Communications - Electronics Journeyman CDC 2EX5X

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Multiple Choice on Volumes 1-3 of Career Development Course 2EX5X


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the minimum amount of months required for 5-level upgrade for trainees who are now in retraining status?

    • A.

      6 months

    • B.

      9 months

    • C.

      12 months

    • D.

      15 months

    Correct Answer
    D. 15 months
    Explanation
    The minimum amount of months required for a 5-level upgrade for trainees who are now in retraining status is 15 months. This means that it will take at least 15 months for the trainees to complete the necessary training and meet the requirements for the upgrade.

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  • 2. 

    What purpose of modulation prevents interference when sharing the same communication path?

    • A.

      Spectrum conservation

    • B.

      Channel allocation

    • C.

      Ease of radiation

    • D.

      Companding

    Correct Answer
    B. Channel allocation
    Explanation
    Channel allocation is the purpose of modulation that prevents interference when sharing the same communication path. By allocating different channels or frequencies to different users or devices, modulation ensures that their signals do not overlap or interfere with each other. This allows multiple users to communicate simultaneously without causing interference or signal degradation. Channel allocation is a crucial aspect of efficient and reliable communication systems, especially in scenarios where multiple users or devices need to share the same communication path.

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  • 3. 

    What color is used to mark sewer and drain lines?

    • A.

      Blue

    • B.

      White

    • C.

      Green

    • D.

      Purple

    Correct Answer
    C. Green
    Explanation
    Green is the color used to mark sewer and drain lines. This color is chosen because it signifies that the line carries storm sewers, which are used to drain rainwater and prevent flooding. Green is a standard color used in utility marking to ensure consistency and to help workers easily identify the type of line they are dealing with.

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  • 4. 

    What type of Air Force Specialty Code is for use by the Air Force Personnel Center for assignment and training purposes?

    • A.

      Duty

    • B.

      Control

    • C.

      Primary

    • D.

      Ten

    Correct Answer
    B. Control
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Control." In the context of the question, the Air Force Personnel Center uses the Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) for assignment and training purposes. The AFSC helps in identifying and categorizing different job specialties within the Air Force. Among the given options, "Control" is the most suitable term that aligns with the purpose of the AFSC as it implies the management and coordination of assignments and training within the Air Force Personnel Center.

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  • 5. 

    The output of the oscillator in an FM modulator increases in frequency with each

    • A.

      Positive half cycle of the carrier

    • B.

      Negative half cycle of the carrier

    • C.

      Positive half cycle of the modulating signal

    • D.

      Negative half cycle of the modulating signal

    Correct Answer
    C. Positive half cycle of the modulating signal
    Explanation
    In an FM modulator, the output of the oscillator increases in frequency with each positive half cycle of the modulating signal. This means that as the amplitude of the modulating signal increases during the positive half cycle, the frequency of the oscillator also increases. This relationship between the modulating signal and the oscillator frequency is what allows for the modulation of the carrier signal in frequency modulation.

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  • 6. 

    What facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

    • A.

      The earth electrode subsystem

    • B.

      The fault protection subsystem

    • C.

      The signal reference subsystem

    • D.

      The lightening protection subsystem

    Correct Answer
    B. The fault protection subsystem
    Explanation
    The fault protection subsystem is also known as the safety ground because it is responsible for protecting against electrical faults and ensuring the safety of the facility. It provides a low resistance path for electrical current to flow in the event of a fault, preventing damage to equipment and reducing the risk of electric shock to personnel. This subsystem is crucial in maintaining a safe and reliable electrical system within the facility.

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  • 7. 

    What Air Force Specialty Code performs maintenance on fixed and mobile meteorological and navigational aids systems, ground to air transmitters, receivers and transceivers?

    • A.

      2E0X1 Ground Radar Systems

    • B.

      2E1X1 Satellite, Wideband and Telemetry Systems

    • C.

      2E1X2 Airfield Systems

    • D.

      2E1X3 Ground Radio Communications

    Correct Answer
    C. 2E1X2 Airfield Systems
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2E1X2 Airfield Systems. This Air Force Specialty Code is responsible for performing maintenance on fixed and mobile meteorological and navigational aids systems, ground to air transmitters, receivers, and transceivers. This includes ensuring that these systems are functioning properly and are able to provide accurate information for airfield operations and navigation.

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  • 8. 

    What is the formula to find the modulating index?

    • A.

      Deviation / Frequency

    • B.

      Deviation x Frequency

    • C.

      Sideband / Modulating Frequency

    • D.

      Sideband x Modulating Frequency

    Correct Answer
    D. Sideband x Modulating Frequency
    Explanation
    The modulating index is a measure of the extent of modulation in a signal. It is calculated by multiplying the sideband and the modulating frequency. This formula is used to determine the modulation index in frequency modulation (FM) systems, where the sidebands are created by the modulation of the carrier signal with the modulating frequency. By multiplying these two values, we can obtain the modulating index, which provides information about the amount of frequency deviation in the FM signal.

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  • 9. 

    At what distance should the rods be spaced in a multi-rod grounding configuration?

    • A.

      0.5 to 2 times the length of the longest rod in the subsystem

    • B.

      1.5 to 3 times the length of the longest rod in the subsystem

    • C.

      2.5 to 4 times the length of the longest rod in the subsystem

    • D.

      3.5 to 5 times the length of the longest rod in the subsystem

    Correct Answer
    B. 1.5 to 3 times the length of the longest rod in the subsystem
    Explanation
    The rods in a multi-rod grounding configuration should be spaced at a distance of 1.5 to 3 times the length of the longest rod in the subsystem. This spacing ensures that the rods are adequately spread out to provide efficient grounding and minimize the risk of electrical faults. Spacing the rods too closely together may result in inadequate grounding, while spacing them too far apart may lead to uneven distribution of electrical current. Therefore, a spacing range of 1.5 to 3 times the length of the longest rod strikes a balance between effective grounding and efficient use of resources.

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  • 10. 

    When are Senior Noncommissioned Officers required to have on-the-job training records?

    • A.

      When assigned to new duty station

    • B.

      When the commander deems necessary

    • C.

      When assigned to a commander's staff position

    • D.

      When their skill level is not commensurate with their grade

    Correct Answer
    D. When their skill level is not commensurate with their grade
    Explanation
    Senior Noncommissioned Officers are required to have on-the-job training records when their skill level is not commensurate with their grade. This means that if their current level of expertise or proficiency does not match the requirements or expectations of their rank, they need to have documented records of their training to ensure they are adequately trained and qualified for their position. This helps to ensure that they have the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively perform their duties and responsibilities.

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  • 11. 

    By using 16-PSK, how many bit combinations are allowed to be used?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    In 16-PSK (Phase Shift Keying), there are 16 different phase angles that can be used to represent different bit combinations. Each phase angle represents a unique combination of 4 bits. Therefore, by using 16-PSK, a total of 4 bit combinations are allowed to be used.

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  • 12. 

    What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

    • A.

      Bonding

    • B.

      Shielding

    • C.

      Annealing

    • D.

      Grounding

    Correct Answer
    A. Bonding
    Explanation
    Bonding refers to the process of establishing a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. It involves joining the surfaces together to ensure a strong electrical connection, which helps to minimize resistance and impedance. This connection is important in various applications, such as in electrical systems or electronic devices, to ensure proper grounding and to prevent the buildup of static electricity or interference. Bonding helps to create a reliable and efficient electrical connection between the metal surfaces, allowing for the smooth flow of current and reducing the risk of electrical issues or damage.

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  • 13. 

    How many hours of rest must a supervisor give personnel who remain overnight at a remote duty location?

    • A.

      A minimum of 6 hours

    • B.

      A maximum of 6 hours

    • C.

      A minimum of 8 hours

    • D.

      A maximum of 8 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. A minimum of 8 hours
    Explanation
    A supervisor must give personnel who remain overnight at a remote duty location a minimum of 8 hours of rest. This is important to ensure that the personnel have enough time to rest and recover before resuming their duties. Providing less than 8 hours of rest may lead to fatigue and decreased performance, which can be detrimental to the personnel's well-being and the successful execution of their tasks.

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  • 14. 

    Non-uniform quantizing and companding decreases the length of the code word from

    • A.

      11 to 7 bits

    • B.

      11 to 8 bits

    • C.

      16 to 7 bits

    • D.

      16 to 8 bits

    Correct Answer
    A. 11 to 7 bits
    Explanation
    Non-uniform quantizing and companding is a technique used in data compression to reduce the number of bits required to represent a signal. In this case, the original code word length is 11 bits. By applying non-uniform quantizing and companding, the length of the code word is decreased to 7 bits. This means that the signal can be represented using fewer bits, resulting in a more efficient compression scheme.

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  • 15. 

    What is known as a set of standards for limiting electric or electromagnetic radiation?

    • A.

      COMPUSEC

    • B.

      TEMPEST

    • C.

      COMSEC

    • D.

      EMSEC

    Correct Answer
    B. TEMPEST
    Explanation
    TEMPEST is known as a set of standards for limiting electric or electromagnetic radiation. It includes measures to prevent the unintentional release of compromising emanations from electronic equipment. These emanations can potentially be intercepted and analyzed to extract sensitive information. TEMPEST standards aim to minimize the risk of such information leakage by implementing shielding, filtering, and other protective measures in the design and operation of electronic systems.

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  • 16. 

    Which tool is provided to the commander on a quarterly basis to review and evaluate maintenance and training effectiveness?

    • A.

      Unit Training Report from logistics module

    • B.

      Cross reference data from federal logistics information system

    • C.

      Air tasking order from theater battle manage core system

    • D.

      Training visibility ledger from integrated maintenance data systems

    Correct Answer
    D. Training visibility ledger from integrated maintenance data systems
    Explanation
    The commander is provided with a Training visibility ledger from integrated maintenance data systems on a quarterly basis to review and evaluate maintenance and training effectiveness. This ledger contains information about the visibility of training activities and maintenance data, allowing the commander to assess the effectiveness of both maintenance and training operations.

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  • 17. 

    Using the longitudinal redundancy check method of error correction, what does the receiver compare with the transmitter to ensure an accurate transmission of data?

    • A.

      The checksum

    • B.

      Block check character

    • C.

      The ASCII character set

    • D.

      The sum of the transmitted bits

    Correct Answer
    B. Block check character
    Explanation
    The receiver compares the block check character with the transmitter to ensure an accurate transmission of data. The block check character is a calculated value that is appended to the data being transmitted. The receiver calculates the block check character using the same method as the transmitter and compares it with the received block check character. If they match, it indicates that the data was transmitted accurately.

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  • 18. 

    What form is frequently used to initiate the need for a new communications service?

    • A.

      AF IMT 9, Request for Purchase

    • B.

      AF IMT 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request

    • C.

      AF IMT 3064, Contract Progress Schedule

    • D.

      AF IMT 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document

    Correct Answer
    D. AF IMT 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document
    Explanation
    The AF IMT 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document is frequently used to initiate the need for a new communications service. This form is specifically designed for documenting the requirements and specifications of an IT or NSS (Network and Switching Systems) project. It helps in clearly defining the necessary communication services and technologies needed for a particular project, ensuring that the requirements are properly communicated and understood by all parties involved. This form serves as a formal request for the procurement and implementation of the new communications service.

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  • 19. 

    What status is the same as estimated time in commission?

    • A.

      Estimated time of repair

    • B.

      Estimated time of arrival

    • C.

      Estimated time of return to operation

    • D.

      Estimated time of expected maintenance

    Correct Answer
    C. Estimated time of return to operation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Estimated time of return to operation". This status refers to the estimated time when a system or equipment will be fully operational again after undergoing repairs or maintenance. It indicates the expected duration until the system can resume its normal functions and be available for use.

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  • 20. 

    When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?

    • A.

      Receiving end

    • B.

      In the oscillator

    • C.

      Transmitting end

    • D.

      In the primary buffers

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiving end
    Explanation
    When using forward error control as a method of error correction, error correction takes place at the receiving end. This means that the errors are detected and corrected after the data has been transmitted and received by the intended recipient. The receiving end is responsible for identifying and correcting any errors that may have occurred during the transmission process.

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  • 21. 

    What is the threshold dollar value of equipment that is placed on CA/CRL?

    • A.

      Over $1,000

    • B.

      Over $1,500

    • C.

      Over $2,000

    • D.

      Over $2,500

    Correct Answer
    D. Over $2,500
    Explanation
    The threshold dollar value of equipment that is placed on CA/CRL is over $2,500.

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  • 22. 

    What designates equipment as reportable?

    • A.

      When it is mission capable

    • B.

      When it is mission essential

    • C.

      When it is full mission capable

    • D.

      When it is partial mission capable

    Correct Answer
    B. When it is mission essential
    Explanation
    Equipment is designated as reportable when it is mission essential. This means that the equipment is crucial for the successful completion of a mission or task. It indicates that without this equipment, the mission cannot be carried out effectively. Therefore, it is important to report and track the status of mission essential equipment to ensure its availability and functionality when needed.

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  • 23. 

    What component of a fiber optic cable provides the reflective surface that allows light to propagate?

    • A.

      Core

    • B.

      Buffer

    • C.

      Jacket

    • D.

      Cladding

    Correct Answer
    D. Cladding
    Explanation
    The cladding is the component of a fiber optic cable that provides the reflective surface that allows light to propagate. It is a layer of material surrounding the core of the cable, with a lower refractive index than the core. This difference in refractive index causes the light to be reflected back into the core, allowing it to travel through the cable without significant loss.

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  • 24. 

    Who maintains a central repository of CSIR information for the Air Force?

    • A.

      Air Force Communications Agency

    • B.

      Air Force Institute of Technology

    • C.

      Engineering Data Service Center

    • D.

      Technology Repair Center

    Correct Answer
    C. Engineering Data Service Center
    Explanation
    The Engineering Data Service Center maintains a central repository of CSIR information for the Air Force.

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  • 25. 

    What maintenance staff function coordinates with support agencies and assists maintenance personnel be expediting all supply transactions?

    • A.

      Material control

    • B.

      Quality assurance

    • C.

      Maintenance operations center

    • D.

      Maintenance production work center

    Correct Answer
    A. Material control
    Explanation
    Material control is the correct answer because it is the maintenance staff function that coordinates with support agencies and assists maintenance personnel in expediting all supply transactions. Material control is responsible for managing and controlling the flow of materials and supplies needed for maintenance operations. This includes coordinating with external suppliers, tracking inventory levels, and ensuring timely delivery of materials to support maintenance activities. By efficiently managing the supply chain, material control helps to expedite supply transactions and ensure that maintenance personnel have the necessary resources to perform their tasks effectively.

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  • 26. 

    When considering light wave propagation, the normal is an imaginary line perpendicular to the interface of two materials. The angle between the normal in the first material and the ray that is bounced back in the first material is called the

    • A.

      Angle of refraction

    • B.

      Angle of incidence

    • C.

      Angle of reflection

    • D.

      Critical angle

    Correct Answer
    C. Angle of reflection
    Explanation
    The angle of reflection is the angle between the normal and the ray that is bounced back in the first material. It is a measure of the change in direction of the ray of light when it strikes a surface and is reflected. The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence, which is the angle between the normal and the incident ray.

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  • 27. 

    What gauge wire is the minimum un-skinned size used for punch-down?

    • A.

      20 AWG

    • B.

      22 AWG

    • C.

      24 AWG

    • D.

      26 AWG

    Correct Answer
    D. 26 AWG
    Explanation
    The minimum un-skinned size used for punch-down is 26 AWG. This means that the smallest gauge wire that can be used for punch-down connections is 26 AWG.

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  • 28. 

    Who is responsible for the equipment's logistics cycle management and operational safety, suitability and effectiveness?

    • A.

      Single manager

    • B.

      Unit Commander

    • C.

      Chief of maintenance

    • D.

      Logistics readiness squadron commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Single manager
    Explanation
    The single manager is responsible for the equipment's logistics cycle management and operational safety, suitability, and effectiveness. They oversee the entire process of managing the equipment's logistics, ensuring that it is properly maintained, safe to use, and meets the required standards of effectiveness. This includes tasks such as coordinating transportation, storage, maintenance, and disposal of the equipment. The single manager is the individual who has the overall responsibility and authority to make decisions regarding the equipment's logistics and ensure its proper functioning.

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  • 29. 

    What results from imperfections in an optical fiber's basic structure?

    • A.

      Absorption

    • B.

      Scattering

    • C.

      Reflection

    • D.

      Dispersion

    Correct Answer
    B. Scattering
    Explanation
    Imperfections in an optical fiber's basic structure result in scattering. Scattering occurs when the light passing through the fiber interacts with the imperfections, causing it to change direction and spread out. This can lead to loss of signal strength and distortion in the transmitted data.

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  • 30. 

    What is used to provide the means to issue of optional or temporary modifications on C-E equipment?

    • A.

      Preventive Maintenance Inspection

    • B.

      Local Maintenance Quality Control Checksheets

    • C.

      Air Force Maintenance Quality Control Checksheets

    • D.

      Air Force Communications-Electronics Maintenance Instructions

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Communications-Electronics Maintenance Instructions
    Explanation
    Air Force Communications-Electronics Maintenance Instructions are used to provide the means to issue optional or temporary modifications on C-E equipment. These instructions serve as a guide for maintenance personnel to perform necessary modifications or adjustments to the equipment. They ensure that the equipment is functioning optimally and can adapt to any specific requirements or changes. The instructions outline the procedures and guidelines to be followed during the modification process, ensuring that it is done correctly and efficiently.

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  • 31. 

    System records of equipment that is integrated with the base network are developed and maintained by

    • A.

      System administrator

    • B.

      Computer systems security officer

    • C.

      Communications and information systems officer

    • D.

      Systems telecommunications engineering management-base

    Correct Answer
    D. Systems telecommunications engineering management-base
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Systems telecommunications engineering management-base. This is because system records of equipment that is integrated with the base network are typically developed and maintained by the telecommunications engineering management team. They are responsible for managing the telecommunications infrastructure and ensuring that all equipment is properly integrated and functioning within the network. This includes maintaining records of the equipment, tracking any changes or updates, and ensuring that the system is secure and operating efficiently.

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  • 32. 

    What type of fiber has a core diameter of 50-125µm and consists of numerous concentric layers of glass, something like the annular rings of a tree configured to reduce dispersion?

    • A.

      Single-mode step-index fiber

    • B.

      Single-mode graded-index fiber

    • C.

      Multimode step-index fiber

    • D.

      Multimode graded-index fiber

    Correct Answer
    D. Multimode graded-index fiber
    Explanation
    Multimode graded-index fiber is the correct answer because it has a core diameter of 50-125µm and consists of numerous concentric layers of glass. These layers are designed to reduce dispersion, which is the spreading out of light signals as they travel through the fiber. The graded index refers to the refractive index of the core, which gradually decreases from the center towards the outer edges. This helps to minimize the difference in travel time for different light rays, reducing dispersion and allowing for higher bandwidth.

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  • 33. 

    What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

    • A.

      Sag

    • B.

      Spike

    • C.

      Noise

    • D.

      Blackout

    Correct Answer
    D. Blackout
    Explanation
    A blackout is a complete loss of utility power, meaning there is no electricity supply available. This fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of power, as there is no electrical energy being supplied to the system. A blackout can occur due to various reasons such as equipment failure, natural disasters, or deliberate actions. During a blackout, all electrical appliances and systems reliant on utility power will cease to function until the power is restored.

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  • 34. 

    What must Quality Assurance personnel be able to do?

    • A.

      Perform as an advisor, teacher and confidant to maintenance personnel

    • B.

      To evaluate maintenance requirements and direct timely corrective actions with assistance from maintenance work centers

    • C.

      Advise maintenance managers of the overall supply situation as it affects maintenance and recommend ways to improve supply support

    • D.

      Provide assistance with technical and management guidance so staff functions and work centers can detect and correct problems in the early stages

    Correct Answer
    D. Provide assistance with technical and management guidance so staff functions and work centers can detect and correct problems in the early stages
    Explanation
    Quality Assurance personnel must be able to provide assistance with technical and management guidance so that staff functions and work centers can detect and correct problems in the early stages. This means that they should have the knowledge and skills to offer guidance and support in identifying and resolving issues before they escalate. This role involves working closely with maintenance personnel, evaluating maintenance requirements, advising on supply situations, and recommending ways to improve supply support. By providing guidance and assistance, Quality Assurance personnel can contribute to the overall effectiveness and efficiency of maintenance operations.

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  • 35. 

    How do you place multimeter test leads in a circuit to measure voltage?

    • A.

      Series

    • B.

      Parallel

    • C.

      Series-parallel

    • D.

      Parallel-parallel

    Correct Answer
    B. Parallel
    Explanation
    When measuring voltage with a multimeter, the test leads should be placed in parallel with the circuit. This means that the positive lead should be connected to the positive side of the circuit, and the negative lead should be connected to the negative side. Placing the test leads in parallel allows the multimeter to measure the voltage difference between the two points accurately.

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  • 36. 

    What type of UPS offers the highest level of protection?

    • A.

      Passive Standby

    • B.

      Line Interactive

    • C.

      Double Conversion

    • D.

      Ferro resonant Standby

    Correct Answer
    C. Double Conversion
    Explanation
    Double Conversion UPS offers the highest level of protection. In a Double Conversion UPS, the incoming AC power is converted to DC and then back to AC. This ensures a continuous and clean power supply to the connected devices, as the UPS constantly filters and regulates the power. In case of any power fluctuations or outages, the UPS seamlessly switches to battery power without any interruption. This type of UPS provides the highest level of protection against power surges, voltage spikes, frequency variations, and other electrical disturbances.

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  • 37. 

    What personnel evaluation is conducted on newly assigned personnel within months of assignments to the work center (within 12 months for traditional AFRC and ANG members only)?

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Follow-on

    • C.

      Intercontinental ballistic missile communications

    • D.

      Air Traffic control and landing systems certifications

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary
    Explanation
    A personnel evaluation called "Primary" is conducted on newly assigned personnel within months of their assignment to the work center. This evaluation is typically done within 12 months for traditional AFRC and ANG members only.

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  • 38. 

    Which part of the Fluke 8025A display section indicates the absolute value of the input?

    • A.

      Digital

    • B.

      Annunciator

    • C.

      Range Indicator

    • D.

      Analog bar graph

    Correct Answer
    D. Analog bar graph
    Explanation
    The analog bar graph in the Fluke 8025A display section indicates the absolute value of the input. The bar graph provides a visual representation of the input value, allowing the user to quickly and easily determine the magnitude of the measurement. This is especially useful when dealing with analog signals, as it provides a more intuitive understanding of the input value compared to a digital display or other indicators.

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  • 39. 

    In the first phase of the bare base electrical system installation, what provides electrical power to critical functions?

    • A.

      Mobile electric power

    • B.

      Facility distribution panel

    • C.

      Primary distribution center

    • D.

      Uniterruptible power supply

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobile electric power
    Explanation
    In the first phase of the bare base electrical system installation, mobile electric power provides electrical power to critical functions. This means that temporary power sources, such as generators or portable power units, are used to supply electricity to essential operations until a more permanent solution is established. These mobile power sources can be easily transported and deployed in remote or temporary locations where a facility distribution panel or primary distribution center may not be available or fully operational yet. An uninterruptible power supply is a backup power source that provides continuous power in case of a main power failure, but it may not be the primary source of power during the initial installation phase.

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  • 40. 

    What personnel evaluation is conducted to ensure technicians meet federal aviation administration (FAA) proficiency requirements?

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Follow-on

    • C.

      Intercontinental ballistic missile communications

    • D.

      Air Traffic control and landing systems certifications

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Traffic control and landing systems certifications
    Explanation
    Air Traffic control and landing systems certifications are conducted to ensure that technicians meet federal aviation administration (FAA) proficiency requirements. These certifications assess the technician's knowledge and skills in operating and maintaining air traffic control and landing systems, which are crucial for the safe and efficient movement of aircraft. By obtaining these certifications, technicians demonstrate their competence in meeting the FAA's standards and regulations, ensuring the highest level of safety in aviation operations.

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  • 41. 

    Which current range do you to measure 250milliamps AC?

    • A.

      Microamps DC

    • B.

      Microamps AC

    • C.

      Milliamps/amps DC

    • D.

      Milliamps/amps AC

    Correct Answer
    D. Milliamps/amps AC
    Explanation
    To measure 250 milliamps AC, you would need to use a current range of Milliamps/amps AC. This range is specifically designed to measure alternating current in the milliampere range, which is the unit used to measure current. The other options, Microamps DC and Microamps AC, are not suitable for measuring currents in the milliampere range. Similarly, Milliamps/amps DC is not appropriate for measuring alternating current. Therefore, Milliamps/amps AC is the correct choice for measuring 250 milliamps AC.

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  • 42. 

    What is the key point about AEF?

    • A.

      Air Force capabilty to meet COCOM requirements while simultaneously reconstituting the rest of the force so that the capabilty can be provided on a sustained basis.

    • B.

      Management of the personnel force by bringing predictability and stability to our Airman during steady state.

    • C.

      It is how we organize, train, and equip our Air Force to deploy and employ Airmen to meet to today's challenges.

    • D.

      A methodology to reduce the number of TDY's or deployments

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force capabilty to meet COCOM requirements while simultaneously reconstituting the rest of the force so that the capabilty can be provided on a sustained basis.
    Explanation
    The key point about AEF is the Air Force's ability to meet COCOM (Combatant Command) requirements while also reconstituting the rest of the force to sustain this capability. This means that the Air Force can fulfill its operational commitments while simultaneously replenishing and maintaining the readiness of its personnel and equipment. This ensures that the Air Force can consistently provide the necessary capabilities to support military operations.

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  • 43. 

    What are the 6 steps of Operation Risk Management?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk; assess the risk; analyze risk control measures; make control decisions; implement risk controls; supervisor and review

    • B.

      Identify the hazards; make risk decisions at the appropriate level; analyze risk control measures; make control decisions; implement risk controls; supervisor and review

    • C.

      Identify the hazards; assess the risk; accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs; make control decisions; implement risk controls; supervisor and review

    • D.

      Identify the hazards; assess the risk; analyze control measures; make control decisions, implement risk control; supervisor and review

    Correct Answer
    D. Identify the hazards; assess the risk; analyze control measures; make control decisions, implement risk control; supervisor and review
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Identify the hazards; assess the risk; analyze control measures; make control decisions, implement risk control; supervisor and review". This answer accurately outlines the six steps of Operation Risk Management. It starts by identifying the hazards, then assessing the level of risk associated with those hazards. After that, it involves analyzing control measures to mitigate the risk, making control decisions based on the analysis, and implementing the chosen risk control measures. Finally, it emphasizes the importance of supervision and review to ensure the effectiveness of the implemented risk controls.

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  • 44. 

    Insulation resistance increases if

    • A.

      Length of insulation increases

    • B.

      Area of conductor increases

    • C.

      Thickness of insulating material increases

    • D.

      Both thickness and length of insulating material increases

    Correct Answer
    C. Thickness of insulating material increases
    Explanation
    The insulation resistance is a measure of how well an insulating material can resist the flow of electrical current. Increasing the thickness of the insulating material can improve its ability to prevent current leakage, thereby increasing the insulation resistance. This is because a thicker insulating material provides a longer path for the current to flow through, making it more difficult for the current to pass through and reducing the chances of leakage. Therefore, increasing the thickness of the insulating material is likely to increase the insulation resistance.

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  • 45. 

    Within the AEF battle rhythym, what environment is operational when the Air Force reaches forward and pulls capability from the next AEF pair not currently scheduled?

    • A.

      Steady State

    • B.

      Surge/Crisis

    • C.

      Transition

    • D.

      Redeployment

    Correct Answer
    B. Surge/Crisis
    Explanation
    In the AEF battle rhythm, the operational environment when the Air Force reaches forward and pulls capability from the next AEF pair not currently scheduled is Surge/Crisis. This suggests that during times of increased demand or crisis situations, the Air Force can quickly mobilize and deploy additional resources from the next AEF pair to meet the operational requirements. This allows for a flexible and responsive approach to address unforeseen circumstances or urgent needs.

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  • 46. 

    What level of maintenance has skills and material resources not available at the operating location, but not to the extent of those available at technology repair centers?

    • A.

      Organizational

    • B.

      Intermediate

    • C.

      Laboratory

    • D.

      Depot

    Correct Answer
    B. Intermediate
    Explanation
    Intermediate level of maintenance refers to the level where skills and material resources are not available at the operating location, but they are also not as extensive as those available at technology repair centers. This level typically involves more complex repairs and maintenance tasks that cannot be performed at the operating location due to limited resources or expertise. However, it does not require the full range of resources and expertise available at technology repair centers, which are usually reserved for more specialized and advanced repairs.

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  • 47. 

    How are voltage, time, and depth represented on the oscilloscope display?

    • A.

      Voltage = intensity, time= horizontal axis, depth= vertical axis

    • B.

      Voltage = horizontal axis, time=vertical axis, depth=horizontal axis

    • C.

      Voltage = intensity, time=vertical axis, depth=horizontal axis

    • D.

      Voltage = vertical axis, time= horizontal axis, depth= intensity

    Correct Answer
    D. Voltage = vertical axis, time= horizontal axis, depth= intensity
  • 48. 

    Who registers and approves UTC postured in the AEF Library and AFWUS?

    • A.

      The appropriate MAJCOM authority

    • B.

      The appropriate NAF authority

    • C.

      The appropriate Wing authority

    • D.

      The appropriate Group authority

    Correct Answer
    A. The appropriate MAJCOM authority
    Explanation
    The appropriate MAJCOM authority is responsible for registering and approving UTC postured in the AEF Library and AFWUS. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to determine the suitability of the UTC and ensure that it aligns with the overall goals and objectives of the MAJCOM. They have the authority to make decisions regarding the deployment and use of UTCs within their command.

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  • 49. 

    What element of deployed maintenance management assists in coordinating the transfer of unit type code assets and readiness supply packages?

    • A.

      Deployed Materiel Control

    • B.

      Deployed Quality Assurance

    • C.

      Deployed Maintenance Operations Center

    • D.

      Deployed Maintenance Production Work Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployed Materiel Control
    Explanation
    Deployed Materiel Control is the correct answer because it is responsible for coordinating the transfer of unit type code assets and readiness supply packages. This element of deployed maintenance management ensures that the necessary equipment and supplies are available and properly distributed to support maintenance operations in a deployed environment. It manages the flow of materiel and ensures that assets are properly accounted for and transferred as needed.

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  • 50. 

    Which probe lets you use the oscilloscope to measure higher voltage levels, raise the input impedence, does not require a bias voltage and attenuates noise?

    • A.

      Current probe

    • B.

      Passive 1:1 probe

    • C.

      Active (FET) probe

    • D.

      Passive divider, 10:1 probe

    Correct Answer
    D. Passive divider, 10:1 probe
    Explanation
    The passive divider, 10:1 probe is the correct answer because it allows the oscilloscope to measure higher voltage levels by attenuating the signal by a factor of 10. This means that when the probe is connected to the oscilloscope, the voltage being measured is divided by 10, allowing for higher voltage measurements. Additionally, this probe has a high input impedance, which helps to reduce loading effects on the circuit being measured. Unlike active probes, it does not require a bias voltage and is less susceptible to noise interference.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 09, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Radarlove
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