Communications - Electronics Journeyman CDC 2EX5X Test 2

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  • 1/100 Questions

    When using the AN/PSM-2 megger, how do you know you are applying the correct regulated output voltage?

    • Turn the hand crank until an arc is present
    • Turn the hand crank until the needle drops
    • Turn the hand crank and monitor with another meter
    • Turn the hand crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow
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About This Quiz

Test 2 of Multiple Choice on Volumes 1-3 of Career Development Course 2EX5X

CDC Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    How many SMSgt 9-level positions are in the Communications-Electronics career progression ladder?

    • 1

    • 3

    • 2

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2. This means that there are only two SMSgt 9-level positions in the Communications-Electronics career progression ladder. This suggests that there are limited opportunities for individuals to reach this high level within the career progression ladder.

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  • 3. 

    What is the minimum rank necessary to become a Task Certifier?

    • SrA

    • SSgt

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. SSgt
    Explanation
    The minimum rank necessary to become a Task Certifier is SSgt. This means that in order to hold this position, an individual must have achieved the rank of Staff Sergeant.

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  • 4. 

    What level of maintenance employs the highest degree of skill and the most extensive support equipment?

    • Organizational

    • Intermediate

    • Laboratory

    • Depot

    Correct Answer
    A. Depot
    Explanation
    Depot maintenance employs the highest degree of skill and the most extensive support equipment. This level of maintenance is typically performed at specialized facilities and involves complex repairs, overhauls, and modifications to equipment. It requires highly skilled technicians and engineers, as well as a wide range of specialized tools and equipment to ensure the proper functioning and longevity of the equipment. Organizational, intermediate, and laboratory maintenance levels may also require skill and support equipment, but depot maintenance generally involves the most advanced and comprehensive level of expertise and resources.

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  • 5. 

    Which statement describes a security feature of using fiber optic cable?

    • Easy to encrypt data

    • Low signal attenuation

    • Virtually impossible to tap a fiber optic cable unnoticed

    • Fiber optic cables are considerably smaller than metalic cable

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtually impossible to tap a fiber optic cable unnoticed
    Explanation
    Fiber optic cables are virtually impossible to tap unnoticed because they do not emit electromagnetic signals that can be easily intercepted. Unlike traditional metallic cables, fiber optic cables use light to transmit data, making it extremely difficult to tap into the cable without disrupting the signal. This makes fiber optic cables a more secure option for transmitting sensitive information.

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  • 6. 

    Which analog multimeter control compensates for the voltage of the internal batteries when calibrating for resistance measurements?

    • Range switch

    • Voltage switch

    • Function switch

    • Zero ohms control

    Correct Answer
    A. Zero ohms control
    Explanation
    The zero ohms control compensates for the voltage of the internal batteries when calibrating for resistance measurements. By adjusting the zero ohms control, the multimeter can nullify any voltage offset caused by the internal batteries, ensuring accurate resistance measurements. The range switch, voltage switch, and function switch do not directly compensate for the voltage of the internal batteries.

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  • 7. 

    What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?

    • Sag

    • Spike

    • Noise

    • Blackout

    Correct Answer
    A. Sag
    Explanation
    A sag is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels. A sag occurs when there is a temporary drop in voltage, usually caused by a fault in the power system. This can lead to a decrease in the performance of electrical devices connected to the power line. Sags are typically brief and can be caused by various factors such as lightning strikes, equipment malfunctions, or power grid disturbances.

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  • 8. 

    What part of the power generation process allows a smooth transition of electrical current between multiple sources and load?

    • Filter

    • Battery bank

    • Voltage sensor

    • Automatic transfer switch

    Correct Answer
    A. Automatic transfer switch
    Explanation
    An automatic transfer switch is a device used in power generation systems to seamlessly transfer the electrical current between multiple sources and loads. It detects any interruptions or fluctuations in the main power source and automatically switches to an alternative power source, ensuring a continuous and uninterrupted supply of electricity. This allows for a smooth transition of electrical current, preventing any disruptions or downtime in the power supply.

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  • 9. 

    What term describes total loss of utility power?

    • Sag

    • Blackout

    • Spike

    • Noise

    Correct Answer
    A. Blackout
    Explanation
    A blackout refers to the complete loss of utility power. During a blackout, there is a total absence of electricity, resulting in a complete loss of power to all connected devices and systems. This can occur due to various reasons such as severe weather conditions, equipment failure, or grid overload. Blackouts can cause significant disruptions, affecting daily life, businesses, and infrastructure, until power is restored.

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  • 10. 

    Which feature of the Fluke 8025A multimeter do you use to select various measurement functions?

    • Circuit jacks

    • Rotary switch

    • Range push button

    • Touch hold button

    Correct Answer
    A. Rotary switch
    Explanation
    The rotary switch is used to select various measurement functions on the Fluke 8025A multimeter. It allows the user to easily switch between different modes such as voltage, current, resistance, and more. By turning the rotary switch to the desired function, the user can quickly and accurately measure different parameters without the need for additional buttons or settings.

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  • 11. 

    Which feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when you take a new measurement?

    • Rotary switch

    • Range push button

    • Power-up self test

    • Touch-hold push button

    Correct Answer
    A. Touch-hold push button
    Explanation
    The touch-hold push button feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when a new measurement is taken. This means that once the button is pressed, the measurement value will stay on the screen even if the measurement is no longer being taken. This allows the user to easily view and record the measurement without the need to constantly hold the button down.

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  • 12. 

    Low-insulation resistance between conductors can cause

    • High attenuation, crosstalk, and noise

    • Fresnal reflection, dispersion, and scattering

    • High-impedance, capacitance, and rectification

    • Low-attenuation, electromagnetic immunity, and absorption

    Correct Answer
    A. High attenuation, crosstalk, and noise
    Explanation
    Low-insulation resistance between conductors can cause high attenuation, crosstalk, and noise. When the insulation resistance is low, it means that there is a leakage of current between the conductors. This leakage can result in a loss of signal strength, leading to high attenuation. Additionally, the leakage can cause interference between adjacent conductors, resulting in crosstalk. This interference can further contribute to the generation of noise in the system. Therefore, low-insulation resistance can have detrimental effects on the overall performance and quality of the electrical or electronic system.

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  • 13. 

    What level of maintenance is the most forward maintenance capability?

    • Organizational

    • Intermediate

    • Laboratory

    • Depot

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational
    Explanation
    Organizational maintenance refers to the level of maintenance that is performed by the unit or organization responsible for operating and maintaining the equipment. It is the most forward maintenance capability because it is carried out at the operational level, where the equipment is being used. This level of maintenance includes tasks such as routine inspections, servicing, and minor repairs that can be done by the operators or technicians within the unit. It ensures that the equipment remains in good working condition and minimizes downtime, allowing for continuous operations.

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  • 14. 

    What should you ensure before disconnecting an equipment ground?

    • Equipment power is off

    • Electrical charges are neutralized

    • Ground connection is complete and tightly fastened

    • Lockout/tagout procedures are implemented

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment power is off
    Explanation
    Before disconnecting an equipment ground, it is important to ensure that the equipment power is off. This is crucial to prevent any potential electrical hazards or accidents that may occur when disconnecting the ground. By ensuring that the equipment power is off, it reduces the risk of electric shock or damage to the equipment.

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  • 15. 

    What power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

    • Sag

    • Spike

    • Noise

    • Blackout

    Correct Answer
    A. Spike
    Explanation
    A spike is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage. This sudden surge in voltage can cause damage to electrical equipment and appliances connected to the power line. It is characterized by a sharp increase in voltage followed by a rapid decrease. Spikes can be caused by lightning strikes, power surges, or faults in the power grid.

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  • 16. 

     What type of Air Force Code shows your highest skill level?

    • Duty

    • Control

    • Primary

    • Alternate

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Primary". In the Air Force, the Primary Air Force Code indicates the highest skill level that an individual has achieved. This code signifies that the person has reached a level of proficiency and expertise in their specific field. It is a recognition of their advanced skills and qualifications within the Air Force.

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  • 17. 

    Which items are considered support equipment?

    • Automated test sets

    • Defense satellite communications systems

    • Theater battle management core systems

    • Theater deployable communications systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Automated test sets
    Explanation
    Automated test sets are considered support equipment because they are used to test and diagnose the functionality of various systems and equipment. They are typically used in maintenance and troubleshooting activities to ensure that the equipment is operating correctly and to identify any issues or faults. Automated test sets are an essential tool in the support and maintenance of complex systems, making them a crucial part of support equipment.

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  • 18. 

    What guideline is encouraged by APWA to adopt to mark underground facilities?

    • Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard

    • Utility and Public Right-of-Way

    • Underwriters Laboratories

    • Information Assurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Utility and Public Right-of-Way
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Utility and Public Right-of-Way. The APWA encourages adopting this guideline to mark underground facilities. This guideline ensures that utilities and public infrastructure are properly marked and identified, reducing the risk of accidental damage during excavation or construction activities. By following this guideline, organizations can ensure the safety of workers and prevent disruptions to essential services.

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  • 19. 

    What term is used to describe short term decreases in voltage levels?

    • Sag

    • Blackout

    • Spike

    • Surge

    Correct Answer
    A. Sag
    Explanation
    Sag is the term used to describe short term decreases in voltage levels. A sag occurs when the voltage level drops below the normal level for a brief period of time. This can happen due to various reasons such as sudden changes in load or faults in the electrical system. Sags can cause equipment malfunctions or disruptions in power supply, but they are usually not as severe as blackouts or surges.

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  • 20. 

    When using vertical redundancy check, what significance does the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern?

    • Determines parity

    • Determines transmission rate

    • Determines whether transmission is in ASCII format

    • Determines whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous

    Correct Answer
    A. Determines parity
    Explanation
    The amount of ones in a data bit pattern determines parity. Parity is a form of error checking in which an extra bit is added to a data transmission to ensure that the number of ones in the pattern is either even or odd. By comparing the number of ones received with the expected parity, errors can be detected. If the number of ones does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission.

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  • 21. 

    In the internal clock generator section of a typical  bit error rate test set, what generates the basic clock that provides all clock phases, and is periodically frequency calibrated by a crystal controlled oscillator in the automatic calibration section?

    • VCO

    • Countdown

    • Code converter

    • DAC and decode range splitter

    Correct Answer
    A. VCO
    Explanation
    In the internal clock generator section of a typical bit error rate test set, the VCO (Voltage Controlled Oscillator) generates the basic clock that provides all clock phases. It is periodically frequency calibrated by a crystal controlled oscillator in the automatic calibration section. The VCO is responsible for generating a stable and accurate clock signal that is essential for the proper functioning of the test set.

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  • 22. 

    Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency?

    • Verifying transmitter frequencies

    • Troubleshooting receivers

    • Checking antenna systems

    • Aligning galvanometers

    Correct Answer
    A. Aligning galvanometers
    Explanation
    Aligning galvanometers is not an application of radio frequency. Galvanometers are devices used to measure small electric currents, and their alignment does not involve the use of radio frequency signals. The other options, verifying transmitter frequencies, troubleshooting receivers, and checking antenna systems, all involve the use of radio frequency in some way, such as tuning, testing, or analyzing signals.

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  • 23. 

    Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

    • Prevent eavesdropping

    • To aid in troubleshooting

    • Reduce transmission loss

    • Minimize potential damage

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce transmission loss
    Explanation
    Controlling the number of splices during fiber optic installation helps to reduce transmission loss. Each splice in a fiber optic cable introduces a certain amount of signal loss, so minimizing the number of splices can help maintain the integrity of the signal being transmitted. This is important because excessive transmission loss can degrade the quality and strength of the signal, leading to poor performance and reduced data transfer rates. By controlling the number of splices, the installation can ensure that the fiber optic system operates at its optimal efficiency.

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  • 24. 

    Work center maintenance personnel on standby coordinate meal and comfort breaks with what maintenance staff function?

    • Material Control

    • Quality Assurance

    • Chief of Maintenance

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operations Center
    Explanation
    Work center maintenance personnel on standby coordinate meal and comfort breaks with the Maintenance Operations Center. The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for overseeing and coordinating all maintenance activities within an organization. They ensure that maintenance personnel are properly scheduled and available to perform their duties, including coordinating breaks and meals to ensure continuous coverage and efficiency.

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  • 25. 

    Who is responsible for the operation of Integrated Maintenance Data System?

    • Every user

    • The host database manager

    • The maintenance operations center

    • The maintenance production work center

    Correct Answer
    A. The host database manager
    Explanation
    The host database manager is responsible for the operation of the Integrated Maintenance Data System. They are in charge of managing and maintaining the database that supports the system, ensuring its smooth functioning and availability to all users. The host database manager plays a crucial role in ensuring the efficient operation and maintenance of the Integrated Maintenance Data System.

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  • 26. 

    What maintenance staff function is the focal point for the Corrosion Prevention and Control program?

    • Material Control

    • Quality Assurance

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    • Maintenance Production Work Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    Quality Assurance is the correct answer because it is the focal point for the Corrosion Prevention and Control program. Quality Assurance ensures that maintenance staff follow proper procedures and standards to prevent and control corrosion. They conduct inspections, tests, and audits to identify and address any corrosion issues, and they also provide guidance and training to maintenance staff on corrosion prevention and control techniques. Overall, Quality Assurance plays a crucial role in maintaining the effectiveness of the Corrosion Prevention and Control program.

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  • 27. 

    The relationship of the bandwidth required for double-sideband emitted carrier (DSBEC) AM to the bandwidth of the modulating signal of the AM bandwidth alone is

    • One-quarter of the modulating bandwidth

    • Four times the modulating bandwidth

    • Twice the modulating bandwidth

    • Half the moduating bandwidth

    Correct Answer
    A. Twice the modulating bandwidth
    Explanation
    In double-sideband emitted carrier (DSBEC) AM, the bandwidth required is twice the modulating bandwidth. This is because DSBEC AM includes both the upper and lower sidebands, which each have a bandwidth equal to the modulating bandwidth. Therefore, when both sidebands are included, the total bandwidth required is twice the modulating bandwidth.

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  • 28. 

    The most useful way to classify fiber optic cables is by

    • Fiber material and number of fibers

    • Buffer type and application method

    • Numerical aperture and cable elements

    • Refractive index profile and number of modes

    Correct Answer
    A. Refractive index profile and number of modes
    Explanation
    The most useful way to classify fiber optic cables is based on their refractive index profile and number of modes. The refractive index profile refers to the distribution of the refractive index within the fiber, which affects the way light propagates through it. The number of modes refers to the different paths that light can take within the fiber. By considering these factors, we can determine the performance and capabilities of the fiber optic cable, allowing us to choose the most suitable cable for a specific application.

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  • 29. 

    Within what area are you required to maintain compromising emanations?

    • Within the profile

    • Within the equipment

    • Within the inspectable space

    • Within the classified transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Within the inspectable space
    Explanation
    Compromising emanations refer to unintentional signals or emissions that can potentially reveal classified information. To prevent unauthorized access to such information, it is necessary to maintain these emanations within the inspectable space. This means that the area where the equipment or systems that generate these emanations are located should be secured and monitored to ensure that the signals do not leak outside the designated space.

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  • 30. 

    What do we consider to be a Maintenance Information system?

    • Logistics Module

    • Telephone Management system

    • Federal Logistics Information system

    • Theater Maintenance production work

    Correct Answer
    A. Telephone Management system
    Explanation
    A Maintenance Information system is a system that is used to manage and track maintenance activities and information. It helps in organizing and recording maintenance tasks, scheduling and assigning work orders, tracking inventory and equipment, and generating reports. While the other options mentioned in the question may also be related to managing information, a Telephone Management system specifically focuses on managing telephone usage and expenses, which is not directly related to maintenance activities. Therefore, the correct answer is Telephone Management system.

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  • 31. 

    What condition status code do we not use with a single mission system?

    • When it is a mission-essential

    • When it is not mission capable

    • When it is full-mission capable

    • When it is partial-mission capable

    Correct Answer
    A. When it is partial-mission capable
    Explanation
    When a single mission system is partial-mission capable, we do not use the condition status code. This implies that the system is only partially capable of performing its intended mission and may have limitations or restrictions. The condition status code is typically used to indicate the overall readiness or capability of a system, and in this case, it would not be applicable as the system is not fully mission capable.

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  • 32. 

    Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire?

    • Current probe

    • Passive 1:1 probe

    • Passive divider, 1:10 probe

    • Active field effect transistor probe

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive 1:1 probe
    Explanation
    A passive 1:1 probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire. It is a simple probe that does not contain any active components or circuitry. It is used to measure low frequency signals and provides a direct connection between the oscilloscope and the circuit under test. The probe is shielded to minimize noise and interference from external sources, ensuring accurate signal measurements.

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  • 33. 

    How is the signal loss represented in an optical time domain reflectometer display?

    • Watts

    • Power

    • Candles

    • Decibels

    Correct Answer
    A. Decibels
    Explanation
    An optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a device used to measure the loss of signal in an optical fiber. The signal loss is represented in decibels (dB) on the OTDR display. Decibels are a logarithmic unit used to express the ratio between two power levels. In the case of an OTDR, the decibel measurement indicates the amount of signal loss that occurs as the light travels through the fiber. The higher the decibel value, the greater the signal loss. Therefore, decibels are the appropriate unit to represent signal loss on an OTDR display.

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  • 34. 

    What is the smallest gauge that can be used for interconnecting wires in a grounding grid?

    • #2 AWG

    • #4 AWG

    • #6 AWG

    • #8 AWG

    Correct Answer
    A. #6 AWG
    Explanation
    The smallest gauge that can be used for interconnecting wires in a grounding grid is #6 AWG. This gauge is suitable for the purpose of connecting wires in a grounding grid, providing the necessary conductivity and ensuring proper grounding of the system.

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  • 35. 

    For wireless communication requirements, who must be consulted when assessing impact?

    • Base frequency manager

    • Land mobile radio manager

    • MAJCOM program manager

    • Systems control facility manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Base frequency manager
    Explanation
    When assessing the impact of wireless communication requirements, the base frequency manager must be consulted. This is because the base frequency manager is responsible for managing and allocating the frequencies used for wireless communication. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the impact of new requirements on the existing frequency allocations and ensure that there is no interference or disruption in communication. By consulting the base frequency manager, the organization can ensure that the wireless communication requirements are met effectively and efficiently.

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  • 36. 

    What is the condition status code of a no-go condition reported as?

    • MC

    • NMC

    • PMC

    • NMCS

    Correct Answer
    A. NMC
    Explanation
    The condition status code of a no-go condition is reported as NMC.

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  • 37. 

    What program's primary objective gives the Chief of Maintenance an accurate assessment of the maintenance activity's capabilities?

    • Logistic Support Program

    • Defense Support Program

    • OJT Program

    • Communications Standardization and Evaluation Program

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications Standardization and Evaluation Program
    Explanation
    The Communications Standardization and Evaluation Program's primary objective is to provide the Chief of Maintenance with an accurate assessment of the maintenance activity's capabilities. This program focuses on standardizing and evaluating the communication processes within the maintenance activity to ensure efficient and effective communication. By implementing this program, the Chief of Maintenance can have a clear understanding of the maintenance activity's capabilities and make informed decisions based on accurate information.

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  • 38. 

    What personnel evaluation is conducted every 6 months?

    • Primary

    • Follow-on

    • Intercontinental Ballistic Missile communications

    • ATCALS certification

    Correct Answer
    A. Intercontinental Ballistic Missile communications
    Explanation
    Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) communications is a specific type of personnel evaluation that is conducted every 6 months. This evaluation likely assesses the communication skills and effectiveness of personnel involved in managing and operating ICBM systems. It is important to regularly evaluate and ensure the proficiency of communication in such critical defense systems.

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  • 39. 

    How can multiple individual task assignments be put together for multiple duty positions, including additional duties?

    • They can be put together into an individual training plan

    • They can be put together into a Specialty Training Standard

    • They can be put together into an Air Force Job Qualification Standard

    • They can be put together into an Air Force Qualification Training Package

    Correct Answer
    A. They can be put together into an individual training plan
    Explanation
    Multiple individual task assignments can be put together into an individual training plan to ensure that all duty positions, including additional duties, are covered. This training plan will outline the specific tasks and responsibilities that each individual needs to fulfill in their respective positions. By consolidating these task assignments into a training plan, it becomes easier to track progress, identify any gaps in training, and ensure that all individuals are adequately prepared to perform their duties.

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  • 40. 

    Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as

    • Sequential records

    • Waveform points

    • Record lengths

    • Record points

    Correct Answer
    A. Waveform points
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Waveform points." In a digital storage oscilloscope, sampled data points are stored in the memory as waveform points. This means that the individual points of the waveform, representing voltage or current values at specific time intervals, are stored for analysis and display. Sequential records, record lengths, and record points are not the correct terms to describe the storage of sampled data points in a digital storage oscilloscope.

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  • 41. 

    Within the AEF battle rhythm, what environment is operational when all combatant commander requirements are accommodated with the AEF pair scheduled by the “on call” pair?

    • Steady State

    • Surge/Crisis

    • Transition

    • Redeployment

    Correct Answer
    A. Steady State
    Explanation
    In the AEF battle rhythm, the environment that is operational when all combatant commander requirements are accommodated with the AEF pair scheduled by the "on call" pair is called the Steady State. This refers to a state of normal operations where the AEF pair is able to handle and fulfill all the requirements and demands of the combatant commander without any major disruptions or crises. It signifies a period of stability and routine in the operations of the AEF.

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  • 42. 

    What type of UTC is identified as a standard UTC?

    • Associate

    • Deployable

    • War/Crisis

    • Steady State

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployable
    Explanation
    A deployable UTC is identified as a standard UTC because it refers to a unit type that is ready and able to be deployed for operations. Deployable UTCs are designed to be rapidly mobilized and sent to various locations to support military missions or crisis situations. They are typically trained and equipped to handle a wide range of tasks and are considered essential in maintaining military readiness and response capabilities.

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  • 43. 

    In FM, the amount of oscillator frequency change is

    • Inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal

    • Directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal

    • Inversely proportional to the phase of the modulating signal

    • Directly proportional to the phase of the modulating signal

    Correct Answer
    A. Directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal
    Explanation
    In FM, the amount of oscillator frequency change is directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal. This means that as the amplitude of the modulating signal increases, the frequency change of the oscillator also increases. This relationship is important in frequency modulation because it allows for the encoding of information in the form of variations in the frequency of the carrier signal.

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  • 44. 

    The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels?

    • 1

    • 3

    • 6

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    A power ratio of 10:1 can be represented by 10 decibels. The decibel scale is a logarithmic scale used to measure the intensity or power of sound or other signals. Each increase of 10 decibels represents a tenfold increase in power. Therefore, a power ratio of 10:1 can be represented by 10 decibels.

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  • 45. 

    What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

    • None

    • Brazing

    • Welding

    • Mechanical

    Correct Answer
    A. Mechanical
    Explanation
    Mechanical bonds are typically applied to signal reference bonds. This type of bond involves physically connecting two components through methods such as clamping, screwing, or using fasteners. It ensures a secure and reliable connection between the signal reference bonds, allowing for efficient transmission of signals. Brazing and welding involve joining materials through heat, while none does not involve any bonding method.

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  • 46. 

    Which type of oscilloscope probe is the only probe that does not have to make contact with the circuit under test?

    • Current probe

    • Active probe

    • Passive 1:1 probe

    • Passive10:1 probe

    Correct Answer
    A. Current probe
    Explanation
    A current probe is the only type of oscilloscope probe that does not have to make direct contact with the circuit under test. Instead, it uses a magnetic field to measure the current flowing through a conductor without physically touching it. This makes it ideal for measuring high currents or for situations where making direct contact with the circuit is not possible or desirable, such as in high-voltage applications.

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  • 47. 

    What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?

    • Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses

    • A binary code number is assigned to the sample

    • The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulse

    • The analog signal is band-limited

    Correct Answer
    A. The analog signal is band-limited
    Explanation
    The first step in the pulse code modulation process is to band-limit the analog signal. This means that the signal is filtered to remove any frequencies that are outside of the desired range. By band-limiting the signal, it ensures that only the necessary frequencies are included in the subsequent steps of the process. This is important because it helps to prevent distortion and interference during the sampling and quantization stages.

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  • 48. 

    What logarithmic expression do we use to specify the ratio of power loss in fiber optic cables?

    • DB/nm

    • DB/km

    • DB/cm

    • DB/m

    Correct Answer
    A. DB/km
    Explanation
    The correct answer is dB/km because the logarithmic expression dB/km is used to specify the ratio of power loss in fiber optic cables. This expression represents the decibel (dB) value of power loss per kilometer (km) of fiber optic cable. It is commonly used in the telecommunications industry to quantify the attenuation of light signals as they travel through the fiber optic cables.

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  • 49. 

    How are cables labeled?

    • The first label is placed within 6 inches and marked “TO”; the second label is placed within one inches of the first label and marked “FROM.”

    • The first label is placed within 6 inches and marked “TO”; the second label is placed within two inches of the first label and marked “FROM.”

    • The first label is placed within 12 inches and marked “TO”; the second label is placed within one inches of the first label and marked “FROM.”

    • The first label is placed within 12 inches and marked “TO”; the second label is placed within two inches of the first label and marked “FROM.”

    Correct Answer
    A. The first label is placed within 12 inches and marked “TO”; the second label is placed within two inches of the first label and marked “FROM.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the first label is placed within 12 inches and marked "TO"; the second label is placed within two inches of the first label and marked "FROM." This means that the cables are labeled with two labels, one indicating the destination or "TO" and the other indicating the source or "FROM." The labels are placed a certain distance apart, with the first label being within 12 inches and the second label being within two inches of the first label. This labeling system helps to identify and trace the cables accurately.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jan 12, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Radarlove
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