Review In Clinical Immunology & Serology
Settings
-
+
This examination covers the basics of Immunology and Serology that a Medical Technology student must know. This 70-item exam has a time limit of 60 minutes only. Please enter your name in the required field.
- 1.
- A.
A hapten when combined with a carrier can elicit the formation of antibodies.
- B.
Complete Freund's Adjuvant can stimulate cellular immunity.
- C.
IgG is the best complement fixing immunoglobulin.
- D.
Anaphylaxis is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction that causes bronchoconstriction.
- 2.
- A.
CH1
- B.
CH2
- C.
CH3
- D.
CH4
- 3.
- A.
Natural active immunity
- B.
Natural passive immunity
- C.
Artificial active immunity
- D.
Artificial passive immunity
- 4.
- A.
Immune adherence
- B.
Complement fixation
- C.
Opsonization
- D.
Immune complex formation
- 5.
- A.
The method of complement assay that involves the measurement of precipiting ring diameter after 48 hours is Fahey McKelvey.
- B.
Type I hypersensitivity is known as the "cytotoxic type".
- C.
CD19, CD20, and CD21 are subtypes of B cells.
- D.
The C5 convertase in the Classical Pathway of complement activation is C4b2b3b.
- 6.Which of the following plays an important role as an external defense mechanism?
- A.
Phagocytosis
- B.
CRP
- C.
Lysozyme
- D.
Complement
- 7.
- A.
Graft rejection
- B.
Autoimmune diseases
- C.
Determining to which agents an individual responds
- D.
All of the above
- 8.
- A.
Internal complexity
- B.
Large molecular weight
- C.
The presence of numerous epitopes
- D.
Found on host cells
- 9.
- A.
Readings are taken before equivalence is reached.
- B.
Concentration is directly proportional to the square of the diameter.
- C.
The diameter is plotted against the log of the concentration.
- D.
It is primarily a qualitative rather than a quantitative method.
- 10.
- A.
Direct agglutination
- B.
Passive agglutination
- C.
Reverse passive agglutination
- D.
Agglutination inhibition
- 11.A positive direct Coomb's test would occur under which circumstances?
- A.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
- B.
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- C.
Antibodies to drugs that bind to red cells
- D.
Any of the above
- 12.
- A.
19.8 mL
- B.
4.0 mL
- C.
3.8 mL
- D.
10.0 mL
- 13.All of the following are true of IgM except that it
- A.
Can cross the placenta
- B.
Fixes complement
- C.
Has a J chain
- D.
Is a primary response antibody
- 14.If cells of an individual are not agglutinated by serum from anyone else, this represents which Lansteiner blood type?
- A.
Type A
- B.
Type B
- C.
Type O
- D.
Type AB
- 15.
- A.
Phagocytosis
- B.
Variolation
- C.
Humoral immunity
- D.
Opsonization
- 16.The inflammatory process is characterized by all of the following except
- A.
Increased blood supply to the area
- B.
Migration of white blood cells
- C.
Decreased capillary permeability
- D.
Appearance of acute phase reactants
- 17.
- A.
False-negative result
- B.
False-positive result
- C.
No effect
- D.
Slight but can be ignored
- 18.
- A.
Roswell Park Memorial Institute
- B.
Ficolle medium
- C.
Phosphate buffered saline
- D.
Normal saline solution (0.9% NaCl)
- 19.
- A.
To destory the native complement
- B.
To remove heat labile anti-complementary substances
- C.
To stabilize the serologic properties of the serum
- D.
All of the above
- 20.
- A.
56 degrees Celsius, 30 minutes
- B.
56 degrees Celsius, 10 minutes
- C.
65 degrees Celsius, 20 minutes
- D.
65 degrees Celsius, 10 minutes
- 21.
- A.
Papain
- B.
Pepsin
- C.
Sodium polyanethol
- D.
Dithiothreitol
- 22.Diabetes mellitus can be detected by typing HLA of class
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
- 23.
- A.
Epitope.
- B.
Paratope.
- C.
Valence.
- D.
Any of the above
- 24.
- A.
Serum inactivation is required.
- B.
These are examples of indirect agglutination tests.
- C.
Both are classified as TTT.
- D.
These are non-specific for syphilis.
- 25.
- A.
Natural
- B.
Acquired
- C.
Adaptive
- D.
Auto
- 26.Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
- A.
Lymph node
- B.
Spleen
- C.
Thymus
- D.
Mucosal associated lymphoid tissue
- 27.
- A.
CD3
- B.
CD4
- C.
CD8
- D.
CD11
- 28.
- A.
IgG and IGD
- B.
IgM and IgD
- C.
Alpha and beta chains
- D.
CD3 and CD4
- 29.
- A.
H chains
- B.
IgM molecules
- C.
L chains
- D.
IgG molecules
- 30.
- A.
1:25
- B.
1:4
- C.
1:96
- D.
4:1
- 31.
- A.
Human erythocytes
- B.
Horse erythrocytes
- C.
Sheep erythrocytes
- D.
B and C
- 32.
- A.
It is only active at 25 degrees Celsius.
- B.
It may be to small to produce lattice formation.
- C.
It only has one antigen-binding site.
- D.
It is not able to prodice visible in vivo agglutination.
- 33.
- A.
Cellular antigens are involved.
- B.
Deposition of immune complexes occurs in atibody excess.
- C.
Only heterologous antigens are involved.
- D.
Tissue damage results from exocytosis.
- 34.
- A.
Incubating longer than 5 minutes.
- B.
Not washing red cells thoroughly.
- C.
Using EDTA anticoagulated blood.
- D.
Presence of IgG on red cells.
- 35.Which of the following intradermal neutralization tests is used to diagnose diphtheria?
- A.
Dick's test
- B.
Casoni test
- C.
Bachman test
- D.
Schick's test
- 36.
- A.
Phagolysosome formation
- B.
Exocytosis
- C.
Antigen epitope presentation by HLA
- D.
Lysosome formation
- 37.
- A.
The specimen for Class II HLA typing is pure B cells.
- B.
The specimen for RID C3c assay is inactivated serum.
- C.
Eosin is added to neutrophil-bacterial suspension in the intacellular killing assay.
- D.
In the ABO blood group system, serum typing is an example of an indirect agglutination reaction.
- 38.
- A.
NBT dye is colored yellow-orange when added to inactive neutrophils.
- B.
A green fluorescence seen on a fluorescence microscope after addition of acridine orange represent alive organisms.
- C.
CD4 receptors are responsible for the rosette formation of sheep erythrocytes.
- D.
Proteus organisms are used as antigens for Weil Felix test.
- 39.
- A.
Fails to fix complement
- B.
Is heat stable
- C.
Attaches to tissue mast cells
- D.
Is found in the seurm of allergic persons
- 40.
- A.
Kappa
- B.
Gamma
- C.
Mu
- D.
Alpha
- 41.
- A.
Phagosome.
- B.
Vacuole.
- C.
Lysosome.
- D.
Phagolysosome.
- 42.
- A.
Reactions in VDRL can be seen macroscopically as dense flocculates.
- B.
CSF can be used as a specimen for VDRL.
- C.
Serum inactivation is not needed in VDRL.
- D.
All of the above
- 43.
- A.
Humoral response
- B.
Plasma cells
- C.
Cytokines
- D.
Antibody
- 44.
- A.
Protection of the mucous membranes
- B.
Removal of antigens by complement fixation
- C.
Enhancing the proliferation of B cells
- D.
Destruction of parasitic worms
- 45.
- A.
It consists of C1q, C1r, and C1s.
- B.
The subunits require calcium for binding together.
- C.
It is a part of the Properdin Pathway.
- D.
C1q activates C4.
- 46.
- A.
The dilution of patient serum required to lyse 50 percent of a standard concentration of sensitized sheep red blood cells
- B.
Functioning of both the classical and alternative pathway
- C.
Genetic deficiencies of any of the complement components
- D.
All of the above
- 47.Flagellar antigens are designated
- A.
"O" antigens
- B.
"K" antigens
- C.
"H" antigens
- D.
"Vi" antigens
- 48.
- A.
Antigens 1 and 2 are identical.
- B.
Antigen 2 is simpler than antigen 1.
- C.
Antigen 2 is more complex than anitgen 1.
- D.
The two antigens are unrelated.
- 49.
- A.
IgG
- B.
IgM
- C.
IgD
- D.
IgE
- E.
IgA
- 50.
- A.
Ehrlich
- B.
Haurowitz and Breini
- C.
Jerne and MacFarlane
- D.
Claman
- 51.
- A.
Humoral immunity primarily involves B lymphocytes.
- B.
The variable region of an antibody molecule is responsible for its sensitivity.
- C.
Complement components are under Class II of HLA molecules.
- D.
None of the above
- 52.
- A.
Pluripotential stem cells
- B.
Lymphoid stem cells
- C.
Pre-B cells
- D.
Myeloid stem cells
- 53.
- A.
SMIg+ B cells adhere to the nylon wool and are therefore eluted last.
- B.
SMIg- B cells adhere to the nyloon wool and are therefore eluted first.
- C.
SMIg+ T cells adhere to the nylon wool and are therefore eluted last.
- D.
SMIg+ T cells adhere to the nylon wool and are therefore eluted first.
- 54.
- A.
Immune complexes activate the pathway.
- B.
Cobra venom factor, aggregated IgA's , and baterial LPS activate the pathway.
- C.
A and B
- D.
None of the above
- 55.
- A.
SLE
- B.
Early syphilis
- C.
Biologic false positive reaction
- D.
IM
- 56.Reaginic antibodies are
- A.
IgG
- B.
IgM
- C.
IgD
- D.
IgE
- E.
IgA
- 57.Which of the following is considered to be the third line of defense against pathogens?
- A.
Intact skin
- B.
Phagocytosis
- C.
Cell mediated immunity
- D.
Humoral immunity
- 58.The following adjuvant stimulate T cells except
- A.
SMDP
- B.
GNB
- C.
Complete Freund's Adjuvant
- D.
None of the above
- 59.
- A.
Immune serum
- B.
Toxoid
- C.
A or B
- D.
None of the above
- 60.
- A.
Xenograft
- B.
Autograft
- C.
Allograft
- D.
Syngeneic graft
- E.
Heterograft
- 61.Positive titer of 1/160 for OX19 Proteus antigen is considered significant in
- A.
Rocy Mountain Spotted Fever
- B.
Trench fever
- C.
Rickettsial pox
- D.
Tsutsugamushi fever
- 62.
- A.
Urine
- B.
CSF
- C.
Serum
- D.
All of the above
- 63.
- A.
Colon cancer
- B.
Ovarian cancer
- C.
Prostate cancer
- D.
Hepatoma
- 64.
- A.
Homogenous or solid
- B.
Peripheral or rim
- C.
Speckled
- D.
Nucleolar
- 65.Graft versus host disease is most commonly associated with which transplant?
- A.
Bone marrow
- B.
Corneal
- C.
Bone matrix
- D.
Lung
- 66.
- A.
Escherichia coli
- B.
Proteus spp.
- C.
Brucella spp.
- D.
Salmonella typhi
- 67.Cold agglutinnins are classed as
- A.
IgM
- B.
IgG
- C.
IgA
- D.
IgD
- E.
IgE
- 68.
- A.
HBs Ag
- B.
HBe Ag
- C.
Anti-HBc
- D.
Anti-HBe
- E.
Anti-HBs
Back to top