3d052 CDC Vol 1

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 1783

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3d052 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      10

  • 2. 
    What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized peronnel called?
    • A. 

      Homogeneous Network

    • B. 

      Internetwork

    • C. 

      Intranetwork

    • D. 

      Local Area Network (LAN)

  • 3. 
    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
    • A. 

      Internetwork

    • B. 

      Intranetwork

    • C. 

      Homogeneous Network

    • D. 

      Heterogeneous Network

  • 4. 
    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
    • A. 

      Internetwork

    • B. 

      Intranetwork

    • C. 

      Homogeneous network

    • D. 

      Heterogeneous network

  • 5. 
    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B. 

      Local are network (LAN)

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D. 

      Wide area network (WAN)

  • 6. 
    What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D. 

      Wide area network (WAN)

  • 7. 
    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D. 

      Wide area network (WAN)

  • 8. 
    How many users are nomally in a peer to peer network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1000

  • 9. 
    How many users are in a single server network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1000

  • 10. 
    How many users are in a multi-server network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1000

  • 11. 
    How many users are in a multi server high speed backbone network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1000

  • 12. 
    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN)

    • B. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • C. 

      Multi-server high-speed backbone network

    • D. 

      Enterprise network

  • 13. 
    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
    • A. 

      Media access control address

    • B. 

      Network server name

    • C. 

      Subnet mask address

    • D. 

      Node seriel number

  • 14. 
    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 15. 
    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
    • A. 

      01100000

    • B. 

      01100110

    • C. 

      00001100

    • D. 

      10000001

  • 16. 
    What is the network id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.120

    • B. 

      0.10.230.0

    • C. 

      131.10.230.0

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0

  • 17. 
    What is the host id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.120

    • B. 

      0.10.230.0

    • C. 

      131.10.230.0

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0

  • 18. 
    How many bits are typically covered in an IPv6 subnet mask?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      48

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      128

  • 19. 
    What series of AF instruction series covers communications and information?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      29

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      33

  • 20. 
    What air force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG)?
    • A. 

      AFPD 33-1

    • B. 

      AFI 33-112

    • C. 

      AFI 33-115v1

    • D. 

      AFI 29-2603v2

  • 21. 
    According to the air force network structure, what tier is the air force network operations center (AFNOSC)?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 22. 
    What network entitiy provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?
    • A. 

      Network control center (NCC)

    • B. 

      Network control center-deployable (NCC-D)

    • C. 

      Network operations center (NOSC)

    • D. 

      Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)

  • 23. 
    What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
    • A. 

      Fault management server

    • B. 

      Network management server

    • C. 

      Performance management server

    • D. 

      Security management server

  • 24. 
    Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
    • A. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed

    • B. 

      Centralized, hybrid, and distributed

    • C. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid

    • D. 

      Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed

  • 25. 
    What network architecture has a network mangement platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network mangement duties?
    • A. 

      Centralized

    • B. 

      Distributed

    • C. 

      Hierarchical

    • D. 

      Hybrid

  • 26. 
    What network architecture use multiple systems for network mangement, with one system acting as a central server and the other working as clients?
    • A. 

      Centralized

    • B. 

      Hierarchical

    • C. 

      Interactive

    • D. 

      Proactive

  • 27. 
    What level of network mangement activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
    • A. 

      Inactive

    • B. 

      Interactive

    • C. 

      Proactive

    • D. 

      Reactive

  • 28. 
    What level of network mangement activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?
    • A. 

      Inactive

    • B. 

      Reactive

    • C. 

      Interactive

    • D. 

      Proactive

  • 29. 
    Performance mangement can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
    • A. 

      Monitoring and analyzing

    • B. 

      Monitoring and replacing

    • C. 

      Monitoring and tuning

    • D. 

      Analyzing and tuning

  • 30. 
    Which function of performance mangement tracks historical data by tracking activites on the network?
    • A. 

      Tuning

    • B. 

      Analyzing

    • C. 

      Gathering

    • D. 

      Monitoring

  • 31. 
    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
    • A. 

      Configuration

    • B. 

      Performance

    • C. 

      Accounting

    • D. 

      Security

  • 32. 
    What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
    • A. 

      Fault parameters

    • B. 

      Tolerance parameters

    • C. 

      Low-level software alarms

    • D. 

      Low-level hardware alarms

  • 33. 
    Network mangement protocols are designed(in most cases) to reside above what layer of the OSI model?
    • A. 

      Session

    • B. 

      Transport

    • C. 

      Presentation

    • D. 

      Application

  • 34. 
    What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network mangement information available from network devices?
    • A. 

      Object identifier

    • B. 

      Network device map

    • C. 

      Network protocol list

    • D. 

      Management information base

  • 35. 
    What area of the simple network mangement protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
    • A. 

      Management

    • B. 

      Private

    • C. 

      Directory

    • D. 

      Experimental

  • 36. 
    What SNMP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system?
    • A. 

      Primary domain controller (PDC)

    • B. 

      Backup domain controller

    • C. 

      Manager

    • D. 

      Agent

  • 37. 
    What operational SNMP message asks for a specific instance of management information?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      Getnext

  • 38. 
    What operational SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of info with minimal overhead?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 39. 
    What operational SNMP message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management info?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 40. 
    What operational SNMP message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 41. 
    What is the type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity info using proprietary topology management info bases (MIB)?
    • A. 

      Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.

    • B. 

      Neighbor probe

    • C. 

      Containment probe

    • D. 

      System information probe

  • 42. 
    What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?
    • A. 

      Broker

    • B. 

      Clients

    • C. 

      Map console

    • D. 

      Domain Manager

  • 43. 
    What component of the SMARTS application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
    • A. 

      Broker

    • B. 

      Clients

    • C. 

      Map console

    • D. 

      Domain Manager

  • 44. 
    What are the 3 types of SMARTS notifications?
    • A. 

      Compound events, alarm, and trend

    • B. 

      Compound events, problems, and network

    • C. 

      Auto-discovery, compund, and symptomatic events

    • D. 

      Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events

  • 45. 
    What color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events?
    • A. 

      Blue

    • B. 

      Orange

    • C. 

      Purple

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 46. 
    How many different categories of infomation does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      14

    • C. 

      19

    • D. 

      21

  • 47. 
    What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?
    • A. 

      Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)

    • B. 

      Protocol analyzer

    • C. 

      Network root router

    • D. 

      Windows advanced server

  • 48. 
    What provides info concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocl?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics

    • B. 

      Connection statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics

    • D. 

      Node discovery

  • 49. 
    What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics

    • B. 

      Connection statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics

    • D. 

      Node discovery

  • 50. 
    What automatically runs in the background when the protocol anaylyzer application is activated?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B. 

      Connection statistics

    • C. 

      Procotol statistics

    • D. 

      Node discovery

  • 51. 
    What provides info concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B. 

      Connection statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics

    • D. 

      Mode discovery

  • 52. 
    What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain info?
    • A. 

      Authentication

    • B. 

      Recertification

    • C. 

      Accreditation

    • D. 

      Identification

  • 53. 
    What are 3 primary ways to authenticate ones self?
    • A. 

      Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans

    • B. 

      Passwords, fingerprints, or identification cards

    • C. 

      Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards

    • D. 

      Something you know, something you have, or something you are

  • 54. 
    Knowledge based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you?
    • A. 

      Know

    • B. 

      Have

    • C. 

      Need

    • D. 

      Read

  • 55. 
    The AF requires a network password to be atleast how many characters long?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      9

  • 56. 
    What regulation covers remanence security?
    • A. 

      AFPD 33-2

    • B. 

      AFSSI 8580

    • C. 

      AFSSI 5020

    • D. 

      AFI 33-115v1

  • 57. 
    Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered?
    • A. 

      Classified

    • B. 

      Volatile

    • C. 

      Sensitive

    • D. 

      Sanitizes

  • 58. 
    Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized?
    • A. 

      700

    • B. 

      701

    • C. 

      711

    • D. 

      712

  • 59. 
    Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?
    • A. 

      Information assurnace officer (IAO)

    • B. 

      Designated approval authority (DAA)

    • C. 

      Information system security officer

    • D. 

      Information owner

  • 60. 
    What is the process of physically damaging the media to render is unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?
    • A. 

      Destroying

    • B. 

      Degaussing

    • C. 

      Sanitizing

    • D. 

      Overwriting

  • 61. 
    What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?
    • A. 

      Degausser

    • B. 

      Degaussing

    • C. 

      Destroying

    • D. 

      Sanitizing

  • 62. 
    What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?
    • A. 

      Degaussing

    • B. 

      Overwriting

    • C. 

      Formatting

    • D. 

      Deleting

  • 63. 
    What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an air force info system to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned info assurance controls based on standardized procedures?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP)

    • B. 

      Plan of Action & milestones (POA&M)

    • C. 

      Accreditation

    • D. 

      Certification

  • 64. 
    What is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an info system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP)

    • B. 

      Plan of Action & Milestones (POA&M)

    • C. 

      Accreditation

    • D. 

      Certification

  • 65. 
    What is the DOD process for certifying and accrediting info systems to operate on the global info grid (GIG)?
    • A. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR)

    • B. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)

    • C. 

      Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP)

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP)

  • 66. 
    What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global info grid system?
    • A. 

      Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)

    • B. 

      Interim authorization to operate (IATO)

    • C. 

      Authorization to operate (ATO)

    • D. 

      Interim authorization to test (IATT)

  • 67. 
    What doc signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global info grid?
    • A. 

      Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)

    • B. 

      Interim authorization to operate (IATO)

    • C. 

      Authorization to operate (ATO)

    • D. 

      Interim authorization to test (IATT)

  • 68. 
    What process, along with AFI 33-210, air force certification and accredidation (C&A) program (AFCAP), provides the basic framework of the certification and accredidation?
    • A. 

      Information technology (IT) lean re-engineering

    • B. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR)

    • C. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)

    • D. 

      Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP)

  • 69. 
    What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system?
    • A. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR)

    • B. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)

    • C. 

      Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP)

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP)

  • 70. 
    What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?
    • A. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)

    • B. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR)

    • C. 

      Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP)

    • D. 

      Accreditation Process (DIACAP)

  • 71. 
    What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?
    • A. 

      Enclave

    • B. 

      Bastion

    • C. 

      Circuits

    • D. 

      Base

  • 72. 
    How many non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNET) gateways does the af possess?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      36

  • 73. 
    Which agency must approve all info protection tools prior to their use?
    • A. 

      Defense Information System Agency (DISA)

    • B. 

      Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA)

    • C. 

      Air Force computer emergency response team (AFCERT)

    • D. 

      Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)

  • 74. 
    What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks?
    • A. 

      Intrusion detection system (IDS)

    • B. 

      De-militarized zone (DMZ)

    • C. 

      Vulnerability scanner

    • D. 

      Firewall

  • 75. 
    What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?
    • A. 

      Identification spoofing and tunneling

    • B. 

      Tunneling and application-based attacks

    • C. 

      Second message encryption and identification spoofing

    • D. 

      Application-based attacks and second message encryption

  • 76. 
    What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?
    • A. 

      Tunneling

    • B. 

      Identification Spoofing

    • C. 

      Application-based attacks

    • D. 

      Second message encryption

  • 77. 
    A base web server that inferfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network?
    • A. 

      At the core

    • B. 

      None are allowed

    • C. 

      Outside the base network

    • D. 

      De-militarized zone

  • 78. 
    What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop an inappropriate netowork address?
    • A. 

      Proxy

    • B. 

      Bastion Host

    • C. 

      Packet filtering

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection

  • 79. 
    What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information int he messages header (a packet): the source address, the destination, and the port?
    • A. 

      Proxy

    • B. 

      Bastion host

    • C. 

      Packet filtering

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection

  • 80. 
    What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?
    • A. 

      Proxy

    • B. 

      Bastion Host

    • C. 

      Packet Filtering

    • D. 

      Intrusion Detection

  • 81. 
    What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?
    • A. 

      Intrusion Detection

    • B. 

      Packet filtering

    • C. 

      Bastion host

    • D. 

      Proxy

  • 82. 
    What network dvice performs regorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?
    • A. 

      Network management software

    • B. 

      Intrusion detection devices

    • C. 

      Vulnerability scanners

    • D. 

      Firewalls

  • 83. 
    What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?
    • A. 

      Personnel that continue to misuse the network by surfing the web

    • B. 

      Access to the network through backdoors left by system administrators

    • C. 

      Network-connected desktop systems with modems that make calls to the public switched network

    • D. 

      Network-connected computer systems with modems that make calls to and accept calls from the public switched network

  • 84. 
    What do you call a current and percieved capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service?
    • A. 

      Vulnerability

    • B. 

      Threat

    • C. 

      Compromise

    • D. 

      Tunneling

  • 85. 
    An information system on your network that is not to require the use of a common access card or password would be considered a?
    • A. 

      Threat

    • B. 

      Vulnerability

    • C. 

      Compromise

    • D. 

      Tunneling

  • 86. 
    A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a?
    • A. 

      Virus

    • B. 

      Trojan Horse

    • C. 

      Worm

    • D. 

      Bot

  • 87. 
    What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a varitety of attacks without an info systems owners knowledge?
    • A. 

      Virus

    • B. 

      Trojan Horse

    • C. 

      Worm

    • D. 

      Bot

  • 88. 
    What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file?
    • A. 

      Virus

    • B. 

      Trojan Horse

    • C. 

      Worm

    • D. 

      Bot

  • 89. 
    What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?
    • A. 

      Public key cryptography

    • B. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI)

    • C. 

      Key distribution center

    • D. 

      Asymmetric key infrastructure

  • 90. 
    What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted by the recipient?
    • A. 

      Token

    • B. 

      Public Key

    • C. 

      Private Key

    • D. 

      Public Key infrastructure (PKI) certificate

  • 91. 
    What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code?
    • A. 

      Token

    • B. 

      Public Key

    • C. 

      Private Key

    • D. 

      Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) certificate

  • 92. 
    What is an electronic document that officially links together a users identity with his public key?
    • A. 

      Token

    • B. 

      Public Key

    • C. 

      Private Key

    • D. 

      Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) certificate

  • 93. 
    Which component of the PKI responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?
    • A. 

      Certificate Policy Manager

    • B. 

      Registration Authority

    • C. 

      Certificate Authority

    • D. 

      Certificate Repository

  • 94. 
    The two ways key establishment can occur are key?
    • A. 

      Transfer and agreement

    • B. 

      Transfer and interchange

    • C. 

      Generation and agreement

    • D. 

      Generation and interchange

  • 95. 
    Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?
    • A. 

      Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)

    • B. 

      Diffie and Hellman

    • C. 

      Elliptic curve digital signature algorithm (ECDSA)

    • D. 

      Elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH)

  • 96. 
    What is the primary unclassified PKI token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the air force?
    • A. 

      Hardware Token

    • B. 

      Software Token

    • C. 

      Common Access Card

    • D. 

      Identification (ID) key

  • 97. 
    Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities?
    • A. 

      Open system standards teams

    • B. 

      Combat integrated system teams

    • C. 

      Initial communications support teams

    • D. 

      Sustained communications support teams

  • 98. 
    Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds how many days?
    • A. 

      15 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      45 days

    • D. 

      90 days

  • 99. 
    Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contigency?
    • A. 

      Open systems standards teams

    • B. 

      Combat integrated system teams

    • C. 

      Initial communications support teams

    • D. 

      Sustained communications support teams

  • 100. 
    What program is known as a state of the are ground to ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?
    • A. 

      Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS)

    • B. 

      Combat integrated systems

    • C. 

      Theater deployable communications (TDC)

    • D. 

      Integrated communications access package (ICAP)