3d052 CDC Vol 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

    • Internetwork
    • Intranetwork
    • Homogeneous network
    • Heterogeneous network
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '3D052 CDC Vol 1', assesses foundational knowledge in computer networking. It covers network types, configurations, and specific terminologies essential for understanding local and broader network setups. Suitable for beginners aiming to grasp basic networking concepts.

Computer Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 5

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    A computer network requires at least two computers to be connected in order to function. This is because a network is a collection of interconnected devices that can communicate and share resources with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to and interact with, thus making a network impossible. Therefore, the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is two.

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  • 3. 

    How many users are in a single server network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-50
    Explanation
    A single server network typically refers to a network setup where only one server is used to provide services and resources to a limited number of users. The range of 10-50 users is considered appropriate for a single server network because it allows for efficient resource allocation and ensures that the server can handle the workload effectively without becoming overloaded. Having too few users may underutilize the server's capabilities, while having too many users may lead to performance issues and decreased efficiency. Therefore, the range of 10-50 users is the most suitable for a single server network.

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  • 4. 

    How many users are in a multi server high speed backbone network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 250-1000
    Explanation
    In a multi-server high-speed backbone network, the number of users can range from 250 to 1000. This means that the network is designed to accommodate a large number of users, making it suitable for organizations or institutions with a significant user base. The network infrastructure and capacity are built to handle the high volume of traffic and provide fast and reliable connectivity to all users.

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  • 5. 

    What operational SNMP message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Trap

    • GetNext

    Correct Answer
    A. Trap
    Explanation
    A trap is an unsolicited message from an SNMP agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred on the network device being monitored. Traps are sent by the agent without any request from the manager, making them unsolicited. Traps are commonly used to alert the manager about critical events such as system failures, high CPU usage, or network congestion.

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  • 6. 

    Knowledge based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you?

    • Know

    • Have

    • Need

    • Read

    Correct Answer
    A. Know
    Explanation
    Knowledge based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something they know, such as a password or answer to a security question. This is different from methods that require something the user has, like a fingerprint or a security token. In this case, the correct answer is "Know" because it accurately describes the requirement for the user to provide information from their knowledge in order to authenticate their identity.

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  • 7. 

    What is the primary unclassified PKI token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the air force?

    • Hardware Token

    • Software Token

    • Common Access Card

    • Identification (ID) key

    Correct Answer
    A. Common Access Card
    Explanation
    The Common Access Card (CAC) is the primary unclassified PKI token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the air force. The CAC is a smart card that contains a microprocessor chip, which securely stores and processes the user's credentials. It serves as a form of identification and authentication for accessing various systems and resources within the air force network. The CAC provides a secure and portable solution for individuals to store and use their PKI keys and certificates.

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  • 8. 

    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

    • Internetwork

    • Intranetwork

    • Homogeneous Network

    • Heterogeneous Network

    Correct Answer
    A. Heterogeneous Network
    Explanation
    A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software components that are not uniform or standardized. This can pose challenges in terms of compatibility and interoperability between different systems. However, it also allows for greater flexibility and choice in selecting the most suitable technologies and solutions for specific needs.

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  • 9. 

    How many users are nomally in a peer to peer network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-10
    Explanation
    In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are designed for small-scale connections, where each user can directly communicate and share resources with other users without the need for a central server. This smaller range of users allows for efficient and decentralized sharing of files and resources among a small group of individuals.

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  • 10. 

    How many users are in a multi-server network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 50-250
    Explanation
    In a multi-server network, there are typically a moderate number of users. The range of 50-250 suggests that there could be a significant number of users but not an excessive amount. This range allows for a network that can handle a decent amount of traffic and user activity without becoming overwhelmed. It strikes a balance between having enough users to justify a multi-server setup and not having too many users that it becomes difficult to manage and maintain the network efficiently.

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  • 11. 

    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

    • Media access control address

    • Network server name

    • Subnet mask address

    • Node seriel number

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control address
    Explanation
    The media access control address is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. It is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) in a device. This address is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to control access to the network media and ensure that data is transmitted to the correct destination.

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  • 12. 

    What are 3 primary ways to authenticate ones self?

    • Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans

    • Passwords, fingerprints, or identification cards

    • Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards

    • Something you know, something you have, or something you are

    Correct Answer
    A. Something you know, something you have, or something you are
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Something you know, something you have, or something you are." This answer refers to the three primary ways of authenticating oneself. "Something you know" refers to passwords or PINs that only the individual should know. "Something you have" refers to physical objects like identification cards or security tokens. "Something you are" refers to biometric factors like fingerprints, voiceprints, or retinal scans that are unique to each individual. These three factors provide a layered approach to authentication, increasing security by requiring multiple forms of proof.

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  • 13. 

    What doc signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global info grid?

    • Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)

    • Interim authorization to operate (IATO)

    • Authorization to operate (ATO)

    • Interim authorization to test (IATT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)". This document signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global info grid. The term "denial of authorization" implies that the system has been explicitly denied permission to operate and connect to the global info grid. This could be due to various reasons such as security concerns, non-compliance with regulations, or other restrictions. The document serves as an official statement that the system is not authorized to operate and connect to the global info grid.

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  • 14. 

    What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized peronnel called?

    • Homogeneous Network

    • Internetwork

    • Intranetwork

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Intranetwork
    Explanation
    An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that allows access only to authorized personnel. It is restricted from external access and is used within a specific organization or company. This network enables secure communication and data sharing among employees or departments, ensuring confidentiality and control over the network resources.

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  • 15. 

    What network entitiy provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?

    • Network control center (NCC)

    • Network control center-deployable (NCC-D)

    • Network operations center (NOSC)

    • Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Network control center (NCC)
    Explanation
    The network control center (NCC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for providing reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. The NCC is typically staffed with trained personnel who monitor and manage the network infrastructure, ensuring that it is operating efficiently and securely. They also provide support and troubleshooting services to customers, ensuring that their network needs are met. The NCC plays a critical role in maintaining the overall network integrity and security for base level customers.

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  • 16. 

    What network architecture has a network mangement platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network mangement duties?

    • Centralized

    • Distributed

    • Hierarchical

    • Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized
    Explanation
    A centralized network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed from a single location. This architecture allows for easier control and management of the network, as all management tasks are consolidated in one system.

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  • 17. 

    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

    • Configuration

    • Performance

    • Accounting

    • Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Security
    Explanation
    Security is the correct answer because it is the network management area that deals with controlling access points to information. Security measures are implemented to ensure that only authorized individuals or devices can access sensitive data and resources. This includes setting up authentication mechanisms, encryption protocols, firewalls, and other measures to protect against unauthorized access, data breaches, and cyber attacks. By controlling access points, security helps to safeguard the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information within a network.

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  • 18. 

    What operational SNMP message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management info?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Trap

    • GetNext

    Correct Answer
    A. Set
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Set". In SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), the Set message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the manager to send new values to the agent for specific variables, enabling the manager to change or update the configuration or behavior of the network devices being managed. The Set message is an important part of SNMP's functionality for remote management and monitoring of network devices.

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  • 19. 

    What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?

    • Degausser

    • Degaussing

    • Destroying

    • Sanitizing

    Correct Answer
    A. Degaussing
    Explanation
    Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field. This process neutralizes the magnetic fields on the media, effectively erasing any data stored on it. Degaussing is commonly used to sanitize or destroy sensitive information on magnetic storage devices, such as hard drives or tapes, ensuring that the data cannot be recovered.

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  • 20. 

    What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?

    • Degaussing

    • Overwriting

    • Formatting

    • Deleting

    Correct Answer
    A. Degaussing
    Explanation
    Degaussing is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media. Degaussing involves using a powerful magnetic field to erase data from magnetic media, such as hard drives or tapes. This method ensures that the data is completely unrecoverable, as it destroys the magnetic patterns that store the information. Overwriting, formatting, and deleting do not completely erase the data and can still leave traces that can potentially be recovered. Therefore, degaussing is the most effective method for sanitizing magnetic media.

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  • 21. 

    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

    • Global area network (GAN)

    • Local are network (LAN)

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Local are network (LAN)
    Explanation
    A Local Area Network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It is typically limited to a single building or a group of buildings in close proximity. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and other small-scale environments. They allow users to share resources such as files, printers, and internet connections. LANs are characterized by high-speed data transfer rates and low latency, making them ideal for applications that require quick and reliable communication within a limited area.

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  • 22. 

    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a unit of digital information consisting of 8 bits, and it is used to represent an individual byte of data. In the case of the internet protocol, each IP address is made up of 4 octets, with each octet representing a number between 0 and 255. This allows for a total of 4.3 billion unique IP addresses, which is necessary to accommodate the large number of devices connected to the internet.

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  • 23. 

    According to the air force network structure, what tier is the air force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    According to the air force network structure, the air force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as Tier 1.

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  • 24. 

    What network architecture use multiple systems for network mangement, with one system acting as a central server and the other working as clients?

    • Centralized

    • Hierarchical

    • Interactive

    • Proactive

    Correct Answer
    A. Hierarchical
    Explanation
    Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the other working as clients. In this architecture, the central server controls and manages the network, while the clients communicate with the server to access resources and services. This hierarchical structure allows for efficient management and control of the network, as well as easy scalability and expansion.

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  • 25. 

    What operational SNMP message asks for a specific instance of management information?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Trap

    • Getnext

    Correct Answer
    A. Get
    Explanation
    The operational SNMP message that asks for a specific instance of management information is the "Get" message. This message is used to request the value of one or more specific objects in the SNMP agent's MIB (Management Information Base). By sending a "Get" message, the SNMP manager can retrieve the current value of a specific variable or object from the SNMP agent.

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  • 26. 

    An information system on your network that is not to require the use of a common access card or password would be considered a?

    • Threat

    • Vulnerability

    • Compromise

    • Tunneling

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability
    Explanation
    A system on a network that does not require the use of a common access card or password is considered a vulnerability. This means that there is a weakness or flaw in the system's security measures, making it easier for unauthorized individuals to gain access to sensitive information or resources. Without proper authentication measures in place, the system becomes vulnerable to potential threats and compromises. Tunneling, on the other hand, refers to the process of encapsulating data within a separate protocol to securely transmit it over a network.

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  • 27. 

    What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?

    • Public key cryptography

    • Public key infrastructure (PKI)

    • Key distribution center

    • Asymmetric key infrastructure

    Correct Answer
    A. Public key infrastructure (PKI)
    Explanation
    Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that enables secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between unknown parties. It uses a pair of keys - a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The public key is freely distributed, while the private key is kept confidential. PKI ensures the authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality of data by using digital certificates issued by a trusted Certificate Authority (CA). These certificates verify the identity of the communicating parties and enable secure communication over networks like the internet.

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  • 28. 

    What series of AF instruction series covers communications and information?

    • 10

    • 29

    • 30

    • 33

    Correct Answer
    A. 33
  • 29. 

    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?

    • Local area network (LAN)

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • Multi-server high-speed backbone network

    • Enterprise network

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise network
    Explanation
    An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe. It is designed to support a large organization and provide connectivity, data sharing, and communication between different locations. This type of network typically includes multiple servers and high-speed connections to ensure efficient and reliable communication across the organization.

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  • 30. 

    What air force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

    • AFPD 33-1

    • AFI 33-112

    • AFI 33-115v1

    • AFI 29-2603v2

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 33-115v1
    Explanation
    AFI 33-115v1 is the correct answer because it provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and operating the AF-GIG, ensuring its security, availability, and interoperability. It establishes the roles and responsibilities of personnel involved in the AF-GIG and sets the standards for information technology systems and networks within the Air Force.

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  • 31. 

    What provides info concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?

    • Media access control (MAC)

    • Connection statistics

    • Protocol statistics

    • Mode discovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Connection statistics
    Explanation
    Connection statistics provide information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes. This data allows for monitoring and analysis of network performance, identifying potential bottlenecks or issues with specific nodes or connections. By analyzing connection statistics, network administrators can optimize the network infrastructure and ensure efficient utilization of resources.

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  • 32. 

    What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global info grid system?

    • Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)

    • Interim authorization to operate (IATO)

    • Authorization to operate (ATO)

    • Interim authorization to test (IATT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Authorization to operate (ATO)
    Explanation
    To permanently connect to the global info grid system, the required documentation is an Authorization to Operate (ATO). This means that the individual or organization has been granted official permission to access and utilize the system. The ATO ensures that the entity has met all the necessary security requirements and protocols to ensure the safe and secure operation of the global info grid system.

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  • 33. 

    A base web server that inferfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network?

    • At the core

    • None are allowed

    • Outside the base network

    • De-militarized zone

    Correct Answer
    A. De-militarized zone
    Explanation
    A base web server that interfaces with the public must be placed in a de-militarized zone (DMZ). A DMZ is a separate network segment that acts as a buffer zone between the internal network and the external network (internet). Placing the web server in the DMZ provides an added layer of security by isolating it from the internal network, reducing the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive information. This allows the public to access the web server while minimizing the potential impact of any security breaches.

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  • 34. 

    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

    • Global area network (GAN)

    • Local area network (LAN)

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global area network (GAN)
    Explanation
    A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. This means that it enables communication between networks that are located in different parts of the world. Unlike Local Area Networks (LANs) and Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs) which have limited geographical coverage, a GAN has no geographical limitations. Similarly, a Wide Area Network (WAN) also connects networks over a large geographical area, but it may have certain limitations in terms of coverage compared to a GAN. Therefore, the correct answer is Global Area Network (GAN).

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  • 35. 

    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

    • 01100000

    • 01100110

    • 00001100

    • 10000001

    Correct Answer
    A. 01100000
    Explanation
    The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000. This is because in binary, the number 96 is represented as 01100000.

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  • 36. 

    What is the host id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • 0.0.0.120

    • 0.10.230.0

    • 131.10.230.0

    • 255.255.255.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.0.0.120
    Explanation
    The host id of an IP address is the portion of the IP address that identifies a specific device on a network. In this case, the IP address given is 131.10.230.120 with a subnet mask of /24, which means the first 24 bits are for network identification and the remaining 8 bits are for host identification. Therefore, the host id is the last octet of the IP address, which is 120.

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  • 37. 

    What network dvice performs regorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?

    • Network management software

    • Intrusion detection devices

    • Vulnerability scanners

    • Firewalls

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability scanners
    Explanation
    Vulnerability scanners are network devices that perform rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations. These scanners are designed to scan and analyze systems, networks, and applications for any vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. By identifying these weaknesses, vulnerability scanners help organizations take proactive measures to strengthen their security posture and protect against potential security breaches.

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  • 38. 

    What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code?

    • Token

    • Public Key

    • Private Key

    • Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) certificate

    Correct Answer
    A. Private Key
    Explanation
    A private key is a file that is kept with you and allows you to decrypt files that have been encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code. It is a crucial component of asymmetric encryption, where a pair of keys (public and private) are used for encryption and decryption respectively. The private key is kept secret and should only be accessible to the owner, ensuring the confidentiality and security of the encrypted files.

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  • 39. 

    Which component of the PKI responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?

    • Certificate Policy Manager

    • Registration Authority

    • Certificate Authority

    • Certificate Repository

    Correct Answer
    A. Certificate Authority
    Explanation
    The Certificate Authority is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates in a PKI. It is the trusted entity that issues digital certificates to individuals, organizations, or devices after verifying their identity. The Certificate Authority ensures the integrity and security of the certificates and manages the entire lifecycle of the certificates, including their issuance, renewal, and revocation. It plays a crucial role in establishing trust and enabling secure communication in a PKI environment.

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  • 40. 

    What is the network id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • 0.0.0.120

    • 0.10.230.0

    • 131.10.230.0

    • 255.255.255.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 131.10.230.0
    Explanation
    The network ID of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to zero. In this case, the given IP address is 131.10.230.120/24, which means the first 24 bits represent the network address and the remaining 8 bits represent the host address. By setting the host bits to zero, we get the network ID as 131.10.230.0.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?

    • Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed

    • Centralized, hybrid, and distributed

    • Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid

    • Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed
    Explanation
    The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all network management functions are handled by a central entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, network management functions are divided into different levels or tiers, with each level responsible for a specific set of tasks. In a distributed architecture, network management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for greater scalability and fault tolerance.

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  • 42. 

    What is the process of physically damaging the media to render is unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?

    • Destroying

    • Degaussing

    • Sanitizing

    • Overwriting

    Correct Answer
    A. Destroying
    Explanation
    Destroying is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods. This can involve methods such as shredding, incineration, crushing, or any other means that physically destroys the media beyond repair. By destroying the media, all data stored on it is effectively eliminated, ensuring that it cannot be recovered or accessed.

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  • 43. 

    What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file?

    • Virus

    • Trojan Horse

    • Worm

    • Bot

    Correct Answer
    A. Worm
    Explanation
    A worm is a type of malicious logic that can become active on an information system without infecting a file. Unlike viruses, which need to attach themselves to files to spread, worms are standalone programs that can replicate and spread across a network, exploiting vulnerabilities in operating systems or software. Once a worm infects a system, it can create copies of itself and spread to other connected devices, causing damage and disruption. Therefore, a worm is the correct answer as it can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file.

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  • 44. 

    How many bits are typically covered in an IPv6 subnet mask?

    • 24

    • 48

    • 64

    • 128

    Correct Answer
    A. 64
    Explanation
    An IPv6 subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. The subnet mask is used to determine the network portion of an IP address. In IPv6, the address is 128 bits long and the first 64 bits represent the network prefix, while the remaining 64 bits are used for the interface identifier. Therefore, a subnet mask of 64 bits means that the entire address is used for the network portion, leaving no bits for the interface identifier.

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  • 45. 

    Which function of performance mangement tracks historical data by tracking activites on the network?

    • Tuning

    • Analyzing

    • Gathering

    • Monitoring

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring
    Explanation
    Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves the tracking of historical data by monitoring activities on the network. This function allows organizations to gather information about network performance, identify any issues or anomalies, and make informed decisions based on the historical data collected. It helps in detecting any potential problems, ensuring network security, and optimizing network performance.

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  • 46. 

    What operational SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of info with minimal overhead?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Trap

    • GetNext

    Correct Answer
    A. GetNext
    Explanation
    The correct answer is GetNext. The GetNext operation in SNMP is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. It allows the SNMP manager to request the next available variable in the MIB (Management Information Base) tree, thus efficiently retrieving a sequence of variables without the need for separate requests. This reduces network traffic and improves efficiency in retrieving multiple pieces of information from a network device.

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  • 47. 

    What color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events?

    • Blue

    • Orange

    • Purple

    • Yellow

    Correct Answer
    A. Purple
    Explanation
    Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events.

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  • 48. 

    What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?

    • Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)

    • Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR)

    • Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP)

    • Accreditation Process (DIACAP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR)
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Information Technology Data Repository (EITDR) is the correct answer because it is a database of record for registering all systems and applications. It serves as a centralized repository where information about various IT systems and applications is stored. This database helps in maintaining security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability of the systems and applications. It ensures that all necessary information is readily available and accessible for managing and maintaining the IT infrastructure effectively.

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  • 49. 

    What do you call a current and percieved capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service?

    • Vulnerability

    • Threat

    • Compromise

    • Tunneling

    Correct Answer
    A. Threat
    Explanation
    A threat refers to a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack that is directed towards causing denial of service. It represents a potential danger or harm that could compromise the security or functioning of a system or network. A threat can come from various sources such as hackers, malware, or even internal employees with malicious intent. It is important to identify and mitigate threats to ensure the protection and integrity of the system or network.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 16, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 02, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Wuxbustah8

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