Clinical Immunology And Serology Quiz

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  • 1/68 Questions

    The exact binding site of an antigen is called its

    • Epitope.
    • Paratope.
    • Valence.
    • Any of the above
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About This Quiz

Get ready to traverse through the complex world of human defense mechanisms with our Clinical Immunology and Serology Quiz. This meticulously crafted quiz is not just a test but an educational odyssey tailored for those passionate about the human body's natural protective systems and the medical techniques used to diagnose various immunological conditions.

As you navigate through our thoughtfully designed questions, you will be called to apply your knowledge of antibodies, antigens, and the intricate dance they perform within the bloodstream. The Clinical Immunology and Serology Quiz will challenge you to recall and apply critical concepts from the immune system's response to pathogens to the laboratory methods that detect and measure immune responses.

Test your mettle, refine your expertise, and perhaps discover a newfound appreciation for the field of Clinical Immunology and Serology with our engaging quiz. Whether you are studying for exams, refreshing your knowledge, or satisfying a curiosity, this quiz is designed to inform and challenge you.

Clinical Immunology And Serology Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity?

    • Natural

    • Acquired

    • Adaptive

    • Auto

    Correct Answer
    A. Natural
    Explanation
    Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia are all natural defense mechanisms of the body. These mechanisms provide a non-specific, innate form of immunity that helps protect the body from pathogens and foreign substances. This type of immunity is known as natural immunity. It is present from birth and does not require prior exposure to specific pathogens.

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  • 3. 

    Graft versus host disease is most commonly associated with which transplant?

    • Bone marrow

    • Corneal

    • Bone matrix

    • Lung

    Correct Answer
    A. Bone marrow
    Explanation
    Graft versus host disease (GVHD) occurs when the transplanted immune cells (graft) attack the recipient's tissues (host). This immune response is most commonly associated with bone marrow transplants. In a bone marrow transplant, the recipient receives new bone marrow, which contains immune cells that can recognize the recipient's tissues as foreign and mount an attack. This can lead to inflammation and damage to various organs and tissues in the recipient's body. GVHD is less commonly associated with other types of transplants such as corneal, bone matrix, or lung transplants.

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  • 4. 

    All of the following are true of IgM except that it

    • Can cross the placenta

    • Fixes complement

    • Has a J chain

    • Is a primary response antibody

    Correct Answer
    A. Can cross the placenta
    Explanation
    IgM is the first antibody produced during an immune response and is considered a primary response antibody. It is a pentamer structure and contains a J chain, which helps stabilize its structure. IgM is also known to fix complement, which is an important part of the immune response. However, IgM cannot cross the placenta, unlike other antibodies such as IgG.

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  • 5. 

    The coating of particulate antigen by antibody and/or complement components that allows them to be more phagocytized readily is called:

    • Immune adherence

    • Complement fixation

    • Opsonization

    • Immune complex formation

    Correct Answer
    A. Opsonization
    Explanation
    Opsonization refers to the process in which antibodies and/or complement components coat a particulate antigen, such as a bacterium or a virus, making it more easily recognized and engulfed by phagocytic cells. This coating enhances the phagocytosis of the antigen by immune cells, such as macrophages and neutrophils. Opsonization plays a crucial role in the immune response against pathogens, as it facilitates the efficient removal of these pathogens from the body.

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  • 6. 

    The most abundant circulating antibody in human plasma is

    • IgG

    • IgM

    • IgD

    • IgE

    • IgA

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG
    Explanation
    IgG is the most abundant circulating antibody in human plasma. It is the main antibody involved in secondary immune responses and provides long-term immunity against pathogens. IgG can cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to the fetus, and it also plays a role in opsonization, neutralization, and activation of complement. IgM is the first antibody produced during an initial immune response, but it is not as abundant as IgG in the circulation. IgD, IgE, and IgA have more specialized roles in the immune system and are not as abundant as IgG in the plasma.

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  • 7. 

    MHC molecules are associated with which of the following?

    • Graft rejection

    • Autoimmune diseases

    • Determining to which agents an individual responds

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    MHC molecules are associated with all of the above options. MHC molecules play a crucial role in the immune system by presenting antigens to T cells. This presentation helps in determining whether a graft will be rejected, as MHC molecules help identify foreign tissues. MHC molecules are also involved in autoimmune diseases, as they can present self-antigens, leading to an immune response against the body's own tissues. Additionally, MHC molecules are responsible for determining which agents an individual responds to, as they present antigens to T cells, initiating an immune response. Therefore, all of the given options are correct.

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  • 8. 

    If cells of an individual are not agglutinated by serum from anyone else, this represents which Lansteiner blood type?

    • Type A

    • Type B

    • Type O

    • Type AB

    Correct Answer
    A. Type O
    Explanation
    If cells of an individual are not agglutinated by serum from anyone else, this indicates that the individual does not have any antigens on their red blood cells. This is characteristic of Type O blood, which is known as the universal donor because it can be safely transfused to individuals with any other blood type.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following are L chains of an antibody molecule?

    • Kappa

    • Gamma

    • Mu

    • Alpha

    Correct Answer
    A. Kappa
    Explanation
    The L chains of an antibody molecule can be either kappa or lambda. In this case, the correct answer is kappa, which is one of the possible L chains of an antibody molecule.

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  • 10. 

    The purpose of serum inactivation is/are

    • To destory the native complement

    • To remove heat labile anti-complementary substances

    • To stabilize the serologic properties of the serum

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Serum inactivation serves multiple purposes. It destroys the native complement, removes heat-labile anti-complementary substances, and stabilizes the serologic properties of the serum. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?

    • Lymph node

    • Spleen

    • Thymus

    • Mucosal associated lymphoid tissue

    Correct Answer
    A. Thymus
    Explanation
    The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ because it is responsible for the development and maturation of T cells, a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response. The thymus is where T cells undergo selection and differentiation, acquiring the ability to recognize and respond to specific antigens. This process is crucial for the proper functioning of the immune system. Lymph nodes, spleen, and mucosal associated lymphoid tissue are secondary lymphoid organs, where immune responses are initiated and carried out.

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  • 12. 

    Cold agglutinnins are classed as

    • IgM

    • IgG

    • IgA

    • IgD

    • IgE

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM
    Explanation
    Cold agglutinins are a type of antibodies that can cause red blood cells to clump together at lower temperatures, typically below body temperature. These antibodies are predominantly IgM, which is the primary antibody produced during the initial immune response to an infection. IgM antibodies are large and pentameric, allowing them to efficiently bind to multiple antigens and initiate the agglutination process. IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE are not typically involved in cold agglutination.

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  • 13. 

    The inflammatory process is characterized by all of the following except

    • Increased blood supply to the area

    • Migration of white blood cells

    • Decreased capillary permeability

    • Appearance of acute phase reactants

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased capillary permeability
    Explanation
    The inflammatory process is characterized by increased blood supply to the area, migration of white blood cells, and the appearance of acute phase reactants. However, decreased capillary permeability is not a characteristic of the inflammatory process.

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  • 14. 

    Inactivation of serum is done by heating at ____ for ____.

    • 56 degrees Celsius, 30 minutes

    • 56 degrees Celsius, 10 minutes

    • 65 degrees Celsius, 20 minutes

    • 65 degrees Celsius, 10 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 56 degrees Celsius, 30 minutes
  • 15. 

    A negative test for VDRL but positive for FTA-ABS correlates with which of the following clinical findings?

    • SLE

    • Early syphilis

    • Biologic false positive reaction

    • IM

    Correct Answer
    A. Early syphilis
    Explanation
    A negative test for VDRL but positive for FTA-ABS suggests early syphilis. The VDRL test is a screening test for syphilis, and a negative result indicates the absence of antibodies against the bacteria that causes syphilis. However, the FTA-ABS test is a confirmatory test that detects specific antibodies produced in response to syphilis infection. A positive result on the FTA-ABS test indicates the presence of these antibodies, confirming the diagnosis of syphilis. Therefore, a negative VDRL and positive FTA-ABS is consistent with early syphilis.

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  • 16. 

    What type of immunity develops during convalescence from an infection?

    • Natural active immunity

    • Natural passive immunity

    • Artificial active immunity

    • Artificial passive immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Natural active immunity
    Explanation
    During convalescence from an infection, the body's immune system develops natural active immunity. This means that the immune system produces its own antibodies to fight off the infection. This type of immunity is long-lasting and provides protection against future infections by the same pathogen.

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  • 17. 

    In an agglutination reaction, if cells are not centrifuged long enough, which of the following might occur?

    • False-negative result

    • False-positive result

    • No effect

    • Slight but can be ignored

    Correct Answer
    A. False-negative result
    Explanation
    If cells are not centrifuged long enough in an agglutination reaction, the false-negative result might occur. This means that the test would incorrectly indicate that the reaction did not occur or that the substance being tested for is not present, even though it actually is.

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  • 18. 

    A graft from a mother to her child would be a/an

    • Xenograft

    • Autograft

    • Allograft

    • Syngeneic graft

    • Heterograft

    Correct Answer
    A. Allograft
    Explanation
    An allograft is a type of graft where the tissue or organ is transferred from one individual to another of the same species, but with different genetic makeup. In this case, the graft is from a mother to her child, indicating that they are genetically different. Therefore, the correct answer is allograft.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following can be attributed to antigen-stimulated T cells?

    • Humoral response

    • Plasma cells

    • Cytokines

    • Antibody

    Correct Answer
    A. Cytokines
    Explanation
    Antigen-stimulated T cells play a crucial role in the immune response by releasing cytokines. Cytokines are small proteins that act as chemical messengers, allowing T cells to communicate with other immune cells. They regulate various immune responses, including inflammation, cell proliferation, and differentiation. Therefore, the presence of cytokines can be attributed to antigen-stimulated T cells. The other options, such as humoral response, plasma cells, and antibodies, are more closely associated with B cells and the production of antibodies.

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  • 20. 

    Metchnikoff first described which of the following?

    • Phagocytosis

    • Variolation

    • Humoral immunity

    • Opsonization

    Correct Answer
    A. Phagocytosis
    Explanation
    Metchnikoff first described phagocytosis.

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  • 21. 

    Who developed the Side Chain Theory of antibody formation?

    • Ehrlich

    • Haurowitz and Breini

    • Jerne and MacFarlane

    • Claman

    Correct Answer
    A. Ehrlich
    Explanation
    Ehrlich developed the Side Chain Theory of antibody formation.

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  • 22. 

    A positive direct Coombs test would occur under which circumstances?

    • Hemolytic disease of the newborn

    • Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

    • Antibodies to drugs that bind to red cells

    • Any of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Any of the above
    Explanation
    A positive direct Coombs test can occur under any of the given circumstances: hemolytic disease of the newborn, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, or antibodies to drugs that bind to red cells. This test is used to detect antibodies or complement proteins that are bound to the surface of red blood cells, which can lead to their destruction. Therefore, if any of these conditions are present, the test would be positive.

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  • 23. 

    Diabetes mellitus can be detected by typing HLA of class

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    HLA typing refers to the process of determining the specific human leukocyte antigen (HLA) alleles present in an individual. HLA class II typing is particularly useful for detecting certain autoimmune diseases, including type 1 diabetes mellitus. This is because certain HLA class II alleles, such as HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR4, are strongly associated with an increased risk of developing type 1 diabetes. Therefore, by typing the HLA class II alleles, it is possible to identify individuals who may be at a higher risk for developing diabetes mellitus.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following statements is correct?

    • Humoral immunity primarily involves B lymphocytes.

    • The variable region of an antibody molecule is responsible for its sensitivity.

    • Complement components are under Class II of HLA molecules.

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Humoral immunity primarily involves B lymphocytes.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Humoral immunity primarily involves B lymphocytes." This statement is correct because humoral immunity refers to the immune response mediated by antibodies, which are produced by B lymphocytes. B lymphocytes are responsible for recognizing antigens and producing specific antibodies to neutralize them. This type of immunity is particularly important in defending against extracellular pathogens and toxins.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following are found on a mature B cell?

    • IgG and IGD

    • IgM and IgD

    • Alpha and beta chains

    • CD3 and CD4

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM and IgD
    Explanation
    IgM and IgD are both types of immunoglobulins (antibodies) that are found on mature B cells. These antibodies play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and binding to specific antigens. The presence of IgM and IgD on B cells allows them to respond to a wide range of pathogens and initiate an immune response. The other options listed (IgG and IGD, alpha and beta chains, CD3 and CD4) are not typically found on mature B cells.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following would cause a false-negative result in DAT?

    • Incubating longer than 5 minutes.

    • Not washing red cells thoroughly.

    • Using EDTA anticoagulated blood.

    • Presence of IgG on red cells.

    Correct Answer
    A. Not washing red cells thoroughly.
    Explanation
    Not washing red cells thoroughly would cause a false-negative result in DAT because the test relies on the detection of antibodies or complement proteins attached to the surface of red blood cells. If the red cells are not properly washed, any antibodies or complement proteins present may not be adequately removed, leading to a false-negative result where the presence of these substances is not detected.

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  • 27. 

    Which represents the main function of IgD?

    • Protection of the mucous membranes

    • Removal of antigens by complement fixation

    • Enhancing the proliferation of B cells

    • Destruction of parasitic worms

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhancing the proliferation of B cells
    Explanation
    IgD plays a role in enhancing the proliferation of B cells. It is a type of antibody that is found on the surface of B cells and helps to activate and stimulate the growth of B cells. This is important for the immune response, as B cells are responsible for producing antibodies to fight off infections. Therefore, the main function of IgD is to support the proliferation and activation of B cells.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following antigens are found on the T cell subset known as "inducers"?

    • CD3

    • CD4

    • CD8

    • CD11

    Correct Answer
    A. CD4
    Explanation
    CD4 antigens are found on the T cell subset known as "inducers". CD4 is a glycoprotein that is expressed on the surface of helper T cells, which play a crucial role in activating and coordinating immune responses. CD4 helper T cells recognize and bind to antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells, initiating the immune response. CD3, CD8, and CD11 are antigens found on other T cell subsets, but not specifically on inducers.

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  • 29. 

    The Classical Pathway of complement activation is specific because

    • Immune complexes activate the pathway.

    • Cobra venom factor, aggregated IgA's , and bacterial LPS activate the pathway.

    • A and B

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Immune complexes activate the pathway.
    Explanation
    The Classical Pathway of complement activation is specific because immune complexes activate the pathway. This means that when antibodies bind to antigens to form immune complexes, it triggers the activation of the Classical Pathway. Other substances such as cobra venom factor, aggregated IgA's, and bacterial LPS can also activate the pathway, but the specific trigger mentioned in the answer is immune complexes.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is true about RPR and VDRL?

    • Serum inactivation is required.

    • These are examples of indirect agglutination tests.

    • Both are classified as TTT.

    • These are non-specific for syphilis.

    Correct Answer
    A. These are non-specific for syphilis.
    Explanation
    RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) and VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) tests are both used to detect antibodies in the blood that are associated with syphilis. However, these tests are not specific for syphilis and can also be positive in other conditions such as autoimmune diseases, certain infections, and pregnancy. Therefore, the statement "These are non-specific for syphilis" is true.

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  • 31. 

    The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed materials and enzymatic granules within a phagocytic cell is called a

    • Phagosome.

    • Vacuole.

    • Lysosome.

    • Phagolysosome.

    Correct Answer
    A. Phagolysosome.
    Explanation
    A phagolysosome is the structure formed by the fusion of engulfed materials and enzymatic granules within a phagocytic cell. This structure combines the functions of a phagosome, which is responsible for engulfing and containing the materials, and a lysosome, which contains enzymes to break down the engulfed materials. Therefore, the correct answer is phagolysosome.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following intradermal neutralization tests is used to diagnose diphtheria?

    • Dick's test

    • Casoni test

    • Bachman test

    • Schick's test

    Correct Answer
    A. Schick's test
    Explanation
    The Schick's test is used to diagnose diphtheria. This test involves injecting a small amount of diphtheria toxin into the skin and observing for a local reaction. If there is no reaction, it indicates that the person is susceptible to diphtheria and may require vaccination.

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  • 33. 

    Vi agglutination is correlated to patients harboring

    • Escherichia coli

    • Proteus spp.

    • Brucella spp.

    • Salmonella typhi

    Correct Answer
    A. Salmonella typhi
    Explanation
    Vi agglutination refers to the clumping of bacteria when exposed to specific antibodies. In this case, Vi agglutination is correlated to patients harboring Salmonella typhi. This means that if a patient shows positive Vi agglutination, it indicates that they are infected with Salmonella typhi bacteria. The other options, Escherichia coli, Proteus spp., and Brucella spp., are not specifically associated with Vi agglutination.

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  • 34. 

    Flagellar antigens are designated

    • "O" antigens

    • "K" antigens

    • "H" antigens

    • "Vi" antigens

    Correct Answer
    A. "H" antigens
    Explanation
    The "H" antigens are a crucial component in the classification and identification of certain bacteria, particularly in the genus Salmonella. These antigens are protein structures that constitute the flagella, which are whip-like appendages protruding from the cell body of bacteria. The flagella play a pivotal role in bacterial motility, allowing the bacteria to navigate through their environment.

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  • 35. 

    All of the following are characteristic of a good immunogen except

    • Internal complexity

    • Large molecular weight

    • The presence of numerous epitopes

    • Found on host cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Found on host cells
    Explanation
    A good immunogen should have internal complexity, a large molecular weight, and the presence of numerous epitopes. However, it should not be found on host cells as this would indicate that the immune system recognizes it as self and would not mount an immune response against it.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is the most commonly used method to detect antibodies in a patient's serum?

    • Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

    • Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)

    • Western Blot

    • Flow Cytometry

    Correct Answer
    A. Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
    Explanation
    ELISA is the most commonly used method to detect antibodies in a patient’s serum. It involves the binding of antibodies to specific antigens and uses enzyme-labeled detection systems to produce a measurable signal. ELISA is widely used for its sensitivity, specificity, and ability to test multiple samples quickly. While PCR and Western Blot are useful in molecular and protein detection, ELISA remains the primary tool for antibody testing.

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  • 37. 

    Agglutination of dyed bacterial cells represents which type of reaction?

    • Direct agglutination

    • Passive agglutination

    • Reverse passive agglutination

    • Agglutination inhibition

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct agglutination
    Explanation
    Agglutination of dyed bacterial cells represents direct agglutination. This type of reaction occurs when antibodies directly bind to antigens on the surface of bacterial cells, causing them to clump together or agglutinate. In this case, the bacterial cells are dyed, making it easier to visualize the agglutination reaction.

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  • 38. 

    In an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion reaction with antigens 1 and 2, if crossed lines result, what does this indicate?

    • Antigens 1 and 2 are identical.

    • Antigen 2 is simpler than antigen 1.

    • Antigen 2 is more complex than antigen 1.

    • The two antigens are unrelated.

    Correct Answer
    A. The two antigens are unrelated.
    Explanation
    In an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion reaction, crossed lines indicate that the two antigens are unrelated. This means that there is no reaction or interaction between the antigens, suggesting that they do not share any common epitopes or similarities. Therefore, the crossed lines indicate that there is no antigen-antibody binding occurring between antigens 1 and 2, indicating that they are unrelated.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not true?

    • A hapten when combined with a carrier can elicit the formation of antibodies.

    • Complete Freund's Adjuvant can stimulate cellular immunity.

    • IgG is the best complement fixing immunoglobulin.

    • Anaphylaxis is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction that causes bronchoconstriction.

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG is the best complement fixing immunoglobulin.
    Explanation
    IgG is not the best complement fixing immunoglobulin. Complement fixation is a process in which antibodies bind to antigens and activate the complement system, leading to the destruction of the target. While IgG can fix complement, IgM is considered the most efficient complement fixing immunoglobulin.

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  • 40. 

    Carcinoembryonic antigen is correlated with

    • Colon cancer

    • Ovarian cancer

    • Prostate cancer

    • Hepatoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Colon cancer
    Explanation
    Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a protein that is often elevated in individuals with colon cancer. It is commonly used as a tumor marker for this type of cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is colon cancer.

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  • 41. 

    How much diluent needs to be added to 0.2mL of serum to make a 1:20 dilution?

    • 19.8 mL

    • 4.0 mL

    • 3.8 mL

    • 10.0 mL

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.8 mL
    Explanation
    To make a 1:20 dilution, the total volume (serum + diluent) must be 20 times the volume of serum. Since you have 0.2 mL of serum, the total volume should be 0.2 mL × 20 = 4.0 mL. To determine how much diluent to add, subtract the serum volume from the total volume: 4.0 mL - 0.2 mL = 3.8 mL. Therefore, the answer is 3.8 mL.

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  • 42. 

    Serologic diagnosis for cryptococcus can be made by testing what specimen/s?

    • Urine

    • CSF

    • Serum

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. CSF
    Explanation
    Serologic diagnosis for cryptococcus can be made by testing CSF. CSF stands for cerebrospinal fluid, which is the fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. Cryptococcus is a type of fungus that can cause infections, particularly in individuals with weakened immune systems. Testing the CSF for cryptococcus can help diagnose an infection and guide appropriate treatment. Other specimens such as urine and serum may also be tested, but CSF is the most specific and reliable specimen for serologic diagnosis of cryptococcus.

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  • 43. 

    Bence Jones proteins are identical

    • H chains

    • IgM molecules

    • L chains

    • IgG molecules

    Correct Answer
    A. L chains
    Explanation
    Bence Jones proteins are monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains, specifically either kappa or lambda chains. They are produced by abnormal plasma cells and are often found in the urine of patients with multiple myeloma. Therefore, the correct answer is L chains.

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  • 44. 

    Positive titer of 1/160 for OX19 Proteus antigen is considered significant in

    • Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

    • Trench fever

    • Rickettsial pox

    • Tsutsugamushi fever

    Correct Answer
    A. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
    Explanation
    A positive titer of 1/160 for OX19 Proteus antigen is considered significant in Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. This indicates that the patient has a high level of antibodies against the OX19 Proteus antigen, which is commonly used in serological tests for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. This suggests that the patient has been exposed to the bacteria that causes the disease and has mounted an immune response. Therefore, this positive titer is indicative of a significant infection with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is characteristic of the endpoint method of RID?

    • Readings are taken before equivalence is reached.

    • Concentration is directly proportional to the square of the diameter.

    • The diameter is plotted against the log of the concentration.

    • It is primarily a qualitative rather than a quantitative method.

    Correct Answer
    A. Concentration is directly proportional to the square of the diameter.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Concentration is directly proportional to the square of the diameter." This means that as the concentration of the substance being measured increases, the diameter of the endpoint also increases, and the relationship between concentration and diameter is a direct proportion. This characteristic is specific to the endpoint method of RID.

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  • 46. 

    a 4% solution of RBC is needed for diagnostic testing in the laboratory. What dilution of packed red blood cells does this represent?

    • 1:25

    • 1:4

    • 1:96

    • 4:1

    Correct Answer
    A. 1:25
    Explanation
    A 4% solution of RBC means that there is 4 grams of RBC in 100 mL of solution. To find the dilution, we need to compare this concentration to the concentration of the packed red blood cells. Since the answer is 1:25, it means that 1 part of packed red blood cells is diluted with 25 parts of solution. This dilution ratio allows for the desired 4% concentration of RBC in the final solution.

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  • 47. 

    All of the following are true of the recognition unit except that

    • It consists of C1q, C1r, and C1s.

    • The subunits require calcium for binding together.

    • It is a part of the Properdin Pathway.

    • C1q activates C4.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a part of the Properdin Pathway.
    Explanation
    The recognition unit consists of C1q, C1r, and C1s, and the subunits require calcium for binding together. C1q activates C4. However, it is not a part of the Properdin Pathway.

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  • 48. 

    IgG is sometimes referred to as an incomplete antibody because

    • It is only active at 25 degrees Celsius.

    • It may be to small to produce lattice formation.

    • It only has one antigen-binding site.

    • It is not able to produce visible in vivo agglutination.

    Correct Answer
    A. It may be to small to produce lattice formation.
    Explanation
    IgG is sometimes referred to as an incomplete antibody because it may be too small to produce lattice formation. Lattice formation refers to the clumping of antigens and antibodies together, which is important for certain immune responses such as agglutination. IgG, being a smaller antibody, may not have enough size or structure to effectively form lattices and clump antigens. This can affect its ability to carry out certain immune functions.

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  • 49. 

    All of the following are true of IgE except that it

    • Fails to fix complement

    • Is heat stable

    • Attaches to tissue mast cells

    • Is found in the serum of allergic persons

    Correct Answer
    A. Is heat stable
    Explanation
    IgE is an antibody primarily involved in responses to allergens and is known for its role in the immune system's allergic responses and in immunity against parasites. IgE binds to allergens and triggers histamine release from mast cells and basophils, thereby contributing to inflammation and other allergic symptoms. Key characteristics of IgE include its ability to attach to tissue mast cells and its presence in the serum of allergic individuals. It also fails to fix complement, which is a system used for enhancing the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells. However, IgE is sensitive to heat and is not heat stable, which is the correct response to the question as it does not maintain its function when exposed to high temperatures.

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Farah Naz |MBBS |
Medical Writer
Farah Naz is a Medical Professional with a Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) from Dow University of Health Sciences. Her academic journey included internships in Radiology, Cardiology, and Neurosurgery. Her contributions to medical research extend to two publications in medical journals, solidifying her position as a promising addition to the field.

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