3d052 CDC Vol 1

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3d052 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    A computer network requires at least two computers to be connected in order to function. This is because a network is a collection of interconnected devices that can communicate and share resources with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to and interact with, thus making a network impossible. Therefore, the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is two.

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  • 2. 

    What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized peronnel called?

    • A.

      Homogeneous Network

    • B.

      Internetwork

    • C.

      Intranetwork

    • D.

      Local Area Network (LAN)

    Correct Answer
    C. Intranetwork
    Explanation
    An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that allows access only to authorized personnel. It is restricted from external access and is used within a specific organization or company. This network enables secure communication and data sharing among employees or departments, ensuring confidentiality and control over the network resources.

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  • 3. 

    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

    • A.

      Internetwork

    • B.

      Intranetwork

    • C.

      Homogeneous Network

    • D.

      Heterogeneous Network

    Correct Answer
    D. Heterogeneous Network
    Explanation
    A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software components that are not uniform or standardized. This can pose challenges in terms of compatibility and interoperability between different systems. However, it also allows for greater flexibility and choice in selecting the most suitable technologies and solutions for specific needs.

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  • 4. 

    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

    • A.

      Internetwork

    • B.

      Intranetwork

    • C.

      Homogeneous network

    • D.

      Heterogeneous network

    Correct Answer
    C. Homogeneous network
    Explanation
    A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that the network is uniform and consistent, with all devices and software being compatible and able to communicate seamlessly. This type of network is often easier to manage and troubleshoot, as there are fewer compatibility issues and a unified system to work with.

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  • 5. 

    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

    • A.

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B.

      Local are network (LAN)

    • C.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D.

      Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    B. Local are network (LAN)
    Explanation
    A Local Area Network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It is typically limited to a single building or a group of buildings in close proximity. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and other small-scale environments. They allow users to share resources such as files, printers, and internet connections. LANs are characterized by high-speed data transfer rates and low latency, making them ideal for applications that require quick and reliable communication within a limited area.

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  • 6. 

    What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?

    • A.

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B.

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D.

      Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    C. Metropolitan area network (MAN)
    Explanation
    A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of communications network that links a broad geographical region. It covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are typically used to connect multiple LANs within a city or metropolitan area, providing high-speed and reliable communication between different locations. MANs are commonly used by organizations, universities, and government agencies to facilitate data sharing, resource sharing, and collaboration within a specific region.

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  • 7. 

    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

    • A.

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B.

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D.

      Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global area network (GAN)
    Explanation
    A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. This means that it enables communication between networks that are located in different parts of the world. Unlike Local Area Networks (LANs) and Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs) which have limited geographical coverage, a GAN has no geographical limitations. Similarly, a Wide Area Network (WAN) also connects networks over a large geographical area, but it may have certain limitations in terms of coverage compared to a GAN. Therefore, the correct answer is Global Area Network (GAN).

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  • 8. 

    How many users are nomally in a peer to peer network?

    • A.

      2-10

    • B.

      10-50

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-10
    Explanation
    In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are designed for small-scale connections, where each user can directly communicate and share resources with other users without the need for a central server. This smaller range of users allows for efficient and decentralized sharing of files and resources among a small group of individuals.

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  • 9. 

    How many users are in a single server network?

    • A.

      2-10

    • B.

      10-50

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    B. 10-50
    Explanation
    A single server network typically refers to a network setup where only one server is used to provide services and resources to a limited number of users. The range of 10-50 users is considered appropriate for a single server network because it allows for efficient resource allocation and ensures that the server can handle the workload effectively without becoming overloaded. Having too few users may underutilize the server's capabilities, while having too many users may lead to performance issues and decreased efficiency. Therefore, the range of 10-50 users is the most suitable for a single server network.

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  • 10. 

    How many users are in a multi-server network?

    • A.

      2-10

    • B.

      10-50

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    C. 50-250
    Explanation
    In a multi-server network, there are typically a moderate number of users. The range of 50-250 suggests that there could be a significant number of users but not an excessive amount. This range allows for a network that can handle a decent amount of traffic and user activity without becoming overwhelmed. It strikes a balance between having enough users to justify a multi-server setup and not having too many users that it becomes difficult to manage and maintain the network efficiently.

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  • 11. 

    How many users are in a multi server high speed backbone network?

    • A.

      2-10

    • B.

      10-50

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    D. 250-1000
    Explanation
    In a multi-server high-speed backbone network, the number of users can range from 250 to 1000. This means that the network is designed to accommodate a large number of users, making it suitable for organizations or institutions with a significant user base. The network infrastructure and capacity are built to handle the high volume of traffic and provide fast and reliable connectivity to all users.

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  • 12. 

    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?

    • A.

      Local area network (LAN)

    • B.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • C.

      Multi-server high-speed backbone network

    • D.

      Enterprise network

    Correct Answer
    D. Enterprise network
    Explanation
    An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe. It is designed to support a large organization and provide connectivity, data sharing, and communication between different locations. This type of network typically includes multiple servers and high-speed connections to ensure efficient and reliable communication across the organization.

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  • 13. 

    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

    • A.

      Media access control address

    • B.

      Network server name

    • C.

      Subnet mask address

    • D.

      Node seriel number

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control address
    Explanation
    The media access control address is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. It is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) in a device. This address is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to control access to the network media and ensure that data is transmitted to the correct destination.

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  • 14. 

    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a unit of digital information consisting of 8 bits, and it is used to represent an individual byte of data. In the case of the internet protocol, each IP address is made up of 4 octets, with each octet representing a number between 0 and 255. This allows for a total of 4.3 billion unique IP addresses, which is necessary to accommodate the large number of devices connected to the internet.

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  • 15. 

    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

    • A.

      01100000

    • B.

      01100110

    • C.

      00001100

    • D.

      10000001

    Correct Answer
    A. 01100000
    Explanation
    The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000. This is because in binary, the number 96 is represented as 01100000.

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  • 16. 

    What is the network id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • A.

      0.0.0.120

    • B.

      0.10.230.0

    • C.

      131.10.230.0

    • D.

      255.255.255.0

    Correct Answer
    C. 131.10.230.0
    Explanation
    The network ID of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to zero. In this case, the given IP address is 131.10.230.120/24, which means the first 24 bits represent the network address and the remaining 8 bits represent the host address. By setting the host bits to zero, we get the network ID as 131.10.230.0.

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  • 17. 

    What is the host id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • A.

      0.0.0.120

    • B.

      0.10.230.0

    • C.

      131.10.230.0

    • D.

      255.255.255.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.0.0.120
    Explanation
    The host id of an IP address is the portion of the IP address that identifies a specific device on a network. In this case, the IP address given is 131.10.230.120 with a subnet mask of /24, which means the first 24 bits are for network identification and the remaining 8 bits are for host identification. Therefore, the host id is the last octet of the IP address, which is 120.

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  • 18. 

    How many bits are typically covered in an IPv6 subnet mask?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      48

    • C.

      64

    • D.

      128

    Correct Answer
    C. 64
    Explanation
    An IPv6 subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. The subnet mask is used to determine the network portion of an IP address. In IPv6, the address is 128 bits long and the first 64 bits represent the network prefix, while the remaining 64 bits are used for the interface identifier. Therefore, a subnet mask of 64 bits means that the entire address is used for the network portion, leaving no bits for the interface identifier.

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  • 19. 

    What series of AF instruction series covers communications and information?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      29

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      33

    Correct Answer
    D. 33
  • 20. 

    What air force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

    • A.

      AFPD 33-1

    • B.

      AFI 33-112

    • C.

      AFI 33-115v1

    • D.

      AFI 29-2603v2

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 33-115v1
    Explanation
    AFI 33-115v1 is the correct answer because it provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and operating the AF-GIG, ensuring its security, availability, and interoperability. It establishes the roles and responsibilities of personnel involved in the AF-GIG and sets the standards for information technology systems and networks within the Air Force.

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  • 21. 

    According to the air force network structure, what tier is the air force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    According to the air force network structure, the air force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as Tier 1.

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  • 22. 

    What network entitiy provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?

    • A.

      Network control center (NCC)

    • B.

      Network control center-deployable (NCC-D)

    • C.

      Network operations center (NOSC)

    • D.

      Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Network control center (NCC)
    Explanation
    The network control center (NCC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for providing reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. The NCC is typically staffed with trained personnel who monitor and manage the network infrastructure, ensuring that it is operating efficiently and securely. They also provide support and troubleshooting services to customers, ensuring that their network needs are met. The NCC plays a critical role in maintaining the overall network integrity and security for base level customers.

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  • 23. 

    What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

    • A.

      Fault management server

    • B.

      Network management server

    • C.

      Performance management server

    • D.

      Security management server

    Correct Answer
    B. Network management server
    Explanation
    A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It helps in monitoring and controlling network devices, analyzing network performance, and troubleshooting network issues. It provides tools for fault management, performance management, security management, and other network-related tasks.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?

    • A.

      Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed

    • B.

      Centralized, hybrid, and distributed

    • C.

      Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid

    • D.

      Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed
    Explanation
    The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all network management functions are handled by a central entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, network management functions are divided into different levels or tiers, with each level responsible for a specific set of tasks. In a distributed architecture, network management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for greater scalability and fault tolerance.

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  • 25. 

    What network architecture has a network mangement platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network mangement duties?

    • A.

      Centralized

    • B.

      Distributed

    • C.

      Hierarchical

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized
    Explanation
    A centralized network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed from a single location. This architecture allows for easier control and management of the network, as all management tasks are consolidated in one system.

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  • 26. 

    What network architecture use multiple systems for network mangement, with one system acting as a central server and the other working as clients?

    • A.

      Centralized

    • B.

      Hierarchical

    • C.

      Interactive

    • D.

      Proactive

    Correct Answer
    B. Hierarchical
    Explanation
    Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the other working as clients. In this architecture, the central server controls and manages the network, while the clients communicate with the server to access resources and services. This hierarchical structure allows for efficient management and control of the network, as well as easy scalability and expansion.

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  • 27. 

    What level of network mangement activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

    • A.

      Inactive

    • B.

      Interactive

    • C.

      Proactive

    • D.

      Reactive

    Correct Answer
    B. Interactive
    Explanation
    When you are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, you are working at the interactive level of network management activity. This level involves actively engaging with the network and its components to identify and address issues in real-time. It requires hands-on involvement and direct interaction with the network to ensure its smooth functioning and to resolve any problems that may arise.

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  • 28. 

    What level of network mangement activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?

    • A.

      Inactive

    • B.

      Reactive

    • C.

      Interactive

    • D.

      Proactive

    Correct Answer
    D. Proactive
    Explanation
    When the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and gives a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that the network management activity is being conducted at a proactive level. This means that the system is actively monitoring and analyzing potential issues before they occur, allowing for preemptive measures to be taken to prevent or mitigate problems.

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  • 29. 

    Performance mangement can be broke into what two separate functional categories?

    • A.

      Monitoring and analyzing

    • B.

      Monitoring and replacing

    • C.

      Monitoring and tuning

    • D.

      Analyzing and tuning

    Correct Answer
    C. Monitoring and tuning
    Explanation
    Performance management involves monitoring and analyzing the performance of a system or process. However, monitoring alone is not sufficient to ensure optimal performance. Tuning is also necessary to make adjustments and improvements based on the analysis of the monitoring data. Therefore, the correct answer is "Monitoring and tuning" as these two functional categories are essential for effective performance management.

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  • 30. 

    Which function of performance mangement tracks historical data by tracking activites on the network?

    • A.

      Tuning

    • B.

      Analyzing

    • C.

      Gathering

    • D.

      Monitoring

    Correct Answer
    D. Monitoring
    Explanation
    Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves the tracking of historical data by monitoring activities on the network. This function allows organizations to gather information about network performance, identify any issues or anomalies, and make informed decisions based on the historical data collected. It helps in detecting any potential problems, ensuring network security, and optimizing network performance.

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  • 31. 

    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

    • A.

      Configuration

    • B.

      Performance

    • C.

      Accounting

    • D.

      Security

    Correct Answer
    D. Security
    Explanation
    Security is the correct answer because it is the network management area that deals with controlling access points to information. Security measures are implemented to ensure that only authorized individuals or devices can access sensitive data and resources. This includes setting up authentication mechanisms, encryption protocols, firewalls, and other measures to protect against unauthorized access, data breaches, and cyber attacks. By controlling access points, security helps to safeguard the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information within a network.

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  • 32. 

    What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

    • A.

      Fault parameters

    • B.

      Tolerance parameters

    • C.

      Low-level software alarms

    • D.

      Low-level hardware alarms

    Correct Answer
    B. Tolerance parameters
    Explanation
    Tolerance parameters are used to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors caused by a fault. These parameters define the acceptable limits or range of errors that can be tolerated before considering them as abnormal or faulty. By setting specific tolerance parameters, it becomes easier to identify and differentiate between normal errors and those that indicate a fault in the system or process.

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  • 33. 

    Network mangement protocols are designed(in most cases) to reside above what layer of the OSI model?

    • A.

      Session

    • B.

      Transport

    • C.

      Presentation

    • D.

      Application

    Correct Answer
    A. Session
    Explanation
    Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between two communicating devices. Network management protocols, on the other hand, are used to monitor and control network devices and services. They operate at a higher layer, typically the Application layer, to provide a standardized way of managing network resources. Therefore, they are designed to reside above the Session layer.

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  • 34. 

    What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network mangement information available from network devices?

    • A.

      Object identifier

    • B.

      Network device map

    • C.

      Network protocol list

    • D.

      Management information base

    Correct Answer
    D. Management information base
    Explanation
    A hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices is called a Management Information Base (MIB). MIBs are used to manage and monitor network devices by providing a standardized way to organize and access information about the device's configuration, performance, and status. They define the structure and attributes of managed objects, allowing network administrators to retrieve and manipulate data from network devices using network management protocols like SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol).

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  • 35. 

    What area of the simple network mangement protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?

    • A.

      Management

    • B.

      Private

    • C.

      Directory

    • D.

      Experimental

    Correct Answer
    B. Private
    Explanation
    The area of the SNMP tree structure that is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment is the "Private" area. This area allows vendors to define their own unique labels and leaf objects for their equipment, ensuring interoperability and customization within the SNMP framework.

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  • 36. 

    What SNMP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system?

    • A.

      Primary domain controller (PDC)

    • B.

      Backup domain controller

    • C.

      Manager

    • D.

      Agent

    Correct Answer
    D. Agent
    Explanation
    The SNMP agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. It acts as an intermediary between the management system and the managed devices. The agent collects data from various devices on the network and sends it to the management system for analysis and reporting. It plays a crucial role in providing real-time information about the network devices and their performance to the management system.

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  • 37. 

    What operational SNMP message asks for a specific instance of management information?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      Getnext

    Correct Answer
    A. Get
    Explanation
    The operational SNMP message that asks for a specific instance of management information is the "Get" message. This message is used to request the value of one or more specific objects in the SNMP agent's MIB (Management Information Base). By sending a "Get" message, the SNMP manager can retrieve the current value of a specific variable or object from the SNMP agent.

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  • 38. 

    What operational SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of info with minimal overhead?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      GetNext

    Correct Answer
    D. GetNext
    Explanation
    The correct answer is GetNext. The GetNext operation in SNMP is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. It allows the SNMP manager to request the next available variable in the MIB (Management Information Base) tree, thus efficiently retrieving a sequence of variables without the need for separate requests. This reduces network traffic and improves efficiency in retrieving multiple pieces of information from a network device.

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  • 39. 

    What operational SNMP message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management info?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      GetNext

    Correct Answer
    B. Set
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Set". In SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), the Set message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the manager to send new values to the agent for specific variables, enabling the manager to change or update the configuration or behavior of the network devices being managed. The Set message is an important part of SNMP's functionality for remote management and monitoring of network devices.

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  • 40. 

    What operational SNMP message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      GetNext

    Correct Answer
    C. Trap
    Explanation
    A trap is an unsolicited message from an SNMP agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred on the network device being monitored. Traps are sent by the agent without any request from the manager, making them unsolicited. Traps are commonly used to alert the manager about critical events such as system failures, high CPU usage, or network congestion.

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  • 41. 

    What is the type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity info using proprietary topology management info bases (MIB)?

    • A.

      Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.

    • B.

      Neighbor probe

    • C.

      Containment probe

    • D.

      System information probe

    Correct Answer
    B. Neighbor probe
    Explanation
    A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). This probe is specifically designed to gather data about neighboring devices in a network, such as their IP addresses, MAC addresses, and other relevant information. By collecting this data, the neighbor probe helps in understanding the connectivity between devices and identifying any potential issues or bottlenecks in the network.

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  • 42. 

    What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?

    • A.

      Broker

    • B.

      Clients

    • C.

      Map console

    • D.

      Domain Manager

    Correct Answer
    D. Domain Manager
    Explanation
    A Domain Manager is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application. The Domain Manager is responsible for managing and monitoring the various components and resources within the system. It acts as a central hub for collecting and analyzing data from different sources, generating reports, and providing insights into the overall system performance. The Domain Manager plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the SMARTS application and helps in identifying and resolving any issues or bottlenecks.

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  • 43. 

    What component of the SMARTS application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

    • A.

      Broker

    • B.

      Clients

    • C.

      Map console

    • D.

      Domain Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Broker
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Broker". In the SMARTS application, the Broker component contains knowledge of available domain managers. The Broker acts as a middleman between the clients and domain managers, allowing clients to access and utilize the domain managers' capabilities. It keeps track of the available domain managers and their functionalities, making it easier for clients to connect and interact with them.

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  • 44. 

    What are the 3 types of SMARTS notifications?

    • A.

      Compound events, alarm, and trend

    • B.

      Compound events, problems, and network

    • C.

      Auto-discovery, compund, and symptomatic events

    • D.

      Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events

    Correct Answer
    D. Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events. This answer is correct because it accurately identifies the three types of SMARTS notifications. Compound events refer to events that are made up of multiple underlying events or conditions. Problems refer to issues or incidents that require attention or resolution. Symptomatic events refer to events that indicate potential problems or issues in the system.

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  • 45. 

    What color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events?

    • A.

      Blue

    • B.

      Orange

    • C.

      Purple

    • D.

      Yellow

    Correct Answer
    C. Purple
    Explanation
    Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events.

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  • 46. 

    How many different categories of infomation does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      14

    • C.

      19

    • D.

      21

    Correct Answer
    D. 21
    Explanation
    The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network. This means that you can access a wide range of data and statistics regarding your network's performance, allowing you to analyze and troubleshoot any issues effectively. Having access to such a comprehensive set of information enables you to make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to optimize your network's performance and ensure its smooth operation.

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  • 47. 

    What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?

    • A.

      Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)

    • B.

      Protocol analyzer

    • C.

      Network root router

    • D.

      Windows advanced server

    Correct Answer
    B. Protocol analyzer
    Explanation
    A protocol analyzer is a device that provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software. It is used to capture, analyze, and interpret network traffic to identify issues and troubleshoot problems in a network. By examining the packets of data transmitted over a network, a protocol analyzer can provide valuable insights into network performance, identify bottlenecks, and help in the development of communication software by analyzing the protocols used in the network communication.

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  • 48. 

    What provides info concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocl?

    • A.

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics

    • B.

      Connection statistics

    • C.

      Protocol statistics

    • D.

      Node discovery

    Correct Answer
    C. Protocol statistics
    Explanation
    Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This data helps in analyzing the performance and efficiency of the protocol, identifying any issues or errors, and making necessary adjustments or improvements. By monitoring protocol statistics, network administrators can ensure smooth and reliable communication within the network.

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  • 49. 

    What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

    • A.

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics

    • B.

      Connection statistics

    • C.

      Protocol statistics

    • D.

      Node discovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics
    Explanation
    Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer, such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. These statistics provide information about the performance and integrity of the MAC layer, which is responsible for controlling access to the physical transmission medium. By monitoring MAC node statistics, network administrators can identify and troubleshoot issues related to the physical layer, ensuring reliable and efficient data transmission.

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  • 50. 

    What automatically runs in the background when the protocol anaylyzer application is activated?

    • A.

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B.

      Connection statistics

    • C.

      Procotol statistics

    • D.

      Node discovery

    Correct Answer
    D. Node discovery
    Explanation
    When the protocol analyzer application is activated, node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery is a process that allows the protocol analyzer to identify and map all the network devices connected to the network. It helps in creating a comprehensive network topology and provides information about the devices' IP addresses, MAC addresses, and other relevant details. This information is crucial for analyzing network traffic and troubleshooting any issues that may arise.

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