CDC 4c051 Volume 4 Pre-test
CDC 4C051
Mental Health Journeyman
Volume 4. Treatment planning, psychotherapeutic interventions, and case management
Questions and Answers
- 1.
If a patient has made an attempt to resolve his or her problem and has failed in the past, this is recognized as a
- A.
Weakness
- B.
Strength
- C.
Failure
- D.
Risk
Correct Answer
B. StrengthExplanation
If a patient has made an attempt to resolve his or her problem and has failed in the past, this can be recognized as a strength. It shows that the patient has the determination and perseverance to try and find a solution to their problem. Despite facing failure, they have not given up and have shown resilience in their efforts. This attribute can be seen as a positive characteristic and a strength in their personality.Rate this question:
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- 2.
As a minimum, how many strength and weaknesses should be identified for each patient?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
C. ThreeExplanation
A minimum of three strengths and weaknesses should be identified for each patient. This ensures a comprehensive assessment of the patient's abilities and limitations. Identifying only one strength and weakness may not provide enough information to understand the patient's overall condition, while identifying two may still leave out important aspects. By identifying three strengths and weaknesses, healthcare professionals can have a more holistic understanding of the patient's situation and tailor their treatment and care accordingly.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is considered the very basic of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
- A.
Self-esteem and love
- B.
Physiological needs
- C.
Security needs
- D.
Affiliation
Correct Answer
B. Physiological needsExplanation
Maslow's hierarchy of needs is a theory that suggests that individuals have different levels of needs, and these needs must be fulfilled in a specific order. At the very basic level of the hierarchy are physiological needs, which include basic requirements for survival such as food, water, shelter, and sleep. These needs must be met before an individual can progress to higher levels of needs such as safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization. Therefore, physiological needs are considered the foundation of Maslow's hierarchy of needs.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is characteized by the need for frinedship, love, and a sense of belonging?
- A.
Self-esteem and love
- B.
Physiological needs
- C.
Security needs
- D.
Affiliation
Correct Answer
D. AffiliationExplanation
Affiliation refers to the need for friendship, love, and a sense of belonging, which is a characteristic of the level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. This level focuses on social connections and relationships, highlighting the importance of feeling connected to others and being a part of a community. It encompasses the need to form meaningful relationships and have a sense of belongingness, which contributes to one's overall well-being and satisfaction.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What level of Maslow's hierachy of needs is often difficult for substance abuse/dependent individuals, or individuals with sever mental disorders?
- A.
Self-esteem and love
- B.
Physiological needs
- C.
Security needs
- D.
Affiliation
Correct Answer
D. AffiliationExplanation
Individuals struggling with substance abuse or severe mental disorders often find it difficult to fulfill their need for affiliation. This is because their conditions can lead to isolation, social withdrawal, and difficulties in forming and maintaining relationships. Affiliation refers to the need for belongingness, social interaction, and meaningful connections with others. Substance abuse and severe mental disorders can hinder individuals' ability to establish and maintain healthy social connections, making it challenging for them to fulfill this need in Maslow's hierarchy.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What level of Maslow's hierachy of needs is developed from feelings of independence, competence, self-respect, and recognition from others
- A.
Self-esteem and love
- B.
Physiological needs
- C.
Security needs
- D.
Affiliation
Correct Answer
A. Self-esteem and loveExplanation
Self-esteem and love are the levels of Maslow's hierarchy of needs that are developed from feelings of independence, competence, self-respect, and recognition from others. Self-esteem refers to the need for self-worth, self-confidence, and a sense of achievement. It is the need to feel respected and valued by others. Love, on the other hand, refers to the need for affection, belongingness, and acceptance from others. It involves forming meaningful relationships and feeling a sense of belonging in a social group. Both self-esteem and love are higher-level needs that come after fulfilling physiological and security needs.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs represents an individual who has reached his or her maximum potential?
- A.
Self-esteem and love
- B.
Self-actualization
- C.
Security needs
- D.
Affiliation
Correct Answer
B. Self-actualizationExplanation
Self-actualization represents the highest level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. It refers to the fulfillment of an individual's full potential and the desire to become the best version of oneself. At this level, individuals are motivated by personal growth, self-discovery, and the pursuit of their passions and talents. They have achieved a sense of self-fulfillment and are focused on personal development rather than external validation or material needs.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What need is not considered a deficiency need?
- A.
Self-esteem and love
- B.
Physiological needs
- C.
Security needs
- D.
Affiliation
Correct Answer
A. Self-esteem and loveExplanation
Self-esteem and love are not considered deficiency needs because they are classified as growth needs in Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Deficiency needs are those that arise from a lack or deprivation, such as physiological needs (food, water), security needs (safety, stability), and affiliation (belongingness, social connections). On the other hand, self-esteem and love are higher-level needs that focus on personal growth, self-worth, and meaningful relationships. These needs are not essential for survival but contribute to a person's psychological well-being and self-actualization.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What do short-term goals provide for the patient?
- A.
Acute relief or feelings of accomplishment
- B.
Establishes a natural exchange of ideas
- C.
Hope invested over a period of time
- D.
Establishes rapport
Correct Answer
A. Acute relief or feelings of accomplishmentExplanation
Short-term goals provide the patient with acute relief or feelings of accomplishment. These goals are designed to be achieved within a short period of time, allowing the patient to experience immediate relief or a sense of achievement. This can help boost their morale and motivation, providing them with a positive outlook on their progress and overall treatment. By setting and achieving these short-term goals, the patient can experience a sense of relief and accomplishment, which can further enhance their overall well-being and recovery process.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What do long-term goals suggest for the patient?
- A.
A natural exchange of ideas
- B.
Acute relief or feelings of accomplishment
- C.
Shows they are invested over a period of time
- D.
Establishes rapport between patient and counselor
Correct Answer
C. Shows they are invested over a period of timeExplanation
Long-term goals suggest that the patient is committed and dedicated to achieving their objectives over an extended period. It indicates that they are willing to invest time, effort, and resources into their treatment or personal growth. By setting long-term goals, the patient demonstrates a sense of commitment and motivation, which can contribute to their overall progress and success.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Eavey goal mush have at least how many objectives?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
Every goal must have at least one objective. Objectives are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound targets that help to achieve the overall goal. Without objectives, a goal lacks clarity and direction, making it difficult to determine progress or success. Therefore, it is essential for every goal to have at least one objective.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Goals should not be
- A.
Realistic
- B.
Optimistic
- C.
Descriptive
- D.
Behavioral
Correct Answer
B. OptimisticExplanation
Goals should not be optimistic because setting overly ambitious or unrealistic goals can lead to disappointment and frustration if they are not achieved. It is important to set goals that are challenging but still attainable, as this provides motivation and a sense of accomplishment when they are accomplished. Being too optimistic can also lead to complacency and a lack of effort, as individuals may believe that success will come easily without putting in the necessary work. Therefore, it is recommended to set goals that are realistic and achievable.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which determinant of relapse is considered the most difficult and problematic?
- A.
Affective
- B.
Cognitive
- C.
Relational
- D.
Behavioral
Correct Answer
C. RelationalExplanation
The relational determinant of relapse is considered the most difficult and problematic. This is because relationships play a crucial role in an individual's recovery process. Relational factors can include conflicts, lack of support, or unhealthy dynamics within relationships, which can significantly impact a person's ability to maintain their recovery and increase the risk of relapse. Addressing and improving relational issues can be challenging, as it often involves working on communication skills, boundary setting, and fostering healthy connections with others.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the leading cause of relapse?
- A.
Loneliness
- B.
Boredom
- C.
Stress
- D.
Peers
Correct Answer
B. BoredomExplanation
Boredom can be considered as the leading cause of relapse because when individuals are bored, they may seek out activities or substances that provide temporary relief or excitement. This can include turning to old habits or addictions that they previously relied on to alleviate boredom. Boredom can also lead to feelings of dissatisfaction and restlessness, making individuals more susceptible to relapse. Therefore, addressing and finding healthy ways to cope with boredom is crucial in maintaining long-term recovery.Rate this question:
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- 15.
It is well decumented that treatment outcomes are based upton the patient's
- A.
Motivation
- B.
Judgment
- C.
Support
- D.
Insight
Correct Answer
A. MotivationExplanation
Motivation plays a crucial role in treatment outcomes. A patient's level of motivation can determine their willingness to actively participate in their treatment plan, adhere to medication or therapy, and make necessary lifestyle changes. Motivated patients are more likely to take responsibility for their own health, follow medical advice, and engage in behaviors that promote recovery. On the other hand, lack of motivation can hinder progress and lead to poor treatment outcomes. Therefore, motivation is a key factor that influences the success of any treatment approach.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Reconstructiong a comprehensive detailing of the patient's substance use history helps
- A.
Terminate ongoing self-care
- B.
Verify the required support system
- C.
Predict ongoing self-care outcomes
- D.
Determine triggers that may lead to a relapse
Correct Answer
D. Determine triggers that may lead to a relapseExplanation
By reconstructing a comprehensive detailing of the patient's substance use history, healthcare professionals can determine the triggers that may lead to a relapse. This information is crucial in developing an effective treatment plan and preventing future relapses. Understanding the specific factors or situations that may cause the patient to revert to substance use allows healthcare providers to implement strategies to avoid or cope with these triggers. By identifying and addressing these triggers, the patient's chances of maintaining ongoing self-care and achieving positive outcomes are increased.Rate this question:
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- 17.
During what stage of treatment does termination or discharge planning begin?
- A.
Initial intake
- B.
Relapse planning
- C.
Establishing goals
- D.
Crisis completion
Correct Answer
A. Initial intakeExplanation
Termination or discharge planning begins during the initial intake stage of treatment. This is the first stage where the client's information is gathered, and an assessment is conducted to determine their needs and goals. During this stage, the treatment team starts discussing and planning for the eventual termination or discharge of the client from the program. It involves creating a comprehensive plan that ensures a smooth transition and continued support for the client after they complete the treatment.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What action much occur to discourage contact outside the therapeutic relationship?
- A.
Create clear boundaries
- B.
Improve soical fuctioning
- C.
Implement adaptive defenses
- D.
Recognize failure to terminate treatment
Correct Answer
A. Create clear boundariesExplanation
To discourage contact outside the therapeutic relationship, it is important to create clear boundaries. This means establishing and maintaining a professional relationship with defined limits and expectations. By setting clear boundaries, both the therapist and the client can understand and respect the professional nature of their relationship, preventing any potential harm or ethical issues that may arise from personal contact or involvement outside the therapeutic setting.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What is considered the overall management strategy for treating people?
- A.
Treatment plan
- B.
Relapse prevention plan
- C.
Psychometric examination
- D.
Goals and objective identification
Correct Answer
A. Treatment planExplanation
A treatment plan is considered the overall management strategy for treating people. It involves creating a comprehensive and individualized plan that outlines the specific interventions, therapies, and goals for the person receiving treatment. The treatment plan is developed based on a thorough assessment of the individual's needs, strengths, and preferences, and it serves as a roadmap for guiding the treatment process and ensuring that the person receives the most effective and appropriate care.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Who should be devising the treatment plan for the patient?
- A.
Patient
- B.
Counselor
- C.
Supervisor
- D.
Patient and counselor
Correct Answer
D. Patient and counselorExplanation
The patient and counselor should be devising the treatment plan together because the treatment plan should be a collaborative effort between the patient and the counselor. The patient's input and preferences are crucial in developing a plan that is tailored to their specific needs and goals. Additionally, the counselor's expertise and guidance are essential in ensuring that the treatment plan is evidence-based and effective. By working together, the patient and counselor can create a comprehensive and personalized treatment plan that maximizes the chances of successful outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is not one of the potential problems that should be addressed in the treatment plan?
- A.
Attrition
- B.
Absenteeism
- C.
Noncompliance
- D.
Inadequate progress
Correct Answer
B. AbsenteeismExplanation
Absence from treatment sessions, or absenteeism, is not one of the potential problems that should be addressed in the treatment plan. While attrition, noncompliance, and inadequate progress are all potential problems that may arise during treatment and should be addressed in the plan, absenteeism refers to a different issue altogether. Absenteeism refers to the act of being absent or not attending treatment sessions, which is not mentioned as a potential problem to be addressed in the given options.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is not a purpose of assesssment during the treatment process?
- A.
Translating the goals into behavior indicators
- B.
Assessing the kind of progress the patient is making
- C.
Determining what the next level of treatment should be
- D.
Determing the appropriateness of the present treatment
Correct Answer
A. Translating the goals into behavior indicatorsExplanation
Assessment during the treatment process serves several purposes, including assessing the progress the patient is making, determining the next level of treatment, and determining the appropriateness of the present treatment. Translating the goals into behavior indicators, on the other hand, is not a purpose of assessment during the treatment process. This task is typically done during the goal-setting phase, where the goals are defined and broken down into specific, measurable behaviors that can be assessed later on.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What must you use to measure treatment progress?
- A.
Exit outcomes
- B.
Goal milestones
- C.
Grequent assessments
- D.
Objective gatekeepers
Correct Answer
A. Exit outcomesExplanation
To measure treatment progress, one must use exit outcomes. Exit outcomes refer to the specific goals or outcomes that a person should achieve upon completing a treatment program. These outcomes are typically established at the beginning of the treatment and serve as a benchmark to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. By comparing the individual's progress to the desired exit outcomes, it becomes possible to evaluate the success of the treatment and make any necessary adjustments.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is one of the most self-deafing beliefs for a beginning counselor
- A.
We must be perfect
- B.
We must undertand silence
- C.
We lose ourselves in our patients
- D.
We are not honest about our limitations
Correct Answer
A. We must be perfectExplanation
The belief that "we must be perfect" is one of the most self-defeating beliefs for a beginning counselor. This belief sets unrealistic expectations and puts unnecessary pressure on the counselor to always have the right answers and solutions. It can lead to feelings of inadequacy and self-doubt, hindering the counselor's ability to effectively help their clients. Recognizing and accepting that perfection is unattainable allows the counselor to focus on continuous learning, growth, and building a genuine connection with their clients.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which is not one of the four specific areas that should be addressed in the therapeutic relationship between you and the patient?
- A.
Clear and informed decision-making knowledge and skill
- B.
Ability to cope with adversity, both personal and eveironmental
- C.
Personal barries (i.e., poor self image or self-deafing attitudes)
- D.
Relational issue, ability to influence, and change relationships in their lives
Correct Answer
D. Relational issue, ability to influence, and change relationships in their livesExplanation
The correct answer is "relational issue, ability to influence, and change relationships in their lives." This is not one of the four specific areas that should be addressed in the therapeutic relationship between you and the patient. The other options, clear and informed decision-making knowledge and skill, ability to cope with adversity, both personal and environmental, and personal barriers (i.e., poor self-image or self-defeating attitudes), are all areas that should be addressed in the therapeutic relationship.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is paramount to a patient's ability to identify options and alternatives in the face of adversity?
- A.
Denying the problem exists
- B.
Sharing hir or her emotions with others
- C.
Employing soung insight and judgement
- D.
Distracting hir or her attention from the problem
Correct Answer
C. Employing soung insight and judgementExplanation
Employing sound insight and judgment is paramount to a patient's ability to identify options and alternatives in the face of adversity. This means that the patient needs to have a clear understanding of the situation and be able to make wise decisions based on that understanding. By using their insight, they can assess the problem accurately and make informed choices. Sound judgment allows them to evaluate the available options and select the most suitable one. This combination of insight and judgment enables the patient to navigate through challenging situations effectively.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an individual?
- A.
Emotional intelligence
- B.
Intelligence quotient
- C.
Affective quotient
- D.
Common sense
Correct Answer
A. Emotional intelligenceExplanation
Emotional intelligence refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an individual. It involves the ability to recognize, understand, and manage one's own emotions, as well as the ability to recognize and understand the emotions of others. This includes skills such as empathy, self-awareness, and emotional regulation. Emotional intelligence plays a crucial role in interpersonal relationships, decision-making, and overall well-being.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which is not one of the common stages of counseling?
- A.
Initial disclosure
- B.
Termination of care
- C.
In-depth exploration
- D.
Commitment to action
Correct Answer
B. Termination of careExplanation
Termination of care is not one of the common stages of counseling. The common stages of counseling typically include initial disclosure, in which the client shares their concerns and issues, followed by in-depth exploration, where the counselor delves deeper into the client's thoughts and emotions. Finally, commitment to action is the stage where the client and counselor work together to develop a plan for change and take steps towards achieving the desired goals. Termination of care refers to the end of the counseling relationship, which is not considered a common stage but rather the conclusion of the counseling process.Rate this question:
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- 29.
During this stage, the patient will gain insight into his or her primary problem and tentatively beigin goal setting
- A.
Intitial disclosure
- B.
Termination of care
- C.
In-depth exploriation
- D.
Commitment to action
Correct Answer
C. In-depth exploriationExplanation
During the in-depth exploration stage, the patient will gain a deeper understanding of their primary problem by delving into its underlying causes and exploring it from various angles. This stage allows the patient to gain insight and clarity, which is essential for effective goal setting. It involves thorough examination and analysis of the issue at hand, enabling the patient to identify patterns, triggers, and potential solutions. This stage is crucial in the therapeutic process as it sets the foundation for the subsequent commitment to action and ultimately leads to positive change and growth.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which cognitive distortion is best defined as extreme contradictory qualities (everything is either all good or all bad)?
- A.
Perfectionism
- B.
Catastrophizing
- C.
Overgeneralizaiton
- D.
Dichotomous thinking
Correct Answer
D. Dichotomous thinkingExplanation
Dichotomous thinking is the cognitive distortion that is best defined as extreme contradictory qualities, where everything is either all good or all bad. This type of thinking does not allow for any shades of gray or middle ground, leading to a rigid and black-and-white perspective. People who engage in dichotomous thinking often struggle with seeing the complexity and nuances in situations, which can lead to distorted perceptions and judgments.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which cognitive distortion is best defined as always making a negative conclusion without support infromation?
- A.
Catastrophizing
- B.
Arbitrary inference
- C.
Selective abstraction
- D.
Magnification/minimizaiton
Correct Answer
B. Arbitrary inferenceExplanation
Arbitrary inference is the cognitive distortion that is best defined as always making a negative conclusion without support information. This distortion involves jumping to conclusions without any evidence or rational basis, often leading to negative interpretations or assumptions about oneself, others, or situations. It is characterized by assuming the worst possible outcome or making negative predictions without considering alternative explanations or gathering sufficient evidence. This cognitive distortion can contribute to increased anxiety, pessimism, and distorted perceptions of reality.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which therapeutic approach forces the therapist to take a stand and often disclose his or her feelings regarding morality, responsiblity, and accountability?
- A.
Reality therapy
- B.
Gestalt therapy
- C.
Behavior therapy
- D.
Trasactional analysis
Correct Answer
A. Reality therapyExplanation
Reality therapy is a therapeutic approach that focuses on the present moment and encourages individuals to take responsibility for their actions and choices. It emphasizes the importance of personal accountability and moral values. In reality therapy, the therapist takes an active role by challenging the client's thoughts and behaviors and may disclose their own feelings and perspectives to promote self-awareness and growth. This approach aims to help individuals make more effective choices and take control of their lives.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is not one of the Gestalt therapy's five layers of neurosis?
- A.
Lame
- B.
Phony
- C.
Phobic
- D.
Impasse
Correct Answer
A. LameExplanation
The correct answer is "lame". In Gestalt therapy, the five layers of neurosis are phony, phobic, impasse, implosive, and explosive. "Lame" is not one of these layers and therefore is not considered one of the layers of neurosis in Gestalt therapy.Rate this question:
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- 34.
In strategic family therapy, what is defined as communication that is intentionally misleading, misunderstood, and inconsitent and often leaves the reciever with an impossible conclusion to an answer?
- A.
Disqualification
- B.
Disconfirmation
- C.
Congruent communication
- D.
Incongruent communication
Correct Answer
A. DisqualificationExplanation
Disqualification in strategic family therapy refers to communication that is intentionally misleading, misunderstood, and inconsistent. It often leaves the receiver with an impossible conclusion to an answer. This means that the person communicating is deliberately providing information that is confusing or contradictory, making it difficult for the recipient to understand or respond effectively. Disqualification can hinder effective communication and create confusion within the family system.Rate this question:
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- 35.
In trategic family theraphy, what is defined as denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements to protect the sende'r self-image?
- A.
Disqualification
- B.
Disconfirmation
- C.
Congruent communication
- D.
Incongruent communication
Correct Answer
B. DisconfirmationExplanation
Disconfirmation in strategic family therapy refers to the act of denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements in order to protect the sender's self-image. This means that when someone makes a negative comment, disconfirmation involves dismissing or disregarding it, refusing to acknowledge its validity. By doing so, the sender's self-esteem and self-image are protected, as their hurtful or demeaning statements are not given any importance or credibility.Rate this question:
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- 36.
In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient encourged to take control of his or her internal anxiety-provoking physiological responses?
- A.
Relaxation training
- B.
Desensitization proper
- C.
Hierarchy construction
- D.
Graded participant model
Correct Answer
A. Relaxation trainingExplanation
In relaxation training, the patient is encouraged to take control of their internal anxiety-provoking physiological responses. This stage of behavior therapy focuses on teaching the patient various relaxation techniques, such as deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, and meditation, to help them manage and reduce their anxiety. By learning and practicing these techniques, the patient gains the ability to control their physiological responses and effectively reduce anxiety when faced with anxiety-provoking situations.Rate this question:
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- 37.
In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient walked through the least anxiety-provoking events to gradually increasing levels of events throught imagery?
- A.
Relaxtion training
- B.
Desensitization proper
- C.
Hierarchy construction
- D.
Graded participant model
Correct Answer
B. Desensitization properExplanation
Desensitization proper is the stage of behavior therapy where the patient is guided through a hierarchy of anxiety-provoking events, starting from the least anxiety-provoking and gradually progressing to more challenging events. This process is often done using imagery, where the patient visualizes themselves in these situations. The goal is to help the patient gradually overcome their fears and anxieties by exposing them to these events in a controlled and supportive environment. Relaxation training, hierarchy construction, and graded participant model are not specifically related to this stage of behavior therapy.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What group permits patients to join and finish at different times?
- A.
Open-ended
- B.
Close-ended
- C.
Psychotherapeutic
- D.
Psychoeducational
Correct Answer
A. Open-endedExplanation
Open-ended groups are designed to allow patients to join and finish at different times. Unlike close-ended groups that have a fixed number of sessions and a specific start and end date, open-ended groups have a more flexible structure. This allows individuals to join the group at any time and leave when they feel ready, without disrupting the continuity of the group process. Open-ended groups are often used in settings where ongoing support and exploration are needed, such as in therapy or support groups.Rate this question:
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- 39.
How many group participants can one facilitator effectively manage?
- A.
6 to 8
- B.
8 to 10
- C.
10 to 12
- D.
12 to 14
Correct Answer
B. 8 to 10Explanation
One facilitator can effectively manage a group of 8 to 10 participants. This number allows the facilitator to provide individual attention and support to each participant while also ensuring that the group dynamics are balanced and manageable. With fewer than 8 participants, there may not be enough diversity and interaction within the group. On the other hand, if the group exceeds 10 participants, it may become challenging for the facilitator to give sufficient attention to each individual and maintain control over the group discussions and activities. Therefore, 8 to 10 participants is considered an optimal range for effective facilitation.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which group usually is structued in narute and time-liimited for a specific number of sessions, and typically has a closed membership?
- A.
Psychotherapeutic
- B.
Educational
- C.
Support
- D.
Social
Correct Answer
B. EducationalExplanation
An educational group is usually structured in nature and time-limited for a specific number of sessions. It typically has a closed membership, meaning that the group is composed of individuals who are specifically selected or invited to participate. This type of group is focused on providing education, information, and skill-building in a specific area or topic.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What is always considered a primary concer when you discuss group participation?
- A.
Confidentiality
- B.
Apprehension
- C.
Anxiety
- D.
Dread
Correct Answer
A. ConfidentialityExplanation
When discussing group participation, confidentiality is always considered a primary concern. This means that the information shared within the group should be kept private and not disclosed to others without permission. This is important to create a safe and trusting environment where individuals feel comfortable sharing their thoughts, feelings, and experiences. By ensuring confidentiality, participants can freely express themselves without fear of judgment or negative consequences, allowing for more open and productive discussions.Rate this question:
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- 42.
During which stage of the group process should you establish the basic ground rules for participation in group?
- A.
Conflic and controversy
- B.
Initiation
- C.
Termination
- D.
Beginning
Correct Answer
D. BeginningExplanation
Establishing the basic ground rules for participation in a group should be done at the beginning stage of the group process. This is because it sets the foundation for how the group will function and ensures that all members are aware of and agree to the expectations and guidelines for participation. By establishing these ground rules early on, it helps to create a positive and productive group dynamic, promotes effective communication, and minimizes potential conflicts and misunderstandings later in the group process.Rate this question:
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- 43.
During which stage of group has the "birthing" process of merging personalities subside?
- A.
Conflict and controversy
- B.
Working and cohesion
- C.
Termination
- D.
Initiation
Correct Answer
B. Working and cohesionExplanation
The "birthing" process of merging personalities subsides during the working and cohesion stage of group development. This stage is characterized by increased cooperation, unity, and productivity among group members. By this stage, conflicts and controversies have been resolved, and the group has established a sense of trust and shared goals. The focus is now on effectively working together and maintaining the group's cohesiveness to achieve their objectives.Rate this question:
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- 44.
During which stage of group will depencies between group members and the facilitator emerge or group members will attempt to introduce new "bombshell" material?
- A.
Conflict and controversy
- B.
Working and cohesion
- C.
Termination
- D.
Initiation
Correct Answer
C. TerminationExplanation
During the termination stage of a group, dependencies between group members and the facilitator may emerge as the group is coming to an end. This is because individuals may become more reliant on each other and the facilitator for support and guidance as they prepare to disband. Additionally, during this stage, group members may attempt to introduce new "bombshell" material as a last-minute effort to address unresolved conflicts or controversial issues before the group's dissolution.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Regarding group participation, which term would be used to describe the extremely shy patient?
- A.
Contraindication
- B.
Termination
- C.
Relapse
- D.
Benefit
Correct Answer
A. ContraindicationExplanation
The term "contraindication" refers to a medical condition or factor that makes a particular treatment or intervention inadvisable or potentially harmful. In the context of group participation, an extremely shy patient may be considered a contraindication because their shyness may hinder their ability to actively engage and benefit from group activities. This suggests that group participation may not be suitable or beneficial for this individual due to their extreme shyness.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What common problems tend to occur the longer group continues
- A.
Removing members from group
- B.
Addings members to group
- C.
Absenteeism
- D.
Drop-outs
Correct Answer
D. Drop-outsExplanation
As a group continues for a longer period of time, it is common for some members to drop out. This could be due to various reasons such as lack of interest, conflicts within the group, or personal commitments. Drop-outs can disrupt the dynamics of the group and impact its overall effectiveness. It is important for the group to address any issues that may lead to drop-outs and create a supportive and inclusive environment to minimize this problem.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Conflict can be beneficial if used as a tool in group if it is used to do all of the following except
- A.
Promote self-esteem
- B.
Encourage a patient to be more self-suffiecient
- C.
Encourage a patient to use conflict resolution techniques
- D.
Polarize group members
Correct Answer
D. Polarize group membersExplanation
Conflict can be beneficial if used as a tool in a group because it promotes self-esteem by allowing individuals to express their opinions and ideas. It encourages a patient to be more self-sufficient by fostering independence and problem-solving skills. It also encourages a patient to use conflict resolution techniques, which helps in resolving conflicts effectively. However, polarizing group members is not a beneficial use of conflict as it creates divisions and hinders collaboration and cooperation within the group.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The group member who can easily become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group is the
- A.
Monopolist
- B.
Silent patient
- C.
Schizoid patient
- D.
Passive-aggressive patient
Correct Answer
C. Schizoid patientExplanation
The schizoid patient is likely to become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group because they tend to be withdrawn, detached, and disinterested in social interactions. This makes them an easy target for manipulation and bullying by the aggressive narcissist, who may see their passive nature as an opportunity to assert dominance and control. The schizoid patient's lack of assertiveness and preference for solitude may make it difficult for them to defend themselves against the aggressive narcissist's tactics.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When you present a case for staffing, in what format do you provide the overview?
- A.
Bullet
- B.
Narrative
- C.
Subjective
- D.
Subjective/objective assessment plan (SOAP)
Correct Answer
D. Subjective/objective assessment plan (SOAP)Explanation
The overview for staffing is provided in the format of a subjective/objective assessment plan (SOAP). This format allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the case, considering both subjective information (such as patient history and symptoms) and objective data (such as lab results and physical examination findings). By using SOAP, healthcare professionals can present a well-rounded overview that includes all relevant information and facilitates effective decision-making in staffing.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What is not one of the core compnents of ase management?
- A.
Peer support
- B.
Family support
- C.
Recreational support
- D.
Crisis response services
Correct Answer
C. Recreational supportExplanation
Recreational support is not one of the core components of case management. Case management typically focuses on providing peer support, family support, and crisis response services to individuals. Recreational support, on the other hand, is not considered a fundamental aspect of case management and may not be included in the core services provided.Rate this question:
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 20, 2010Quiz Created by
Rubiom
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