Communications - Electronics Journeyman CDC 2EX5X

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

    • Sag
    • Spike
    • Noise
    • Blackout
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About This Quiz

Multiple Choice on Volumes 1-3 of Career Development Course 2EX5X

CDC Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    How many hours of rest must a supervisor give personnel who remain overnight at a remote duty location?

    • A minimum of 6 hours

    • A maximum of 6 hours

    • A minimum of 8 hours

    • A maximum of 8 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. A minimum of 8 hours
    Explanation
    A supervisor must give personnel who remain overnight at a remote duty location a minimum of 8 hours of rest. This is important to ensure that the personnel have enough time to rest and recover before resuming their duties. Providing less than 8 hours of rest may lead to fatigue and decreased performance, which can be detrimental to the personnel's well-being and the successful execution of their tasks.

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  • 3. 

    When are Senior Noncommissioned Officers required to have on-the-job training records?

    • When assigned to new duty station

    • When the commander deems necessary

    • When assigned to a commander's staff position

    • When their skill level is not commensurate with their grade

    Correct Answer
    A. When their skill level is not commensurate with their grade
    Explanation
    Senior Noncommissioned Officers are required to have on-the-job training records when their skill level is not commensurate with their grade. This means that if their current level of expertise or proficiency does not match the requirements or expectations of their rank, they need to have documented records of their training to ensure they are adequately trained and qualified for their position. This helps to ensure that they have the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively perform their duties and responsibilities.

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  • 4. 

    What color is used to mark sewer and drain lines?

    • Blue

    • White

    • Green

    • Purple

    Correct Answer
    A. Green
    Explanation
    Green is the color used to mark sewer and drain lines. This color is chosen because it signifies that the line carries storm sewers, which are used to drain rainwater and prevent flooding. Green is a standard color used in utility marking to ensure consistency and to help workers easily identify the type of line they are dealing with.

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  • 5. 

    Within the AEF battle rhythym, what environment is operational when the Air Force reaches forward and pulls capability from the next AEF pair not currently scheduled?

    • Steady State

    • Surge/Crisis

    • Transition

    • Redeployment

    Correct Answer
    A. Surge/Crisis
    Explanation
    In the AEF battle rhythm, the operational environment when the Air Force reaches forward and pulls capability from the next AEF pair not currently scheduled is Surge/Crisis. This suggests that during times of increased demand or crisis situations, the Air Force can quickly mobilize and deploy additional resources from the next AEF pair to meet the operational requirements. This allows for a flexible and responsive approach to address unforeseen circumstances or urgent needs.

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  • 6. 

    At what distance should the rods be spaced in a multi-rod grounding configuration?

    • 0.5 to 2 times the length of the longest rod in the subsystem

    • 1.5 to 3 times the length of the longest rod in the subsystem

    • 2.5 to 4 times the length of the longest rod in the subsystem

    • 3.5 to 5 times the length of the longest rod in the subsystem

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.5 to 3 times the length of the longest rod in the subsystem
    Explanation
    The rods in a multi-rod grounding configuration should be spaced at a distance of 1.5 to 3 times the length of the longest rod in the subsystem. This spacing ensures that the rods are adequately spread out to provide efficient grounding and minimize the risk of electrical faults. Spacing the rods too closely together may result in inadequate grounding, while spacing them too far apart may lead to uneven distribution of electrical current. Therefore, a spacing range of 1.5 to 3 times the length of the longest rod strikes a balance between effective grounding and efficient use of resources.

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  • 7. 

    What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

    • Bonding

    • Shielding

    • Annealing

    • Grounding

    Correct Answer
    A. Bonding
    Explanation
    Bonding refers to the process of establishing a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. It involves joining the surfaces together to ensure a strong electrical connection, which helps to minimize resistance and impedance. This connection is important in various applications, such as in electrical systems or electronic devices, to ensure proper grounding and to prevent the buildup of static electricity or interference. Bonding helps to create a reliable and efficient electrical connection between the metal surfaces, allowing for the smooth flow of current and reducing the risk of electrical issues or damage.

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  • 8. 

    Which current range do you to measure 250milliamps AC?

    • Microamps DC

    • Microamps AC

    • Milliamps/amps DC

    • Milliamps/amps AC

    Correct Answer
    A. Milliamps/amps AC
    Explanation
    To measure 250 milliamps AC, you would need to use a current range of Milliamps/amps AC. This range is specifically designed to measure alternating current in the milliampere range, which is the unit used to measure current. The other options, Microamps DC and Microamps AC, are not suitable for measuring currents in the milliampere range. Similarly, Milliamps/amps DC is not appropriate for measuring alternating current. Therefore, Milliamps/amps AC is the correct choice for measuring 250 milliamps AC.

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  • 9. 

    Which of these bit rates do you use for a bit error rate test on a 64Kbps data circuit?

    • 511bps

    • 9600bps

    • 64Kbps

    • 1.544Mbps

    Correct Answer
    A. 64Kbps
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 64Kbps because it is the same bit rate as the data circuit being tested. In a bit error rate test, you want to measure the error rate of the circuit, so you need to use the same bit rate as the circuit to accurately assess its performance.

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  • 10. 

    In the AEF battle rythym, when does the USAF reach forward and pulls capability from the next AEF pair not currently scheduled?

    • Steady state

    • Surge state

    • Transition

    • Reconstitution

    Correct Answer
    A. Surge state
    Explanation
    In the AEF battle rhythm, the USAF reaches forward and pulls capability from the next AEF pair not currently scheduled during the surge state. This suggests that during times of increased demand or heightened operational requirements, the USAF taps into resources that were initially allocated for future deployments. This allows for a temporary increase in capability and capacity to meet immediate needs.

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  • 11. 

    The output of the oscillator in an FM modulator increases in frequency with each

    • Positive half cycle of the carrier

    • Negative half cycle of the carrier

    • Positive half cycle of the modulating signal

    • Negative half cycle of the modulating signal

    Correct Answer
    A. Positive half cycle of the modulating signal
    Explanation
    In an FM modulator, the output of the oscillator increases in frequency with each positive half cycle of the modulating signal. This means that as the amplitude of the modulating signal increases during the positive half cycle, the frequency of the oscillator also increases. This relationship between the modulating signal and the oscillator frequency is what allows for the modulation of the carrier signal in frequency modulation.

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  • 12. 

    Who registers and approves UTC postured in the AEF Library and AFWUS?

    • The appropriate MAJCOM authority

    • The appropriate NAF authority

    • The appropriate Wing authority

    • The appropriate Group authority

    Correct Answer
    A. The appropriate MAJCOM authority
    Explanation
    The appropriate MAJCOM authority is responsible for registering and approving UTC postured in the AEF Library and AFWUS. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to determine the suitability of the UTC and ensure that it aligns with the overall goals and objectives of the MAJCOM. They have the authority to make decisions regarding the deployment and use of UTCs within their command.

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  • 13. 

    What AOC communications support team support may include: Transmission Systems; Power Production; Heating; Ventilation, and Air Conditioning; Transportation?

    • AOC Weapon Systems Help Desk

    • Communications Focal Point

    • AOC Area Support

    • Data Links

    Correct Answer
    A. AOC Area Support
    Explanation
    The AOC communications support team may provide assistance and support in various areas such as transmission systems, power production, heating, ventilation, and air conditioning, as well as transportation. This means that they are responsible for ensuring the smooth functioning of communication systems, managing power requirements, maintaining HVAC systems, and facilitating transportation needs within the AOC. The AOC Area Support team is specifically tasked with providing support in these areas, making it the correct answer.

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  • 14. 

    In order to make a resistance measurement using a multimeter, what safety precaution should you always do first?

    • Ensure that power is removed from the circuit under test

    • Ensure that power is applied to the circuit under test

    • Ensure that the multimeter is set to the lowest level possible

    • Ensure that the multimeter test leads are shorted together

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure that power is removed from the circuit under test
    Explanation
    Before making a resistance measurement using a multimeter, it is important to ensure that power is removed from the circuit under test. This safety precaution is necessary to prevent any potential electrical hazards or damage to the multimeter. By disconnecting the power, the risk of electric shock or short circuits is minimized, allowing for a safe and accurate resistance measurement.

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  • 15. 

    What is the minimum amount of months required for 5-level upgrade for trainees who are now in retraining status?

    • 6 months

    • 9 months

    • 12 months

    • 15 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 months
    Explanation
    The minimum amount of months required for a 5-level upgrade for trainees who are now in retraining status is 15 months. This means that it will take at least 15 months for the trainees to complete the necessary training and meet the requirements for the upgrade.

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  • 16. 

    By using 16-PSK, how many bit combinations are allowed to be used?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    In 16-PSK (Phase Shift Keying), there are 16 different phase angles that can be used to represent different bit combinations. Each phase angle represents a unique combination of 4 bits. Therefore, by using 16-PSK, a total of 4 bit combinations are allowed to be used.

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  • 17. 

    Which tool is provided to the commander on a quarterly basis to review and evaluate maintenance and training effectiveness?

    • Unit Training Report from logistics module

    • Cross reference data from federal logistics information system

    • Air tasking order from theater battle manage core system

    • Training visibility ledger from integrated maintenance data systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Training visibility ledger from integrated maintenance data systems
    Explanation
    The commander is provided with a Training visibility ledger from integrated maintenance data systems on a quarterly basis to review and evaluate maintenance and training effectiveness. This ledger contains information about the visibility of training activities and maintenance data, allowing the commander to assess the effectiveness of both maintenance and training operations.

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  • 18. 

    When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?

    • Receiving end

    • In the oscillator

    • Transmitting end

    • In the primary buffers

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiving end
    Explanation
    When using forward error control as a method of error correction, error correction takes place at the receiving end. This means that the errors are detected and corrected after the data has been transmitted and received by the intended recipient. The receiving end is responsible for identifying and correcting any errors that may have occurred during the transmission process.

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  • 19. 

    In the first phase of the bare base electrical system installation, what provides electrical power to critical functions?

    • Mobile electric power

    • Facility distribution panel

    • Primary distribution center

    • Uniterruptible power supply

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobile electric power
    Explanation
    In the first phase of the bare base electrical system installation, mobile electric power provides electrical power to critical functions. This means that temporary power sources, such as generators or portable power units, are used to supply electricity to essential operations until a more permanent solution is established. These mobile power sources can be easily transported and deployed in remote or temporary locations where a facility distribution panel or primary distribution center may not be available or fully operational yet. An uninterruptible power supply is a backup power source that provides continuous power in case of a main power failure, but it may not be the primary source of power during the initial installation phase.

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  • 20. 

    What are the 6 steps of Operation Risk Management?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk; assess the risk; analyze risk control measures; make control decisions; implement risk controls; supervisor and review

    • Identify the hazards; make risk decisions at the appropriate level; analyze risk control measures; make control decisions; implement risk controls; supervisor and review

    • Identify the hazards; assess the risk; accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs; make control decisions; implement risk controls; supervisor and review

    • Identify the hazards; assess the risk; analyze control measures; make control decisions, implement risk control; supervisor and review

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify the hazards; assess the risk; analyze control measures; make control decisions, implement risk control; supervisor and review
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Identify the hazards; assess the risk; analyze control measures; make control decisions, implement risk control; supervisor and review". This answer accurately outlines the six steps of Operation Risk Management. It starts by identifying the hazards, then assessing the level of risk associated with those hazards. After that, it involves analyzing control measures to mitigate the risk, making control decisions based on the analysis, and implementing the chosen risk control measures. Finally, it emphasizes the importance of supervision and review to ensure the effectiveness of the implemented risk controls.

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  • 21. 

    What deployment phase involves communications equipment being put in-place and commissioned into service?

    • Readiness

    • Predeployment

    • Deployment

    • Employment

    Correct Answer
    A. Employment
    Explanation
    The deployment phase involves the placement and commissioning of communications equipment into service. This means that during this phase, the equipment is installed and made operational, ready to be used for communication purposes. The term "employment" accurately describes this process, as it signifies the act of putting the equipment into service and utilizing it for its intended purpose.

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  • 22. 

    What allows for smooth and immediate transfer of electrical current between multiple source and its load?

    • UPS

    • Power supply

    • Automatic transfer switch

    • Generator

    Correct Answer
    A. Automatic transfer switch
    Explanation
    An automatic transfer switch allows for smooth and immediate transfer of electrical current between multiple sources and its load. It is designed to automatically switch the power source from the primary source to a backup source, such as a generator or UPS, in the event of a power outage or failure. This ensures uninterrupted power supply to the load, preventing any disruption or downtime.

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  • 23. 

    What purpose of modulation prevents interference when sharing the same communication path?

    • Spectrum conservation

    • Channel allocation

    • Ease of radiation

    • Companding

    Correct Answer
    A. Channel allocation
    Explanation
    Channel allocation is the purpose of modulation that prevents interference when sharing the same communication path. By allocating different channels or frequencies to different users or devices, modulation ensures that their signals do not overlap or interfere with each other. This allows multiple users to communicate simultaneously without causing interference or signal degradation. Channel allocation is a crucial aspect of efficient and reliable communication systems, especially in scenarios where multiple users or devices need to share the same communication path.

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  • 24. 

    What Air Force Specialty Code performs maintenance on fixed and mobile meteorological and navigational aids systems, ground to air transmitters, receivers and transceivers?

    • 2E0X1 Ground Radar Systems

    • 2E1X1 Satellite, Wideband and Telemetry Systems

    • 2E1X2 Airfield Systems

    • 2E1X3 Ground Radio Communications

    Correct Answer
    A. 2E1X2 Airfield Systems
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2E1X2 Airfield Systems. This Air Force Specialty Code is responsible for performing maintenance on fixed and mobile meteorological and navigational aids systems, ground to air transmitters, receivers, and transceivers. This includes ensuring that these systems are functioning properly and are able to provide accurate information for airfield operations and navigation.

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  • 25. 

    What is the threshold dollar value of equipment that is placed on CA/CRL?

    • Over $1,000

    • Over $1,500

    • Over $2,000

    • Over $2,500

    Correct Answer
    A. Over $2,500
    Explanation
    The threshold dollar value of equipment that is placed on CA/CRL is over $2,500.

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  • 26. 

    What component of a fiber optic cable provides the reflective surface that allows light to propagate?

    • Core

    • Buffer

    • Jacket

    • Cladding

    Correct Answer
    A. Cladding
    Explanation
    The cladding is the component of a fiber optic cable that provides the reflective surface that allows light to propagate. It is a layer of material surrounding the core of the cable, with a lower refractive index than the core. This difference in refractive index causes the light to be reflected back into the core, allowing it to travel through the cable without significant loss.

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  • 27. 

    What results from imperfections in an optical fiber's basic structure?

    • Absorption

    • Scattering

    • Reflection

    • Dispersion

    Correct Answer
    A. Scattering
    Explanation
    Imperfections in an optical fiber's basic structure result in scattering. Scattering occurs when the light passing through the fiber interacts with the imperfections, causing it to change direction and spread out. This can lead to loss of signal strength and distortion in the transmitted data.

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  • 28. 

    What personnel evaluation is conducted on newly assigned personnel within months of assignments to the work center (within 12 months for traditional AFRC and ANG members only)?

    • Primary

    • Follow-on

    • Intercontinental ballistic missile communications

    • Air Traffic control and landing systems certifications

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary
    Explanation
    A personnel evaluation called "Primary" is conducted on newly assigned personnel within months of their assignment to the work center. This evaluation is typically done within 12 months for traditional AFRC and ANG members only.

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  • 29. 

    What personnel evaluation is conducted to ensure technicians meet federal aviation administration (FAA) proficiency requirements?

    • Primary

    • Follow-on

    • Intercontinental ballistic missile communications

    • Air Traffic control and landing systems certifications

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Traffic control and landing systems certifications
    Explanation
    Air Traffic control and landing systems certifications are conducted to ensure that technicians meet federal aviation administration (FAA) proficiency requirements. These certifications assess the technician's knowledge and skills in operating and maintaining air traffic control and landing systems, which are crucial for the safe and efficient movement of aircraft. By obtaining these certifications, technicians demonstrate their competence in meeting the FAA's standards and regulations, ensuring the highest level of safety in aviation operations.

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  • 30. 

    How are voltage, time, and depth represented on the oscilloscope display?

    • Voltage = intensity, time= horizontal axis, depth= vertical axis

    • Voltage = horizontal axis, time=vertical axis, depth=horizontal axis

    • Voltage = intensity, time=vertical axis, depth=horizontal axis

    • Voltage = vertical axis, time= horizontal axis, depth= intensity

    Correct Answer
    A. Voltage = vertical axis, time= horizontal axis, depth= intensity
  • 31. 

    What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?

    • Microprocessors

    • Acquisition

    • Memory

    • Input

    Correct Answer
    A. Microprocessors
    Explanation
    Microprocessors in a digital storage oscilloscope are responsible for taking digitized samples and performing various manipulations on the data. This includes measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations. The microprocessors handle the processing and analysis of the acquired data, allowing for accurate measurements and calculations to be made.

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  • 32. 

    What type of probe is essentially a shielded piece of wire?

    • Passive 1:1

    • Passive 10:1

    • 100:1 divider

    • 1:1 divider

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive 1:1
    Explanation
    A passive 1:1 probe is essentially a shielded piece of wire. This type of probe is used in electronic testing and measurement to connect the circuit being tested to the measuring instrument. The 1:1 ratio means that the input and output signals have the same amplitude, making it ideal for accurately measuring signals without introducing any distortion or attenuation. The probe is shielded to minimize interference from external sources and ensure accurate measurements.

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  • 33. 

    Non-uniform quantizing and companding decreases the length of the code word from

    • 11 to 7 bits

    • 11 to 8 bits

    • 16 to 7 bits

    • 16 to 8 bits

    Correct Answer
    A. 11 to 7 bits
    Explanation
    Non-uniform quantizing and companding is a technique used in data compression to reduce the number of bits required to represent a signal. In this case, the original code word length is 11 bits. By applying non-uniform quantizing and companding, the length of the code word is decreased to 7 bits. This means that the signal can be represented using fewer bits, resulting in a more efficient compression scheme.

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  • 34. 

    What designates equipment as reportable?

    • When it is mission capable

    • When it is mission essential

    • When it is full mission capable

    • When it is partial mission capable

    Correct Answer
    A. When it is mission essential
    Explanation
    Equipment is designated as reportable when it is mission essential. This means that the equipment is crucial for the successful completion of a mission or task. It indicates that without this equipment, the mission cannot be carried out effectively. Therefore, it is important to report and track the status of mission essential equipment to ensure its availability and functionality when needed.

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  • 35. 

    What must Quality Assurance personnel be able to do?

    • Perform as an advisor, teacher and confidant to maintenance personnel

    • To evaluate maintenance requirements and direct timely corrective actions with assistance from maintenance work centers

    • Advise maintenance managers of the overall supply situation as it affects maintenance and recommend ways to improve supply support

    • Provide assistance with technical and management guidance so staff functions and work centers can detect and correct problems in the early stages

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide assistance with technical and management guidance so staff functions and work centers can detect and correct problems in the early stages
    Explanation
    Quality Assurance personnel must be able to provide assistance with technical and management guidance so that staff functions and work centers can detect and correct problems in the early stages. This means that they should have the knowledge and skills to offer guidance and support in identifying and resolving issues before they escalate. This role involves working closely with maintenance personnel, evaluating maintenance requirements, advising on supply situations, and recommending ways to improve supply support. By providing guidance and assistance, Quality Assurance personnel can contribute to the overall effectiveness and efficiency of maintenance operations.

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  • 36. 

    What level of maintenance has skills and material resources not available at the operating location, but not to the extent of those available at technology repair centers?

    • Organizational

    • Intermediate

    • Laboratory

    • Depot

    Correct Answer
    A. Intermediate
    Explanation
    Intermediate level of maintenance refers to the level where skills and material resources are not available at the operating location, but they are also not as extensive as those available at technology repair centers. This level typically involves more complex repairs and maintenance tasks that cannot be performed at the operating location due to limited resources or expertise. However, it does not require the full range of resources and expertise available at technology repair centers, which are usually reserved for more specialized and advanced repairs.

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  • 37. 

    What identifies the authorized manning position to which you're assigned and reflects the job you are currently performing?

    • Primary AFSC

    • Control AFSC

    • Duty AFSC

    • CFETP

    Correct Answer
    A. Duty AFSC
    Explanation
    The Duty AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) identifies the authorized manning position to which an individual is assigned and reflects the specific job they are currently performing. It is a code that designates the primary duties and responsibilities of an Air Force member and is used for personnel management, training, and assignment purposes.

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  • 38. 

    What is an instantaneous, dramatic increase in voltage, also called an impulse?

    • Blackout

    • Spike

    • Surge

    • Noise

    Correct Answer
    A. Spike
    Explanation
    An instantaneous, dramatic increase in voltage is commonly referred to as a spike. This sudden surge in voltage can cause damage to electrical equipment and appliances. Unlike a surge, which is a longer-lasting increase in voltage, a spike is a short-lived event that can occur due to power surges, lightning strikes, or other electrical disturbances. It is important to protect electronic devices from spikes by using surge protectors or voltage regulators.

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  • 39. 

    How do you place multimeter test leads in a circuit to measure voltage?

    • Series

    • Parallel

    • Series-parallel

    • Parallel-parallel

    Correct Answer
    A. Parallel
    Explanation
    When measuring voltage with a multimeter, the test leads should be placed in parallel with the circuit. This means that the positive lead should be connected to the positive side of the circuit, and the negative lead should be connected to the negative side. Placing the test leads in parallel allows the multimeter to measure the voltage difference between the two points accurately.

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  • 40. 

    What type of Air Force Specialty Code is for use by the Air Force Personnel Center for assignment and training purposes?

    • Duty

    • Control

    • Primary

    • Ten

    Correct Answer
    A. Control
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Control." In the context of the question, the Air Force Personnel Center uses the Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) for assignment and training purposes. The AFSC helps in identifying and categorizing different job specialties within the Air Force. Among the given options, "Control" is the most suitable term that aligns with the purpose of the AFSC as it implies the management and coordination of assignments and training within the Air Force Personnel Center.

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  • 41. 

    Who is responsible for the equipment's logistics cycle management and operational safety, suitability and effectiveness?

    • Single manager

    • Unit Commander

    • Chief of maintenance

    • Logistics readiness squadron commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Single manager
    Explanation
    The single manager is responsible for the equipment's logistics cycle management and operational safety, suitability, and effectiveness. They oversee the entire process of managing the equipment's logistics, ensuring that it is properly maintained, safe to use, and meets the required standards of effectiveness. This includes tasks such as coordinating transportation, storage, maintenance, and disposal of the equipment. The single manager is the individual who has the overall responsibility and authority to make decisions regarding the equipment's logistics and ensure its proper functioning.

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  • 42. 

    In acquiring a 4K record length on a digital storage oscilloscope, how many samples can you view at one time?

    • 1000

    • 2000

    • 3000

    • 4000

    Correct Answer
    A. 1000
    Explanation
    In acquiring a 4K record length on a digital storage oscilloscope, you can view 1000 samples at one time. The term "4K" refers to the record length, which is the number of samples that the oscilloscope can store. In this case, it can store 4,000 samples. However, the question asks how many samples can be viewed at one time, which is equivalent to the number of samples displayed on the screen. Since the oscilloscope has a 4K record length, it can only display 1000 samples at a time.

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  • 43. 

    The HAE CGS is able to control up to

    • Two HAE UAV systems at a time

    • Three HAE UAV systems at a time

    • Four HAE UAV systems at a time

    • Five HAE UAV systems at a time

    Correct Answer
    A. Three HAE UAV systems at a time
    Explanation
    The correct answer is three HAE UAV systems at a time. This means that the HAE CGS (High Altitude Endurance Control and Guidance System) has the capability to control and manage the operations of three HAE UAV (Unmanned Aerial Vehicle) systems simultaneously. This suggests that the HAE CGS has the necessary technology and infrastructure to handle the control and guidance of multiple UAV systems, allowing for efficient and coordinated operations.

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  • 44. 

    What maintenance staff function coordinates with support agencies and assists maintenance personnel be expediting all supply transactions?

    • Material control

    • Quality assurance

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Maintenance production work center

    Correct Answer
    A. Material control
    Explanation
    Material control is the correct answer because it is the maintenance staff function that coordinates with support agencies and assists maintenance personnel in expediting all supply transactions. Material control is responsible for managing and controlling the flow of materials and supplies needed for maintenance operations. This includes coordinating with external suppliers, tracking inventory levels, and ensuring timely delivery of materials to support maintenance activities. By efficiently managing the supply chain, material control helps to expedite supply transactions and ensure that maintenance personnel have the necessary resources to perform their tasks effectively.

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  • 45. 

    What gauge wire is the minimum un-skinned size used for punch-down?

    • 20 AWG

    • 22 AWG

    • 24 AWG

    • 26 AWG

    Correct Answer
    A. 26 AWG
    Explanation
    The minimum un-skinned size used for punch-down is 26 AWG. This means that the smallest gauge wire that can be used for punch-down connections is 26 AWG.

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  • 46. 

    What type of UPS offers the highest level of protection?

    • Passive Standby

    • Line Interactive

    • Double Conversion

    • Ferro resonant Standby

    Correct Answer
    A. Double Conversion
    Explanation
    Double Conversion UPS offers the highest level of protection. In a Double Conversion UPS, the incoming AC power is converted to DC and then back to AC. This ensures a continuous and clean power supply to the connected devices, as the UPS constantly filters and regulates the power. In case of any power fluctuations or outages, the UPS seamlessly switches to battery power without any interruption. This type of UPS provides the highest level of protection against power surges, voltage spikes, frequency variations, and other electrical disturbances.

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  • 47. 

    Which part of the Fluke 8025A display section indicates the absolute value of the input?

    • Digital

    • Annunciator

    • Range Indicator

    • Analog bar graph

    Correct Answer
    A. Analog bar graph
    Explanation
    The analog bar graph in the Fluke 8025A display section indicates the absolute value of the input. The bar graph provides a visual representation of the input value, allowing the user to quickly and easily determine the magnitude of the measurement. This is especially useful when dealing with analog signals, as it provides a more intuitive understanding of the input value compared to a digital display or other indicators.

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  • 48. 

    What is the senior element of the Theater Air Control System?

    • Air and Space Operations Center

    • Air Support Operations Center

    • Control and Reporting Center

    • Tactical Air Control Party

    Correct Answer
    A. Air and Space Operations Center
    Explanation
    The senior element of the Theater Air Control System is the Air and Space Operations Center. This is the command and control center responsible for planning, directing, and executing joint air operations in a theater of operations. It is responsible for coordinating and integrating air and space power in support of the overall mission. The Air and Space Operations Center is staffed with personnel from various services and agencies, and it serves as the focal point for air operations planning and execution.

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  • 49. 

    What is the minimum time an individual must complete in upgrade training in order to receive his/her 5 skill-level?

    • 12 months

    • 15 months

    • 18 months

    • 24 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 months
    Explanation
    In order to receive a 5 skill-level, an individual must complete a minimum of 15 months in upgrade training. This suggests that there is a specific timeline or duration required for individuals to acquire the necessary skills and knowledge to reach this level. It implies that the training program is designed to ensure individuals have a comprehensive understanding of the subject matter before being awarded the 5 skill-level.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 09, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Radarlove
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