Communications - Electronics Journeyman CDC 2EX5X Test 2

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Test 2 of Multiple Choice on Volumes 1-3 of Career Development Course 2EX5X


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

     What type of Air Force Code shows your highest skill level?

    • A.

      Duty

    • B.

      Control

    • C.

      Primary

    • D.

      Alternate

    Correct Answer
    C. Primary
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Primary". In the Air Force, the Primary Air Force Code indicates the highest skill level that an individual has achieved. This code signifies that the person has reached a level of proficiency and expertise in their specific field. It is a recognition of their advanced skills and qualifications within the Air Force.

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  • 2. 

    How many SMSgt 9-level positions are in the Communications-Electronics career progression ladder?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2. This means that there are only two SMSgt 9-level positions in the Communications-Electronics career progression ladder. This suggests that there are limited opportunities for individuals to reach this high level within the career progression ladder.

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  • 3. 

    What is the minimum rank necessary to become a Task Certifier?

    • A.

      SrA

    • B.

      SSgt

    • C.

      TSgt

    • D.

      MSgt

    Correct Answer
    B. SSgt
    Explanation
    The minimum rank necessary to become a Task Certifier is SSgt. This means that in order to hold this position, an individual must have achieved the rank of Staff Sergeant.

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  • 4. 

    Work center maintenance personnel on standby coordinate meal and comfort breaks with what maintenance staff function?

    • A.

      Material Control

    • B.

      Quality Assurance

    • C.

      Chief of Maintenance

    • D.

      Maintenance Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance Operations Center
    Explanation
    Work center maintenance personnel on standby coordinate meal and comfort breaks with the Maintenance Operations Center. The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for overseeing and coordinating all maintenance activities within an organization. They ensure that maintenance personnel are properly scheduled and available to perform their duties, including coordinating breaks and meals to ensure continuous coverage and efficiency.

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  • 5. 

    What do we consider to be a Maintenance Information system?

    • A.

      Logistics Module

    • B.

      Telephone Management system

    • C.

      Federal Logistics Information system

    • D.

      Theater Maintenance production work

    Correct Answer
    B. Telephone Management system
    Explanation
    A Maintenance Information system is a system that is used to manage and track maintenance activities and information. It helps in organizing and recording maintenance tasks, scheduling and assigning work orders, tracking inventory and equipment, and generating reports. While the other options mentioned in the question may also be related to managing information, a Telephone Management system specifically focuses on managing telephone usage and expenses, which is not directly related to maintenance activities. Therefore, the correct answer is Telephone Management system.

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  • 6. 

    Who is responsible for the operation of Integrated Maintenance Data System?

    • A.

      Every user

    • B.

      The host database manager

    • C.

      The maintenance operations center

    • D.

      The maintenance production work center

    Correct Answer
    B. The host database manager
    Explanation
    The host database manager is responsible for the operation of the Integrated Maintenance Data System. They are in charge of managing and maintaining the database that supports the system, ensuring its smooth functioning and availability to all users. The host database manager plays a crucial role in ensuring the efficient operation and maintenance of the Integrated Maintenance Data System.

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  • 7. 

    What condition status code do we not use with a single mission system?

    • A.

      When it is a mission-essential

    • B.

      When it is not mission capable

    • C.

      When it is full-mission capable

    • D.

      When it is partial-mission capable

    Correct Answer
    D. When it is partial-mission capable
    Explanation
    When a single mission system is partial-mission capable, we do not use the condition status code. This implies that the system is only partially capable of performing its intended mission and may have limitations or restrictions. The condition status code is typically used to indicate the overall readiness or capability of a system, and in this case, it would not be applicable as the system is not fully mission capable.

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  • 8. 

    What maintenance staff function ensure all required TCTO kits and time change items are promptly requisitioned, delivered to maintenance, and actions are accomplished?

    • A.

      Material Control

    • B.

      Quality Assurance

    • C.

      Maintenance Operations Center

    • D.

      Maintenance Production Work Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Material Control
    Explanation
    Material Control is responsible for ensuring that all required TCTO kits and time change items are promptly requisitioned, delivered to maintenance, and actions are accomplished. They are in charge of managing the inventory and distribution of materials needed for maintenance activities. This includes keeping track of TCTO kits and time change items, placing orders for them, and ensuring that they are delivered to the maintenance staff in a timely manner. Material Control plays a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance operations are carried out smoothly and efficiently.

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  • 9. 

    Which items are considered support equipment?

    • A.

      Automated test sets

    • B.

      Defense satellite communications systems

    • C.

      Theater battle management core systems

    • D.

      Theater deployable communications systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Automated test sets
    Explanation
    Automated test sets are considered support equipment because they are used to test and diagnose the functionality of various systems and equipment. They are typically used in maintenance and troubleshooting activities to ensure that the equipment is operating correctly and to identify any issues or faults. Automated test sets are an essential tool in the support and maintenance of complex systems, making them a crucial part of support equipment.

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  • 10. 

    What maintenance staff function is the focal point for the Corrosion Prevention and Control program?

    • A.

      Material Control

    • B.

      Quality Assurance

    • C.

      Maintenance Operations Center

    • D.

      Maintenance Production Work Center

    Correct Answer
    B. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    Quality Assurance is the correct answer because it is the focal point for the Corrosion Prevention and Control program. Quality Assurance ensures that maintenance staff follow proper procedures and standards to prevent and control corrosion. They conduct inspections, tests, and audits to identify and address any corrosion issues, and they also provide guidance and training to maintenance staff on corrosion prevention and control techniques. Overall, Quality Assurance plays a crucial role in maintaining the effectiveness of the Corrosion Prevention and Control program.

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  • 11. 

    What program's primary objective gives the Chief of Maintenance an accurate assessment of the maintenance activity's capabilities?

    • A.

      Logistic Support Program

    • B.

      Defense Support Program

    • C.

      OJT Program

    • D.

      Communications Standardization and Evaluation Program

    Correct Answer
    D. Communications Standardization and Evaluation Program
    Explanation
    The Communications Standardization and Evaluation Program's primary objective is to provide the Chief of Maintenance with an accurate assessment of the maintenance activity's capabilities. This program focuses on standardizing and evaluating the communication processes within the maintenance activity to ensure efficient and effective communication. By implementing this program, the Chief of Maintenance can have a clear understanding of the maintenance activity's capabilities and make informed decisions based on accurate information.

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  • 12. 

    What personnel evaluation is conducted every 6 months?

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Follow-on

    • C.

      Intercontinental Ballistic Missile communications

    • D.

      ATCALS certification

    Correct Answer
    C. Intercontinental Ballistic Missile communications
    Explanation
    Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) communications is a specific type of personnel evaluation that is conducted every 6 months. This evaluation likely assesses the communication skills and effectiveness of personnel involved in managing and operating ICBM systems. It is important to regularly evaluate and ensure the proficiency of communication in such critical defense systems.

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  • 13. 

    What are the three phases that are evaluated in a personnel evaluation?

    • A.

      Preparation, task performance, and post performance

    • B.

      Preparation, task knowledge, and task performance

    • C.

      Job knowledge, task performance, post performance

    • D.

      Job knowledge, job performance, post performance

    Correct Answer
    A. Preparation, task performance, and post performance
    Explanation
    The three phases that are evaluated in a personnel evaluation are preparation, task performance, and post performance. In the preparation phase, the evaluator assesses how well the employee has prepared for their tasks and responsibilities. During the task performance phase, the evaluator observes and evaluates the employee's actual performance on their assigned tasks. Finally, in the post performance phase, the evaluator reviews the employee's performance and provides feedback, discussing areas of improvement and setting future goals. This evaluation process allows for a comprehensive assessment of the employee's overall performance.

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  • 14. 

    How can multiple individual task assignments be put together for multiple duty positions, including additional duties?

    • A.

      They can be put together into an individual training plan

    • B.

      They can be put together into a Specialty Training Standard

    • C.

      They can be put together into an Air Force Job Qualification Standard

    • D.

      They can be put together into an Air Force Qualification Training Package

    Correct Answer
    A. They can be put together into an individual training plan
    Explanation
    Multiple individual task assignments can be put together into an individual training plan to ensure that all duty positions, including additional duties, are covered. This training plan will outline the specific tasks and responsibilities that each individual needs to fulfill in their respective positions. By consolidating these task assignments into a training plan, it becomes easier to track progress, identify any gaps in training, and ensure that all individuals are adequately prepared to perform their duties.

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  • 15. 

    What level of maintenance is the most forward maintenance capability?

    • A.

      Organizational

    • B.

      Intermediate

    • C.

      Laboratory

    • D.

      Depot

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational
    Explanation
    Organizational maintenance refers to the level of maintenance that is performed by the unit or organization responsible for operating and maintaining the equipment. It is the most forward maintenance capability because it is carried out at the operational level, where the equipment is being used. This level of maintenance includes tasks such as routine inspections, servicing, and minor repairs that can be done by the operators or technicians within the unit. It ensures that the equipment remains in good working condition and minimizes downtime, allowing for continuous operations.

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  • 16. 

    What level of maintenance employs the highest degree of skill and the most extensive support equipment?

    • A.

      Organizational

    • B.

      Intermediate

    • C.

      Laboratory

    • D.

      Depot

    Correct Answer
    D. Depot
    Explanation
    Depot maintenance employs the highest degree of skill and the most extensive support equipment. This level of maintenance is typically performed at specialized facilities and involves complex repairs, overhauls, and modifications to equipment. It requires highly skilled technicians and engineers, as well as a wide range of specialized tools and equipment to ensure the proper functioning and longevity of the equipment. Organizational, intermediate, and laboratory maintenance levels may also require skill and support equipment, but depot maintenance generally involves the most advanced and comprehensive level of expertise and resources.

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  • 17. 

    What element of deployed maintenance management assigns pre-deployment inspection Job Control Numbers for tasked equipment of Unit Type Codes?

    • A.

      Deployed material control

    • B.

      Deployed quality assurance

    • C.

      Deployed maintenance operations center

    • D.

      Deployed maintenance production work center

    Correct Answer
    C. Deployed maintenance operations center
    Explanation
    The Deployed Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for assigning pre-deployment inspection Job Control Numbers for tasked equipment of Unit Type Codes. This center oversees and coordinates maintenance operations in deployed locations, ensuring that equipment is inspected and ready for deployment. It plays a crucial role in managing and organizing maintenance activities in the field.

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  • 18. 

    What element of deployed maintenance management participates in pre-deployment inspections prior to deployment of equipment?

    • A.

      Deployed material control

    • B.

      Deployed quality assurance

    • C.

      Deployed maintenance operations center

    • D.

      Deployed maintenance production work center

    Correct Answer
    D. Deployed maintenance production work center
    Explanation
    The deployed maintenance production work center participates in pre-deployment inspections prior to the deployment of equipment. This means that this element of maintenance management is responsible for conducting inspections and ensuring that the equipment is in proper working condition before it is deployed.

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  • 19. 

    The relationship of the bandwidth required for double-sideband emitted carrier (DSBEC) AM to the bandwidth of the modulating signal of the AM bandwidth alone is

    • A.

      One-quarter of the modulating bandwidth

    • B.

      Four times the modulating bandwidth

    • C.

      Twice the modulating bandwidth

    • D.

      Half the moduating bandwidth

    Correct Answer
    C. Twice the modulating bandwidth
    Explanation
    In double-sideband emitted carrier (DSBEC) AM, the bandwidth required is twice the modulating bandwidth. This is because DSBEC AM includes both the upper and lower sidebands, which each have a bandwidth equal to the modulating bandwidth. Therefore, when both sidebands are included, the total bandwidth required is twice the modulating bandwidth.

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  • 20. 

    In FM, the amount of oscillator frequency change is

    • A.

      Inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal

    • B.

      Directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal

    • C.

      Inversely proportional to the phase of the modulating signal

    • D.

      Directly proportional to the phase of the modulating signal

    Correct Answer
    B. Directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal
    Explanation
    In FM, the amount of oscillator frequency change is directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal. This means that as the amplitude of the modulating signal increases, the frequency change of the oscillator also increases. This relationship is important in frequency modulation because it allows for the encoding of information in the form of variations in the frequency of the carrier signal.

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  • 21. 

    In PM, the carrier's

    • A.

      Phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal

    • B.

      Phase shifted with the phase of the modulating signal

    • C.

      Amplitude is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal

    • D.

      Amplitude is shifted with the phase of the modulating signal

    Correct Answer
    A. Phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal
    Explanation
    In phase modulation (PM), the carrier's phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal. This means that the instantaneous phase of the carrier wave is altered in accordance with the instantaneous phase of the modulating signal. As the modulating signal changes, the phase of the carrier wave also changes, resulting in phase shifts that correspond to the variations in the modulating signal. This allows for the encoding of information in the phase of the carrier wave, making PM a form of angle modulation.

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  • 22. 

    What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?

    • A.

      Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses

    • B.

      A binary code number is assigned to the sample

    • C.

      The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulse

    • D.

      The analog signal is band-limited

    Correct Answer
    D. The analog signal is band-limited
    Explanation
    The first step in the pulse code modulation process is to band-limit the analog signal. This means that the signal is filtered to remove any frequencies that are outside of the desired range. By band-limiting the signal, it ensures that only the necessary frequencies are included in the subsequent steps of the process. This is important because it helps to prevent distortion and interference during the sampling and quantization stages.

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  • 23. 

    When using vertical redundancy check, what significance does the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern?

    • A.

      Determines parity

    • B.

      Determines transmission rate

    • C.

      Determines whether transmission is in ASCII format

    • D.

      Determines whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous

    Correct Answer
    A. Determines parity
    Explanation
    The amount of ones in a data bit pattern determines parity. Parity is a form of error checking in which an extra bit is added to a data transmission to ensure that the number of ones in the pattern is either even or odd. By comparing the number of ones received with the expected parity, errors can be detected. If the number of ones does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission.

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  • 24. 

    What error detection method is used for checking a data block greater than 512 and is about 99% effective in most applications?

    • A.

      Checksum

    • B.

      Cyclic redundancy check

    • C.

      Vertical redundancy check

    • D.

      Longitudinal redundancy check

    Correct Answer
    B. Cyclic redundancy check
    Explanation
    Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a widely used error detection method for checking data blocks larger than 512 bytes. It is about 99% effective in most applications. CRC involves generating a short fixed-size checksum based on the data block, which is then sent along with the data. The receiver performs the same calculation and compares the calculated checksum with the received checksum. If they match, it is assumed that the data block was transmitted without errors. If they do not match, it indicates that an error occurred during transmission.

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  • 25. 

    Which statement describes a security feature of using fiber optic cable?

    • A.

      Easy to encrypt data

    • B.

      Low signal attenuation

    • C.

      Virtually impossible to tap a fiber optic cable unnoticed

    • D.

      Fiber optic cables are considerably smaller than metalic cable

    Correct Answer
    C. Virtually impossible to tap a fiber optic cable unnoticed
    Explanation
    Fiber optic cables are virtually impossible to tap unnoticed because they do not emit electromagnetic signals that can be easily intercepted. Unlike traditional metallic cables, fiber optic cables use light to transmit data, making it extremely difficult to tap into the cable without disrupting the signal. This makes fiber optic cables a more secure option for transmitting sensitive information.

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  • 26. 

    Most fiber optics links use infrared light that has a frequency range of

    • A.

      400 to 750nm

    • B.

      750 to 1500nm

    • C.

      400 to 750mm

    • D.

      750 to 1500mm

    Correct Answer
    B. 750 to 1500nm
    Explanation
    Fiber optic links commonly use infrared light for data transmission. The frequency range of this light is typically between 750 to 1500nm. This range allows for efficient transmission of data over long distances without significant loss or interference. Using infrared light in this frequency range ensures that the signal can travel through the fiber optic cable effectively, making it the most suitable choice for fiber optic communication.

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  • 27. 

    What logarithmic expression do we use to specify the ratio of power loss in fiber optic cables?

    • A.

      DB/nm

    • B.

      DB/km

    • C.

      DB/cm

    • D.

      DB/m

    Correct Answer
    B. DB/km
    Explanation
    The correct answer is dB/km because the logarithmic expression dB/km is used to specify the ratio of power loss in fiber optic cables. This expression represents the decibel (dB) value of power loss per kilometer (km) of fiber optic cable. It is commonly used in the telecommunications industry to quantify the attenuation of light signals as they travel through the fiber optic cables.

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  • 28. 

    The most useful way to classify fiber optic cables is by

    • A.

      Fiber material and number of fibers

    • B.

      Buffer type and application method

    • C.

      Numerical aperture and cable elements

    • D.

      Refractive index profile and number of modes

    Correct Answer
    D. Refractive index profile and number of modes
    Explanation
    The most useful way to classify fiber optic cables is based on their refractive index profile and number of modes. The refractive index profile refers to the distribution of the refractive index within the fiber, which affects the way light propagates through it. The number of modes refers to the different paths that light can take within the fiber. By considering these factors, we can determine the performance and capabilities of the fiber optic cable, allowing us to choose the most suitable cable for a specific application.

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  • 29. 

    Which analog multimeter control compensates for the voltage of the internal batteries when calibrating for resistance measurements?

    • A.

      Range switch

    • B.

      Voltage switch

    • C.

      Function switch

    • D.

      Zero ohms control

    Correct Answer
    D. Zero ohms control
    Explanation
    The zero ohms control compensates for the voltage of the internal batteries when calibrating for resistance measurements. By adjusting the zero ohms control, the multimeter can nullify any voltage offset caused by the internal batteries, ensuring accurate resistance measurements. The range switch, voltage switch, and function switch do not directly compensate for the voltage of the internal batteries.

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  • 30. 

    Which feature of the Fluke 8025A multimeter do you use to select various measurement functions?

    • A.

      Circuit jacks

    • B.

      Rotary switch

    • C.

      Range push button

    • D.

      Touch hold button

    Correct Answer
    B. Rotary switch
    Explanation
    The rotary switch is used to select various measurement functions on the Fluke 8025A multimeter. It allows the user to easily switch between different modes such as voltage, current, resistance, and more. By turning the rotary switch to the desired function, the user can quickly and accurately measure different parameters without the need for additional buttons or settings.

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  • 31. 

    Which feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when you take a new measurement?

    • A.

      Rotary switch

    • B.

      Range push button

    • C.

      Power-up self test

    • D.

      Touch-hold push button

    Correct Answer
    D. Touch-hold push button
    Explanation
    The touch-hold push button feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when a new measurement is taken. This means that once the button is pressed, the measurement value will stay on the screen even if the measurement is no longer being taken. This allows the user to easily view and record the measurement without the need to constantly hold the button down.

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  • 32. 

    Low-insulation resistance between conductors can cause

    • A.

      High attenuation, crosstalk, and noise

    • B.

      Fresnal reflection, dispersion, and scattering

    • C.

      High-impedance, capacitance, and rectification

    • D.

      Low-attenuation, electromagnetic immunity, and absorption

    Correct Answer
    A. High attenuation, crosstalk, and noise
    Explanation
    Low-insulation resistance between conductors can cause high attenuation, crosstalk, and noise. When the insulation resistance is low, it means that there is a leakage of current between the conductors. This leakage can result in a loss of signal strength, leading to high attenuation. Additionally, the leakage can cause interference between adjacent conductors, resulting in crosstalk. This interference can further contribute to the generation of noise in the system. Therefore, low-insulation resistance can have detrimental effects on the overall performance and quality of the electrical or electronic system.

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  • 33. 

    When using the AN/PSM-2 megger, how do you know you are applying the correct regulated output voltage?

    • A.

      Turn the hand crank until an arc is present

    • B.

      Turn the hand crank until the needle drops

    • C.

      Turn the hand crank and monitor with another meter

    • D.

      Turn the hand crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow

    Correct Answer
    D. Turn the hand crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to turn the hand crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow. This indicates that the correct regulated output voltage is being applied. The other options mentioned - turning the hand crank until an arc is present, turning the hand crank until the needle drops, and monitoring with another meter - do not provide a reliable method for determining the correct regulated output voltage.

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  • 34. 

    Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire?

    • A.

      Current probe

    • B.

      Passive 1:1 probe

    • C.

      Passive divider, 1:10 probe

    • D.

      Active field effect transistor probe

    Correct Answer
    B. Passive 1:1 probe
    Explanation
    A passive 1:1 probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire. It is a simple probe that does not contain any active components or circuitry. It is used to measure low frequency signals and provides a direct connection between the oscilloscope and the circuit under test. The probe is shielded to minimize noise and interference from external sources, ensuring accurate signal measurements.

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  • 35. 

    Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as

    • A.

      Sequential records

    • B.

      Waveform points

    • C.

      Record lengths

    • D.

      Record points

    Correct Answer
    B. Waveform points
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Waveform points." In a digital storage oscilloscope, sampled data points are stored in the memory as waveform points. This means that the individual points of the waveform, representing voltage or current values at specific time intervals, are stored for analysis and display. Sequential records, record lengths, and record points are not the correct terms to describe the storage of sampled data points in a digital storage oscilloscope.

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  • 36. 

    Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?

    • A.

      CURSORS control

    • B.

      MEMORY control

    • C.

      SELECT C1/C2 switch

    • D.

      SAVE/CONTINUE switch

    Correct Answer
    A. CURSORS control
    Explanation
    The CURSORS control button on a digital storage oscilloscope is responsible for controlling all the waveforms displayed in the STORE mode. This button allows the user to select, move, and manipulate cursors on the screen to measure various parameters of the waveform, such as voltage, time, and frequency. By using the CURSORS control, the user can accurately analyze and measure the waveforms stored in the oscilloscope's memory.

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  • 37. 

    In the internal clock generator section of a typical  bit error rate test set, what generates the basic clock that provides all clock phases, and is periodically frequency calibrated by a crystal controlled oscillator in the automatic calibration section?

    • A.

      VCO

    • B.

      Countdown

    • C.

      Code converter

    • D.

      DAC and decode range splitter

    Correct Answer
    A. VCO
    Explanation
    In the internal clock generator section of a typical bit error rate test set, the VCO (Voltage Controlled Oscillator) generates the basic clock that provides all clock phases. It is periodically frequency calibrated by a crystal controlled oscillator in the automatic calibration section. The VCO is responsible for generating a stable and accurate clock signal that is essential for the proper functioning of the test set.

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  • 38. 

    What pattern synchronizer section and error counter section of the bit error rate test set internally generates its own pattern to compare with the received data from the data clock receivers?

    • A.

      48 bit transmitter

    • B.

      48 bit synchronizer/comparator

    • C.

      PRN pattern synchronizer/comparator

    • D.

      External data pattern synchronizer/comparator

    Correct Answer
    C. PRN pattern synchronizer/comparator
    Explanation
    The PRN pattern synchronizer/comparator generates its own pattern to compare with the received data from the data clock receivers.

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  • 39. 

    What is the first step in the basic bit error rate testing procedure?

    • A.

      A noise signal is generated at the receiving end if the data channel or equipment under test and compared with the channel

    • B.

      A noise signal is generated at the sending end of the data channel or equipment under test and is transmitted through the channel

    • C.

      A known bit pattern, usually pseudo-random, is generated at the receiving end of the channel or equipment under test and is compared with the channel

    • D.

      A known bit pattern, usually pseudo-random, is generated at the sending end of the data channel or equipment under test and is transmitted through the channel.

    Correct Answer
    C. A known bit pattern, usually pseudo-random, is generated at the receiving end of the channel or equipment under test and is compared with the channel
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that a known bit pattern, usually pseudo-random, is generated at the receiving end of the channel or equipment under test and is compared with the channel. This is the first step in the basic bit error rate testing procedure because it allows for the detection and measurement of any errors that occur during the transmission of the known bit pattern. By comparing the received signal with the transmitted signal, the bit error rate can be calculated and used to evaluate the quality and reliability of the data channel or equipment being tested.

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  • 40. 

    Which of these data circuit speeds would normally use the shorter generated bit error rate (BER) test pattern lengths, and what is data circuit bit rate?

    • A.

      Low to intermediate, 1200 to 9600bps

    • B.

      Low to intermediate, 9600 to 12kbps

    • C.

      Higher speed circuits, 5000 to 64kbps

    • D.

      Higher speed circuits, 50 to 64kbps

    Correct Answer
    A. Low to intermediate, 1200 to 9600bps
    Explanation
    Low to intermediate data circuit speeds, such as 1200 to 9600bps, would normally use shorter generated bit error rate (BER) test pattern lengths. The reason for this is that lower speed circuits typically have less bandwidth available, which means that shorter test patterns are needed to quickly assess the quality of the circuit. The data circuit bit rate refers to the speed at which data is transmitted over the circuit, in this case, it is 1200 to 9600bps.

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  • 41. 

    Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency?

    • A.

      Verifying transmitter frequencies

    • B.

      Troubleshooting receivers

    • C.

      Checking antenna systems

    • D.

      Aligning galvanometers

    Correct Answer
    D. Aligning galvanometers
    Explanation
    Aligning galvanometers is not an application of radio frequency. Galvanometers are devices used to measure small electric currents, and their alignment does not involve the use of radio frequency signals. The other options, verifying transmitter frequencies, troubleshooting receivers, and checking antenna systems, all involve the use of radio frequency in some way, such as tuning, testing, or analyzing signals.

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  • 42. 

    In using the phase modulation controls of the HP3325B function generator, and input of ±5V peak would result in what approximate phase deviation?

    • A.

      ±42.5 degrees per volt for sine wave

    • B.

      ±42.5 degrees per volt for square wave

    • C.

      ±425 degrees per volt for sine wave

    • D.

      ±425 degrees per volt for square wave

    Correct Answer
    D. ±425 degrees per volt for square wave
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ±425 degrees per volt for square wave. This means that for every volt of input, the phase deviation of the square wave output will be approximately 425 degrees. The phase modulation controls of the HP3325B function generator allow for precise control over the phase deviation of the output signal.

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  • 43. 

    The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    D. 10
    Explanation
    A power ratio of 10:1 can be represented by 10 decibels. The decibel scale is a logarithmic scale used to measure the intensity or power of sound or other signals. Each increase of 10 decibels represents a tenfold increase in power. Therefore, a power ratio of 10:1 can be represented by 10 decibels.

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  • 44. 

    The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP436A power meter are determined by the

    • A.

      Digital display

    • B.

      Power sensor

    • C.

      Power meter

    • D.

      Interface

    Correct Answer
    B. Power sensor
    Explanation
    The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP436A power meter are determined by the power sensor. The power sensor is responsible for measuring the power levels and frequencies of the signals being tested. It is designed to accurately detect and measure the power of the signals within specific frequency and power ranges. Therefore, the power sensor plays a crucial role in determining the measurable frequency and power ranges of the power meter.

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  • 45. 

    During what operation is the radio frequency blanking output used on the HP436A power meter

    • A.

      While in WATT mode operation

    • B.

      While in REMOTE mode operation

    • C.

      During the automatic zeroing operation

    • D.

      During calibration adjustment operation

    Correct Answer
    C. During the automatic zeroing operation
    Explanation
    The radio frequency blanking output is used during the automatic zeroing operation on the HP436A power meter. This operation is necessary to eliminate any residual signal that may be present when taking power measurements. By blanking the radio frequency output, any external interference or noise is effectively removed, allowing for more accurate and reliable measurements to be taken.

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  • 46. 

    Which electronic counter measurement represents the average bit to bit time of an input signal

    • A.

      Period

    • B.

      Scaling

    • C.

      Frequency

    • D.

      Time interval

    Correct Answer
    A. Period
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Period." In electronics, the period refers to the time it takes for a signal to complete one full cycle. In the context of this question, the period represents the average bit to bit time of an input signal, indicating the time it takes for one bit to be transmitted and received. Therefore, period is the appropriate electronic counter measurement for this scenario.

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  • 47. 

    What principle does the time domain reflectometer use to test cables?

    • A.

      Amplitude

    • B.

      Frequency

    • C.

      Audio

    • D.

      Radar

    Correct Answer
    D. Radar
    Explanation
    A time domain reflectometer (TDR) uses radar principles to test cables. Radar is a technology that uses radio waves to detect and locate objects. In the case of a TDR, it sends a signal down a cable and measures the reflections that occur when the signal encounters impedance mismatches or faults in the cable. By analyzing the time and amplitude of these reflections, the TDR can determine the length and location of any cable faults or anomalies.

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  • 48. 

    What type of deflection return on the TDR CRT would indicate a cable short?

    • A.

      No pip

    • B.

      Smeared pip

    • C.

      Upward deflections pip

    • D.

      Downward deflections pip

    Correct Answer
    D. Downward deflections pip
    Explanation
    A downward deflection on the TDR CRT indicates a cable short. When there is a short in the cable, the signal is being partially or completely blocked, causing the TDR to display a downward deflection on the CRT. This indicates that the signal is not able to travel through the cable as it should, and there is a short circuit present.

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  • 49. 

    How is the signal loss represented in an optical time domain reflectometer display?

    • A.

      Watts

    • B.

      Power

    • C.

      Candles

    • D.

      Decibels

    Correct Answer
    D. Decibels
    Explanation
    An optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a device used to measure the loss of signal in an optical fiber. The signal loss is represented in decibels (dB) on the OTDR display. Decibels are a logarithmic unit used to express the ratio between two power levels. In the case of an OTDR, the decibel measurement indicates the amount of signal loss that occurs as the light travels through the fiber. The higher the decibel value, the greater the signal loss. Therefore, decibels are the appropriate unit to represent signal loss on an OTDR display.

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  • 50. 

    What guideline is encouraged by APWA to adopt to mark underground facilities?

    • A.

      Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard

    • B.

      Utility and Public Right-of-Way

    • C.

      Underwriters Laboratories

    • D.

      Information Assurance

    Correct Answer
    B. Utility and Public Right-of-Way
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Utility and Public Right-of-Way. The APWA encourages adopting this guideline to mark underground facilities. This guideline ensures that utilities and public infrastructure are properly marked and identified, reducing the risk of accidental damage during excavation or construction activities. By following this guideline, organizations can ensure the safety of workers and prevent disruptions to essential services.

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