Basic Immunology And Serology

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Immunology Quizzes & Trivia

Clinical Laboratory Technician, Basic Immunology and Serology Exam. Instructional Materials: Clinical Immunology and Serology, A laboratory Perspective, 3rd Ed. 2009 Christine Dorresteyn Steven, McGraw-Hill Course ID: CL 1110 National American University


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Inflammation of unknown cause is present.

    • B. 

      Patient has a leukemia but not a lymphoma.

    • C. 

      This is a normal result.

    • D. 

      There is a parasitic infection and not a viral infection.

  • 2. 
    1. Which is characteristic of natural immunity?
    • A. 

      Memory is involved.

    • B. 

      Lymphocytes play a major role.

    • C. 

      It is very specific.

    • D. 

      It depends on normally present body functions.

  • 3. 
    What is the major function of C-reactive protein (CRP)?
    • A. 

      Acts as an opsonin

    • B. 

      Binds hemoglobin

    • C. 

      Causes vasodilation

    • D. 

      Helps to form clots

  • 4. 
    Which of the following acute phase reactants is an important clotting factor?
    • A. 

      Haptoglobin

    • B. 

      Ceruloplasmin

    • C. 

      Fibrinogen

    • D. 

      Alpha-2 macroglobulin

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Attenuation of a harmful substance

    • B. 

      Natural immunity

    • C. 

      Passive immunity

    • D. 

      Cross-immunity

  • 6. 
    All of the following are characteristics of acute phase reactants EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Increase rapidly in response to infection

    • B. 

      Used to diagnose a specific disease

    • C. 

      Enhanced phagocytosis

    • D. 

      Promote inflammation

  • 7. 
    What is the function of the acute phase protein haptoglobin?
    • A. 

      Acts as an opsonin

    • B. 

      Forms clots

    • C. 

      Binds hemoglobin

    • D. 

      Acts as a chemotaxin

  • 8. 
    Measurement of CRP levels could be useful for which of the following?
    • A. 

      To determine risk of a heart attack

    • B. 

      To determine flare up of rheumatoid arthritis

    • C. 

      To detect an inflammatory process

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 9. 
    Acquired immunity can be characterized by which of the following?
    • A. 

      Nonspecific

    • B. 

      Immediate response

    • C. 

      Depends on neutrophils and macrophages

    • D. 

      Involves memory

  • 10. 
    Which of the following best explains the reaction that takes place in the latex agglutination slide test for CRP?
    • A. 

      Latex particles are coated with anti-CRP

    • B. 

      Latex particles are coated with CRP

    • C. 

      Latex particles are nonspecifically bound

    • D. 

      CRP is acting as an antibody

  • 11. 
    The ability to resist infection through normally present body functions best characterizes:
    • A. 

      Autoimmunity

    • B. 

      Natural immunity

    • C. 

      Acquired immunity

    • D. 

      Alloimmunity

  • 12. 
    Antigen-independent differentiation of B cells occurs in the:
    • A. 

      Bone marrow

    • B. 

      Spleen

    • C. 

      Lymph node

    • D. 

      Peyer's patches

  • 13. 
    When IgM on the surface of an immature B cell binds to a self-antigen, which of the following processes can occur?
    • A. 

      Class switch

    • B. 

      Affinity maturation

    • C. 

      Apoptosis

    • D. 

      Differentiation

  • 14. 
    The receptor for antigen on a mature B cell and first immunoglobulin to appear in immune response is:
    • A. 

      MHC class I

    • B. 

      IgG

    • C. 

      IgM

    • D. 

      MHC class II

  • 15. 
    T lymphocytes undergo antigen-independent maturation in the:
    • A. 

      Thymus

    • B. 

      Bone marrow

    • C. 

      Lymph node

    • D. 

      Spleen

  • 16. 
    An immature T cell differs from a mature T cell because an immature T cell:
    • A. 

      Expresses beta chains and pre Ta

    • B. 

      Does not express T-cell receptor or CD3

    • C. 

      Co-expresses CD4 and CD8

    • D. 

      Is normally found in lymph nodes

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      T-cell receptor on the effector cell binding to Fab of IgG bound to the target cell

    • B. 

      C-type lectin inhibitory receptors on effector cell binding to class I on target cell

    • C. 

      CD16 on the effector cell binding to Fc of IgG to the target cell

    • D. 

      CD154 on the effector cell binding to CD40 on the target cell

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      They interact with CD8 and T cells

    • B. 

      They have an alpha chain and beta-2 microglobulin

    • C. 

      They have alpha and beta chains of equal size

    • D. 

      They combine with antigen made inside the cell

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is true of HLA (MHC) class I antigens?
    • A. 

      They are recognized by helper T cells.

    • B. 

      They are found on all nucleated cells

    • C. 

      They combine with exogenous antigen

    • D. 

      They are coded for on chromosome 9

  • 20. 
    Heterophile antigens are characterized as:
    • A. 

      Found in unrelated plants or animals but cross-react with the same antibody

    • B. 

      One's own self-antigens

    • C. 

      Any antigen used for immunization

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 21. 
    HLA (MHC) class I protein is found on:
    • A. 

      RBCs

    • B. 

      All nucleated cells

    • C. 

      B cells and macrophages

    • D. 

      Stem cells only

  • 22. 
    Which MHC class of antigens is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4-positive T-cells?
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      Class II

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      No MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition

  • 23. 
    All of the following are characteristics of both MHC class I and class II molecules EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Expressed codominantly

    • B. 

      Involved in antigen recognition

    • C. 

      Members of the immunoglobulin superfamily

    • D. 

      Expressed constitutively on all nucleated cells

  • 24. 
    Which complement component is found in both the classic and alternative pathways?
    • A. 

      C1

    • B. 

      C2

    • C. 

      Factor B

    • D. 

      C3

  • 25. 
    Which of the following can activate the alternative complement pathways?
    • A. 

      IgG

    • B. 

      Mannose-Binding Lectin

    • C. 

      C3b

    • D. 

      C1q

  • 26. 
    Chemotactic and analyphylatic factors are produced by proteolytic cleavage of:
    • A. 

      C1q, C1r, C1s

    • B. 

      C4, C2

    • C. 

      C5, C3

    • D. 

      C5, C6, C7, C8

  • 27. 
    The target recognition molecule of the lectin pathway that initiates complement activation is:
    • A. 

      C1q

    • B. 

      C4

    • C. 

      C5b6789

    • D. 

      Mannose-Binding Lectin

  • 28. 
    Which immunolglobulin(s) help(s) initiate the classic complement pathway?
    • A. 

      IgA and IgD

    • B. 

      IgM only

    • C. 

      IgG and IgM

    • D. 

      IgG only

  • 29. 
    Which of the following is able to activate complement?
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgD

    • C. 

      IgE

    • D. 

      IgM

  • 30. 
    On a serial dilution with the following tubes set up, 1:2, 1:4, 1:8, 1:16, 1:32, and 1:64, there is no visible agglutination in the 1:64 tube. What is the titer of the antibody?
    • A. 

      32

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      Cannot determine

  • 31. 
    If you want to make 5 mL of a 1:20 dilution, how much serum would be needed?
    • A. 

      0.25 mL

    • B. 

      2 mL

    • C. 

      0.5 mL

    • D. 

      1 mL

  • 32. 
    When a staphylococcal infection is passed between patients due to health-care workers not washing their hands, this represents an example of:
    • A. 

      Lack of chemical hygiene

    • B. 

      A sharps hazard

    • C. 

      The chain of infection

    • D. 

      A specimen transport problem

  • 33. 
    When 0.5 mL of serum is added to 1.5 mL of diluent, what dilution does this represent?
    • A. 

      1:3

    • B. 

      1:4

    • C. 

      1:5

    • D. 

      3:1

  • 34. 
    Which of the following best explains the use of universal precautions?
    • A. 

      Handling a urine specimen from a patient with a bacterial infection very carefully

    • B. 

      Wearing gloves in handling a serum specimen from a patient with HIV

    • C. 

      Taking gloves off in the lab to place a serum specimen in a chemistry analyzer

    • D. 

      Treating every specimen in the lab as if it were infectious

  • 35. 
    An immunlolgic immunoassay situation in which antibody is in excess as compared to antigen is called:
    • A. 

      Postzone

    • B. 

      Prozone

    • C. 

      Equivalence zone

    • D. 

      Zone of equivalence

  • 36. 
    A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen and antibody are both soluble and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay was described?
    • A. 

      Precipitation

    • B. 

      Agglutination

    • C. 

      Flocculation

    • D. 

      Neutralization

  • 37. 
    The zone at which antibody and antigen are at optimal concentration so that they form a large insoluble lattice together is called the:
    • A. 

      Equivalence zone

    • B. 

      Postzone

    • C. 

      Prozone

    • D. 

      Prezone

  • 38. 
    A situation in which antigen is in excess as compared to antibody is called:
    • A. 

      Prozone

    • B. 

      Postzone

    • C. 

      Equivalence zone

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 39. 
    • A. 

      Bone marrow to the cortex, after thymic education, released back to peripheral circulation

    • B. 

      Storage in either the cortex or medulla, release of T cells into the peripheral circulation

    • C. 

      Maturation and selection occur in the cortex, then the medulla, release of mature T cells to secondary lymphoid organs

    • D. 

      Activation and selection occur in the medulla, mature T cells stored in the cortex until activated by antigen

  • 40. 
    Which of the following might adversely affect an electrophoresis reaction?
    • A. 

      Decreasing the strength of the current

    • B. 

      Changing the pH of the buffer

    • C. 

      Increasing the strength of the current

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 41. 
    The Western blot test used to confirm HIV is an example of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Immunofixation

    • B. 

      Immunoelectrophoresis

    • C. 

      Double diffusion

    • D. 

      Passive agglutination

  • 42. 
    Electrophoresis followed by diffusion of antibody from wells cut in the gel best describes which of the following?
    • A. 

      Immunofixation electrophoresis

    • B. 

      Immunoelectrophoresis

    • C. 

      Oucherlony diffusion

    • D. 

      Rocket immunodiffusion

  • 43. 
    Precipitation reactions involve combination of soluble antibody with:
    • A. 

      Soluble antigen

    • B. 

      Cellular antigens

    • C. 

      Red blood cells

    • D. 

      Radioactive antigen

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      To link small antigens on patient red cells

    • B. 

      To enhance agglutination with IgG coated red blood cells

    • C. 

      To enhance agglutination with IgM coated red blood cells

    • D. 

      To cause a precipitation reaction with small amounts of antibody

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      Homeogeneous EIA

    • B. 

      Competitive EIA

    • C. 

      Sandwich EIA

    • D. 

      ELISA

  • 46. 
    An immunoassay was performed in the following way: Antigen is bound to a solid support. Patient serum is added and patient antibodies bind to the antigen. The well is washed and enzyme-labeled anti-immunoglobulin antibodies are added. The well is washed and enzyme substrate is added and enzyme activity is determined. Which immnoassay is described?
    • A. 

      Sandwich

    • B. 

      Competitive

    • C. 

      ELISA

    • D. 

      Homogeneous

  • 47. 
    Indirect immunofluorescence is similar to which type of enzyme immunoassay as far as the performance of the assay?
    • A. 

      Competitive

    • B. 

      Sandwich

    • C. 

      ELISA

    • D. 

      Homogeneous

  • 48. 
    A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a larger carrier, the antibody is soluble, and they bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay is described?
    • A. 

      Precipitation

    • B. 

      Agglutination

    • C. 

      Flocculation

    • D. 

      Neutralization

  • 49. 
    A serological test that uses red blood cells coated with exogenous antigens such as bacterial polysaccharides as a method to detect patient antibodies against that exogenous antigen is called:
    • A. 

      Latex agglutination

    • B. 

      Hemagglutination

    • C. 

      Neutralization

    • D. 

      Complement fixation

  • 50. 
    If a Coombs' test is positive, which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      Antibody has coated patient red blood cells in vitro

    • B. 

      Antigen is reacting with patient antibody

    • C. 

      Antibody has coated patient red blood cells in vivo

    • D. 

      Antigen has coated patient red blood cells in vivo

  • 51. 
    Which of the following best describes competitive binding assays?
    • A. 

      A limited number of binding sites are present

    • B. 

      Concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected

    • C. 

      All patient antigen present is allowed to bind

    • D. 

      Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts

  • 52. 
    In a indirect fluorescent immunoassay such as the FTA confirmatory test for syphilis, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      A labeled antigen is used

    • B. 

      Washing is an important step

    • C. 

      Patient antibody is detected

    • D. 

      Antihuman globulin has a fluorescent tag

  • 53. 
    The expression of cell surface markers is determined in the flow cytometer by which of the following?
    • A. 

      Chemiluminescence

    • B. 

      Fluorescence

    • C. 

      Optical density

    • D. 

      Radioactivity

  • 54. 
    Reaction to poison ivy is which type of hypersensitivity?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 55. 
    Which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in a type I hypersensitivity?
    • A. 

      IgE

    • B. 

      IgA

    • C. 

      IgG

    • D. 

      IgM

  • 56. 
    The principle difference between type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions is the:
    • A. 

      Isotype of antibody involved

    • B. 

      Complement-mediated lysis of host cells

    • C. 

      Whether the antigen is cellular or soluble

    • D. 

      Involvement of helper T cells and macrophages

  • 57. 
    The normal activity of a type I hypersensitivity response is protection primarily against which of the following?
    • A. 

      Parasites

    • B. 

      Viruses

    • C. 

      Bacteria

    • D. 

      Fungi

  • 58. 
    In the slide agglutination for lupus, which of the following is detected?
    • A. 

      Anti-DNP

    • B. 

      Anti-IgG

    • C. 

      Anti-RNA

    • D. 

      Anti-HCG

  • 59. 
    An autoimmune disease characterized by pain and progressive destruction of the joints, weight loss, morning stiffness, and presence of an antibody directed against IgG best describes:
    • A. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • B. 

      Lupus

    • C. 

      Hemolytic disease of the newborn

    • D. 

      Hemolytic anemia

  • 60. 
    Reasons for autoimmunity may include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Inheritance of certain HLA antigens

    • B. 

      Molecular mimicry

    • C. 

      Polycolonal B cell activation

    • D. 

      Normal antibody production