3d052 CDC Vol 1

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1. What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

Explanation

A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that the network is uniform and consistent, with all devices and software being compatible and able to communicate seamlessly. This type of network is often easier to manage and troubleshoot, as there are fewer compatibility issues and a unified system to work with.

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About This Quiz
Computer Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz, titled '3D052 CDC Vol 1', assesses foundational knowledge in computer networking. It covers network types, configurations, and specific terminologies essential for understanding local and broader network... see moresetups. Suitable for beginners aiming to grasp basic networking concepts. see less

2. What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

Explanation

A computer network requires at least two computers to be connected in order to function. This is because a network is a collection of interconnected devices that can communicate and share resources with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to and interact with, thus making a network impossible. Therefore, the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is two.

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3. How many users are in a single server network?

Explanation

A single server network typically refers to a network setup where only one server is used to provide services and resources to a limited number of users. The range of 10-50 users is considered appropriate for a single server network because it allows for efficient resource allocation and ensures that the server can handle the workload effectively without becoming overloaded. Having too few users may underutilize the server's capabilities, while having too many users may lead to performance issues and decreased efficiency. Therefore, the range of 10-50 users is the most suitable for a single server network.

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4. How many users are in a multi server high speed backbone network?

Explanation

In a multi-server high-speed backbone network, the number of users can range from 250 to 1000. This means that the network is designed to accommodate a large number of users, making it suitable for organizations or institutions with a significant user base. The network infrastructure and capacity are built to handle the high volume of traffic and provide fast and reliable connectivity to all users.

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5. What operational SNMP message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

Explanation

A trap is an unsolicited message from an SNMP agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred on the network device being monitored. Traps are sent by the agent without any request from the manager, making them unsolicited. Traps are commonly used to alert the manager about critical events such as system failures, high CPU usage, or network congestion.

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6. Knowledge based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you?

Explanation

Knowledge based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something they know, such as a password or answer to a security question. This is different from methods that require something the user has, like a fingerprint or a security token. In this case, the correct answer is "Know" because it accurately describes the requirement for the user to provide information from their knowledge in order to authenticate their identity.

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7. What is the primary unclassified PKI token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the air force?

Explanation

The Common Access Card (CAC) is the primary unclassified PKI token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the air force. The CAC is a smart card that contains a microprocessor chip, which securely stores and processes the user's credentials. It serves as a form of identification and authentication for accessing various systems and resources within the air force network. The CAC provides a secure and portable solution for individuals to store and use their PKI keys and certificates.

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8. What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

Explanation

A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software components that are not uniform or standardized. This can pose challenges in terms of compatibility and interoperability between different systems. However, it also allows for greater flexibility and choice in selecting the most suitable technologies and solutions for specific needs.

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9. How many users are nomally in a peer to peer network?

Explanation

In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are designed for small-scale connections, where each user can directly communicate and share resources with other users without the need for a central server. This smaller range of users allows for efficient and decentralized sharing of files and resources among a small group of individuals.

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10. How many users are in a multi-server network?

Explanation

In a multi-server network, there are typically a moderate number of users. The range of 50-250 suggests that there could be a significant number of users but not an excessive amount. This range allows for a network that can handle a decent amount of traffic and user activity without becoming overwhelmed. It strikes a balance between having enough users to justify a multi-server setup and not having too many users that it becomes difficult to manage and maintain the network efficiently.

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11. What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

Explanation

The media access control address is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. It is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) in a device. This address is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to control access to the network media and ensure that data is transmitted to the correct destination.

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12. What are 3 primary ways to authenticate ones self?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Something you know, something you have, or something you are." This answer refers to the three primary ways of authenticating oneself. "Something you know" refers to passwords or PINs that only the individual should know. "Something you have" refers to physical objects like identification cards or security tokens. "Something you are" refers to biometric factors like fingerprints, voiceprints, or retinal scans that are unique to each individual. These three factors provide a layered approach to authentication, increasing security by requiring multiple forms of proof.

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13. What doc signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global info grid?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)". This document signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global info grid. The term "denial of authorization" implies that the system has been explicitly denied permission to operate and connect to the global info grid. This could be due to various reasons such as security concerns, non-compliance with regulations, or other restrictions. The document serves as an official statement that the system is not authorized to operate and connect to the global info grid.

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14. What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized peronnel called?

Explanation

An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that allows access only to authorized personnel. It is restricted from external access and is used within a specific organization or company. This network enables secure communication and data sharing among employees or departments, ensuring confidentiality and control over the network resources.

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15. What network entitiy provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?

Explanation

The network control center (NCC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for providing reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. The NCC is typically staffed with trained personnel who monitor and manage the network infrastructure, ensuring that it is operating efficiently and securely. They also provide support and troubleshooting services to customers, ensuring that their network needs are met. The NCC plays a critical role in maintaining the overall network integrity and security for base level customers.

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16. What network architecture has a network mangement platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network mangement duties?

Explanation

A centralized network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed from a single location. This architecture allows for easier control and management of the network, as all management tasks are consolidated in one system.

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17. What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

Explanation

Security is the correct answer because it is the network management area that deals with controlling access points to information. Security measures are implemented to ensure that only authorized individuals or devices can access sensitive data and resources. This includes setting up authentication mechanisms, encryption protocols, firewalls, and other measures to protect against unauthorized access, data breaches, and cyber attacks. By controlling access points, security helps to safeguard the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information within a network.

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18. What operational SNMP message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management info?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Set". In SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), the Set message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the manager to send new values to the agent for specific variables, enabling the manager to change or update the configuration or behavior of the network devices being managed. The Set message is an important part of SNMP's functionality for remote management and monitoring of network devices.

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19. What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?

Explanation

Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field. This process neutralizes the magnetic fields on the media, effectively erasing any data stored on it. Degaussing is commonly used to sanitize or destroy sensitive information on magnetic storage devices, such as hard drives or tapes, ensuring that the data cannot be recovered.

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20. What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?

Explanation

Degaussing is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media. Degaussing involves using a powerful magnetic field to erase data from magnetic media, such as hard drives or tapes. This method ensures that the data is completely unrecoverable, as it destroys the magnetic patterns that store the information. Overwriting, formatting, and deleting do not completely erase the data and can still leave traces that can potentially be recovered. Therefore, degaussing is the most effective method for sanitizing magnetic media.

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21. What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

Explanation

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It is typically limited to a single building or a group of buildings in close proximity. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and other small-scale environments. They allow users to share resources such as files, printers, and internet connections. LANs are characterized by high-speed data transfer rates and low latency, making them ideal for applications that require quick and reliable communication within a limited area.

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22. How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

Explanation

The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a unit of digital information consisting of 8 bits, and it is used to represent an individual byte of data. In the case of the internet protocol, each IP address is made up of 4 octets, with each octet representing a number between 0 and 255. This allows for a total of 4.3 billion unique IP addresses, which is necessary to accommodate the large number of devices connected to the internet.

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23. According to the air force network structure, what tier is the air force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

Explanation

According to the air force network structure, the air force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as Tier 1.

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24. What network architecture use multiple systems for network mangement, with one system acting as a central server and the other working as clients?

Explanation

Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the other working as clients. In this architecture, the central server controls and manages the network, while the clients communicate with the server to access resources and services. This hierarchical structure allows for efficient management and control of the network, as well as easy scalability and expansion.

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25. What operational SNMP message asks for a specific instance of management information?

Explanation

The operational SNMP message that asks for a specific instance of management information is the "Get" message. This message is used to request the value of one or more specific objects in the SNMP agent's MIB (Management Information Base). By sending a "Get" message, the SNMP manager can retrieve the current value of a specific variable or object from the SNMP agent.

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26. An information system on your network that is not to require the use of a common access card or password would be considered a?

Explanation

A system on a network that does not require the use of a common access card or password is considered a vulnerability. This means that there is a weakness or flaw in the system's security measures, making it easier for unauthorized individuals to gain access to sensitive information or resources. Without proper authentication measures in place, the system becomes vulnerable to potential threats and compromises. Tunneling, on the other hand, refers to the process of encapsulating data within a separate protocol to securely transmit it over a network.

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27. What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?

Explanation

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that enables secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between unknown parties. It uses a pair of keys - a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The public key is freely distributed, while the private key is kept confidential. PKI ensures the authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality of data by using digital certificates issued by a trusted Certificate Authority (CA). These certificates verify the identity of the communicating parties and enable secure communication over networks like the internet.

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28. What series of AF instruction series covers communications and information?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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29. What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?

Explanation

An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe. It is designed to support a large organization and provide connectivity, data sharing, and communication between different locations. This type of network typically includes multiple servers and high-speed connections to ensure efficient and reliable communication across the organization.

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30. What air force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

Explanation

AFI 33-115v1 is the correct answer because it provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and operating the AF-GIG, ensuring its security, availability, and interoperability. It establishes the roles and responsibilities of personnel involved in the AF-GIG and sets the standards for information technology systems and networks within the Air Force.

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31. What provides info concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?

Explanation

Connection statistics provide information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes. This data allows for monitoring and analysis of network performance, identifying potential bottlenecks or issues with specific nodes or connections. By analyzing connection statistics, network administrators can optimize the network infrastructure and ensure efficient utilization of resources.

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32. What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global info grid system?

Explanation

To permanently connect to the global info grid system, the required documentation is an Authorization to Operate (ATO). This means that the individual or organization has been granted official permission to access and utilize the system. The ATO ensures that the entity has met all the necessary security requirements and protocols to ensure the safe and secure operation of the global info grid system.

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33. A base web server that inferfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network?

Explanation

A base web server that interfaces with the public must be placed in a de-militarized zone (DMZ). A DMZ is a separate network segment that acts as a buffer zone between the internal network and the external network (internet). Placing the web server in the DMZ provides an added layer of security by isolating it from the internal network, reducing the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive information. This allows the public to access the web server while minimizing the potential impact of any security breaches.

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34. What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

Explanation

A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. This means that it enables communication between networks that are located in different parts of the world. Unlike Local Area Networks (LANs) and Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs) which have limited geographical coverage, a GAN has no geographical limitations. Similarly, a Wide Area Network (WAN) also connects networks over a large geographical area, but it may have certain limitations in terms of coverage compared to a GAN. Therefore, the correct answer is Global Area Network (GAN).

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35. What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

Explanation

The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000. This is because in binary, the number 96 is represented as 01100000.

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36. What is the host id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?

Explanation

The host id of an IP address is the portion of the IP address that identifies a specific device on a network. In this case, the IP address given is 131.10.230.120 with a subnet mask of /24, which means the first 24 bits are for network identification and the remaining 8 bits are for host identification. Therefore, the host id is the last octet of the IP address, which is 120.

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37. What network dvice performs regorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?

Explanation

Vulnerability scanners are network devices that perform rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations. These scanners are designed to scan and analyze systems, networks, and applications for any vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. By identifying these weaknesses, vulnerability scanners help organizations take proactive measures to strengthen their security posture and protect against potential security breaches.

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38. What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code?

Explanation

A private key is a file that is kept with you and allows you to decrypt files that have been encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code. It is a crucial component of asymmetric encryption, where a pair of keys (public and private) are used for encryption and decryption respectively. The private key is kept secret and should only be accessible to the owner, ensuring the confidentiality and security of the encrypted files.

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39. Which component of the PKI responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?

Explanation

The Certificate Authority is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates in a PKI. It is the trusted entity that issues digital certificates to individuals, organizations, or devices after verifying their identity. The Certificate Authority ensures the integrity and security of the certificates and manages the entire lifecycle of the certificates, including their issuance, renewal, and revocation. It plays a crucial role in establishing trust and enabling secure communication in a PKI environment.

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40. What is the network id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?

Explanation

The network ID of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to zero. In this case, the given IP address is 131.10.230.120/24, which means the first 24 bits represent the network address and the remaining 8 bits represent the host address. By setting the host bits to zero, we get the network ID as 131.10.230.0.

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41. Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?

Explanation

The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all network management functions are handled by a central entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, network management functions are divided into different levels or tiers, with each level responsible for a specific set of tasks. In a distributed architecture, network management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for greater scalability and fault tolerance.

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42. What is the process of physically damaging the media to render is unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?

Explanation

Destroying is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods. This can involve methods such as shredding, incineration, crushing, or any other means that physically destroys the media beyond repair. By destroying the media, all data stored on it is effectively eliminated, ensuring that it cannot be recovered or accessed.

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43. What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file?

Explanation

A worm is a type of malicious logic that can become active on an information system without infecting a file. Unlike viruses, which need to attach themselves to files to spread, worms are standalone programs that can replicate and spread across a network, exploiting vulnerabilities in operating systems or software. Once a worm infects a system, it can create copies of itself and spread to other connected devices, causing damage and disruption. Therefore, a worm is the correct answer as it can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file.

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44. How many bits are typically covered in an IPv6 subnet mask?

Explanation

An IPv6 subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. The subnet mask is used to determine the network portion of an IP address. In IPv6, the address is 128 bits long and the first 64 bits represent the network prefix, while the remaining 64 bits are used for the interface identifier. Therefore, a subnet mask of 64 bits means that the entire address is used for the network portion, leaving no bits for the interface identifier.

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45. Which function of performance mangement tracks historical data by tracking activites on the network?

Explanation

Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves the tracking of historical data by monitoring activities on the network. This function allows organizations to gather information about network performance, identify any issues or anomalies, and make informed decisions based on the historical data collected. It helps in detecting any potential problems, ensuring network security, and optimizing network performance.

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46. What operational SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of info with minimal overhead?

Explanation

The correct answer is GetNext. The GetNext operation in SNMP is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. It allows the SNMP manager to request the next available variable in the MIB (Management Information Base) tree, thus efficiently retrieving a sequence of variables without the need for separate requests. This reduces network traffic and improves efficiency in retrieving multiple pieces of information from a network device.

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47. What color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events?

Explanation

Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events.

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48. What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?

Explanation

The Enterprise Information Technology Data Repository (EITDR) is the correct answer because it is a database of record for registering all systems and applications. It serves as a centralized repository where information about various IT systems and applications is stored. This database helps in maintaining security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability of the systems and applications. It ensures that all necessary information is readily available and accessible for managing and maintaining the IT infrastructure effectively.

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49. What do you call a current and percieved capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service?

Explanation

A threat refers to a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack that is directed towards causing denial of service. It represents a potential danger or harm that could compromise the security or functioning of a system or network. A threat can come from various sources such as hackers, malware, or even internal employees with malicious intent. It is important to identify and mitigate threats to ensure the protection and integrity of the system or network.

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50. Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds how many days?

Explanation

Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds 30 days. This means that if the deployment lasts for more than 30 days, there will be a need for continuous and ongoing communication support. It suggests that after 30 days, the deployment becomes a long-term operation where communication is crucial for maintaining coordination and effectiveness.

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51. What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?

Explanation

An enclave refers to a collection of computing environments that are connected by internal networks and are under the control of a single approval authority and security policy. This means that all the systems within the enclave are managed and governed by the same authority, ensuring consistent security measures and policies are implemented across the entire network. The term "enclave" emphasizes the concept of isolation and control, highlighting the restricted and secure nature of the computing environments within it.

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52. What is the type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity info using proprietary topology management info bases (MIB)?

Explanation

A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). This probe is specifically designed to gather data about neighboring devices in a network, such as their IP addresses, MAC addresses, and other relevant information. By collecting this data, the neighbor probe helps in understanding the connectivity between devices and identifying any potential issues or bottlenecks in the network.

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53. What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain info?

Explanation

Authentication is the measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and their ability to access certain information. It involves confirming the identity of the subject through the use of credentials such as passwords, biometrics, or security tokens. By authenticating individuals, organizations can ensure that only authorized users are granted access to sensitive data or resources, helping to protect against unauthorized access and potential security breaches.

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54. The AF requires a network password to be atleast how many characters long?

Explanation

The AF requires a network password to be at least 9 characters long.

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55. What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

Explanation

Tunneling is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This technique allows the attacker to bypass the firewall and deliver the malicious message to the target system. By disguising the rejected message within another message, the attacker can evade detection and gain unauthorized access to the system.

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56. A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a?

Explanation

A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is known as a virus. Viruses have the ability to self-replicate and spread by attaching their code to other programs or files. Once the infected program or file is executed, the virus can carry out malicious actions, such as corrupting or deleting data, stealing information, or causing system damage. Unlike Trojan Horses, worms, or bots, viruses specifically rely on attaching themselves to other programs to propagate and cause harm.

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57. What program is known as a state of the are ground to ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?

Explanation

The correct answer is Theater deployable communications (TDC). TDC is a program that provides a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure to support the commander and all agencies on a military base. It is designed to offer full spectrum communications capabilities and is deployable in theater, meaning it can be used in various locations and environments. This system ensures that the base has reliable and efficient communications for all its operations and agencies.

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58. Performance mangement can be broke into what two separate functional categories?

Explanation

Performance management involves monitoring and analyzing the performance of a system or process. However, monitoring alone is not sufficient to ensure optimal performance. Tuning is also necessary to make adjustments and improvements based on the analysis of the monitoring data. Therefore, the correct answer is "Monitoring and tuning" as these two functional categories are essential for effective performance management.

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59. Network mangement protocols are designed(in most cases) to reside above what layer of the OSI model?

Explanation

Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between two communicating devices. Network management protocols, on the other hand, are used to monitor and control network devices and services. They operate at a higher layer, typically the Application layer, to provide a standardized way of managing network resources. Therefore, they are designed to reside above the Session layer.

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60. What component of the SMARTS application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Broker". In the SMARTS application, the Broker component contains knowledge of available domain managers. The Broker acts as a middleman between the clients and domain managers, allowing clients to access and utilize the domain managers' capabilities. It keeps track of the available domain managers and their functionalities, making it easier for clients to connect and interact with them.

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61. What is an electronic document that officially links together a users identity with his public key?

Explanation

A Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) certificate is an electronic document that officially links together a user's identity with his public key. This certificate is used in secure communication systems to verify the authenticity of the user's identity and ensure the integrity of the transmitted data. It is an essential component of PKI, which is a system that enables secure communication by using cryptographic keys and certificates.

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62. Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?

Explanation

Diffie and Hellman is exclusively a key establishment protocol. Unlike RSA, ECDSA, and ECDH, which are used for various cryptographic operations such as encryption, digital signatures, and key exchange, Diffie and Hellman algorithm is specifically designed for secure key exchange between two parties over an insecure channel. It allows two parties to establish a shared secret key without ever transmitting the key itself, making it suitable for secure communication.

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63. Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contigency?

Explanation

Sustained communications support teams are responsible for providing uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units during a contingency. These teams ensure that communication systems are operational and maintained, allowing for effective and reliable communication between different units. They play a crucial role in ensuring that essential information is continuously transmitted and received, enabling successful mission execution.

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64. What is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an info system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk?

Explanation

Accreditation is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk. It is a process that ensures that the system meets all the necessary security requirements and is authorized to operate. Accreditation provides assurance that the system is secure and can be trusted to handle sensitive information.

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65. What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

Explanation

Tolerance parameters are used to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors caused by a fault. These parameters define the acceptable limits or range of errors that can be tolerated before considering them as abnormal or faulty. By setting specific tolerance parameters, it becomes easier to identify and differentiate between normal errors and those that indicate a fault in the system or process.

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66. What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a varitety of attacks without an info systems owners knowledge?

Explanation

A bot is a type of malicious logic that can form large networks without the knowledge of the information system owner. These networks, known as botnets, can be used to launch various attacks. Bots are typically designed to perform automated tasks, such as sending spam emails, distributing malware, or conducting distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks. They can infect computers and connect them to a command-and-control server, allowing the attacker to control the botnet remotely. This enables the attacker to carry out attacks without the owner's knowledge, making bots a significant threat to information systems.

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67. What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

Explanation

A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It helps in monitoring and controlling network devices, analyzing network performance, and troubleshooting network issues. It provides tools for fault management, performance management, security management, and other network-related tasks.

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68. What SNMP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system?

Explanation

The SNMP agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. It acts as an intermediary between the management system and the managed devices. The agent collects data from various devices on the network and sends it to the management system for analysis and reporting. It plays a crucial role in providing real-time information about the network devices and their performance to the management system.

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69. What are the 3 types of SMARTS notifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events. This answer is correct because it accurately identifies the three types of SMARTS notifications. Compound events refer to events that are made up of multiple underlying events or conditions. Problems refer to issues or incidents that require attention or resolution. Symptomatic events refer to events that indicate potential problems or issues in the system.

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70. How many different categories of infomation does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

Explanation

The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network. This means that you can access a wide range of data and statistics regarding your network's performance, allowing you to analyze and troubleshoot any issues effectively. Having access to such a comprehensive set of information enables you to make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to optimize your network's performance and ensure its smooth operation.

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71. Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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72. What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?

Explanation

Tunneling and application-based attacks are examples of network attacks that can bypass the firewall. Tunneling involves encapsulating one network protocol within another, allowing unauthorized access to the network. Application-based attacks target vulnerabilities in specific applications or services, exploiting them to gain unauthorized access or cause harm. Both of these attack methods can evade firewall protections and pose significant threats to network security.

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73. What level of network mangement activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?

Explanation

When the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and gives a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that the network management activity is being conducted at a proactive level. This means that the system is actively monitoring and analyzing potential issues before they occur, allowing for preemptive measures to be taken to prevent or mitigate problems.

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74. What area of the simple network mangement protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?

Explanation

The area of the SNMP tree structure that is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment is the "Private" area. This area allows vendors to define their own unique labels and leaf objects for their equipment, ensuring interoperability and customization within the SNMP framework.

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75. Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?

Explanation

The information owner is the individual or entity responsible for the information stored on the storage media. They have the authority to declassify the media after it has been sanitized, as they are the ones who determine the sensitivity and classification of the information. The IAO, DAA, and ISSO may have roles in the security and management of the media, but it is ultimately the information owner who has the final say in declassifying it.

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76. What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks?

Explanation

An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device that is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks. It is designed to detect and respond to unauthorized access attempts or malicious activities on a network or system. IDS works by analyzing network traffic and comparing it to known attack signatures or patterns of suspicious behavior. It provides real-time alerts or notifications to system administrators or security personnel, enabling them to take immediate action to prevent or mitigate potential security breaches.

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77. What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted by the recipient?

Explanation

Public key encryption is a cryptographic method that uses a pair of keys, a public key and a private key. The public key is used to encrypt the message, while the private key is used to decrypt it. Only the recipient possesses the private key, ensuring that only they can decrypt the message. This makes public key encryption a secure way to transmit sensitive information, as it guarantees that only the intended recipient can access the decrypted message.

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78. What regulation covers remanence security?

Explanation

AFSSI 8580 is the correct answer because it is a regulation that specifically covers remanence security. Remanence security refers to the protection of residual data that remains on storage media even after it has been erased or deleted. AFSSI 8580 provides guidelines and procedures for ensuring that remanent data is properly handled and disposed of to prevent unauthorized access or leakage of sensitive information. This regulation is applicable to the U.S. Air Force and is an important aspect of information security within the organization.

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79. What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)". This answer refers to the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system. The other options mentioned, such as EITDR, DITSCAP, and DIACAP, are not directly related to the question and do not describe the list of requirements.

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80. What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop an inappropriate netowork address?

Explanation

Packet filtering is the simplest and least expensive way to stop an inappropriate network address. Packet filtering involves examining the headers of data packets and making decisions about whether to allow or block them based on specific criteria, such as source or destination IP addresses, ports, or protocols. By configuring packet filtering rules on a network device, such as a firewall or router, administrators can effectively prevent traffic from inappropriate network addresses from entering or leaving the network. This method is cost-effective as it does not require additional hardware or specialized software, making it a practical solution for small-scale network security.

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81. The two ways key establishment can occur are key?

Explanation

Key establishment can occur through transfer and agreement. In this process, the key is transferred from one entity to another, and both entities agree on the same key. This ensures that the key is securely exchanged between the entities involved in the communication. By agreeing on the same key, they can establish a secure and encrypted communication channel, allowing them to securely exchange information without the risk of unauthorized access or tampering.

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82. Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities?

Explanation

Initial communications support teams provide a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities. These teams are responsible for establishing and maintaining communication systems and networks in order to facilitate effective communication between different units and support operations in the area. They play a crucial role in ensuring that communication is established quickly and efficiently, enabling forces to coordinate their efforts and carry out their mission effectively.

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83. What automatically runs in the background when the protocol anaylyzer application is activated?

Explanation

When the protocol analyzer application is activated, node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery is a process that allows the protocol analyzer to identify and map all the network devices connected to the network. It helps in creating a comprehensive network topology and provides information about the devices' IP addresses, MAC addresses, and other relevant details. This information is crucial for analyzing network traffic and troubleshooting any issues that may arise.

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84. Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered?

Explanation

Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered "sensitive" because it implies that the data stored on the media can be easily accessed and potentially compromised. Sensitive data is typically protected and requires special security measures to ensure its confidentiality and integrity.

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85. What is the DOD process for certifying and accrediting info systems to operate on the global info grid (GIG)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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86. What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network mangement information available from network devices?

Explanation

A hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices is called a Management Information Base (MIB). MIBs are used to manage and monitor network devices by providing a standardized way to organize and access information about the device's configuration, performance, and status. They define the structure and attributes of managed objects, allowing network administrators to retrieve and manipulate data from network devices using network management protocols like SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol).

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87. How many non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNET) gateways does the af possess?

Explanation

The correct answer is 16. This means that the Air Force possesses 16 non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNET) gateways. NIPRNET gateways are used to connect various networks and systems within the Air Force, allowing for communication and data transfer. Having 16 gateways suggests that the Air Force has a significant infrastructure in place to support its network connectivity needs.

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88. What level of network mangement activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

Explanation

When you are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, you are working at the interactive level of network management activity. This level involves actively engaging with the network and its components to identify and address issues in real-time. It requires hands-on involvement and direct interaction with the network to ensure its smooth functioning and to resolve any problems that may arise.

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89. What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?

Explanation

A bastion host is a type of firewall that is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas. It acts as a gateway between the secure and less secure areas, providing an additional layer of security. The bastion host is typically hardened and heavily secured, making it difficult for unauthorized access. It is designed to withstand attacks and protect the secure areas from potential threats.

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90. What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?

Explanation

Network-connected computer systems with modems that make calls to and accept calls from the public switched network represent one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks. This is because these systems have the potential to introduce external threats into the internal network, such as malware or unauthorized access. Additionally, the use of modems increases the risk of unauthorized access to the internal network through dial-up connections. Therefore, these systems pose a significant security risk to the internal network.

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91. What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?

Explanation

A Domain Manager is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application. The Domain Manager is responsible for managing and monitoring the various components and resources within the system. It acts as a central hub for collecting and analyzing data from different sources, generating reports, and providing insights into the overall system performance. The Domain Manager plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the SMARTS application and helps in identifying and resolving any issues or bottlenecks.

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92. What provides info concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocl?

Explanation

Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This data helps in analyzing the performance and efficiency of the protocol, identifying any issues or errors, and making necessary adjustments or improvements. By monitoring protocol statistics, network administrators can ensure smooth and reliable communication within the network.

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93. Which agency must approve all info protection tools prior to their use?

Explanation

The correct answer is Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF). This agency is responsible for approving all information protection tools before they can be used. The Defense Information System Agency (DISA) is responsible for managing and providing information technology and communications support to the Department of Defense. The Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA) is responsible for providing communication capabilities to the Air Force. The Air Force computer emergency response team (AFCERT) is responsible for responding to and mitigating computer security incidents within the Air Force.

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94. What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

Explanation

Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer, such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. These statistics provide information about the performance and integrity of the MAC layer, which is responsible for controlling access to the physical transmission medium. By monitoring MAC node statistics, network administrators can identify and troubleshoot issues related to the physical layer, ensuring reliable and efficient data transmission.

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95. What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a device that provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software. It is used to capture, analyze, and interpret network traffic to identify issues and troubleshoot problems in a network. By examining the packets of data transmitted over a network, a protocol analyzer can provide valuable insights into network performance, identify bottlenecks, and help in the development of communication software by analyzing the protocols used in the network communication.

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96. What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information int he messages header (a packet): the source address, the destination, and the port?

Explanation

A packet filtering firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that determine whether to accept or reject a message based on information in the message's header. This information includes the source address, destination, and port. The firewall analyzes each packet and compares it against the predefined rules to decide whether to allow or block it. This type of firewall is commonly used to control network traffic by filtering packets based on specific criteria, helping to protect the network from unauthorized access and potential threats.

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97. What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?

Explanation

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of communications network that links a broad geographical region. It covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are typically used to connect multiple LANs within a city or metropolitan area, providing high-speed and reliable communication between different locations. MANs are commonly used by organizations, universities, and government agencies to facilitate data sharing, resource sharing, and collaboration within a specific region.

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98. What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?

Explanation

A bastion host is a type of firewall that generates audit trails of all network related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes. It acts as a fortified gateway between the internal network and the external network, allowing only authorized traffic to pass through. By recording and analyzing all network activity, a bastion host can detect any suspicious or unauthorized behavior, providing valuable information for monitoring and preventing potential intrusions.

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99. What process, along with AFI 33-210, air force certification and accredidation (C&A) program (AFCAP), provides the basic framework of the certification and accredidation?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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100. What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an air force info system to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned info assurance controls based on standardized procedures?

Explanation

Certification refers to the comprehensive evaluation and validation of an air force information system to determine the extent to which it complies with assigned information assurance controls using standardized procedures. It involves a thorough assessment of the system's security measures and controls to ensure that it meets the necessary requirements and standards. Certification is an essential step in the process of ensuring the security and reliability of air force information systems.

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