Biology Quiz: Toughest MCQ! Exam

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1. What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?

Explanation

The term "antiparallel" refers to the opposite orientation or direction of the two strands that make up DNA. In DNA, one strand runs in the 5' to 3' direction, while the other runs in the opposite direction, 3' to 5'. This antiparallel arrangement is important for the complementary base pairing between the strands, where adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine. This arrangement allows for the formation of the double helix structure of DNA and is essential for DNA replication and protein synthesis.

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Biology Quiz: Toughest MCQ! Exam - Quiz

This challenging Biology Quiz focuses on advanced topics such as immunological responses, cell types, and molecular biology processes. It assesses knowledge on macrophage functions, innate immunity, and cellular... see moremechanisms, essential for learners in higher education or specialized biology fields. see less

2. A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with 42 chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following?

Explanation

A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes, so if a diploid cell with 42 chromosomes per cell becomes triploid, it would have three times the number of chromosomes, which is 126. Since each set of chromosomes in the triploid cell contains three chromosomes, there would be 21 sets of 3 chromosomes in total. Therefore, the correct answer is "63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3".

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3. Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?

Explanation

At the conclusion of meiosis I, homologous chromosomes are separated. This is because during meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material through a process called crossing over. Then, the homologous chromosomes are pulled apart and move to opposite poles of the cell. This separation ensures that each daughter cell receives one copy of each homologous chromosome, resulting in genetic diversity and the formation of haploid cells. The other options are incorrect because the chromosome number is reduced by half, sister chromatids are still held together, four daughter cells are formed at the end of meiosis II, and the elongation of sperm cells occurs during spermiogenesis, not meiosis I.

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4. Macrophages circulate in the blood and are attracted by signals from infected tissue and then destroy the pathogen.

Explanation

Macrophages are immune cells that play a crucial role in the body's defense against pathogens. They are able to move freely throughout the bloodstream and are attracted to signals released by infected tissues. Once they reach the infected area, they engulf and destroy the pathogens through a process called phagocytosis. Therefore, the statement that macrophages circulate in the blood and are attracted by signals from infected tissue to destroy the pathogen is true.

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5. Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?

Explanation

Skin pigmentation in humans is an example of polygenic inheritance because it is controlled by multiple genes. The variation in skin color is not determined by a single gene, but rather by the combined effects of several genes. This is why there is a wide range of skin tones observed in human populations.

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6. Which of the following provides an example of epistasis?

Explanation

In rabbits and many other mammals, the genotype cc prevents any fur color from developing. This is an example of epistasis because the presence of the cc genotype overrides the effects of other genes that control fur color. In other words, the presence of the cc genotype masks the expression of other genes related to fur color, resulting in the absence of fur color regardless of the presence of other color-determining genes.

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7. A set of events triggered by signaling molecules released upon injury or infection is

Explanation

The correct answer is the inflammatory response. When the body is injured or infected, signaling molecules are released to initiate a series of events known as the inflammatory response. This response is characterized by increased blood flow, accumulation of immune cells, and release of inflammatory mediators to eliminate the pathogen or repair the damaged tissue. Apoptosis refers to programmed cell death, while humoral immunity is a specific immune response mediated by antibodies.

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8. Activation of B cells needs :

Explanation

The activation of B cells requires both Helper T cells and the presence of pathogen proteins on the surface of the pathogen. Helper T cells play a crucial role in activating B cells by releasing cytokines and providing necessary signals. Pathogen proteins, also known as antigens, bind to B cell receptors, triggering their activation. Therefore, the correct answer is A+B, indicating that both Helper T cells and pathogen proteins are required for B cell activation.

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9. If a cell has completed the first meiotic division and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents?

Explanation

During meiosis I, the cell undergoes DNA replication, resulting in two sister chromatids held together by a centromere. When meiosis I is completed and the cell enters meiosis II, the sister chromatids separate, resulting in two daughter cells. Each daughter cell will have half the amount of DNA as the original cell because the DNA has already replicated during meiosis I. Therefore, the correct answer is that the cell has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.

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10. Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? In DNA from any species, the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine.

Explanation

Erwin Chargaff was responsible for the discovery that in DNA from any species, the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine.

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11. Which of the following is an example of alternation of generations?

Explanation

Alternation of generations refers to a life cycle where an organism alternates between two different multicellular forms, one haploid (gametophyte) and one diploid (sporophyte). In this example, the diploid plant (sporophyte) produces a spore through meiosis, which then develops into a multicellular, haploid pollen grain (gametophyte). This demonstrates the alternating generations of haploid and diploid forms in the life cycle of the plant.

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12. CD4 and CD8 are:

Explanation

CD4 and CD8 are molecules present on the surface of T cells when they interact with (MHC) molecules. These molecules are known as co-receptors and play a crucial role in the immune response. CD4 is primarily found on helper T cells and helps in recognizing antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. CD8 is mainly expressed on cytotoxic T cells and assists in recognizing antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. This interaction between CD4 or CD8 and MHC molecules is essential for T cell activation and the initiation of an immune response against pathogens.

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13. Chromatids are separated from each other.

Explanation

During mitosis, chromatids are separated from each other to form two identical daughter cells. Similarly, during meiosis II, the sister chromatids are also separated to form four haploid daughter cells. Therefore, the correct answer is that the statement is true for both mitosis and meiosis II.

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14. The process X and  the organelle B are (respectively):

Explanation

The process X mentioned in the question refers to endocytosis, which is the process by which cells take in substances from the external environment. The organelle B mentioned in the question is lysosome, which is responsible for breaking down cellular waste and foreign material. Endocytosis involves the formation of a vesicle that contains the substance being taken in, and this vesicle then fuses with a lysosome to break down the contents. Therefore, the correct answer is endocytosis, lysosome.

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15. In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe?

Explanation

Griffith observed that mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form. This suggests that there is a transfer of genetic material between the two strains, leading to the transformation of nonpathogenic cells into pathogenic cells. This experiment provided evidence for the concept of bacterial transformation, which later played a crucial role in understanding the process of genetic transfer and the discovery of DNA as the genetic material.

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16. Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?

Explanation

Based on the information provided, we know that cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in the DNA sample. In DNA, cytosine always pairs with guanine, and thymine always pairs with adenine. Therefore, the percentage of thymine should be equal to the percentage of adenine. Since the information about the percentage of adenine is not given, we cannot determine the exact percentage of thymine. Hence, the answer is "It cannot be determined from the information provided."

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17. Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of the following reasons?

Explanation

In prokaryotes, replication occurs from a single origin of replication, meaning that the entire chromosome is replicated simultaneously. On the other hand, eukaryotes have multiple origins of replication spread throughout their chromosomes, resulting in multiple replication forks and the replication of different sections of the chromosome at the same time. This difference in the number of replication origins is a key distinction between replication in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

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18. In a well-fed human eating a Western diet, the richest source of stored chemical energy in the body is

Explanation

In a well-fed human eating a Western diet, the richest source of stored chemical energy in the body is fat in adipose tissue. Adipose tissue is responsible for storing excess energy in the form of triglycerides, which are made up of fatty acids. These fatty acids can be broken down and used as a source of energy when the body needs it. Glucose in the blood and glycogen in muscle cells are also sources of energy, but they are not as richly stored as fat in adipose tissue. Protein in muscle cells is primarily used for muscle contraction and repair, not as a source of stored energy. Calcium phosphate in bone is not a source of stored chemical energy.

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19. Certain nutrients are considered "essential" in the diets of some animals because

Explanation

Certain nutrients are considered "essential" in the diets of some animals because these animals are not able to synthesize these nutrients. This means that these animals rely on external sources, such as their diet, to obtain these nutrients. These essential nutrients are necessary for various physiological functions in the animals' bodies, and without them, they may experience deficiencies or health issues. Therefore, it is crucial for these animals to consume foods that provide these essential nutrients since they are unable to produce them internally.

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20. How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis?

Explanation

Cells at the completion of meiosis have undergone two rounds of cell division, resulting in the formation of four haploid cells. These cells have half the number of chromosomes compared to cells that have replicated their DNA and are about to begin meiosis. Additionally, during meiosis, DNA is divided equally among the four resulting cells, meaning each cell has only one-fourth of the amount of DNA compared to cells that are about to begin meiosis.

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21. When does the synaptonemal complex disappear?

Explanation

The synaptonemal complex disappears during late prophase of meiosis I. In meiosis, the synaptonemal complex is a protein structure that forms between homologous chromosomes during prophase I. It helps to align the chromosomes and facilitate genetic recombination. However, as meiosis progresses, the synaptonemal complex disassembles, allowing the homologous chromosomes to separate and proceed to metaphase I. Therefore, the correct answer is late prophase of meiosis I.

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22. Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden. Some of the plants produce blue flowers and others pink flowers. This can be best explained by which of the following?

Explanation

The color of hydrangea flowers is influenced by the soil pH. The availability of aluminum ions in acidic soil promotes the production of blue flowers, while alkaline soil inhibits the uptake of aluminum ions, resulting in pink flowers. Therefore, the variation in flower color among hydrangea plants of the same genotype can be best explained by the influence of environmental factors, specifically the soil pH.

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23. T cells of the immune system include:

Explanation

T cells of the immune system include cytotoxic and helper cells. Cytotoxic T cells, also known as CD8+ T cells, are responsible for killing infected cells and tumor cells. They recognize and destroy cells that display foreign antigens on their surface. Helper T cells, also known as CD4+ T cells, play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response. They help activate other immune cells, such as B cells and cytotoxic T cells, and assist in the production of antibodies. Both cytotoxic and helper T cells are essential components of the adaptive immune system.

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24. Which of the following can be determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA?

Explanation

X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA can provide information about the structure of the DNA molecule. By analyzing the diffraction pattern, scientists can determine the diameter of the helix, which refers to the width of the DNA double helix. This can be calculated by measuring the distance between the diffraction spots. The other options listed, such as the rate of replication, sequence of nucleotides, bond angles of the subunits, and frequency of A vs. T nucleotides, cannot be directly determined from X-ray diffraction photographs.

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25. It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in which of the following?

Explanation

The correct answer is the sequence of bases. Watson and Crick realized that the arrangement of the four nitrogenous bases (adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine) along the DNA molecule could encode and carry genetic information. The specific order of these bases forms the genetic code that determines the instructions for building and functioning of organisms. This discovery was crucial in understanding the structure and function of DNA and paved the way for advancements in genetics and molecular biology.

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26. In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found?

Explanation

In DNA, the amount of adenine (A) is always equal to the amount of cytosine (C), and the amount of guanine (G) is always equal to the amount of thymine (T). This is known as Chargaff's rule. Therefore, the correct answer is A + C = G + T, as the total amount of adenine and cytosine will always be equal to the total amount of guanine and thymine in DNA.

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27. Animals that migrate great distances would obtain the greatest energetic benefit of storing chemical energy as

Explanation

Animals that migrate great distances require a high amount of energy to sustain their long journeys. Fats are the most efficient form of storing chemical energy as they provide more than twice the energy per unit compared to carbohydrates or proteins. Additionally, fats are lightweight and can be easily stored in the animal's body, allowing them to carry a large energy reserve without adding excessive weight. This makes fats the ideal choice for animals that need to sustain themselves during long migrations.

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28. A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the following?

Explanation

The statement "Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes" can be concluded from the fact that the organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. In sexually reproducing organisms, gametes are produced through a process called meiosis, which involves the halving of the chromosome number. Therefore, if the organism has 46 chromosomes, its gametes must have half that number, which is 23 chromosomes. This conclusion is not specific to humans, primates, or animals in general, as the chromosome number can vary among different species.

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29. What does each character refer to (A,B,C)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Dicer 2, argon complex protein, single stranded mRNA. This is because Dicer 2 is an enzyme involved in the RNA interference pathway, where it cleaves double stranded RNA into small interfering RNAs (siRNAs). The argon complex protein is a component of the RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC), which is responsible for binding to the siRNAs and guiding them to their target mRNA molecules. Therefore, Dicer 2 and the argon complex protein are both involved in the processing and regulation of RNA molecules. The reference to single stranded mRNA indicates that this is the type of RNA molecule being targeted and regulated by these proteins.

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30. For the successful development of a vaccine to be used  against a pathogen, it is necessary that :

Explanation

For the successful development of a vaccine, it is necessary that the surface antigens of the pathogen stay the same. This is because vaccines work by stimulating the immune system to recognize and target specific antigens on the surface of the pathogen. If the surface antigens of the pathogen change, the vaccine may no longer be effective in providing immunity against the pathogen. Therefore, having stable surface antigens is crucial for the long-term effectiveness of a vaccine.

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31. Which of the following is crucial to activation of the adaptive immune response ?

Explanation

The presentation of MHC-antigen complex on a cell surface is crucial to the activation of the adaptive immune response. This process allows the immune system to recognize foreign antigens and initiate an immune response. MHC molecules bind to antigens and present them on the surface of cells, which can then be recognized by T cells. This recognition triggers the activation of T cells, leading to the production of specific immune responses to eliminate the pathogen.

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32. To maintain adequate nutrition, animals require dietary access to certain amino acids. An amino acid that is referred to as "nonessential" would be best described as one that

Explanation

A nonessential amino acid is one that can be synthesized by the animal's body from other substances, meaning it does not need to be obtained from the diet. This is in contrast to essential amino acids, which cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained from the diet. Therefore, the correct answer is that a nonessential amino acid can be made by the animal's body from other substances.

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33. To adjust blood pressure independently in the capillaries of the gas-exchange surface and in the capillaries of the general body circulation, an organism would need a(n)

Explanation

To adjust blood pressure independently in the capillaries of the gas-exchange surface and in the capillaries of the general body circulation, an organism would need a four-chambered heart. A four-chambered heart separates oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, allowing for more efficient circulation and the ability to control blood pressure in different parts of the body. This type of heart provides a higher level of specialization and control over blood flow, which is necessary for regulating blood pressure in specific areas.

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34. The function of antibodies is to:

Explanation

Antibodies mark specific cells or pathogens for destruction by the immune system. They do this by binding to antigens on the surface of these cells, which then signals the immune system to recognize and eliminate them. This process is an important mechanism in the body's defense against infections and helps to remove harmful cells or pathogens.

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35. How do we describe transformation in bacteria?

Explanation

Transformation in bacteria refers to the process of assimilating external DNA into a bacterial cell. This involves the uptake and incorporation of foreign DNA into the bacterial genome, allowing the bacterium to acquire new genetic traits. This process is important for genetic diversity and adaptation in bacteria.

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36. In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts?

Explanation

Hershey and Chase made use of the fact that DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not. This was a crucial observation because they were investigating whether DNA or protein is the genetic material. By labeling the DNA with radioactive phosphorus and the protein with radioactive sulfur, they were able to track which molecule was being passed on to the next generation of bacteriophages. The fact that the radioactive phosphorus was found in the progeny bacteriophages confirmed that DNA is indeed the genetic material.

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37. The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following?

Explanation

In this scenario, the female primate produces an egg with an extra chromosome (25). This indicates a mistake in the process of meiosis, specifically in either anaphase I or anaphase II. Anaphase is the stage of cell division where chromosomes are separated and pulled towards opposite ends of the cell. If an error occurs during anaphase I or anaphase II, it can result in an unequal distribution of chromosomes, leading to the production of an egg with an extra chromosome.

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38. A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically different.

Explanation

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39. What type of immunity is associated with breast feeding?

Explanation

Passive immunity is the correct answer because breast milk contains antibodies that are passed from the mother to the baby, providing temporary protection against various infections. This type of immunity does not require the baby's immune system to produce its own antibodies, making it passive in nature.

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40. Circulatory systems have the primary benefit of overcoming the shortcomings of

Explanation

The circulatory system has the primary benefit of overcoming the slow rate at which diffusion occurs across cells. Diffusion is a passive process that relies on concentration gradients, and it becomes less efficient over larger distances. By using the circulatory system, cells can receive nutrients and remove waste products more efficiently, as the circulatory system transports substances through the body at a faster rate than diffusion alone.

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41. Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections. Which of the following terms best describes this?

Explanation

Pleiotropy is the best term to describe the symptoms of cystic fibrosis because it refers to a single gene having multiple effects on different organs or systems in the body. In the case of cystic fibrosis, the gene mutation affects various organs such as the lungs, pancreas, and digestive system, leading to a range of symptoms including breathing difficulties and recurrent infections. This demonstrates the concept of pleiotropy, where a mutation in one gene can have multiple effects throughout the body.

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42. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive human disorder in which an individual cannot appropriately metabolize a particular amino acid. The amino acid is not otherwise produced by humans. Therefore, the most efficient and effective treatment is which of the following?

Explanation

The most efficient and effective treatment for Phenylketonuria (PKU) is to regulate the diet of the affected persons to severely limit the uptake of the amino acid. Since the individual cannot appropriately metabolize the amino acid, it is necessary to reduce its intake to prevent its accumulation and related health issues. This can be achieved by carefully controlling the diet and avoiding foods that contain high levels of the amino acid. By doing so, the symptoms and complications of PKU can be minimized, promoting better health and quality of life for the affected individuals.

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43. Hutchinson-Gilford progeria is an exceedingly rare human genetic disorder in which there is very early senility and death, usually from coronary artery disease, at an average age of approximately 13. Patients, who look very old even as children, do not live to reproduce. Which of the following represents the most likely assumption?

Explanation

The most likely assumption is that the disorder may be due to a mutation in a single protein-coding gene. This is because Hutchinson-Gilford progeria is a genetic disorder, and it is often caused by mutations in the LMNA gene, which codes for a protein called lamin A. These mutations lead to the production of an abnormal form of lamin A, which affects the structure and function of the nucleus in cells. Therefore, it is reasonable to assume that a mutation in a single gene could be responsible for this disorder.

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44. An ideal procedure for fetal testing in humans would have which of the following features?

Explanation

The ideal procedure for fetal testing in humans would be the one that can be performed at the earliest time in the pregnancy. This is because early testing allows for early detection of any potential abnormalities or genetic disorders in the fetus, which can then lead to timely interventions or decisions regarding the pregnancy. Early testing also provides more time for parents to prepare emotionally and make informed choices about the future of the pregnancy.

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45. Which pair correctly associates a biochemical process with the appropriate mineral associated with its use in animals?

Explanation

The correct answer is maintenance of bone and calcium. Calcium is an essential mineral for the formation and maintenance of bone structure in animals. It is required for bone growth, remodeling, and repair. Calcium also plays a crucial role in muscle contraction, nerve function, and blood clotting. Therefore, the association between maintenance of bone and calcium is correct.

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46. Which of the following develops the greatest pressure on the blood in the mammalian aorta?

Explanation

During systole of the left ventricle, the heart muscle contracts and pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta, which is the largest artery in the body. This contraction creates a high pressure in the left ventricle, allowing it to push the blood forcefully into the aorta. As a result, the systole of the left ventricle develops the greatest pressure on the blood in the mammalian aorta.

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47. The only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart are the

Explanation

Fishes have a unique circulatory system called single circulation, where blood flows directly from the respiratory organs (gills) to the body tissues without first returning to the heart. This efficient system allows fishes to extract oxygen from water efficiently. Other vertebrates, such as amphibians, birds, mammals, and reptiles, have a double circulation system where blood first returns to the heart before being pumped to the body tissues.

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48. The type of the cell and the name of the regions (x) is :

Explanation

The correct answer is B cell, variable region. B cells are a type of white blood cell that are responsible for producing antibodies. The variable region of a B cell refers to the part of the antibody molecule that is responsible for binding to specific antigens. This region is highly variable, allowing B cells to recognize and bind to a wide range of different antigens.

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49. Gas exchange in the aquatic salamander known as the axolotl is correctly described as

Explanation

The correct answer is "simple diffusion of oxygen into the salamander from the water." This means that oxygen molecules passively move from an area of higher concentration (water) to an area of lower concentration (salamander) without the need for any energy expenditure or specific transport proteins. This process occurs due to the concentration gradient between the oxygen-rich water and the oxygen-poor salamander, allowing oxygen to diffuse across the surfaces of the salamander's skin and gills.

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50. A portal system is

Explanation

A portal system is a vessel or vessels that connect two capillary beds. In the circulatory system, capillary beds are networks of tiny blood vessels where exchange of nutrients, gases, and waste products occurs. The portal system allows blood to flow from one capillary bed to another, bypassing the heart. This is important for efficient circulation and distribution of substances in the body.

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51. Which of the following pairs of mammalian blood vessels has blood that is the least similar in its gas content?

Explanation

The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart, while the jugular vein carries deoxygenated blood from the head and neck back to the heart. Therefore, the blood in these two vessels has the least similar gas content, as the pulmonary vein carries oxygen-rich blood and the jugular vein carries oxygen-poor blood.

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52. How could you best predict the maximum number of alleles for a single gene whose polypeptide product is known?

Explanation

To predict the maximum number of alleles for a single gene whose polypeptide product is known, counting the number of DNA nucleotides that are in the code for the polypeptides would be the most effective approach. This is because the number of nucleotides in the DNA sequence directly determines the number of possible combinations and variations that can occur in the gene. By counting the nucleotides, we can assess the potential for different alleles and genetic variations within the population. The other options mentioned, such as searching for phenotypic variants or measuring mutation rates, may provide valuable information but may not directly correlate with the maximum number of alleles.

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53. After mixing a heat-killed, phosphorescent strain of bacteria with a living nonphosphorescent strain, you discover that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which observations would provide the best evidence that the ability to fluoresce is a heritable trait?

Explanation

The observation that descendants of the living cells are also phosphorescent provides the best evidence that the ability to fluoresce is a heritable trait. This suggests that the genetic material responsible for phosphorescence is being passed on from one generation to the next, indicating that the trait is inherited and not a result of temporary protein or DNA transfer.

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54. A karyotype results from which of the following?

Explanation

A karyotype results from the ordering of human chromosome images. This involves arranging the chromosomes in a specific order based on their size, shape, and other characteristics. By examining the karyotype, geneticists can identify any abnormalities or variations in the number or structure of chromosomes, which can help in diagnosing genetic disorders or conditions.

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55. An obstetrician knows that one of her patients is a pregnant woman whose fetus is at risk for a serious disorder that is detectable biochemically in fetal cells. The obstetrician would most reasonably offer which of the following procedures to her patient?

Explanation

Amniocentesis is a procedure that involves the removal of a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus to analyze the fetal cells for any genetic disorders or abnormalities. In this scenario, the obstetrician knows that the patient's fetus is at risk for a serious disorder that can be detected biochemically in fetal cells. Amniocentesis would be the most reasonable procedure to offer as it allows for the analysis of the fetal cells and can provide valuable information about the health of the fetus.

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56. The frequency of heterozygosity for the sickle-cell anemia allele is unusually high, presumably because this reduces the frequency of malaria. Such a relationship is related to which of the following?

Explanation

The explanation for the correct answer is that Darwin's explanation of natural selection is related to the relationship between the frequency of heterozygosity for the sickle-cell anemia allele and the reduction in the frequency of malaria. Darwin's explanation of natural selection states that individuals with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, leading to an increase in the frequency of those traits in a population over time. In this case, individuals with the sickle-cell anemia allele have an advantage in regions with a high prevalence of malaria, as it provides some resistance to the disease. Therefore, natural selection favors the heterozygous individuals, leading to a higher frequency of heterozygosity for the sickle-cell anemia allele in those regions.

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57. Organisms with a circulating body fluid that is distinct from the fluid that directly surrounds the body's cells are likely to have

Explanation

Organisms that have a circulating body fluid that is distinct from the fluid that directly surrounds the body's cells are likely to have a closed circulatory system. In a closed circulatory system, the circulatory fluid (blood) is contained within vessels and is separate from the interstitial fluid that surrounds the cells. This allows for more efficient transport of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products throughout the organism's body. In contrast, organisms with an open circulatory system have a circulatory fluid (hemolymph) that directly bathes the body's cells, which is less efficient for long-distance transport.

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58. In which of the following organisms does blood flow from the pulmocutaneous circulation to the heart before circulating through the rest of the body?

Explanation

Frogs have a unique circulatory system where blood flows from the pulmocutaneous circulation (the lungs and skin) to the heart before circulating through the rest of the body. This is different from other organisms listed, such as annelids, molluscs, fishes, and insects, where blood flows directly from the heart to the rest of the body.

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59. Circulatory systems in molluscs

Explanation

The correct answer is "are open in species of small-sized molluscs and are closed in species of large-sized molluscs." This is because small-sized molluscs have a simpler circulatory system that relies on the surrounding environment to distribute oxygen and nutrients, while large-sized molluscs require a more complex closed circulatory system to efficiently transport these substances throughout their larger bodies.

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60. Which of the following best describes a karyotype?

Explanation

A karyotype is a display of each of the chromosomes of a single cell. It shows the number, size, and shape of the chromosomes, and can be used to identify any abnormalities or genetic disorders. It provides a visual representation of an individual's genetic makeup and is often used in medical and genetic research.

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61. A scientist discovers a DNA-based test for one allele of a particular gene. This and only this allele, if homozygous, produces an effect that results in death at or about the time of birth. Of the following, which is the best use of this discovery?

Explanation

The best use of the DNA-based test for one allele of a particular gene that causes death at or about the time of birth is to design a test for identifying heterozygous carriers of the allele. This is because individuals who are heterozygous carriers have one copy of the allele and one normal allele, which means they do not exhibit the lethal effect of the homozygous allele. Identifying carriers is important for genetic counseling and family planning, as it allows individuals to make informed decisions about having children and potentially avoiding the birth of affected individuals.

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62. To become bound to hemoglobin for transport in a mammal, atmospheric molecules of oxygen must cross

Explanation

Oxygen molecules must cross five membranes in order to become bound to hemoglobin for transport in a mammal. First, they must cross the cell lining of the lung, then the endothelial cell lining of the pulmonary capillary, and finally enter the red blood cell to bind with hemoglobin. This process ensures that oxygen is properly transported and delivered to the body's tissues.

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63. After several weeks of exercise, a human athlete's resting heart rate is typically lower than before because:

Explanation

After several weeks of exercise, a human athlete's resting heart rate is typically lower than before because the stroke volume has increased. Stroke volume refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each beat. Through regular exercise, the heart becomes stronger and more efficient, allowing it to pump out a larger volume of blood with each contraction. As a result, the heart doesn't need to beat as frequently to meet the body's oxygen demands, leading to a lower resting heart rate.

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64. The immunity which is specialized  for a specific class of pathogen is considered:

Explanation

The correct answer is "innate" because innate immunity refers to the body's natural defense mechanisms that are present from birth and provide a general defense against a wide range of pathogens, regardless of their specific class. It includes physical barriers like skin and mucous membranes, as well as cellular and chemical components such as phagocytes and antimicrobial proteins. Adaptive immunity, on the other hand, is a specific immune response that develops over time in response to exposure to a particular pathogen or antigen.

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65. The circulatory system of bony fishes, rays, and sharks is similar to

Explanation

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66. A significant increase in the amount of interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary beds of a human's lungs will cause

Explanation

An increase in the amount of interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary beds of a human's lungs would create a barrier for oxygen to diffuse from the lungs into the blood. This is because the interstitial fluid would create additional resistance for oxygen molecules to cross, resulting in a decrease in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood.

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67. The fluid that moves around in the circulatory system of a typical arthropod is

Explanation

The correct answer is the interstitial fluid. Arthropods have an open circulatory system where the fluid, called hemolymph, bathes the organs directly. This fluid is not the same as blood plasma or digestive juices. Intracellular fluid refers to the fluid inside cells, while cytosol is the liquid component of the cytoplasm. Interstitial fluid is the fluid that surrounds and bathes the cells in the body, providing them with nutrients and removing waste products.

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68. Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate vitamin?

Explanation

Vitamin A is essential for normal vision because it is a key component of the pigment in the retina called rhodopsin. Rhodopsin is responsible for absorbing light in the retina and initiating the visual process. Without sufficient vitamin A, the production of rhodopsin is impaired, leading to night blindness and other vision problems. Therefore, the pair "normal vision and vitamin A" correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate vitamin.

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69. The fat-soluble vitamins include

Explanation

The correct answer is vitamin A. Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin, meaning it dissolves in fat and can be stored in the body's fatty tissues. It is essential for maintaining healthy vision, immune function, and cell growth. Vitamin B12 and vitamin C are water-soluble vitamins, while iodine and calcium are minerals rather than vitamins.

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70. Most genes have many more than two alleles. However, which of the following is also true?

Explanation

The statement "There may still be only two phenotypes for the trait" is true because even though there can be many alleles for a gene, only two of them may determine the observable characteristics or phenotypes. This is because some alleles may be recessive and not expressed in the presence of a dominant allele. Therefore, despite the presence of multiple alleles, the phenotypes may still be limited to two options.

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Circulatory systems in molluscs
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The immunity which is specialized  for a specific class of...
The circulatory system of bony fishes, rays, and sharks is similar to
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The fluid that moves around in the circulatory system of a typical...
Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the...
The fat-soluble vitamins include
Most genes have many more than two alleles. However, which of the...
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