Immunity Science Quiz

52 Questions | Total Attempts: 21

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Immunity Science Quiz

In biological terms, immunity is the capability of organisms to defeat harmful microorganisms. In a simpler language, your body's power to defeat an incoming infection is called immunity. The study of the topic is called Immunology. Think you know the science of immunity? Take this quiz and find out


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which one of the following immunoglobulins can form pentameric structure
    • A. 

      IgE

    • B. 

      IgM

    • C. 

      IgA

    • D. 

      IgD

    • E. 

      IgG

  • 2. 
    Which of the following are closed methods of abscess treatment?
    • A. 

      Absecessotomy, drainage by sewing the wound with the primary suture

    • B. 

      Ultrasound- guided puncture and drainage

    • C. 

      Warming compresses + puncture

    • D. 

      CT guided drainage

    • E. 

      Antibiotics + regular punctures

    • F. 

      Antibiotics + drainage

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is characteristic of anaphylaxis
    • A. 

      Bleeding from nose is common 

    • B. 

      It typically involves multiple body systems

    • C. 

      Spleen and lymphnodes are enlarged in almost all cases 

    • D. 

      It is rapid in onset (minutes to few hours)

    • E. 

      Arthralgia or joint swelling is present 

  • 4. 
    Which of the following statements about CD8 CTL is (are) incorrect?
    • A. 

      They cannot kill infected CD4 T cells

    • B. 

      They cause target cell apoptosis 

    • C. 

      They don't need be activated before exerting their cytotoxic function

    • D. 

      They lyse targets by synthesizing perforin and granzymes 

    • E. 

      They interact with their target through paired cell surface molecules 

    • F. 

      Option 6

  • 5. 
    1. The following properties render a substance immunogenic, except: 
    • A. 

      Foreign to the immunized individual

    • B. 

      Chemical complexity

    • C. 

      Being a native molecule 

    • D. 

      Sufficient stability and persistence after infection

    • E. 

      High molecular weight

  • 6. 
    Which statement concerning H1 antihistamines is correct?
    • A. 

      The motor coordination involved in driving an automobile is not affected by the use of first generation H1 antihistamines 

    • B. 

      Second- generation H1 antihistamines are relatively free of adverse effects 

    • C. 

      H1 antihistamines can be used in the treatment of acute anaphylaxis

    • D. 

      All answers are correct 

    • E. 

      Because of the established long term safety of first- generation H1 antihistamines, they are first choise for allergic rhinitis 

  • 7. 
    Which organs have their impressions on visceral surface of spleen?
    • A. 

      Left kidney 

    • B. 

      Liver 

    • C. 

      Stomach

    • D. 

      Colon

    • E. 

      Duodenum

    • F. 

      Right kidney

  • 8. 
    16. What are the main cofactors of anaphylaxis?  
    • A. 

      Exercise

    • B. 

      Emotional stress 

    • C. 

      Air pollution 

    • D. 

      Hyperlipidemia 

    • E. 

      Smoking 

    • F. 

      Option 6

  • 9. 
    18. Converting a toxin to a toxoid 
    • A. 

      Induces only humoral immunity 

    • B. 

      Increases phagocytosis 

    • C. 

      Enhances binding with antitoxin

    • D. 

      Makes the toxin more immunogenic 

    • E. 

      Reduces the toxic activity of the toxin

  • 10. 
    The second pregnancy for a 23-year-old woman appears uncomplicated until ultrasound performed at 19 weeks shows hydrops fetalis. The fetal organ development is consistent for 19 weeks, and no congenital anomalies are noted. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and resulted in the birth of a normal girl at term. The current pregnancy ends with birth of a baby boy at 32 weeks gestation. On examination the baby has marked icterus. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin of 75 g/L, and neonatal exchange transfusion is performed. Which of the following immunological mechanisms best explains this infant’s findings?
    • A. 

      -Loss of self tolerance 

    • B. 

      - Anti-receptor antibody produced by fetus

    • C. 

      -Immune complex formation 

    • D. 

      -Complement mediated cell destruction 

    • E. 

      - Delayed type hypersensitivity 

  • 11. 
    Why facial-area furuncles sometimes are called “malignant
    • A. 

      Due to frequent relapse

    • B. 

      May be malignant 

    • C. 

      May cause blindness due to retinal vascular thrombosis 

    • D. 

      May cause meningitis, sinus cavernous thrombosis 

    • E. 

      Scars disfigure the face

  • 12. 
    . The 32-year-old woman complains that after starting treatment with cyproheptadine, she is very bothered by dry mouth, constipation, and difficulty urinating. In addition, appetite was greatly increased. Which receptor CNS blockade is associated with such side effects of this drugs in this patient?
    • A. 

      Dopaminergic and alpha-1 adrenergic 

    • B. 

      M cholinergic and serotonergic 

    • C. 

      H2 histaminergic and alpha-1 adrenergic 

    • D. 

      Serotonergic and alpha-1 adrenergic

    • E. 

      H2 histaminergic and M cholinergic 

  • 13. 
    30. Which cytokine promotes the differentiation of CD4 T cells into the effector Th1? 
    • A. 

      IL12

    • B. 

      IL-10

    • C. 

      IL-5

    • D. 

      TNF

    • E. 

      IL-4

  • 14. 
     What of the following statements concerning the haptens are correct  
    • A. 

      They can stimulate secondary antibody responses without carriers

    • B. 

      They are substances, usually of low molecular weight 

    • C. 

      They are antigenic and immunogenic 

    • D. 

      Interact with specific antibody only conjugated with high-molecular weight carrier

    • E. 

      They require carrier molecules to be immunogenic 

  • 15. 
      What of the following statements concerning infection agent of tetanus are correct?
    • A. 

      Gram-positive rods that colonize animal and human intestines

    • B. 

      Penetrating trauma provides environment for bacterial growth and releasing of neurotoxin

    • C. 

      Tetanus toxin prevent release of acetylcholine at peripheral cholinergic synapse 

    • D. 

      Spore-forming obligate aerobic bacteria 

    • E. 

      Induce intoxication like botulism, not infection disease 

  • 16. 
    36. MHC class I molecules are important for what of the following?
    • A. 

      Binding to CD8 molecules on T cells 

    • B. 

      Presenting viral peptides to antigen-presenting cells (APC)

    • C. 

      Presenting endogenous antigen to cytotoxic T cells

    • D. 

      Binding to CD4 molecules on T cells 

    • E. 

      Binding to immunoglobulins on B cells 

  • 17. 
    37. Active fragments of C5a can lead to the following, except: 
    • A. 

      Opsonization of cells

    • B. 

      Contraction of smooth muscle

    • C. 

      Attachment of lymphocytes to macrophages

    • D. 

      Vasodialatio

    • E. 

      Attraction of leukocytes

  • 18. 
    An antibody made against the antigen tetanus toxoid (TT) reacts with it even when the TT is denatured by disrupting all disulfide bonds. Another antibody against TT fails to react when TT is similarly denatured. The most likely explanation can be stated as follows:
    • A. 

      The first antibody is specific for the primary amino acid sequence of TT, whereas the second is specific for conformational determinants

    • B. 

      The first antibody is specific for several epitopes expressed by TT

    • C. 

      The second antibody is specific for disulfide bonds

    • D. 

      The first antibody has a higher affinity for TT

    • E. 

      The second antibody has a lower affinity for TT

  • 19. 
     The 15-year-old healthy girl with no major medical problems notes diarrhea within a 20-30 minutes every time she eats seafood. These problems abate within 3 hours, and then physical examination reveals no abnormal findings. Which of the following immunologic abnormalities is she most likely to have?
    • A. 

      Complement activation 

    • B. 

      Cell-mediated hypersensitivity 

    • C. 

      Hypergammaglobulinemia 

    • D. 

      Localized anaphylaxis 

    • E. 

      Immune complex deposition 

  • 20. 
     Twenty hours after going on a hike through dense foliage, 40-year-old man notices a slightly raised and tender irregular reddish rash on one forearm that was not covered by clothing. This rash gradually increases in intensity for 2 days and then fades away after two weeks. Which of the following forms of immunologic hypersensitivity is most likely demonstrated in this patient.
    • A. 

      Type III hypersensitivity 

    • B. 

      Type II hypersensitivity 

    • C. 

      Type I hypersensitivity 

    • D. 

      Type IV hypersensitivity

  • 21. 
     Every springtime, a young healthy man is bothered by episodes of nasal congestion accompanied by sneezing and watery eyes. He has no cough. On physical examination he is afebrile. There is welling of his nasal passageways, but no other findings. His conditions improves with use of loratadine. His problems are most likely produced by release of chemical mediators from which of the following cell types?
    • A. 

      CD4+

    • B. 

      Neutrophil

    • C. 

      Macrophage

    • D. 

      NK cell

    • E. 

      Mast cell

  • 22. 
    46. What is the most common cause of Liudwig’s angina?
    • A. 

      Odontogenic infection

    • B. 

      Tongue piering

    • C. 

      Parapharyngeal infection 

    • D. 

      Tongue trauma

    • E. 

      Tongue tumors

  • 23. 
    Macrophages are located in the stroma of reticular cells and reticular fibers and filter the blood in which of the following locations?
    • A. 

      Cortex of the red bone marrow 

    • B. 

      Primary lymphoid nodules of the lymph node 

    • C. 

      Medulla of the lymph node 

    • D. 

      Cortex of thymus 

    • E. 

      Splenic red pulp

    • F. 

      Splenic white pulp 

  • 24. 
    Which of the enzymes creates DNA using RNA
    • A. 

      Intergrase

    • B. 

      Protease

    • C. 

      Reverse transcriptase 

  • 25. 
    52. What is the characteristic for HIV-1?
    • A. 

      Chronic course of the disease 

    • B. 

      Global pandemic

    • C. 

      Higher prevalence in west africa 

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