most critical aspects of the testing process. Detailed documentation of all test cases and careful records of each step would be time-consuming and may not be feasible within the given time constraints. Similarly, spelling out every step in detail would be too rigid and may hinder the tester's ability to quickly adjust to changing circumstances. Discussing the steps in detail with another experienced tester could be helpful, but it may not be the most efficient use of time.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not the integration strategy ?

    • A.

      Top-down

    • B.

      Bottom-up

    • C.

      Big-bang

    • D.

      Design-based

    Correct Answer
    D. Design-based
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the integration strategy that is not included in the options provided. Among the given options, "Design-based" is not a commonly recognized integration strategy. The other options, "Top-down," "Bottom-up," and "Big-bang," are well-known integration strategies used in software development and system integration processes. Therefore, "Design-based" is the correct answer as it does not fit into the category of integration strategies.

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  • 40. 

    One of the fields on a student registration form contains a text box that accepts alphanumeric values.Identify the invalid  and valid equivalence class?

    • A.

      BoOkLeT ; B01kL0t

    • B.

      BO1kLEt ; BOOKLET

    • C.

      B01kle8 ; Bo0klet ,

    • D.

      BOOklet ; Booklet

    Correct Answer
    A. BoOkLeT ; B01kL0t
    Explanation
    The valid equivalence class for the given answer is "BoOkLeT" and "B01kL0t" because they are alphanumeric values that can be accepted in the text box. The invalid equivalence class is "B01kle8" because it contains a numeric value that is not valid for the alphanumeric field.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 18, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 23, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Salbhar
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