Communications - Electronics Journeyman CDC 2EX5X Test 2

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1. When using the AN/PSM-2 megger, how do you know you are applying the correct regulated output voltage?

Explanation

The correct answer is to turn the hand crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow. This indicates that the correct regulated output voltage is being applied. The other options mentioned - turning the hand crank until an arc is present, turning the hand crank until the needle drops, and monitoring with another meter - do not provide a reliable method for determining the correct regulated output voltage.

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Test 2 of Multiple Choice on Volumes 1-3 of Career Development Course 2EX5X

2. How many SMSgt 9-level positions are in the Communications-Electronics career progression ladder?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2. This means that there are only two SMSgt 9-level positions in the Communications-Electronics career progression ladder. This suggests that there are limited opportunities for individuals to reach this high level within the career progression ladder.

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3. What is the minimum rank necessary to become a Task Certifier?

Explanation

The minimum rank necessary to become a Task Certifier is SSgt. This means that in order to hold this position, an individual must have achieved the rank of Staff Sergeant.

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4. What level of maintenance employs the highest degree of skill and the most extensive support equipment?

Explanation

Depot maintenance employs the highest degree of skill and the most extensive support equipment. This level of maintenance is typically performed at specialized facilities and involves complex repairs, overhauls, and modifications to equipment. It requires highly skilled technicians and engineers, as well as a wide range of specialized tools and equipment to ensure the proper functioning and longevity of the equipment. Organizational, intermediate, and laboratory maintenance levels may also require skill and support equipment, but depot maintenance generally involves the most advanced and comprehensive level of expertise and resources.

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5. Which statement describes a security feature of using fiber optic cable?

Explanation

Fiber optic cables are virtually impossible to tap unnoticed because they do not emit electromagnetic signals that can be easily intercepted. Unlike traditional metallic cables, fiber optic cables use light to transmit data, making it extremely difficult to tap into the cable without disrupting the signal. This makes fiber optic cables a more secure option for transmitting sensitive information.

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6. Which analog multimeter control compensates for the voltage of the internal batteries when calibrating for resistance measurements?

Explanation

The zero ohms control compensates for the voltage of the internal batteries when calibrating for resistance measurements. By adjusting the zero ohms control, the multimeter can nullify any voltage offset caused by the internal batteries, ensuring accurate resistance measurements. The range switch, voltage switch, and function switch do not directly compensate for the voltage of the internal batteries.

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7. What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?

Explanation

A sag is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels. A sag occurs when there is a temporary drop in voltage, usually caused by a fault in the power system. This can lead to a decrease in the performance of electrical devices connected to the power line. Sags are typically brief and can be caused by various factors such as lightning strikes, equipment malfunctions, or power grid disturbances.

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8. What part of the power generation process allows a smooth transition of electrical current between multiple sources and load?

Explanation

An automatic transfer switch is a device used in power generation systems to seamlessly transfer the electrical current between multiple sources and loads. It detects any interruptions or fluctuations in the main power source and automatically switches to an alternative power source, ensuring a continuous and uninterrupted supply of electricity. This allows for a smooth transition of electrical current, preventing any disruptions or downtime in the power supply.

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9. What term describes total loss of utility power?

Explanation

A blackout refers to the complete loss of utility power. During a blackout, there is a total absence of electricity, resulting in a complete loss of power to all connected devices and systems. This can occur due to various reasons such as severe weather conditions, equipment failure, or grid overload. Blackouts can cause significant disruptions, affecting daily life, businesses, and infrastructure, until power is restored.

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10. Which feature of the Fluke 8025A multimeter do you use to select various measurement functions?

Explanation

The rotary switch is used to select various measurement functions on the Fluke 8025A multimeter. It allows the user to easily switch between different modes such as voltage, current, resistance, and more. By turning the rotary switch to the desired function, the user can quickly and accurately measure different parameters without the need for additional buttons or settings.

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11. Which feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when you take a new measurement?

Explanation

The touch-hold push button feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when a new measurement is taken. This means that once the button is pressed, the measurement value will stay on the screen even if the measurement is no longer being taken. This allows the user to easily view and record the measurement without the need to constantly hold the button down.

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12. Low-insulation resistance between conductors can cause

Explanation

Low-insulation resistance between conductors can cause high attenuation, crosstalk, and noise. When the insulation resistance is low, it means that there is a leakage of current between the conductors. This leakage can result in a loss of signal strength, leading to high attenuation. Additionally, the leakage can cause interference between adjacent conductors, resulting in crosstalk. This interference can further contribute to the generation of noise in the system. Therefore, low-insulation resistance can have detrimental effects on the overall performance and quality of the electrical or electronic system.

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13. What level of maintenance is the most forward maintenance capability?

Explanation

Organizational maintenance refers to the level of maintenance that is performed by the unit or organization responsible for operating and maintaining the equipment. It is the most forward maintenance capability because it is carried out at the operational level, where the equipment is being used. This level of maintenance includes tasks such as routine inspections, servicing, and minor repairs that can be done by the operators or technicians within the unit. It ensures that the equipment remains in good working condition and minimizes downtime, allowing for continuous operations.

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14. What should you ensure before disconnecting an equipment ground?

Explanation

Before disconnecting an equipment ground, it is important to ensure that the equipment power is off. This is crucial to prevent any potential electrical hazards or accidents that may occur when disconnecting the ground. By ensuring that the equipment power is off, it reduces the risk of electric shock or damage to the equipment.

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15. What power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

Explanation

A spike is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage. This sudden surge in voltage can cause damage to electrical equipment and appliances connected to the power line. It is characterized by a sharp increase in voltage followed by a rapid decrease. Spikes can be caused by lightning strikes, power surges, or faults in the power grid.

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16.  What type of Air Force Code shows your highest skill level?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Primary". In the Air Force, the Primary Air Force Code indicates the highest skill level that an individual has achieved. This code signifies that the person has reached a level of proficiency and expertise in their specific field. It is a recognition of their advanced skills and qualifications within the Air Force.

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17. Which items are considered support equipment?

Explanation

Automated test sets are considered support equipment because they are used to test and diagnose the functionality of various systems and equipment. They are typically used in maintenance and troubleshooting activities to ensure that the equipment is operating correctly and to identify any issues or faults. Automated test sets are an essential tool in the support and maintenance of complex systems, making them a crucial part of support equipment.

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18. What guideline is encouraged by APWA to adopt to mark underground facilities?

Explanation

The correct answer is Utility and Public Right-of-Way. The APWA encourages adopting this guideline to mark underground facilities. This guideline ensures that utilities and public infrastructure are properly marked and identified, reducing the risk of accidental damage during excavation or construction activities. By following this guideline, organizations can ensure the safety of workers and prevent disruptions to essential services.

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19. What term is used to describe short term decreases in voltage levels?

Explanation

Sag is the term used to describe short term decreases in voltage levels. A sag occurs when the voltage level drops below the normal level for a brief period of time. This can happen due to various reasons such as sudden changes in load or faults in the electrical system. Sags can cause equipment malfunctions or disruptions in power supply, but they are usually not as severe as blackouts or surges.

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20. When using vertical redundancy check, what significance does the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern?

Explanation

The amount of ones in a data bit pattern determines parity. Parity is a form of error checking in which an extra bit is added to a data transmission to ensure that the number of ones in the pattern is either even or odd. By comparing the number of ones received with the expected parity, errors can be detected. If the number of ones does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission.

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21. In the internal clock generator section of a typical  bit error rate test set, what generates the basic clock that provides all clock phases, and is periodically frequency calibrated by a crystal controlled oscillator in the automatic calibration section?

Explanation

In the internal clock generator section of a typical bit error rate test set, the VCO (Voltage Controlled Oscillator) generates the basic clock that provides all clock phases. It is periodically frequency calibrated by a crystal controlled oscillator in the automatic calibration section. The VCO is responsible for generating a stable and accurate clock signal that is essential for the proper functioning of the test set.

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22. Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency?

Explanation

Aligning galvanometers is not an application of radio frequency. Galvanometers are devices used to measure small electric currents, and their alignment does not involve the use of radio frequency signals. The other options, verifying transmitter frequencies, troubleshooting receivers, and checking antenna systems, all involve the use of radio frequency in some way, such as tuning, testing, or analyzing signals.

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23. Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

Explanation

Controlling the number of splices during fiber optic installation helps to reduce transmission loss. Each splice in a fiber optic cable introduces a certain amount of signal loss, so minimizing the number of splices can help maintain the integrity of the signal being transmitted. This is important because excessive transmission loss can degrade the quality and strength of the signal, leading to poor performance and reduced data transfer rates. By controlling the number of splices, the installation can ensure that the fiber optic system operates at its optimal efficiency.

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24. Work center maintenance personnel on standby coordinate meal and comfort breaks with what maintenance staff function?

Explanation

Work center maintenance personnel on standby coordinate meal and comfort breaks with the Maintenance Operations Center. The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for overseeing and coordinating all maintenance activities within an organization. They ensure that maintenance personnel are properly scheduled and available to perform their duties, including coordinating breaks and meals to ensure continuous coverage and efficiency.

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25. Who is responsible for the operation of Integrated Maintenance Data System?

Explanation

The host database manager is responsible for the operation of the Integrated Maintenance Data System. They are in charge of managing and maintaining the database that supports the system, ensuring its smooth functioning and availability to all users. The host database manager plays a crucial role in ensuring the efficient operation and maintenance of the Integrated Maintenance Data System.

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26. What maintenance staff function is the focal point for the Corrosion Prevention and Control program?

Explanation

Quality Assurance is the correct answer because it is the focal point for the Corrosion Prevention and Control program. Quality Assurance ensures that maintenance staff follow proper procedures and standards to prevent and control corrosion. They conduct inspections, tests, and audits to identify and address any corrosion issues, and they also provide guidance and training to maintenance staff on corrosion prevention and control techniques. Overall, Quality Assurance plays a crucial role in maintaining the effectiveness of the Corrosion Prevention and Control program.

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27. The relationship of the bandwidth required for double-sideband emitted carrier (DSBEC) AM to the bandwidth of the modulating signal of the AM bandwidth alone is

Explanation

In double-sideband emitted carrier (DSBEC) AM, the bandwidth required is twice the modulating bandwidth. This is because DSBEC AM includes both the upper and lower sidebands, which each have a bandwidth equal to the modulating bandwidth. Therefore, when both sidebands are included, the total bandwidth required is twice the modulating bandwidth.

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28. The most useful way to classify fiber optic cables is by

Explanation

The most useful way to classify fiber optic cables is based on their refractive index profile and number of modes. The refractive index profile refers to the distribution of the refractive index within the fiber, which affects the way light propagates through it. The number of modes refers to the different paths that light can take within the fiber. By considering these factors, we can determine the performance and capabilities of the fiber optic cable, allowing us to choose the most suitable cable for a specific application.

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29. Within what area are you required to maintain compromising emanations?

Explanation

Compromising emanations refer to unintentional signals or emissions that can potentially reveal classified information. To prevent unauthorized access to such information, it is necessary to maintain these emanations within the inspectable space. This means that the area where the equipment or systems that generate these emanations are located should be secured and monitored to ensure that the signals do not leak outside the designated space.

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30. What do we consider to be a Maintenance Information system?

Explanation

A Maintenance Information system is a system that is used to manage and track maintenance activities and information. It helps in organizing and recording maintenance tasks, scheduling and assigning work orders, tracking inventory and equipment, and generating reports. While the other options mentioned in the question may also be related to managing information, a Telephone Management system specifically focuses on managing telephone usage and expenses, which is not directly related to maintenance activities. Therefore, the correct answer is Telephone Management system.

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31. What condition status code do we not use with a single mission system?

Explanation

When a single mission system is partial-mission capable, we do not use the condition status code. This implies that the system is only partially capable of performing its intended mission and may have limitations or restrictions. The condition status code is typically used to indicate the overall readiness or capability of a system, and in this case, it would not be applicable as the system is not fully mission capable.

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32. Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire?

Explanation

A passive 1:1 probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire. It is a simple probe that does not contain any active components or circuitry. It is used to measure low frequency signals and provides a direct connection between the oscilloscope and the circuit under test. The probe is shielded to minimize noise and interference from external sources, ensuring accurate signal measurements.

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33. How is the signal loss represented in an optical time domain reflectometer display?

Explanation

An optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a device used to measure the loss of signal in an optical fiber. The signal loss is represented in decibels (dB) on the OTDR display. Decibels are a logarithmic unit used to express the ratio between two power levels. In the case of an OTDR, the decibel measurement indicates the amount of signal loss that occurs as the light travels through the fiber. The higher the decibel value, the greater the signal loss. Therefore, decibels are the appropriate unit to represent signal loss on an OTDR display.

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34. What is the smallest gauge that can be used for interconnecting wires in a grounding grid?

Explanation

The smallest gauge that can be used for interconnecting wires in a grounding grid is #6 AWG. This gauge is suitable for the purpose of connecting wires in a grounding grid, providing the necessary conductivity and ensuring proper grounding of the system.

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35. For wireless communication requirements, who must be consulted when assessing impact?

Explanation

When assessing the impact of wireless communication requirements, the base frequency manager must be consulted. This is because the base frequency manager is responsible for managing and allocating the frequencies used for wireless communication. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the impact of new requirements on the existing frequency allocations and ensure that there is no interference or disruption in communication. By consulting the base frequency manager, the organization can ensure that the wireless communication requirements are met effectively and efficiently.

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36. What is the condition status code of a no-go condition reported as?

Explanation

The condition status code of a no-go condition is reported as NMC.

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37. What program's primary objective gives the Chief of Maintenance an accurate assessment of the maintenance activity's capabilities?

Explanation

The Communications Standardization and Evaluation Program's primary objective is to provide the Chief of Maintenance with an accurate assessment of the maintenance activity's capabilities. This program focuses on standardizing and evaluating the communication processes within the maintenance activity to ensure efficient and effective communication. By implementing this program, the Chief of Maintenance can have a clear understanding of the maintenance activity's capabilities and make informed decisions based on accurate information.

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38. What personnel evaluation is conducted every 6 months?

Explanation

Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) communications is a specific type of personnel evaluation that is conducted every 6 months. This evaluation likely assesses the communication skills and effectiveness of personnel involved in managing and operating ICBM systems. It is important to regularly evaluate and ensure the proficiency of communication in such critical defense systems.

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39. How can multiple individual task assignments be put together for multiple duty positions, including additional duties?

Explanation

Multiple individual task assignments can be put together into an individual training plan to ensure that all duty positions, including additional duties, are covered. This training plan will outline the specific tasks and responsibilities that each individual needs to fulfill in their respective positions. By consolidating these task assignments into a training plan, it becomes easier to track progress, identify any gaps in training, and ensure that all individuals are adequately prepared to perform their duties.

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40. Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as

Explanation

The correct answer is "Waveform points." In a digital storage oscilloscope, sampled data points are stored in the memory as waveform points. This means that the individual points of the waveform, representing voltage or current values at specific time intervals, are stored for analysis and display. Sequential records, record lengths, and record points are not the correct terms to describe the storage of sampled data points in a digital storage oscilloscope.

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41. Within the AEF battle rhythm, what environment is operational when all combatant commander requirements are accommodated with the AEF pair scheduled by the “on call” pair?

Explanation

In the AEF battle rhythm, the environment that is operational when all combatant commander requirements are accommodated with the AEF pair scheduled by the "on call" pair is called the Steady State. This refers to a state of normal operations where the AEF pair is able to handle and fulfill all the requirements and demands of the combatant commander without any major disruptions or crises. It signifies a period of stability and routine in the operations of the AEF.

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42. What type of UTC is identified as a standard UTC?

Explanation

A deployable UTC is identified as a standard UTC because it refers to a unit type that is ready and able to be deployed for operations. Deployable UTCs are designed to be rapidly mobilized and sent to various locations to support military missions or crisis situations. They are typically trained and equipped to handle a wide range of tasks and are considered essential in maintaining military readiness and response capabilities.

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43. In FM, the amount of oscillator frequency change is

Explanation

In FM, the amount of oscillator frequency change is directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal. This means that as the amplitude of the modulating signal increases, the frequency change of the oscillator also increases. This relationship is important in frequency modulation because it allows for the encoding of information in the form of variations in the frequency of the carrier signal.

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44. The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels?

Explanation

A power ratio of 10:1 can be represented by 10 decibels. The decibel scale is a logarithmic scale used to measure the intensity or power of sound or other signals. Each increase of 10 decibels represents a tenfold increase in power. Therefore, a power ratio of 10:1 can be represented by 10 decibels.

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45. What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

Explanation

Mechanical bonds are typically applied to signal reference bonds. This type of bond involves physically connecting two components through methods such as clamping, screwing, or using fasteners. It ensures a secure and reliable connection between the signal reference bonds, allowing for efficient transmission of signals. Brazing and welding involve joining materials through heat, while none does not involve any bonding method.

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46. Which type of oscilloscope probe is the only probe that does not have to make contact with the circuit under test?

Explanation

A current probe is the only type of oscilloscope probe that does not have to make direct contact with the circuit under test. Instead, it uses a magnetic field to measure the current flowing through a conductor without physically touching it. This makes it ideal for measuring high currents or for situations where making direct contact with the circuit is not possible or desirable, such as in high-voltage applications.

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47. What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?

Explanation

The first step in the pulse code modulation process is to band-limit the analog signal. This means that the signal is filtered to remove any frequencies that are outside of the desired range. By band-limiting the signal, it ensures that only the necessary frequencies are included in the subsequent steps of the process. This is important because it helps to prevent distortion and interference during the sampling and quantization stages.

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48. What logarithmic expression do we use to specify the ratio of power loss in fiber optic cables?

Explanation

The correct answer is dB/km because the logarithmic expression dB/km is used to specify the ratio of power loss in fiber optic cables. This expression represents the decibel (dB) value of power loss per kilometer (km) of fiber optic cable. It is commonly used in the telecommunications industry to quantify the attenuation of light signals as they travel through the fiber optic cables.

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49. How are cables labeled?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the first label is placed within 12 inches and marked "TO"; the second label is placed within two inches of the first label and marked "FROM." This means that the cables are labeled with two labels, one indicating the destination or "TO" and the other indicating the source or "FROM." The labels are placed a certain distance apart, with the first label being within 12 inches and the second label being within two inches of the first label. This labeling system helps to identify and trace the cables accurately.

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50. What error detection method is used for checking a data block greater than 512 and is about 99% effective in most applications?

Explanation

Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a widely used error detection method for checking data blocks larger than 512 bytes. It is about 99% effective in most applications. CRC involves generating a short fixed-size checksum based on the data block, which is then sent along with the data. The receiver performs the same calculation and compares the calculated checksum with the received checksum. If they match, it is assumed that the data block was transmitted without errors. If they do not match, it indicates that an error occurred during transmission.

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51. Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?

Explanation

The CURSORS control button on a digital storage oscilloscope is responsible for controlling all the waveforms displayed in the STORE mode. This button allows the user to select, move, and manipulate cursors on the screen to measure various parameters of the waveform, such as voltage, time, and frequency. By using the CURSORS control, the user can accurately analyze and measure the waveforms stored in the oscilloscope's memory.

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52. What system initially handles Air and Space Operations Center duties?

Explanation

The Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS) is the system that initially handles Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) duties. AWACS is a surveillance aircraft that provides real-time information about enemy aircraft and other potential threats, allowing for coordinated air operations. It serves as a command and control platform, enabling the AOC to monitor and direct air operations effectively. The AWACS system is equipped with radar and communication systems that allow for early warning, surveillance, and control of the battlespace.

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53. During this period, units are notified of where and when they will deploy.

Explanation

During the pre-deployment phase, units are informed about the specific details of their deployment, including the location and time frame. This phase is crucial in preparing the units for their upcoming deployment, as it allows them to make the necessary arrangements and gather the required resources. It ensures that the units are ready and well-prepared before they are actually deployed to their designated location.

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54. Which of these data circuit speeds would normally use the shorter generated bit error rate (BER) test pattern lengths, and what is data circuit bit rate?

Explanation

Low to intermediate data circuit speeds, such as 1200 to 9600bps, would normally use shorter generated bit error rate (BER) test pattern lengths. The reason for this is that lower speed circuits typically have less bandwidth available, which means that shorter test patterns are needed to quickly assess the quality of the circuit. The data circuit bit rate refers to the speed at which data is transmitted over the circuit, in this case, it is 1200 to 9600bps.

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55. What type of UPS utilizes a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?

Explanation

A line interactive UPS utilizes a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power. This type of UPS is designed to provide protection against common power problems such as voltage sags, surges, and frequency fluctuations. The transformer or inductor helps regulate the voltage and smooth out any irregularities in the power supply, ensuring a stable and reliable output to the load. This makes the line interactive UPS suitable for applications where moderate power protection is required.

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56. What major system of DATCALS has a TPN-24 Airport Surveillance Radar System?

Explanation

The correct answer is TPN-19 Air Traffic Control. The TPN-24 Airport Surveillance Radar System is a major system of the TPN-19 Air Traffic Control. This system is used for monitoring and controlling air traffic at airports, providing surveillance and tracking capabilities to ensure safe and efficient operations. The TRN-26 TACAN, MSN-7 Mobile Tower, and TPN-25 Precision Approach Radar are not associated with the TPN-24 Airport Surveillance Radar System.

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57. What part of the AM carrier that varies according to the modulating signal?

Explanation

The amplitude of the AM carrier varies according to the modulating signal. In AM (Amplitude Modulation), the modulating signal is used to vary the amplitude of the carrier wave. This variation in amplitude carries the information of the modulating signal. As the modulating signal changes, the amplitude of the carrier wave also changes accordingly, allowing the transmission of audio signals through the modulation process.

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58. What are the three phases that are evaluated in a personnel evaluation?

Explanation

The three phases that are evaluated in a personnel evaluation are preparation, task performance, and post performance. In the preparation phase, the evaluator assesses how well the employee has prepared for their tasks and responsibilities. During the task performance phase, the evaluator observes and evaluates the employee's actual performance on their assigned tasks. Finally, in the post performance phase, the evaluator reviews the employee's performance and provides feedback, discussing areas of improvement and setting future goals. This evaluation process allows for a comprehensive assessment of the employee's overall performance.

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59. The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP436A power meter are determined by the

Explanation

The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP436A power meter are determined by the power sensor. The power sensor is responsible for measuring the power levels and frequencies of the signals being tested. It is designed to accurately detect and measure the power of the signals within specific frequency and power ranges. Therefore, the power sensor plays a crucial role in determining the measurable frequency and power ranges of the power meter.

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60. What facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

Explanation

The lightning protection subsystem uses surge arrestors. Surge arrestors are devices that protect electrical systems from voltage spikes and surges caused by lightning strikes. This subsystem is responsible for diverting the excessive electrical current from lightning strikes to the ground, preventing damage to the facility and its electrical components. Surge arrestors are installed at various points in the electrical system to intercept and redirect the high voltage surges safely to the ground.

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61. What gauge wire is the minimum un-skinned size used for punch-down?

Explanation

The minimum un-skinned size used for punch-down is 26 AWG. This means that the smallest gauge wire that can be used for punch-down is 26 AWG.

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62. What aerial vehicle characteristics are used to describe the ability to detect and identify a target in day or night and allows to imagery analyst to determine the level of the target's activity, based upon the presence or absence of heat radiating from the target?

Explanation

Infrared is the correct answer because it refers to the ability to detect heat radiating from a target, allowing an imagery analyst to determine the level of the target's activity. Infrared sensors are used in aerial vehicles to capture thermal images, which can be used for surveillance, target identification, and monitoring. By detecting the heat signatures of objects, infrared technology enables day and night operations, making it an essential characteristic for target detection and identification.

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63. What type of deflection return on the TDR CRT would indicate a cable short?

Explanation

A downward deflection on the TDR CRT indicates a cable short. When there is a short in the cable, the signal is being partially or completely blocked, causing the TDR to display a downward deflection on the CRT. This indicates that the signal is not able to travel through the cable as it should, and there is a short circuit present.

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64. How much clearance is needed in front of the radiator end of a MEP-012A?

Explanation

The correct answer is 50 feet. This amount of clearance is necessary in front of the radiator end of a MEP-012A. This is likely because the radiator requires a significant amount of space for proper airflow and ventilation to prevent overheating. Having 50 feet of clearance ensures that there are no obstructions that could impede the radiator's performance and potentially cause damage to the equipment.

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65. What associated sensor system allows the Predator UAV to image targets through clouds, Camouflage netting, and other non-metallic coverings?

Explanation

Synthetic aperture radar (SAR) is the associated sensor system that allows the Predator UAV to image targets through clouds, camouflage netting, and other non-metallic coverings. Unlike infrared and electro-optical systems that rely on detecting heat or visible light, SAR uses radio waves to create high-resolution images. This technology is able to penetrate through various obstacles and provide detailed imagery regardless of the weather conditions or coverings.

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66. For personnel dispatched to remote duty locations, the duty time may be extended to how many hours to include travel time?

Explanation

When personnel are dispatched to remote duty locations, their duty time may be extended to 16 hours to include travel time. This means that they are allowed to work for a maximum of 16 hours, which includes the time it takes for them to travel to their remote duty location. This extended duty time ensures that they have enough time to reach their destination and perform their duties effectively.

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67. What principle does the time domain reflectometer use to test cables?

Explanation

A time domain reflectometer (TDR) uses radar principles to test cables. Radar is a technology that uses radio waves to detect and locate objects. In the case of a TDR, it sends a signal down a cable and measures the reflections that occur when the signal encounters impedance mismatches or faults in the cable. By analyzing the time and amplitude of these reflections, the TDR can determine the length and location of any cable faults or anomalies.

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68. What are the four steps in the PCM prcess?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Band limiting, sampling, quantizing, and encoding." In the PCM (Pulse Code Modulation) process, band limiting is used to restrict the frequency range of the signal. Sampling involves taking discrete samples of the analog signal at regular intervals. Quantizing is the process of converting the continuous amplitude values of the samples into a finite set of discrete values. Finally, encoding refers to the representation of the quantized samples in a digital format for transmission or storage.

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69. The MEP-012A and MEP-PU-810A/B generators are capable of providing power at what frequency(s)?

Explanation

The MEP-012A and MEP-PU-810A/B generators are capable of providing power at both 50Hz and 60Hz frequencies. This means that they can be used in regions where either frequency is required, making them versatile and suitable for a wide range of applications.

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70. In PM, the carrier's

Explanation

In phase modulation (PM), the carrier's phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal. This means that the instantaneous phase of the carrier wave is altered in accordance with the instantaneous phase of the modulating signal. As the modulating signal changes, the phase of the carrier wave also changes, resulting in phase shifts that correspond to the variations in the modulating signal. This allows for the encoding of information in the phase of the carrier wave, making PM a form of angle modulation.

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71. What identifier is awarded to individuals based upon completion of formal training or a unique course and experience performing specific duties?

Explanation

A Special Experience Identifier (SEI) is awarded to individuals based on completion of formal training or a unique course and experience performing specific duties. This identifier recognizes the specialized experience and skills that an individual has gained in a particular area. It distinguishes them from others and highlights their expertise in that specific field.

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72. During what operation is the radio frequency blanking output used on the HP436A power meter

Explanation

The radio frequency blanking output is used during the automatic zeroing operation on the HP436A power meter. This operation is necessary to eliminate any residual signal that may be present when taking power measurements. By blanking the radio frequency output, any external interference or noise is effectively removed, allowing for more accurate and reliable measurements to be taken.

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73. Which electronic counter measurement represents the average bit to bit time of an input signal

Explanation

The correct answer is "Period." In electronics, the period refers to the time it takes for a signal to complete one full cycle. In the context of this question, the period represents the average bit to bit time of an input signal, indicating the time it takes for one bit to be transmitted and received. Therefore, period is the appropriate electronic counter measurement for this scenario.

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74. What ICAP module provides data security for Internet Protocol backbone and local network devices using the IP to exchange data from nodes of a larger network and external military facilities?

Explanation

The Crypto Interface Module is the correct answer because it provides data security for Internet Protocol backbone and local network devices. It uses the IP to exchange data from nodes of a larger network and external military facilities. This module ensures that the data transmitted over the network is encrypted and secure, protecting it from unauthorized access and ensuring the integrity and confidentiality of the information.

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75. What maintenance staff function ensure all required TCTO kits and time change items are promptly requisitioned, delivered to maintenance, and actions are accomplished?

Explanation

Material Control is responsible for ensuring that all required TCTO kits and time change items are promptly requisitioned, delivered to maintenance, and actions are accomplished. They are in charge of managing the inventory and distribution of materials needed for maintenance activities. This includes keeping track of TCTO kits and time change items, placing orders for them, and ensuring that they are delivered to the maintenance staff in a timely manner. Material Control plays a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance operations are carried out smoothly and efficiently.

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76. What is an instructional course designed for use at the unit to qualify, or aid in qualifying, in a duty position, in a program, or on a piece of equipment?

Explanation

An AFQTP (Air Force Qualification Training Package) is an instructional course designed to qualify or aid individuals in qualifying for a duty position, program, or equipment. It provides the necessary training and knowledge required to successfully perform the duties and responsibilities associated with a specific role or task within the Air Force. This package includes all the necessary materials, resources, and assessments needed to ensure individuals are fully qualified and capable in their assigned positions.

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77. Most fiber optics links use infrared light that has a frequency range of

Explanation

Fiber optic links commonly use infrared light for data transmission. The frequency range of this light is typically between 750 to 1500nm. This range allows for efficient transmission of data over long distances without significant loss or interference. Using infrared light in this frequency range ensures that the signal can travel through the fiber optic cable effectively, making it the most suitable choice for fiber optic communication.

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78. What AOC communications support team ensures servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and software is on-line and available to the user?

Explanation

The AOC communications support team, known as C2 Systems, ensures that servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and software are online and available to the user. They are responsible for maintaining the functionality and accessibility of these systems to support communication within the AOC.

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79. What ground station is the primary system that provides mission preparation and rapid post mission data analysis for Rivet Joint?

Explanation

The Ground Data Processing Station is the primary system that provides mission preparation and rapid post mission data analysis for Rivet Joint. It is responsible for processing and analyzing the data collected during the mission, as well as preparing for future missions. This station plays a crucial role in ensuring the success of Rivet Joint missions by providing the necessary tools and support for data exploitation, mission planning, and communications.

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80. What element of deployed maintenance management assigns pre-deployment inspection Job Control Numbers for tasked equipment of Unit Type Codes?

Explanation

The Deployed Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for assigning pre-deployment inspection Job Control Numbers for tasked equipment of Unit Type Codes. This center oversees and coordinates maintenance operations in deployed locations, ensuring that equipment is inspected and ready for deployment. It plays a crucial role in managing and organizing maintenance activities in the field.

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81. What publication directs the use of MIS data management while maintaining C-E equipment?

Explanation

AFI 21-116 is the correct answer because it is the publication that specifically directs the use of MIS (Management Information System) data management while maintaining C-E (Communications-Electronics) equipment. The other options, AFI 36-116, AFI 26-611, and AFI 11-261, do not mention MIS data management or C-E equipment, making them incorrect choices.

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82. What airborne platform is a modified commercial airframe with a rotating radar dome that is used to detect, identify, and track enemy and friendly low flying aircraft by eliminating ground clutter?

Explanation

AWACS stands for Airborne Warning and Control System. It is a modified commercial airframe with a rotating radar dome. This platform is used to detect, identify, and track enemy and friendly low flying aircraft. The rotating radar dome helps in eliminating ground clutter, allowing for a clear and accurate detection of aircraft. Joint STARS is an airborne platform used for ground surveillance, Rivet Joint is used for signals intelligence, and UAVs refer to unmanned aerial vehicles.

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83. What aircraft provides all weather surveillance, command, control, and communications needed by comanders of US, NATO and other allied air defense forces?

Explanation

The Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS) is an aircraft that provides all-weather surveillance, command, control, and communications needed by commanders of US, NATO, and other allied air defense forces. It is equipped with radar and communication systems that allow it to detect and track aircraft, provide command and control functions, and communicate with other aircraft and ground stations. The AWACS is designed to operate in any weather conditions and provide real-time situational awareness to air defense forces.

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84. In using the phase modulation controls of the HP3325B function generator, and input of ±5V peak would result in what approximate phase deviation?

Explanation

The correct answer is ±425 degrees per volt for square wave. This means that for every volt of input, the phase deviation of the square wave output will be approximately 425 degrees. The phase modulation controls of the HP3325B function generator allow for precise control over the phase deviation of the output signal.

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85. With whom does Material Control coordinate to ensure all required TCTO kits and time change items are promply requisitioned and delivered to maintenance?

Explanation

Material Control coordinates with LRS (Logistics Readiness Squadron) to ensure all required TCTO (Time Compliance Technical Order) kits and time change items are promptly requisitioned and delivered to maintenance. LRS is responsible for managing the supply chain and logistics operations, including inventory management and distribution of materials and equipment. They work closely with Material Control to ensure timely delivery of necessary items to support maintenance activities.

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86. How often are managerial evaluations performed?

Explanation

Managerial evaluations are performed at least every 18 months to assess the performance and effectiveness of managers. This frequency allows organizations to gather sufficient data and feedback to make informed decisions about managerial performance, identify areas for improvement, and provide necessary support and development opportunities. Evaluating managers regularly helps ensure that they are meeting expectations, aligning with organizational goals, and effectively leading their teams.

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87. To double your power, the power has to be increased by?

Explanation

To double your power, the power has to be increased by 3dB. This is because the decibel (dB) scale is logarithmic, not linear. A 3dB increase represents a doubling of power, while a 10dB increase represents a tenfold increase in power. Therefore, a 3dB increase is the correct answer to achieve a doubling of power.

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88. What is the basic building block used in joint force planning and the deployment of AEFs?

Explanation

UTC stands for Unit Type Code, which is the basic building block used in joint force planning and the deployment of Air Expeditionary Forces (AEFs). A UTC represents a specific package of personnel and equipment required to perform a particular mission or task. It helps in organizing and coordinating the deployment of forces by providing a standardized way to identify and track the capabilities and resources needed for specific operations. UTCs are essential for ensuring readiness and effective utilization of forces in joint military operations.

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89. How do we document all work-center pre-deployment inspections in IMDS?

Explanation

To document all work-center pre-deployment inspections in IMDS, a special inspection is conducted. This type of inspection is specifically designed to assess the readiness and compliance of the work-center before deployment. It involves a thorough examination of equipment, systems, and processes to ensure they meet the required standards. By documenting these inspections in IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System), a comprehensive record is maintained, allowing for easy tracking, analysis, and reference in the future.

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90. What pattern synchronizer section and error counter section of the bit error rate test set internally generates its own pattern to compare with the received data from the data clock receivers?

Explanation

The PRN pattern synchronizer/comparator generates its own pattern to compare with the received data from the data clock receivers.

Submit
91. When scheduling personnel for duty shifts, what is the maximum amount of continuous duty time with a rest period after each shift an individual should be scheduled for?

Explanation

An individual should be scheduled for a maximum of 12 hours of continuous duty time with a rest period after each shift. This ensures that the personnel get enough time to rest and recover before starting their next shift. Scheduling longer continuous duty times can lead to fatigue and decreased performance, which can be detrimental in critical roles where alertness and concentration are essential.

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92. For personnel evaluations, individuals qualified on ATCALS tasks must be evaluated every __ months, and individuals qualified on Non-ATCALS tasks must be evaluated every __ months.

Explanation

Individuals qualified on ATCALS tasks must be evaluated every 12 months, while individuals qualified on Non-ATCALS tasks must be evaluated every 24 months. This means that those who are qualified on ATCALS tasks require more frequent evaluations compared to those qualified on Non-ATCALS tasks.

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93. Who is responsible for maintenance quality and reliability?

Explanation

Quality Assurance is responsible for maintenance quality and reliability. Quality Assurance ensures that maintenance activities are carried out according to established standards and procedures, and that the quality of work meets or exceeds expectations. They conduct inspections, audits, and tests to identify any deficiencies or areas for improvement in maintenance processes. They also monitor and analyze data to identify trends and implement corrective actions to enhance maintenance quality and reliability. Overall, Quality Assurance plays a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance activities are performed effectively and efficiently, resulting in reliable and high-quality outcomes.

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94. What element of deployed maintenance management participates in pre-deployment inspections prior to deployment of equipment?

Explanation

The deployed maintenance production work center participates in pre-deployment inspections prior to the deployment of equipment. This means that this element of maintenance management is responsible for conducting inspections and ensuring that the equipment is in proper working condition before it is deployed.

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95. What is the angle between the incident ray and the normal?

Explanation

The angle between the incident ray and the normal is known as the angle of incidence. This angle is measured between the incident ray, which is the incoming ray of light, and the normal, which is a line perpendicular to the surface at the point of incidence. The angle of incidence determines how light will be refracted or reflected at the boundary between two different mediums.

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96. What battery is best used for high current drain applications?

Explanation

Alkaline batteries are the best choice for high current drain applications because they have a higher energy density and can deliver more power compared to other battery types. They are designed to provide a steady and reliable source of power, making them suitable for devices that require a lot of energy, such as digital cameras, portable gaming consoles, and high-powered flashlights. Alkaline batteries also have a longer shelf life and can withstand higher temperatures, making them a reliable option for high current drain applications.

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97. What digit identifies a specific AFPC?

Explanation

The 4th digit identifies a specific AFPC.

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98. Find the best answer. The TPN-25 PAR provides what information to air traffic controllers?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Azimuth and elevation up to 20NMs" because the TPN-25 PAR provides information about the horizontal angle (azimuth) and vertical angle (elevation) of an aircraft up to a range of 20 nautical miles. This information is crucial for air traffic controllers to accurately track and guide aircraft within their airspace.

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99. After the ground grid has been installed, what test equipment is used to test a ground for 10 ohms or less?

Explanation

Vibroground is the correct answer because it is a type of test equipment specifically designed to measure the resistance of a ground. It is commonly used to test the effectiveness of grounding systems and ensure that the resistance is 10 ohms or less, which is considered a safe and efficient level. Oscilloscope, Megger, and Time Domain Reflector are not specifically designed for testing ground resistance and therefore are not the correct answers.

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100. What is the first step in the basic bit error rate testing procedure?

Explanation

The correct answer is that a known bit pattern, usually pseudo-random, is generated at the receiving end of the channel or equipment under test and is compared with the channel. This is the first step in the basic bit error rate testing procedure because it allows for the detection and measurement of any errors that occur during the transmission of the known bit pattern. By comparing the received signal with the transmitted signal, the bit error rate can be calculated and used to evaluate the quality and reliability of the data channel or equipment being tested.

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