Diseases Of Immunity

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| By MaddieShirley
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MaddieShirley
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1. Type II hypersensitivity reactions can result in phagocytosis, lysis, inflammation or dysregulated function (impaired or excessively stimulated) of of target cells.

Explanation

Anti-body mediated, mostly by binding of Fc fragments. Complement is also heavily involved in some reactions.

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About This Quiz
Autoimmunity Quizzes & Trivia

Questions are based on Chapter 6 of Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 7th edition.

2. What is type I hypersensitivity is also known as?

Explanation

Prototype disorder = Anaphylaxis

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3. What is type IV hypersensitivity is also known as?

Explanation

Prototype disorders = transplant rejection, TB, contact dermatitis.

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4. Food allergy is as example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Food allergy is an example of an immediate hypersensitivity reaction. In this type of reaction, the immune system reacts rapidly and strongly to an allergen, such as a specific food. The reaction occurs within minutes to hours of exposure and is mediated by the release of histamine and other inflammatory molecules. Symptoms can range from mild, such as itching and hives, to severe, such as difficulty breathing and anaphylaxis. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions are typically IgE-mediated, meaning that they involve the production of specific antibodies called immunoglobulin E (IgE) in response to the allergen.

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5. B lymphocytes mediate _ _ _ _ _ _ _ immunity.

Explanation

B lymphocytes mediate humoral immunity. Humoral immunity refers to the immune response that involves the production of antibodies by B lymphocytes. These antibodies are released into the body fluids, such as blood and lymph, to neutralize or eliminate pathogens. B lymphocytes, also known as B cells, are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the adaptive immune response. They recognize and bind to specific antigens, triggering the production and release of antibodies. This immune response is called humoral immunity because it involves the action of antibodies in the body fluids.

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6. T cells need 2 signals for activation.

Explanation

Signal 1 occurs when the T cell receptor is engaged by the appropriate MHC bound antigen and the co-receptors CD4 and CD8 bind to MHC molecules.
Signal 2 occurs when CD28 on the T cell interacts with co-stimulatory molecules (CD80 and CD86) expressed on antigen presenting cells.

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7. Which class of MHC molecules does CD4 bind to?

Explanation

CD4 molecules bind to MHC class II molecules. MHC class II molecules are found on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, such as dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells. They present antigens to CD4+ T cells, which play a crucial role in immune responses. CD4 molecules bind to the MHC class II molecule in a specific manner, allowing for the activation of CD4+ T cells and the initiation of an immune response.

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8. Most immediate hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by which type of immunoglobulin?

Explanation

The differentiation of naive B cells into IgE secreting B cells is dependent on the activity of T-helper-2 cells.

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9. What is type II hypersensitivity is also known as?

Explanation

Prototype disorder = Goodpasture Syndrome

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10. Cell mediated (or cellular) immunity is responsible for defence against _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ microbes.

Explanation

Cell mediated (or cellular) immunity is responsible for defense against intracellular microbes. This means that this type of immune response is specifically designed to target and eliminate microbes that are able to invade and replicate within the cells of the body. Intracellular microbes include viruses, bacteria, and parasites that can infect and survive inside host cells. Cell mediated immunity involves the activation of T cells, which recognize and destroy infected cells, preventing the spread of the infection. This type of immunity is crucial in combating intracellular pathogens and preventing the development of severe infections.

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11. CD20 is B cell specific.

Explanation

Rituximab and other anti-CD20 antibodies are highly effective in therapy of B cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma. CD20 is expresse on normal and neoplastic B cells, but not on other cells.

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12. Which class of MHC molecules does CD8 bind to?

Explanation

CD8 binds to MHC class I molecules. MHC class I molecules are found on the surface of all nucleated cells and present antigens to CD8+ T cells. These antigens are usually derived from intracellular pathogens or proteins produced within the cell. CD8 binds to the MHC class I molecule in order to recognize and respond to these antigens, leading to the activation of cytotoxic T cells and the elimination of infected or abnormal cells. MHC class II molecules, on the other hand, present antigens to CD4+ T cells. MHC class III molecules are not involved in antigen presentation.

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13. T cells can only recognise membrane bound antigens.

Explanation

T cells can only recognize antigens that are presented on the surface of cells, which are referred to as membrane-bound antigens. This recognition occurs through the interaction of the T cell receptor (TCR) with the antigen-presenting molecule called major histocompatibility complex (MHC). Therefore, the statement that T cells can only recognize membrane-bound antigens is true.

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14. HIV infects neurons.

Explanation

In the central nervous system, HIV infects macrophages and microglial cells (also from monocyte/macrophage lineage).

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15. Which is the most significant of the transcription factors activated by signalling from toll like receptors?

Explanation

NF-κB is the most significant transcription factor activated by signaling from toll-like receptors. Toll-like receptors play a crucial role in the innate immune response by recognizing pathogen-associated molecular patterns. Upon activation, toll-like receptors initiate a signaling cascade that leads to the activation of NF-κB. NF-κB then translocates to the nucleus and regulates the expression of genes involved in inflammation, immune response, and cell survival. Therefore, NF-κB is considered the most significant transcription factor in mediating the immune response triggered by toll-like receptor signaling.

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16. CD8+ T cells act mainly as _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ cells.

Explanation

CD8+ T cells act mainly as cytotoxic cells. Cytotoxic cells are a type of immune cells that are responsible for killing infected or abnormal cells in the body. CD8+ T cells recognize specific antigens on the surface of these cells and release toxic substances to destroy them. This process helps to eliminate pathogens, such as viruses or cancer cells, and maintain the overall health of the body.

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17. Graves disease is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the production of antibodies that stimulate the thyroid gland, leading to the overproduction of thyroid hormones. This excessive hormone production causes symptoms such as weight loss, rapid heartbeat, and bulging eyes. Antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reactions involve the production of antibodies that target specific antigens, leading to tissue damage or dysfunction. In the case of Graves disease, the antibodies produced target the thyroid gland, resulting in its overactivity. Therefore, the correct answer is antibody-mediated.

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18. What is type III hypersensitivity is also known as?

Explanation

Prototype disorder = SLE

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19. Myasthenia Gravis is as example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune disorder where antibodies are produced against the acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells. These antibodies interfere with the transmission of nerve impulses to the muscles, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue. This type of immune response, where antibodies are involved in causing the disease, is known as antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reaction.

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20. Vascular dilation, oedema, smooth muscle contraction and mucous production are the pathologic lesions seen in which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Mast cells are central to the development of immediate hypersensitivity

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21. Which T cell subset is involved in synthesis of IgE and activation of eosinophils?

Explanation

T-helper-2 cells are involved in the synthesis of IgE and activation of eosinophils. These cells play a crucial role in allergic responses and asthma. T-helper-2 cells produce cytokines such as IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13, which stimulate B cells to produce IgE antibodies. IgE antibodies then bind to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of inflammatory mediators. T-helper-2 cells also promote the recruitment and activation of eosinophils, which are involved in the immune response against parasites and contribute to allergic inflammation. Therefore, T-helper-2 cells are the correct answer in this context.

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22. T_  _l l_ _e r_ _ _ _ _ _r activation ultimately results in synthesis of many different components of the innate immune response including cytokines, endothelial adhesion molecules and nitric oxide synthase.

Explanation

Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are a type of protein receptor found on the surface of immune cells. When activated, TLRs initiate a signaling cascade that leads to the synthesis of various components of the innate immune response, such as cytokines, endothelial adhesion molecules, and nitric oxide synthase. This activation is crucial for the immune system to mount an appropriate response against pathogens and maintain immune homeostasis. TLRs recognize specific patterns on pathogens, known as pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs), and play a crucial role in initiating the immune response.

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23. Mannose binding lectin and C-reactive protein are circulating plasma proteins, both of which coat microbes for _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ and complement activation.

Explanation

Mannose binding lectin and C-reactive protein are circulating plasma proteins that coat microbes for phagocytosis and complement activation. Phagocytosis is the process by which immune cells engulf and destroy foreign particles, such as microbes. By coating the microbes, mannose binding lectin and C-reactive protein facilitate their recognition and uptake by phagocytes, enhancing the immune response against the invading pathogens. This process is essential for the clearance of pathogens from the body and the activation of the complement system, which further enhances the immune response.

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24.   Which T cell subset is involved in facilitating delayed hypersensitivity, macrophage activation and synthesis of opsonizing and complement fixing antibodies due to the actions of IFN-γ?

Explanation

T-helper-1 (Th1) cells are involved in facilitating delayed hypersensitivity, macrophage activation, and synthesis of opsonizing and complement-fixing antibodies due to the actions of IFN-γ. Th1 cells produce IFN-γ, which activates macrophages and enhances their ability to kill intracellular pathogens. IFN-γ also stimulates B cells to produce opsonizing antibodies and promotes the activation of the complement system. Th1 cells are primarily involved in cell-mediated immune responses and play a crucial role in defense against intracellular pathogens.

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25. Chronic granulomatous disease is characterised by recurrent life-threatening infections with bacteria and fungi, and granuloma formation.  It can be x-linked or autosomal dominant or recessive.  It is caused by multiple molecular defects in phox genes of _ _ _ _ _ oxidase.

Explanation

Chronic granulomatous disease is a condition characterized by recurrent infections and the formation of granulomas. It can be inherited in different ways, such as being X-linked or autosomal dominant or recessive. The disease is caused by multiple molecular defects in phox genes of NADPH oxidase. NADPH is an important molecule involved in the respiratory burst, which is a process used by immune cells to kill bacteria and fungi. Defects in the phox genes prevent the production of functional NADPH oxidase, leading to impaired immune function and increased susceptibility to infections.

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26. Pernicious anaemia is as example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune condition where the immune system mistakenly attacks the cells in the stomach that produce a protein called intrinsic factor, which is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. Antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reactions occur when antibodies bind to specific cells or tissues, leading to their destruction or dysfunction. In the case of pernicious anaemia, autoantibodies are produced that target and destroy the cells producing intrinsic factor, resulting in a deficiency of vitamin B12. Therefore, the correct answer is antibody-mediated.

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27. Autoimmune thrombocytopaenia purpura is as example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Autoimmune thrombocytopaenia purpura is an example of an antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. In this condition, the body's immune system mistakenly produces antibodies that target and destroy platelets, leading to a decrease in their numbers. These antibodies bind to the platelets, marking them for destruction by the immune system. This type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the production of antibodies by the immune system, which then mediate the immune response against the body's own cells or tissues.

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28. What does CD in CD4 stand for? (3 words)

Explanation

CD in CD4 stands for cluster of differentiation. This term refers to a group of cell surface molecules that are used to identify and classify different types of immune cells. CD4 specifically refers to a protein found on the surface of helper T cells, which play a crucial role in the immune response by coordinating the actions of other immune cells. By recognizing and binding to specific antigens, CD4 helps activate and regulate the immune system.

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29. Cell lysis and inflammation are the pathologic lesions seen in which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

In Type II hypersensitivity reactions, cell lysis and inflammation are the pathologic lesions observed. This type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the binding of antibodies to antigens on the surface of cells or tissues, leading to the activation of the complement system and subsequent destruction of the affected cells. This process triggers an inflammatory response, resulting in tissue damage and inflammation.

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30. Serum sickness is as example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Serum sickness is the prototype for systemic type III hypersensitivity reactions. It takes a week to manifest as antibodies have to be made.

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31. The principal physiologic function of the cell surface histocompatibility molecules is to bind peptide fragments of foreign proteins for presentation to antigen specific   _   _ _ _ _ _.

Explanation

The principal physiologic function of the cell surface histocompatibility molecules is to bind peptide fragments of foreign proteins for presentation to T cells.

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32. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is as example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is an example of an immune complex hypersensitivity reaction. In this condition, immune complexes formed by the interaction of antibodies and antigens (in this case, streptococcal antigens) deposit in the glomeruli of the kidneys, leading to inflammation and damage. This type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the activation of complement and the recruitment of inflammatory cells, resulting in tissue injury.

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33. Which of the following is most correct about dendritic cells and presentation of antigen to T cells?

Explanation

Dendritic cells are highly specialized antigen-presenting cells that play a crucial role in initiating and regulating immune responses. They are able to take up antigens in peripheral tissues, migrate to lymph nodes, and present the antigens to T cells. This process is essential for the activation of T cells and the initiation of an immune response. Dendritic cells are considered the most effective antigen-presenting cells in the initial stages of the immune response due to their unique ability to efficiently capture and present antigens to T cells. They are able to activate both CD4 and CD8 T cells, leading to the production of specific immune responses against the presented antigens.

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34.   What are the 4 major components of innate immunity?

Explanation

All require no previous sensitisation:
Epithelium acts as a barrier
Natural killer cells will kill cells that do not express enough MHC class 1 molecules
The main phagocytes are neutrophils and macrophages
Proteins of the complement system are the main plasma proteins most heavily involved in innate immunity

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35. Necrotising vasculitis and inflammation are the pathologic lesions seen in which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Necrotising vasculitis and inflammation are the pathologic lesions seen in Type III hypersensitivity reactions. In this type of reaction, immune complexes formed by the binding of antibodies to antigens are deposited in various tissues, leading to an inflammatory response. The immune complexes can activate complement and attract neutrophils, causing tissue damage and inflammation. This type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis.

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36. Cytokines have autocrine and paracrine actions, but not endocrine actions.

Explanation

They can act in all 3 ways.

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37. Perivascular cellular infiltrates, oedema, cell duestruction and granuloma formation are pathologic lesions seen in which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Perivascular cellular infiltrates, edema, cell destruction, and granuloma formation are characteristic pathological lesions seen in Type IV hypersensitivity reactions. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions, also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions, are mediated by T cells and occur 24-72 hours after exposure to an antigen. These reactions are typically associated with chronic inflammation and tissue damage. Examples of Type IV hypersensitivity reactions include contact dermatitis, tuberculin reaction, and granulomatous diseases such as sarcoidosis.

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38. _ _ _ _ _ refers to the predisposition to develop localised immediate hypersensitivity reactions to a cariety of inhales and ingested allergens? 

Explanation

Atopy refers to the predisposition to develop localized immediate hypersensitivity reactions to a variety of inhaled and ingested allergens. This means that individuals with atopy are more likely to have allergic reactions when exposed to certain substances, such as pollen, dust mites, or certain foods. These reactions can manifest as symptoms like sneezing, itching, and difficulty breathing. Atopy is thought to have a genetic component and can be influenced by environmental factors.

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39. T lymphocytes mediate _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ immunity.

Explanation

T lymphocytes mediate cellular immunity. This type of immunity involves the direct action of T cells, which are a type of white blood cell, in recognizing and destroying infected or abnormal cells in the body. T lymphocytes play a crucial role in the immune response by coordinating and regulating the actions of other immune cells. They are able to recognize specific antigens and activate immune responses to eliminate pathogens or abnormal cells. Cellular immunity is important for defense against intracellular pathogens, such as viruses and certain bacteria, as well as for surveillance and elimination of cancer cells.

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40. Which is the most common type of selective immunoglobulin deficiency?

Explanation

Usually sporadic
Phenotypically normal; some may have respiratory infections and diarrhoea, or is expressed if there is a second immunodeficiency.
Risk of anti-IgA sensitisation and anaphylactoid reactions following exposure to IgA containing blood products

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41. Acute rheumatic fever is as example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Acute rheumatic fever is an example of an antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. In this type of reaction, antibodies produced by the immune system mistakenly target and attack healthy tissues in the body. In the case of acute rheumatic fever, antibodies produced in response to a streptococcal infection cross-react with proteins in the heart, joints, and other tissues, causing inflammation and damage. This immune response is mediated by antibodies, specifically IgG and IgM, which bind to the target tissues and trigger an inflammatory response.

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42. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is as example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an example of a T-cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction. In this condition, the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. This destruction is primarily mediated by T-cells, which are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response. The T-cells recognize the pancreatic cells as foreign or abnormal and initiate an immune response against them. This leads to a deficiency of insulin and the development of type 1 diabetes mellitus.

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43. Multiple sclerosis is as example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease characterized by the destruction of myelin, the protective covering of nerve fibers in the central nervous system. This destruction is caused by an abnormal immune response where T-cells, a type of white blood cell, mistakenly attack the myelin. Therefore, multiple sclerosis is an example of a T-cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction.

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44. X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome is an immunodeficiency disease cause by a mutation in the gene for which ligand? _ _ _ _

Explanation

Because CD40 interactions are involved in change of IgM production to IgG production.

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45. CD56 and which other CD molecule are the 2 cell surface molecules generally used to identify natural killer cells?

Explanation

NK cells are CD3 negative. CD40 is the molecule that CD4+ T cells use to assist in B cell responses.

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46. Diseases that show association with the HLA locus can be broadly grouped into 3 categories.  Which of the following is NOT one of these categories?

Explanation

Neoplastic predisposition is not one of the categories of diseases that show association with the HLA locus. The HLA locus is primarily associated with the immune system and plays a role in autoimmune disorders, inflammatory diseases, and inherited errors of metabolism. Neoplastic predisposition refers to an increased risk of developing cancer due to genetic factors unrelated to the HLA locus.

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47. IL-1, IL-6, type 1 interferons and TNF are cytokines that mainly mediate adaptive immunity.

Explanation

IL-1, IL-6 and TNF are cytokines that mainly mediate INNATE immunity.

Interferons protect against viral infections.
IL-1 and TNF promote leukocyte recruitment and acute inflammatory responses.

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48. What 3 viral enzymes are contained in the HIV virion?

Explanation

The three viral enzymes contained in the HIV virion are Integrase, Protease, and Reverse transcriptase. Integrase is responsible for integrating the viral DNA into the host cell's DNA. Protease plays a crucial role in the maturation of the virus by cleaving the viral polyprotein into individual functional proteins. Reverse transcriptase is involved in the replication process of the virus, converting the viral RNA into DNA. These enzymes are essential for the replication and survival of the HIV virus within the host.

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49. In X-linked agammaglobulinaemia, there is a failure of B cells to mature beyond which stage of development?

Explanation

AKA Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia
Absence of gammaglobulins in blood
Failure to mature beyond pre-B cell stage in the bone marrow
Mutations or deletions in gene encoding enzyme tyrosine kinase (Btk)
Low or undectable Ig, reduced or absent B cells in lymphoid tissues, no germinal centres in lymph nodes
T cells maturation, numbers and functions: normal
Autoimmunity in 20%
Monthly IvIg reduces infectious complications

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50. The Gram Negative LPS/LBP complex facilitates LPS binding to which molecule? _ _ _ _

Explanation

The Gram Negative LPS/LBP complex facilitates LPS binding to CD14. CD14 is a glycoprotein found on the surface of various immune cells, including macrophages and dendritic cells. It acts as a receptor for lipopolysaccharide (LPS), a component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. The LPS/LBP complex helps to deliver LPS to CD14, initiating an immune response and triggering the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines.

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51. A patient of blood group O is transfused with blood from a patient of blood group A.  Within a few minutes of beginning the transfusion, the patient complains of chest tightness, wheezing, shivering and feeling faint.  Which of the following mechanisms best explains the pathogenesis of the disease process occurring.

Explanation

The process occurs within a few minutes because of the large number of antibodies present.

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52. Humoral immunity protects against _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ microbes and their _ _ _ _ _ _. (separate answers with a comma)

Explanation

Humoral immunity is a type of immune response that involves the production of antibodies. It is primarily responsible for protecting against extracellular microbes, which are pathogens that exist outside of cells. These microbes can include bacteria, fungi, and parasites. Additionally, humoral immunity also targets toxins, which are harmful substances produced by certain microbes. By neutralizing these toxins and preventing their harmful effects, humoral immunity plays a crucial role in defending the body against infection.

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53. The CD4 molecule is a high affinity receptor for HIV, however binding to CD4 is not sufficient to cause infection.  gp120 must also bind to one of 2 chemokine receptors, CCR5 or CXCR4.  Heterozygotes for mutation in the CCR5 gene confers immunity to R5 strains (those that bind to gp120) of HIV.

Explanation

Homozygocity confers immunity. Heterozygocity delays progoression to AIDS.

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54. The identification of which capsid protein in HIV can be used for diagnosis before HIV antibodies have been produced?

Explanation

The p24 capsid protein in HIV can be used for diagnosis before HIV antibodies have been produced. This protein is a component of the viral capsid and is detectable in the blood during the early stages of HIV infection, even before antibodies are produced. Therefore, testing for the presence of p24 protein can help in early diagnosis of HIV infection.

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55. Rheumatoid arthritis is as example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Explanation

Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease characterized by chronic inflammation of the joints. In this condition, T-cells, a type of white blood cell, play a crucial role in attacking the body's own tissues, specifically the synovium (lining of the joints). This immune response leads to the release of inflammatory mediators and the destruction of cartilage and bone. Therefore, rheumatoid arthritis is an example of a T-cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction.

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56. Expression of class I MHC molecules _ _ _ _ _ _ _ s killing by natural killer cells.

Explanation

All normal nucleated cells express class I MHC. Viral infection and neoplasm cause a reduction of class I MHC thereby losing this inhibtion and promoting NKC killing.

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57. Under the influence of IL-2, T cells proliferate, generating a large number of antigen-specific lymphocytes.  They differentiate into _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ cells and _ _ _ _ _ _ cells. (separate answers with a comma)

Explanation

Under the influence of IL-2, T cells proliferate, generating a large number of antigen-specific lymphocytes. These lymphocytes differentiate into effector cells and memory cells. Effector cells are responsible for the immediate immune response, while memory cells are long-lived cells that provide long-term immunity and can quickly respond to future infections by the same antigen.

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58. T-helper -1 cells are CD4+ T cells that secrete which cytokines? (2 most important)

Explanation

IFN-γ facilitates delayed hypersensitivity, macrophage activation and synthesis of opsonizing and complement fixing antibodies.
IL-2 stimulates proliferation and differentiation of T cells

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59. T-helper -2 cells are CD4+ T cells that secrete which cytokines? (3 most important)

Explanation

IL-4 and IL-13 aids the synthesis of IgE (and other immunoglobulins to a lesser extent)
IL-5 activates eosinophils

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60. Where do plasma cells mainly reside? (3)

Explanation

Plasma cells mainly reside in three locations: bone marrow, mucosal tissue, and lymphoid tissue. These locations provide the necessary environment for the survival and function of plasma cells. Bone marrow is the primary site for plasma cell production, where they are generated from B cells. Mucosal tissue, such as the lining of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts, also contains plasma cells, which play a role in immune defense at these sites. Lymphoid tissue, including lymph nodes and spleen, is another important location for plasma cells, where they contribute to the immune response by producing antibodies.

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61. Which genes (that code for viral proteins) are contained in the HIV-1 viral genome? (3)

Explanation

The correct answer is env, gac, and pol. These genes code for viral proteins that are contained in the HIV-1 viral genome. The env gene codes for the envelope glycoprotein, which is responsible for viral entry into host cells. The gac gene codes for the group-specific antigen, which is a viral structural protein. The pol gene codes for the viral enzymes, such as reverse transcriptase, protease, and integrase, that are essential for viral replication.

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62. Which of the following exhibit Toll like receptors? (6)

Explanation

These cells participate in the innate immune response

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63. In the spleen, B lymphocytes are found in the _ _ _ _ _    _ _ _ _, in the lymph nodes they are found in the _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _   _ _ _ _ _ _.  At both sites they aggregate to form lyphoid follicles. (separate answers with a comma)

Explanation

In the spleen, B lymphocytes are found in the white pulp, while in the lymph nodes they are found in the superficial cortex. At both sites, they aggregate to form lymphoid follicles.

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64. Which of the following diseases are associated with HLA-DR3? (3)

Explanation

Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with HLA-DR4.
Type 1 diabetes is associated with HLA-DR4 as well as HLA-DR3.
Hereditary haemochromatosis is associated with HLA-A

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65. As well as being found in the blood, naive T cells are found in the _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ areas of lymph modes and _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ sheaths of the spleen. (separate answers with a comma)

Explanation

Naive T cells are found in the paracortical areas of lymph nodes and periarteriolar sheaths of the spleen. These specific locations within the lymph nodes and spleen are where naive T cells are primarily located. The paracortical areas are regions within the lymph nodes that are adjacent to the cortex, while the periarteriolar sheaths are found around the arterioles in the spleen. The presence of naive T cells in these areas is important for their activation and initiation of immune responses.

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66. Which of the following diseases are associated with HLA-B27? (3)

Explanation

Ankylosing Spondylitis, Postgonococcal arthritis, and Acute anterior uveitis are associated with HLA-B27. HLA-B27 is a genetic marker that is strongly associated with these diseases. Ankylosing Spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints. Postgonococcal arthritis is a type of arthritis that occurs as a complication of a gonorrhea infection. Acute anterior uveitis is inflammation of the front part of the eye. These diseases have been found to have a higher prevalence in individuals who have the HLA-B27 gene.

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Type II hypersensitivity reactions can result in phagocytosis, lysis,...
What is type I hypersensitivity is also known as?
What is type IV hypersensitivity is also known as?
Food allergy is as example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
B lymphocytes mediate _ _ _ _ _ _ _ immunity.
T cells need 2 signals for activation.
Which class of MHC molecules does CD4 bind to?
Most immediate hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by which type...
What is type II hypersensitivity is also known as?
Cell mediated (or cellular) immunity is responsible for defence...
CD20 is B cell specific.
Which class of MHC molecules does CD8 bind to?
T cells can only recognise membrane bound antigens.
HIV infects neurons.
Which is the most significant of the transcription factors activated...
CD8+ T cells act mainly as _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ cells.
Graves disease is an example of which type of hypersensitivity...
What is type III hypersensitivity is also known as?
Myasthenia Gravis is as example of which type of hypersensitivity...
Vascular dilation, oedema, smooth muscle contraction and mucous...
Which T cell subset is involved in synthesis of IgE and activation of...
T_  _l l_ _e r_ _ _ _ _ _r activation ultimately results in...
Mannose binding lectin and C-reactive protein are circulating plasma...
 ...
Chronic granulomatous disease is characterised by recurrent...
Pernicious anaemia is as example of which type of hypersensitivity...
Autoimmune thrombocytopaenia purpura is as example of which type of...
What does CD in CD4 stand for? (3 words)
Cell lysis and inflammation are the pathologic lesions seen in which...
Serum sickness is as example of which type of hypersensitivity...
The principal physiologic function of the cell surface...
Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is as example of which type of...
Which of the following is most correct about dendritic cells and...
  What are the 4 major components of innate immunity?
Necrotising vasculitis and inflammation are the pathologic lesions...
Cytokines have autocrine and paracrine actions, but not endocrine...
Perivascular cellular infiltrates, oedema, cell duestruction and...
_ _ _ _ _ refers to the predisposition to develop localised immediate...
T lymphocytes mediate _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ immunity.
Which is the most common type of selective immunoglobulin deficiency?
Acute rheumatic fever is as example of which type of hypersensitivity...
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is as example of which type of...
Multiple sclerosis is as example of which type of hypersensitivity...
X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome is an immunodeficiency disease cause by a...
CD56 and which other CD molecule are the 2 cell surface molecules...
Diseases that show association with the HLA locus can be broadly...
IL-1, IL-6, type 1 interferons and TNF are cytokines that mainly...
What 3 viral enzymes are contained in the HIV virion?
In X-linked agammaglobulinaemia, there is a failure of B cells to...
The Gram Negative LPS/LBP complex facilitates LPS binding...
A patient of blood group O is transfused with blood from a patient of...
Humoral immunity protects against _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ microbes and...
The CD4 molecule is a high affinity receptor for HIV, however binding...
The identification of which capsid protein in HIV can be used for...
Rheumatoid arthritis is as example of which type of hypersensitivity...
Expression of class I MHC molecules _ _ _ _ _ _ _ s killing by natural...
Under the influence of IL-2, T cells proliferate, generating a large...
T-helper -1 cells are CD4+ T cells that secrete which cytokines? (2...
T-helper -2 cells are CD4+ T cells that secrete which cytokines? (3...
Where do plasma cells mainly reside? (3)
Which genes (that code for viral proteins) are contained in the HIV-1...
Which of the following exhibit Toll like receptors? (6)
In the spleen, B lymphocytes are found in the _ _ _ _ _    _...
Which of the following diseases are associated with HLA-DR3? (3)
As well as being found in the blood, naive T cells are found in the _...
Which of the following diseases are associated with HLA-B27? (3)
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