Mental Health Practice Test 1

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Mental Health Practice Test 1 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is a cluster A personality disorder?

    • A.

      Schizotypal 

    • B.

      Narcissistic 

    • C.

      Obsessive-compulsive

    • D.

      Avoidant

    • E.

      Borderline

    Correct Answer
    A. Schizotypal 
    Explanation
    Schizotypal personality disorder is classified as a cluster A personality disorder. Individuals with this disorder often display odd or eccentric behavior, have difficulties with social interactions, and may exhibit strange beliefs or magical thinking. They may also experience perceptual distortions or have unusual speech patterns. This disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits, as well as cognitive or perceptual distortions.

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  • 2. 

    What prescription would you expect the physician to write for a patient suffering from hyperarousal related to PTSD?

    • A.

      Sertaline

    • B.

      Ridperidone

    • C.

      Clonidine

    • D.

      Prazosin

    Correct Answer
    C. Clonidine
    Explanation
    Clonidine is a medication commonly used to treat hyperarousal symptoms related to post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Hyperarousal is a symptom characterized by increased anxiety, restlessness, and difficulty sleeping. Clonidine works by reducing the activity of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, which helps to calm the individual and reduce hyperarousal symptoms. Therefore, prescribing Clonidine would be an appropriate choice for a patient suffering from hyperarousal related to PTSD.

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  • 3. 

    What is a desired outcome for a person suffering from Antisocial Personality Disorder?

    • A.

      Health Promotion Knowledge

    • B.

      Decreased suicidal ideation

    • C.

      A score of less than 3 on the CGI-S scale

    • D.

      Development of empathy

    Correct Answer
    A. Health Promotion Knowledge
    Explanation
    A desired outcome for a person suffering from Antisocial Personality Disorder would be to gain knowledge and understanding about health promotion. This would involve learning about healthy behaviors, self-care practices, and strategies for improving overall well-being. By acquiring this knowledge, individuals with Antisocial Personality Disorder can make informed decisions and take steps towards improving their physical and mental health.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following can be treated with the use of SSRIs?

    • A.

      Histrionic Personality Disorder

    • B.

      PTSD

    • C.

      Alzheimer’s 

    • D.

      Delirium

    Correct Answer
    B. PTSD
    Explanation
    SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are a class of antidepressant medications that work by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain. They are commonly used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and certain other mental health conditions. PTSD, or post-traumatic stress disorder, is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Symptoms of PTSD include flashbacks, nightmares, hypervigilance, and avoidance behaviors. SSRIs have been found to be effective in reducing the symptoms of PTSD by helping to regulate serotonin levels in the brain, making it the appropriate treatment option for this condition.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following are the cardinal features of delirium?

    • A.

      Disturbance of Consciousness

    • B.

      Acute onset and fluctuating course

    • C.

      2 or more alternate personalities with different patterns of thinking

    • D.

      Reduced ability to direct, focus, shift and sustain attention

    • E.

      Risk for harm to self or harm to others

    • F.

      Seductive behavior in response to stress

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Disturbance of Consciousness
    B. Acute onset and fluctuating course
    D. Reduced ability to direct, focus, shift and sustain attention
    Explanation
    The cardinal features of delirium include disturbance of consciousness, acute onset and fluctuating course, and reduced ability to direct, focus, shift, and sustain attention. These features are characteristic of delirium and differentiate it from other mental disorders. Delirium is also associated with a risk for harm to self or harm to others. The presence of 2 or more alternate personalities with different patterns of thinking and seductive behavior in response to stress are not cardinal features of delirium.

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  • 6. 

    Splitting is a primary defense mechanism in...

    • A.

      Substance Abuse Disorder

    • B.

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder

    • C.

      Paranoid Personality Disorder

    • D.

      Borderline Personality Disorder

    Correct Answer
    D. Borderline Personality Disorder
    Explanation
    Splitting is a primary defense mechanism in Borderline Personality Disorder. Splitting refers to the tendency to see things in extreme black-and-white terms, where individuals with this disorder may perceive others as either all good or all bad. This defense mechanism helps them cope with the intense emotions and fear of abandonment that are common in this disorder. It can lead to unstable relationships and impulsive behaviors as individuals struggle to maintain a consistent view of themselves and others.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following are common defense mechanisms used by patients with Alzheimer’s Disease?

    • A.

      Disorganized Thinking

    • B.

      Denial

    • C.

      Avoidance of questions

    • D.

      Confabulation

    • E.

      Projection

    • F.

      Perseveration

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Denial
    C. Avoidance of questions
    D. Confabulation
    F. Perseveration
    Explanation
    Patients with Alzheimer's Disease commonly use denial as a defense mechanism to cope with the reality of their condition. They may refuse to acknowledge or accept their memory loss and cognitive decline. Avoidance of questions is another defense mechanism used by these patients, as they may struggle to answer or comprehend questions due to their impaired cognitive abilities. Confabulation is also common, where patients create false or distorted memories to fill in the gaps in their recollection. Perseveration, the repetition of words, phrases, or actions, is another defense mechanism seen in Alzheimer's patients as they may struggle to move on from a particular thought or behavior.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following would be an example of Illness Anxiety Disorder?

    • A.

      Mart has been preoccupied with intrusive worry about acquiring cancer over the last 7 months, so she has been obsessively engaging in health promoting behaviors.

    • B.

      Jim has been having episodes of hyperventilation, disorganized thinking and blurred vision after receiving a diagnosis of terminal brain cancer.

    • C.

      After returning from combat in Iraq, Mark has none of the typical symptoms  PTSD or anxiety, but frequently complains of severe migraines and feelings of paralysis in his fingers.

    • D.

      In response to the anxiety of waiting for the results of a cancer biopsy, Jen dissociates and engages in unexpected travel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mart has been preoccupied with intrusive worry about acquiring cancer over the last 7 months, so she has been obsessively engaging in health promoting behaviors.
    Explanation
    The example of Illness Anxiety Disorder is Mart's preoccupation with intrusive worry about acquiring cancer and her obsessive engagement in health promoting behaviors. This is characteristic of Illness Anxiety Disorder, where individuals have excessive worry about having a serious illness despite having little or no medical evidence. They may engage in excessive health-related behaviors, such as frequent doctor visits or medical tests, to alleviate their anxiety.

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  • 9. 

    What is the difference between Conversion Disorder and Somatic Symptom Disorder?

    • A.

      Conversion disorder occurs more frequently in aging patients, while Somatic Symptoms Disorder is primary caused by a traumatic event.

    • B.

      If one has somatic symptoms disorder, they cannot have conversion disorder. However, if one has conversion disorder, they are likely to also have somatic symptoms disorder. 

    • C.

      In conversion disorder, the patient is unconcerned with their symptoms, while those with somatic symptoms disorder tend to discuss their symptoms dramatically with emotion.

    • D.

      Conversion disorder can present with debilitating symptoms like  blindness, paralysis, episodes of epilepsy, hearing loss, etc. Somatic symptoms disorder is milder and presents with symptoms like diaphoresis, rhinitis and cramps.

    Correct Answer
    C. In conversion disorder, the patient is unconcerned with their symptoms, while those with somatic symptoms disorder tend to discuss their symptoms dramatically with emotion.
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains the difference between Conversion Disorder and Somatic Symptom Disorder. It states that in Conversion Disorder, the patient is unconcerned with their symptoms, while those with Somatic Symptom Disorder tend to discuss their symptoms dramatically with emotion. This highlights the difference in the way patients perceive and express their symptoms in these two disorders.

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  • 10. 

    Borderline Personality Disorder often presents with Comorbid disorders such as eating disorders and  depression.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Borderline Personality Disorder is known to commonly coexist with other mental health disorders such as eating disorders and depression. This means that individuals diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder often experience symptoms of these disorders simultaneously. The presence of comorbid disorders can complicate the diagnosis and treatment of Borderline Personality Disorder, as it may require addressing multiple mental health issues simultaneously. Therefore, the statement "Borderline Personality Disorder often presents with comorbid disorders such as eating disorders and depression" is true.

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  • 11. 

    Sometimes antihistamines or anticonvulsants may be used in the treatment of GAD.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Antihistamines and anticonvulsants can be used in the treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD). Antihistamines, typically used for allergies, can help reduce anxiety symptoms by calming the central nervous system. Anticonvulsants, commonly prescribed for epilepsy, have also been found to be effective in managing anxiety. These medications can help alleviate the physical and psychological symptoms associated with GAD, such as restlessness, irritability, and excessive worry. Therefore, the statement that antihistamines or anticonvulsants may be used in the treatment of GAD is true.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following medications might a doctor prescribe for a patient suffering from Dependent Personality Disorder? Select all that apply.

    • A.

      Citalopram

    • B.

      Clomipramine

    • C.

      Effexor

    • D.

      Fluoxetine

    • E.

      Lithium

    Correct Answer
    B. Clomipramine
    Explanation
    Clomipramine is a medication that might be prescribed for a patient suffering from Dependent Personality Disorder. This medication is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant and is commonly used to treat various mental health conditions, including depression and anxiety disorders. Clomipramine works by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that are responsible for regulating mood and emotions. By doing so, it can help alleviate symptoms associated with Dependent Personality Disorder, such as excessive reliance on others, fear of abandonment, and low self-esteem.

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  • 13. 

    What actions should the nurse take when assisting a patient with schizoid personality disorder?

    • A.

      Enter the room with an extremely positive, friendly attitude.

    • B.

      Role model right and wrong 

    • C.

      Encourage the patient to increase socialization

    • D.

      Assess the patient for symptoms he may be unwilling to discuss

    Correct Answer
    D. Assess the patient for symptoms he may be unwilling to discuss
    Explanation
    When assisting a patient with schizoid personality disorder, it is important for the nurse to assess the patient for symptoms that he may be unwilling to discuss. This is because individuals with schizoid personality disorder tend to have difficulty expressing their emotions and may be hesitant to discuss their symptoms. By assessing the patient for these symptoms, the nurse can gain a better understanding of the patient's condition and provide appropriate care and support. This approach allows the nurse to establish trust and build a therapeutic relationship with the patient.

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  • 14. 

    How should the nurse assess an injury that was self-inflicted by a patient with borderline Personality Disorder?

    • A.

      Convey empathy while asking about what may have triggered this

    • B.

      Make sure to document the exact size of the injury, as increasing size may indicate worsening of the disorder.

    • C.

      Provide a pamphlet of crisis resources to prevent the patient from committing suicide

    • D.

      Matter of factly, without expressing emotions

    Correct Answer
    D. Matter of factly, without expressing emotions
    Explanation
    The nurse should assess an injury that was self-inflicted by a patient with borderline Personality Disorder in a matter of factly manner, without expressing emotions. This approach is important because individuals with borderline Personality Disorder often have difficulty regulating their emotions and may be highly sensitive to perceived judgment or criticism. By maintaining a neutral and non-judgmental attitude, the nurse can create a safe and non-threatening environment for the patient to discuss their injury and provide necessary care.

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  • 15. 

    Assertiveness training would be recommended for those with...

    • A.

      Somatic Symptoms Disorder

    • B.

      Dependent Personality Disorder

    • C.

      Antisocial Personality Disorder

    • D.

      PTSD

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Somatic Symptoms Disorder
    B. Dependent Personality Disorder
    Explanation
    Assertiveness training would be recommended for individuals with Somatic Symptoms Disorder and Dependent Personality Disorder. Somatic Symptoms Disorder is characterized by excessive and distressing physical symptoms that are not explained by any underlying medical condition. Assertiveness training can help individuals with this disorder express their needs and concerns effectively. Dependent Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive need to be taken care of and a fear of separation. Assertiveness training can empower individuals with this disorder to assert themselves and develop a sense of independence.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following are the three stages of treatment in PTsD?

    • A.

      Reduce arousal and regulate emotion through symptom reduction.

    • B.

      Provide safety and stabilization.

    • C.

      Increase patient’s use of eye contact and personal hygiene.

    • D.

      Catch up on developmental and social skills; develop a value system.

    • E.

      Confront and work through traumatic memories

    • F.

      Integrate identity and rehabilitation

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Reduce arousal and regulate emotion through symptom reduction.
    B. Provide safety and stabilization.
    D. Catch up on developmental and social skills; develop a value system.
    Explanation
    The three stages of treatment in PTSD are reducing arousal and regulating emotion through symptom reduction, providing safety and stabilization, and catching up on developmental and social skills while developing a value system. These stages aim to address the immediate symptoms and distress caused by PTSD, establish a sense of safety and stability for the individual, and promote their overall growth and development. The stage of confronting and working through traumatic memories and integrating identity and rehabilitation is not mentioned in the given answer.

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  • 17. 

    In a Factitious Disorder, a patient consciously falsifies an illness. They are pretending to be ill on purpose.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In a Factitious Disorder, the patient intentionally fakes or exaggerates symptoms of an illness. This behavior is conscious and deliberate, with the individual pretending to be sick for various reasons, such as seeking attention or assuming the sick role. The disorder is characterized by deceptive behavior and a desire to assume the role of a patient. Therefore, the statement "True" accurately reflects that in Factitious Disorder, the patient consciously falsifies an illness.

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  • 18. 

    A factitious disorder can be an illness caused to oneself or to another vulnerable person.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A factitious disorder is a mental health condition where a person intentionally creates or exaggerates physical or psychological symptoms in themselves or in someone they are caring for. This disorder is characterized by a need for attention and sympathy, and individuals with factitious disorder may go to great lengths to deceive others, including medical professionals. Therefore, it is true that a factitious disorder can be an illness caused to oneself or to another vulnerable person.

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  • 19. 

    Select the following elements of treatment that apply for a patient with factitious disorder.

    • A.

      Provide continuity of care

    • B.

      Avoid unnecessary procedures

    • C.

      Provide frequent, brief, and regular visits.

    • D.

      Always conduct a physical exam.

    • E.

      Avoid disparaging comments.

    • F.

      Set reasonable therapeutic goals.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Provide continuity of care
    B. Avoid unnecessary procedures
    C. Provide frequent, brief, and regular visits.
    D. Always conduct a physical exam.
    E. Avoid disparaging comments.
    F. Set reasonable therapeutic goals.
    Explanation
    The elements of treatment that apply for a patient with factitious disorder include providing continuity of care, avoiding unnecessary procedures, providing frequent, brief, and regular visits, always conducting a physical exam, avoiding disparaging comments, and setting reasonable therapeutic goals. These strategies are important in managing factitious disorder as they help establish a trusting and supportive therapeutic relationship, minimize unnecessary medical interventions, ensure regular monitoring of the patient's health, promote a respectful and non-judgmental environment, and work towards achievable treatment objectives.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following could be a motivating factor in Malingering?

    • A.

      Avoidance of military service

    • B.

      Need for attention

    • C.

      Relief of responsibilities

    • D.

      Amnesia

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoidance of military service
    Explanation
    A motivating factor in malingering could be the avoidance of military service. Malingering refers to the deliberate feigning or exaggeration of physical or psychological symptoms for personal gain. In the context of military service, individuals may fake or overstate symptoms to avoid being drafted or deployed. This motivation stems from a desire to evade the potential dangers and hardships associated with military duty.

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  • 21. 

    A patient experiencing a dissociative fugue can recall basic facts like their own name and identity,, but display a lack of memory after engaging in unexpected travel.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because a patient experiencing a dissociative fugue cannot recall basic facts like their own name and identity. Dissociative fugue is a type of dissociative amnesia where individuals not only experience memory loss but also travel unexpectedly and may even assume a new identity. Therefore, the statement contradicts the characteristics of dissociative fugue.

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  • 22. 

    What is the main difference between delirium and Alzheimer’s?

    • A.

      Alzheimer’s is chronic and delirium is acute.

    • B.

      Alzheimer's may present with episodes of lucidity, while delirium does not.

    • C.

      Alzheimer’s affects memory, while delirium affects cognitive processes like problem solving and critical thinking.

    • D.

      Alzheimer's is a more severe form of delirium 

    Correct Answer
    A. Alzheimer’s is chronic and delirium is acute.
    Explanation
    Delirium and Alzheimer's differ in terms of their duration. Alzheimer's is a chronic condition, meaning it is long-lasting and progressive, while delirium is acute, meaning it has a sudden onset and is usually temporary. This means that delirium is typically reversible once the underlying cause is treated, whereas Alzheimer's is a degenerative disease that worsens over time.

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  • 23. 

    Delirium is considered a medical emergency.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Delirium is a state of acute confusion and rapid changes in brain function, often caused by underlying medical conditions or medications. It is considered a medical emergency because it can indicate a serious underlying illness or injury, such as infection, organ failure, or drug toxicity. Delirium can also lead to complications such as falls, injuries, or even death if not promptly addressed. Therefore, recognizing and treating delirium promptly is crucial to ensure the well-being and safety of the individual experiencing it.

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  • 24. 

    What is the difference between hallucinations and illusions?

    • A.

      Hallucinations are visual and illusions are auditory

    • B.

      Illusions happen most commonly in Alzheimer’s and hallucinations occur mostly in delirium

    • C.

      Illusions are errors in perception of stimuli and hallucinations are false sensory stimuli

    • D.

      Hallucinations are distortions of reality and illusions are usually related to grandiose beliefs

    Correct Answer
    C. Illusions are errors in perception of stimuli and hallucinations are false sensory stimuli
    Explanation
    Illusions are errors in perception of stimuli, meaning that they occur when our brain misinterprets or distorts sensory information. On the other hand, hallucinations refer to the perception of false sensory stimuli that are not actually present. Hallucinations can involve any of the senses, such as seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling things that are not real. Therefore, the given answer correctly distinguishes between illusions and hallucinations based on the nature of the sensory experiences they involve.

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  • 25. 

    What should the nurse be sure to assess in a patient with delirium?

    • A.

      Level of hydration

    • B.

      Cap refill

    • C.

      Intraoccular pressure 

    • D.

      Chovstek’s sign

    Correct Answer
    A. Level of hydration
    Explanation
    The nurse should be sure to assess the level of hydration in a patient with delirium because dehydration can contribute to the development and worsening of delirium symptoms. Dehydration can lead to electrolyte imbalances and impaired cognitive function, which can exacerbate delirium. Assessing the patient's hydration status will help the nurse determine if interventions such as fluid replacement or IV hydration are needed to improve the patient's condition.

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  • 26. 

    When treating patients with dissociative disorders, the nurse should refrain from giving too much information about a patient’s recent traumatic experience, to avoid increasing anxiety.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When treating patients with dissociative disorders, it is important for the nurse to be mindful of the patient's recent traumatic experience. Sharing too much information about the trauma can potentially trigger anxiety and worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, it is advisable for the nurse to refrain from giving excessive details about the traumatic event in order to prevent an increase in anxiety levels.

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  • 27. 

    Delirium is always due to underlying physiological conditions

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Delirium is a state of acute confusion and disorientation that is often caused by underlying physiological conditions such as infections, drug toxicity, or metabolic imbalances. It is not a standalone condition and is always a result of an underlying medical issue. Therefore, the statement that delirium is always due to underlying physiological conditions is true.

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  • 28. 

    What would signify that a patient is in the middle (moderate) stage of Alzheimer’s disease?

    • A.

      Memory lapses, able to function independently, difficulty with words and names, losing valuable objects

    • B.

      Communication becomes difficult and the patient requires full assistance with ADLs

    • C.

      Disorganized thinking, difficulty with names and words, frequently forgetting to take medications and attend important appointments

    • D.

      Forgets own history, moody or withdrawn, unable to recall address, confused about location and date

    Correct Answer
    D. Forgets own history, moody or withdrawn, unable to recall address, confused about location and date
    Explanation
    In the middle (moderate) stage of Alzheimer's disease, a patient may experience forgetting their own history, being moody or withdrawn, being unable to recall their address, and being confused about their location and the date. These symptoms indicate a decline in cognitive function and memory, as well as difficulties with orientation and emotional regulation. This stage often requires increased support and assistance for the patient in their daily activities.

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  • 29. 

    Another name for splitting could be...

    • A.

      Quickly exiting

    • B.

      Black and white thinking

    • C.

      Passing the blame

    • D.

      Risking it all

    Correct Answer
    B. Black and white thinking
    Explanation
    "Black and white thinking" refers to a cognitive bias where someone sees things in absolute terms, without considering any gray areas or nuances. This term can be used as another name for "splitting" because both concepts involve a tendency to categorize things or situations into extreme, polarized categories without acknowledging any middle ground.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is an anxiety disorder that involves fear of being a crowded place with limited means to escape?

    • A.

      Social Anxiety Disorder

    • B.

      Agoraphobia

    • C.

      Panic Disorder

    • D.

      Enclosed Anxiety Disorder

    Correct Answer
    B. Agoraphobia
    Explanation
    Agoraphobia is an anxiety disorder that involves fear of being in a crowded place with limited means to escape. People with agoraphobia often avoid situations such as public transportation, shopping malls, or large gatherings because they fear they won't be able to escape or find help if they have a panic attack or experience intense anxiety symptoms. This fear can significantly impact their daily lives and lead to social isolation. Agoraphobia is different from social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and enclosed anxiety disorder, as it specifically relates to the fear of being in crowded places.

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  • 31. 

    All of the following are signs of opioid intoxication except 

    • A.

      Psychomotor retardation

    • B.

      Pupillary constriction

    • C.

      Slurred speech

    • D.

      Hyperfocus 

    Correct Answer
    D. Hyperfocus 
    Explanation
    Opioid intoxication is characterized by various signs and symptoms, including psychomotor retardation (slowed physical movements), pupillary constriction (narrowing of the pupils), and slurred speech. However, hyperfocus, which refers to an intense concentration or fixation on a particular task or object, is not typically associated with opioid intoxication.

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  • 32. 

    What is the treatment for opioid overdose?

    • A.

      Naloxone 

    • B.

      Narcan 

    • C.

      Shock with AED

    • D.

      Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A and B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both A and B". Naloxone and Narcan are both medications used to treat opioid overdose. They work by reversing the effects of opioids and can quickly restore normal breathing in a person who has overdosed. Shock with AED, on the other hand, is not a treatment for opioid overdose but is used in cases of cardiac arrest.

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  • 33. 

    Methadone is unsafe during pregnancy

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Methadone is actually considered safe to use during pregnancy under medical supervision. It is commonly prescribed to pregnant women who are dependent on opioids, as it helps to manage withdrawal symptoms and reduces the risk of complications. Methadone treatment during pregnancy has been found to be beneficial for both the mother and the baby, as it allows for better prenatal care and reduces the likelihood of preterm birth or low birth weight. Therefore, the statement that methadone is unsafe during pregnancy is incorrect.

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  • 34. 

    What medication would you expect the doctor to prescribe for a patient with heroin addiction?

    • A.

      Buprenorphine 

    • B.

      Buspar 

    • C.

      Sertaline

    • D.

      Effexor

    Correct Answer
    A. Buprenorphine 
    Explanation
    Buprenorphine is a medication commonly prescribed for patients with heroin addiction. It belongs to a class of drugs called opioid partial agonists, which work by binding to the same receptors in the brain that heroin does, but with less intensity. This helps to reduce cravings and withdrawal symptoms, making it easier for patients to overcome their addiction. Buprenorphine is often used as a part of medication-assisted treatment programs, which combine medication with counseling and behavioral therapy for the best results.

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  • 35. 

    Which drug blocks opioids from acting on the brain, which takes away the reward from getting high?

    • A.

      Naloxone

    • B.

      Naltrexone

    • C.

      Narcan

    • D.

      Nacetaminophen

    Correct Answer
    B. Naltrexone
    Explanation
    Naltrexone is the correct answer because it is a drug that blocks opioids from acting on the brain, thereby preventing the rewarding effects of getting high. Naloxone and Narcan are both also used to reverse opioid overdoses, but they do not block the effects of opioids on the brain. Acetaminophen, also known as paracetamol, is not an opioid-blocking drug and does not affect the reward system in the brain.

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  • 36. 

    Which Comorbidities commonly occur with substance abuse disorders? Select all that apply

    • A.

      Diabetes

    • B.

      Hepatitis C

    • C.

      Psoriasis

    • D.

      Hepatitis B

    • E.

      COVID-19

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Diabetes
    B. Hepatitis C
    C. Psoriasis
    Explanation
    Substance abuse disorders commonly occur with comorbidities such as diabetes, hepatitis C, and psoriasis. Diabetes is a chronic condition characterized by high blood sugar levels, and individuals with substance abuse disorders may be at a higher risk of developing diabetes due to lifestyle factors and the effects of certain substances on the body. Hepatitis C is a viral infection that affects the liver, and substance abuse, particularly injection drug use, is a major risk factor for contracting the virus. Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune skin condition, and studies have shown a higher prevalence of psoriasis among individuals with substance abuse disorders.

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  • 37. 

    Alcohol withdrawal begins ________ to ________ hours after alcohol cessation.

    Correct Answer(s)
    6
    8
    Explanation
    Alcohol withdrawal typically begins within 6 to 8 hours after alcohol cessation. This is because the body becomes dependent on alcohol and when it is suddenly removed, the brain and nervous system go through a period of adjustment. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can include anxiety, tremors, sweating, nausea, and insomnia. The severity and duration of withdrawal symptoms can vary depending on the individual's level of alcohol dependence.

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  • 38. 

    If alcohol withdrawal becomes severe enough to cause seizures, the seizures usually occur 6-8 hours after alcohol cessation?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Severe alcohol withdrawal can indeed lead to seizures, but they typically occur within the first 48 hours after alcohol cessation, not 6-8 hours. The onset of seizures during alcohol withdrawal can vary from person to person, but the timeframe mentioned in the question is not accurate. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 39. 

    What is another name for Diazepam, which can be used to treat acute agitation in DT (alcohol withdrawal delirium)

    • A.

      Valium

    • B.

      Ativan

    • C.

      Xanax

    • D.

      Librium

    Correct Answer
    A. Valium
    Explanation
    Valium is another name for Diazepam, which can be used to treat acute agitation in DT (alcohol withdrawal delirium).

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  • 40. 

    What would you expect the doctor to prescribe for a patient e experiencing tremors related to alcohol withdrawal? 

    • A.

      Buspar

    • B.

      Librium

    • C.

      Ativan

    • D.

      Wellbutrin

    Correct Answer
    B. Librium
    Explanation
    The doctor would likely prescribe Librium for a patient experiencing tremors related to alcohol withdrawal. Librium is a benzodiazepine medication commonly used to treat symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, including tremors. It helps to reduce anxiety, relax muscles, and prevent seizures that can occur during alcohol withdrawal. Buspar is an anti-anxiety medication, Ativan is also a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and seizures, and Wellbutrin is an antidepressant, none of which are specifically indicated for alcohol withdrawal tremors.

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  • 41. 

    Alcohol withdrawal delirium (DT) usually occurs during the first 72 hours following alcohol cessation.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Alcohol withdrawal delirium, also known as DT, typically occurs within the first 72 hours after a person stops drinking alcohol. This condition is characterized by severe withdrawal symptoms such as confusion, hallucinations, and agitation. It is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires medical attention. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct as it accurately describes the timeframe in which alcohol withdrawal delirium commonly occurs.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 27, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Madison
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