ISTQB Mock Test 1
- 1.
Which of the following is a potential pilot project objective ?
- A.
Reducing the amount of overtime need to finish the project on time.
- B.
Receiving compliments from the users on the aesthetic aspects of the tool.
- C.
Measuring the satisfaction of management fro staying within the scope.
- D.
Assessing whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
Correct Answer
D. Assessing whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.Explanation
The objective of a pilot project is to assess whether the benefits will be achieved at a reasonable cost. This means that the project aims to determine if the desired outcomes can be attained while keeping the expenses within a reasonable budget. This objective focuses on evaluating the cost-effectiveness of the project and ensuring that the benefits outweigh the costs.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Test planning has which of the following major tasks : i. To determine the scope and risks for the project and determine the objectives of testing.ii. Determine the test approachiii. Reviewing the requirements documents.iv. determining the entry and exit criteria.
- A.
I, ii,iii,iv
- B.
I ,iii, iv
- C.
I, ii, iv
- D.
Ii and iv
Correct Answer
C. I, ii, ivExplanation
Test planning involves several major tasks. One of the tasks is to determine the scope and risks for the project and establish the objectives of testing. This helps in understanding the boundaries and potential challenges of the project. Another task is to determine the test approach, which includes deciding on the testing techniques, tools, and resources to be used. Additionally, reviewing the requirements documents is an important task to ensure that the testing aligns with the project requirements. Lastly, determining the entry and exit criteria is necessary to define when testing activities should start and end. Therefore, the correct answer includes tasks i, ii, and iv.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Technical Reviews are also called as :
- A.
Walkthrough
- B.
Technical Reviews
- C.
Management Reviews
- D.
Inspection
Correct Answer
B. Technical ReviewsExplanation
Technical Reviews are a formal evaluation process that helps identify defects and improve the quality of a product or system. It involves a group of experts reviewing the technical aspects of the product, such as design, code, documentation, and implementation. These reviews are often referred to as Technical Reviews because they focus on the technical aspects of the product rather than managerial or administrative aspects. They are different from Management Reviews, which focus on overall project management and progress, and Inspections, which are more formal and rigorous in nature. Walkthroughs are a type of Technical Review where the author of the product walks through it with the reviewers to explain its functionality and design.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is the name of a skeletal implementation of a software component that is used for testing?
- A.
Domain
- B.
Use case
- C.
Stub
- D.
Driver
Correct Answer
C. StubExplanation
A stub is a skeletal implementation of a software component that is used for testing. It provides basic functionality to simulate the behavior of the actual component, allowing other components to be tested without relying on the complete and fully functional implementation. Stubs are often used when the actual component is not yet available or when certain functionality needs to be isolated and tested separately. They help in identifying and fixing issues early in the development process and facilitate smooth integration of different components.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which test approach uses all combinations of input values and preconditions ?
- A.
Exploratory testing
- B.
Exhaustive Testing
- C.
Component Testing
- D.
Alpha testing
Correct Answer
B. Exhaustive TestingExplanation
Exhaustive testing is a test approach that involves testing all possible combinations of input values and preconditions. This means that every possible scenario is tested to ensure that the system functions correctly under all conditions. This approach is time-consuming and resource-intensive, but it provides thorough test coverage and helps identify any potential issues or bugs in the system.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Enough testing has been performed when :
- A.
The required level of confidence has been achieved.
- B.
Time runs out.
- C.
No more faults are found.
- D.
The user's won't find any serious faults.
Correct Answer
A. The required level of confidence has been achieved.Explanation
Enough testing has been performed when the required level of confidence has been achieved. This means that the testing process has been thorough and extensive enough to ensure that the system or product being tested meets the desired level of quality and reliability. It indicates that the testing has been successful in identifying and addressing any potential issues or faults, giving the necessary assurance that the system is ready for use.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is not a black-box testing technique?
- A.
Equivalence partitioning
- B.
BVA
- C.
Boundary value analysis
- D.
Statement testing
Correct Answer
D. Statement testingExplanation
Statement testing is not a black-box testing technique because it involves testing the internal logic and structure of the code. Black-box testing techniques focus on testing the system's functionality without considering its internal implementation. Equivalence partitioning, BVA, and boundary value analysis are all black-box testing techniques that test the system's inputs and outputs without considering the internal workings of the code.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which test is usually run many times to ensure that defects were not introduced to a previously tested system after it was modified or changed.
- A.
Reliability testing
- B.
Performance testing
- C.
Confirmation Testing(Re-testing)
- D.
Regression Testing
Correct Answer
D. Regression TestingExplanation
Regression testing is usually run many times to ensure that defects were not introduced to a previously tested system after it was modified or changed. This type of testing is important to verify that the modifications or changes made to the system did not have any unintended side effects or break any existing functionality. By retesting the system, regression testing helps to ensure the overall reliability and stability of the system.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the MAJOR difference between black-box and white-box testing ?
- A.
Black-box is functional; white-box is non-functional.
- B.
Black-box is structural , white-box is functional.
- C.
Black-box is functional or non-functional , white-box is structural .
- D.
Black-box can only be performed after white-box
Correct Answer
C. Black-box is functional or non-functional , white-box is structural .Explanation
Black-box testing focuses on the functionality of the system without considering its internal structure or implementation details. It tests the system as a whole, treating it as a black box where the tester has no knowledge of the internal workings. On the other hand, white-box testing examines the internal structure and implementation of the system. It requires knowledge of the internal code and logic to design test cases. Therefore, the major difference between black-box and white-box testing is that black-box testing is concerned with functionality, while white-box testing is concerned with the internal structure of the system.Rate this question:
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- 10.
L = number of edges = 10N = number of nodes = 8P = number of disconnected parts of the graph = 1McCabe's Cyclomatic Complexity is :
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
3
- D.
6
Correct Answer
A. 4Explanation
The answer is 4 because McCabe's Cyclomatic Complexity is calculated by counting the number of decision points in a program. In this case, the graph has 10 edges and 8 nodes, which means there are no decision points or branches in the graph. Therefore, the Cyclomatic Complexity is 1.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Statement coverage will not check for the following :
- A.
Dead code
- B.
Missing Statements
- C.
Unused branches
- D.
Unused statement
Correct Answer
B. Missing StatementsExplanation
Statement coverage is a type of code coverage metric that checks whether all the statements in a program have been executed at least once during testing. It ensures that every individual statement has been tested. However, statement coverage does not specifically check for missing statements, which refers to statements that are absent from the code altogether. It focuses on the execution of existing statements rather than identifying any missing ones. Therefore, missing statements are not considered during statement coverage analysis.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Static analysis can be best describes as :
- A.
The reviewing of test plans.
- B.
The analysis of program code.
- C.
The analysis of batch programs.
- D.
A black-box testing technique.
Correct Answer
B. The analysis of program code.Explanation
Static analysis refers to the examination of program code without actually executing it. It involves analyzing the code to identify potential errors, vulnerabilities, or quality issues. This process helps to detect bugs, security flaws, and adherence to coding standards. It is different from dynamic analysis, which involves running the program and observing its behavior. Therefore, the correct answer is "The analysis of program code."Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following statements about the relationship between statement and decision coverage is correct?
- A.
100% decision coverage is achieved if statement coverage is greater than 95%.
- B.
100% statement coverage = 100% decision coverage
- C.
100% statement coverage is achieved if decision coverage is greater than 90%
- D.
100% decision coverage always means 100% statement coverage
Correct Answer
D. 100% decision coverage always means 100% statement coverageExplanation
When we talk about statement coverage, it means that all the statements in the code have been executed at least once. On the other hand, decision coverage refers to the execution of all possible outcomes or branches within a decision structure. Therefore, if we have achieved 100% decision coverage, it implies that all possible outcomes within the decision structure have been executed, which in turn means that all the statements within those outcomes have also been executed. Hence, 100% decision coverage always means 100% statement coverage.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is common between error guessing and exploratory testing ?
- A.
Both are widely used as formal techniques.
- B.
Both are white-box testing techniques.
- C.
Both are experienced-based techniques.
- D.
Both are static testing techniques.
Correct Answer
C. Both are experienced-based techniques.Explanation
Both error guessing and exploratory testing are experienced-based techniques. This means that they rely on the knowledge, skills, and intuition of the tester to identify potential errors or defects. In error guessing, the tester uses their experience to guess where errors might occur in the software. In exploratory testing, the tester explores the software, learning about it as they go and using their experience to guide their testing approach. Both techniques require the tester to draw on their past experiences and expertise to effectively uncover issues in the software.Rate this question:
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- 15.
For the program below, how many test cases are needed in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?If x = 3 thendisplay_message X;If y = 2 then display_message Y;Else display_message Z;Else display_message Z;EndifEndif
- A.
4
- B.
2
- C.
1
- D.
3
Correct Answer
D. 3Explanation
In order to achieve 100% statement coverage for the given program, we need to execute every possible statement at least once. The program consists of multiple if-else statements. We need to consider all possible combinations of conditions to cover all statements. In this case, there are three possible combinations: x = 3 and y = 2, x = 3 and y ≠2, and x ≠3. Therefore, we need at least 3 test cases to achieve 100% statement coverage.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which tests are BEST described by the following characteristics ?A. Unit TestingB. Integration TestingC. Alpha TestingD. Robustness Testing1. Testing the interactions between the components.2. Automation test cases before coding.3. Testing separately testable components.4. Fixing defects as soon as they are found.
- A.
A3, B1, B2, B4
- B.
A1, A4, C3, D2
- C.
A2, D4, A1, D1
- D.
A2, A3, A4, B1
Correct Answer
D. A2, A3, A4, B1 -
- 17.
Which of the following is not a standard related to testing?
- A.
IEEE610
- B.
IEEE829
- C.
BS-7925-1
- D.
BS-7925-2
Correct Answer
A. IEEE610Explanation
IEEE610 is not a standard related to testing. IEEE610 is actually a standard for software engineering, specifically for the documentation of software requirements. It provides guidelines for the development and management of software requirements documentation throughout the software development life cycle. However, it does not specifically focus on testing activities or processes.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What test is conducted by customer at their own site ?
- A.
Alpha testing
- B.
System testing
- C.
Beta testing
- D.
Usability testing
Correct Answer
C. Beta testingExplanation
Beta testing is conducted by customers at their own site. This type of testing allows customers to use the product in a real-world environment and provide feedback to the developers. It helps identify any issues or bugs that may have been missed during development and ensures that the product meets the customer's requirements and expectations.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which technique is OFTEN considered as an extension of equivalence partitioning ?
- A.
Decision table testing
- B.
Boundary value analysis
- C.
State transition testing
- D.
Error guessing
Correct Answer
B. Boundary value analysisExplanation
Boundary value analysis is often considered as an extension of equivalence partitioning because it focuses on testing the boundaries or extreme values of the partitions identified in equivalence partitioning. Equivalence partitioning divides the input domain into groups of equivalent values, while boundary value analysis specifically tests the values at the boundaries of these partitions. By testing the minimum and maximum values, as well as values just inside and outside the boundaries, boundary value analysis helps to uncover any errors or issues that may occur at the edges of the equivalence partitions.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What information is not included in the incident report ?
- A.
How to fix a fault.
- B.
How to reproduce the fault.
- C.
Test environment details
- D.
The actual and expected outcomes.
Correct Answer
A. How to fix a fault.Explanation
The incident report does not include information on how to fix a fault. The report may provide details on the fault, such as how to reproduce it, the test environment, and the actual and expected outcomes. However, it does not provide instructions or steps on how to resolve the fault.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following are the success factors for a review ?i. Management supports a good review process.ii. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.iii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively.iv. Each review does not have a predefined objective.
- A.
I, ii , iii are correct and, iv is incorrect.
- B.
I, iv are correct and ii and iii are incorrect.
- C.
Ii, iv are correct and i ,iii are incorrect.
- D.
Ii, iii, iv are correct and i is incorrect.
Correct Answer
A. I, ii , iii are correct and, iv is incorrect.Explanation
The success factors for a review include management support, an emphasis on learning and process improvement, and welcoming and expressing defects objectively. However, each review should have a predefined objective to ensure a focused and efficient process. Therefore, option i, ii, and iii are correct, while iv is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 22.
As a moderator in a typical formal review, what can be one of your responsibilities?
- A.
Deciding on execution of reviews
- B.
.Documenting all the issues and problems.
- C.
Follow-up after the review meeting
- D.
Identifying and describing the findings
Correct Answer
C. Follow-up after the review meetingExplanation
As a moderator in a typical formal review, one of your responsibilities would be to follow-up after the review meeting. This entails ensuring that any action items or decisions made during the meeting are implemented and followed through. It involves communicating with the relevant stakeholders, tracking progress, and ensuring that any identified issues or problems are addressed and resolved. This follow-up is crucial for the success and effectiveness of the review process.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Based on the IEEE Std 829-1998 , which of the following sections are part of the test summary report ?i. summaryii. test incident report identifieriii. test deliverablesiv. risks and contingenciesv. variancesvi. approvalsvii. output specifications
- A.
I, iii, iv
- B.
I, v, vi
- C.
I, ii, vi
- D.
I, iv, vi
Correct Answer
B. I, v, viExplanation
The test summary report, based on the IEEE Std 829-1998, includes the following sections: summary (i), variances (v), and approvals (vi).Rate this question:
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- 24.
What are the four test levels in a V-model ?
- A.
Component testing, integration testing, re-testing, regression testing
- B.
Component testing, acceptance testing, system testing, usability testing
- C.
Component testing, integration testing , system testing, acceptance testing
- D.
Integration testing, system testing, alpha testing, beta testing
Correct Answer
C. Component testing, integration testing , system testing, acceptance testingExplanation
The V-model is a software development model that emphasizes the importance of testing at every stage of the development process. The four test levels in the V-model are component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. Component testing involves testing individual components or modules of the software to ensure their functionality. Integration testing focuses on testing the interaction between different components to ensure they work together correctly. System testing is conducted on the entire system to verify its compliance with the specified requirements. Lastly, acceptance testing is performed to ensure that the system meets the user's requirements and is ready for deployment.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which statement about the function of static analysis tool is true?
- A.
Gives information about what code has and has not executed.
- B.
Can detect memory leaks.
- C.
Checks expected results against actual results.
- D.
Gives quality information about the code without executing it.
Correct Answer
D. Gives quality information about the code without executing it.Explanation
A static analysis tool is designed to analyze code without actually executing it. It examines the code for potential issues, such as coding errors, vulnerabilities, or violations of coding standards. By analyzing the code statically, it can provide information about the quality of the code, such as potential bugs, maintainability, or adherence to best practices. However, it does not provide information about what code has or has not executed, detect memory leaks, or check expected results against actual results.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following is the BEST definition for quality ?
- A.
Zero defects
- B.
Conformance to requirements
- C.
Work as designed
- D.
Quality is job one.
Correct Answer
B. Conformance to requirementsExplanation
Conformance to requirements is the best definition for quality because it implies that a product or service meets the specified criteria and fulfills the expectations of the customer. It emphasizes the importance of meeting the desired standards and specifications, ensuring that the end result is satisfactory and meets the intended purpose. This definition focuses on the objective aspect of quality, ensuring that the product or service meets the necessary criteria and performs as expected.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A test plan contains all of the following except :
- A.
Test case specifications
- B.
Test Items
- C.
Test Tasks
- D.
Test approach
Correct Answer
A. Test case specificationsExplanation
A test plan is a document that outlines the approach, objectives, and scope of testing for a particular project. It includes various components such as test items, test tasks, and test approach. However, test case specifications are not typically included in a test plan. Test case specifications are detailed descriptions of individual test cases, including inputs, expected outputs, and preconditions. While they are an important part of the testing process, they are typically documented separately from the test plan.Rate this question:
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- 28.
In which of the following cases regression testing must be performed ?i. every weekii. after the software has changed.iii. as often as possible.iv. when the environment has changed.v. when the project manager says
- A.
I, ii are correct and iii, iv, v are incorrect.
- B.
Ii, iii, iv , v are correct and i is incorrect
- C.
Ii, iv are correct and i , iii, v are incorrect
- D.
I, iii are correct and ii, iv, v are incorrect.
Correct Answer
C. Ii, iv are correct and i , iii, v are incorrectExplanation
Regression testing must be performed after the software has changed because any changes made to the software can introduce new bugs or affect existing functionality. Additionally, regression testing should be done when the environment has changed to ensure that the software works correctly in the new environment. However, performing regression testing every week or as often as possible may not be necessary or practical, and relying solely on the project manager's say may not be a reliable criterion for determining when to perform regression testing.Rate this question:
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- 29.
For the program below, how many test cases are needed to achieve 100% decision coverage?If (p = q) { s = s + 1; If(s < 5) { t = 10; } }Elseif(p>q) { t = 5; }
- A.
3
- B.
6
- C.
5
- D.
4
Correct Answer
D. 4Explanation
To achieve 100% decision coverage, we need to test all possible outcomes of the if-else statement. In this program, there are two conditions: (p = q) and (p > q).
For the given answer of 4 test cases, we can see that it covers all possible outcomes:
1. p = q, s < 5
2. p = q, s >= 5
3. p > q
4. p < q (not mentioned in the program, but necessary to cover all possible outcomes)
Therefore, with these 4 test cases, we can achieve 100% decision coverage.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Incidents would not be raised against :
- A.
Requirements
- B.
Documentation
- C.
Test cases
- D.
Improvements suggested by users.
Correct Answer
D. Improvements suggested by users.Explanation
Incidents are typically raised when there is a problem or issue with a particular aspect of a project or system. In this case, incidents would not be raised against improvements suggested by users. This suggests that user suggestions for improvements are not considered as incidents, but rather as valuable feedback for enhancing the project or system.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What is the procedure of analyzing and removing the causes of failures in software ?
- A.
Debugging
- B.
Bebugging
- C.
Testing
- D.
Validation
Correct Answer
A. DebuggingExplanation
Debugging is the process of analyzing and removing the causes of failures in software. It involves identifying and fixing errors or bugs in the code that cause the software to malfunction or produce incorrect results. Debugging is an essential step in software development as it helps ensure the quality and reliability of the software. Through techniques like step-by-step execution, code inspection, and using debugging tools, developers can locate and resolve issues in the software, improving its performance and functionality.Rate this question:
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- 32.
In which of the following techniques ,we can test the input and output combinations that are treated in the same way by the system?
- A.
Boundary value analysis
- B.
Decision Table testing
- C.
State Transition
- D.
Equivalence partitioning
Correct Answer
D. Equivalence partitioningExplanation
Equivalence partitioning is a technique used to test input and output combinations that are treated in the same way by the system. It involves dividing the input domain into equivalence classes, where each class represents a set of inputs that should produce the same output. By selecting test cases from each equivalence class, we can ensure that we cover all possible scenarios within that class. This technique helps to reduce the number of test cases while still providing effective test coverage.Rate this question:
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- 33.
COTS is known as :
- A.
Compliance of the software.
- B.
Commercial off the shelf software.
- C.
Change control of the software.
- D.
Capable off the shelf software.
Correct Answer
B. Commercial off the shelf software.Explanation
COTS stands for Commercial off the shelf software. This refers to software products that are ready-made and available for purchase from third-party vendors. These products are designed to be used "as is" without any customization or modification. COTS software is commonly used in various industries and organizations as it offers cost-effective solutions and reduces development time.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional testing ?
- A.
Usability testing
- B.
Stress testing
- C.
Decision table testing
- D.
Robustness testing
Correct Answer
C. Decision table testingExplanation
Decision table testing is a technique used in functional testing to verify if the system behaves correctly based on different combinations of inputs and conditions. Non-functional testing focuses on the performance, reliability, and usability of the system. Therefore, decision table testing does not fall under the category of non-functional testing.Rate this question:
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- 35.
How is Defect Density defined ?
- A.
The ratio of number of defects identified in a component/system to the size of the component/system.
- B.
The ratio of the number of defects found by a test phase to the number found by that test phase and any other means afterwards.
- C.
The ratio of the number of defects found by a component/system to the number of defects found by a test phase.
- D.
The ratio of the number of defects found by a test phase to the size of the component/system.
Correct Answer
A. The ratio of number of defects identified in a component/system to the size of the component/system.Explanation
Defect Density is defined as the ratio of the number of defects identified in a component/system to the size of the component/system. This means that it measures the number of defects per unit of size, providing a quantitative measure of the quality of the component/system. A higher defect density indicates a higher number of defects in relation to the size, indicating lower quality. Conversely, a lower defect density indicates a lower number of defects in relation to the size, indicating higher quality.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What is a group of test activities that are organized and managed together?
- A.
Test Level
- B.
Test procedure Specification
- C.
Test case Specification
- D.
Test Plan
Correct Answer
A. Test LevelExplanation
A test level refers to a group of test activities that are organized and managed together. It represents a specific stage or phase of the testing process, where a set of related testing activities are performed. Each test level has its own objectives, entry and exit criteria, and test deliverables. Test levels help in organizing and structuring the testing effort, ensuring that all necessary testing activities are carried out effectively and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What consists of a set of input values , execution preconditions, expected results and execution postconditions ?
- A.
Test Plan
- B.
Test Script
- C.
Test Case
- D.
Test Data
Correct Answer
C. Test CaseExplanation
A test case consists of a set of input values, execution preconditions, expected results, and execution postconditions. It is a specific scenario or condition that is used to determine whether a system or software meets its intended requirements. Test cases are designed to validate the functionality, performance, and usability of a system or software by providing specific inputs and checking if the expected outputs or results are obtained. They help in identifying any defects or issues in the system and ensure that it is working as intended.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A program validates a numeric field by accepting the values between 18 and 25 . Values less than 18 and greater then 25 are rejected. Which of the following test inputs cover all the equivalence classes?
- A.
18, 25, 28
- B.
14, 20, 30
- C.
10, 9 , 20
- D.
0, 18, 19
Correct Answer
B. 14, 20, 30Explanation
The given program validates a numeric field by accepting values between 18 and 25. This means that any value less than 18 or greater than 25 will be rejected. To cover all the equivalence classes, we need to test values that fall within the valid range (18-25) as well as values that are outside the valid range. The test inputs 14, 20, and 30 cover all the equivalence classes because 14 is less than 18 (invalid), 20 is within the valid range (valid), and 30 is greater than 25 (invalid). Therefore, the test inputs 14, 20, and 30 cover all the equivalence classes.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which type of testing investigates both the functional and non-functional system requirements?
- A.
System testing
- B.
Alpha testing
- C.
Confirmation testing
- D.
Acceptance testing
Correct Answer
A. System testingExplanation
System testing is the type of testing that investigates both the functional and non-functional system requirements. This type of testing is performed on a complete, integrated system to evaluate its compliance with the specified requirements. It involves testing the system as a whole to ensure that all the components work together properly and meet the desired functionality and performance criteria. System testing helps identify any defects or issues in the system before it is deployed to the end-users.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria , including metrics ?
- A.
Management review
- B.
Inspection
- C.
Technical Review
- D.
Walkthrough
Correct Answer
B. InspectionExplanation
Inspection is the correct answer because it is a type of review that requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics. During an inspection, the review process is well-defined and structured, with specific objectives and measures in place. It involves a thorough examination of the work products or deliverables to identify defects, errors, or deviations from standards. The inspection process includes a checklist or set of criteria to evaluate the quality of the product being reviewed. The use of metrics helps in quantifying the effectiveness of the inspection and identifying areas for improvement.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 23, 2012Quiz Created by
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