Oral Pathology Test 2 Wtcc

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Oral Pathology Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    T cells are all of the follow except?

    • A.

      Memory cells

    • B.

      Suppressor cells

    • C.

      Plasma cells

    • D.

      Cytotoxic cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Plasma cells
    Explanation
    T cells are memory cells, suppressor cells, cytotoxic cells, and helper cells. B cells are plasma cells and memory cells.

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  • 2. 

    Humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies with T cells as the primary cells.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies with B lymphocytes as the primary cells. Cell mediated immunity involves T cells.

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  • 3. 

    Urticaria is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

    • A.

      IV

    • B.

      III

    • C.

      II

    • D.

      I

    Correct Answer
    D. I
    Explanation
    Urticaria is a type I hypersensitivity reaction. Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils in response to an allergen. This leads to symptoms such as itching, redness, and swelling, which are characteristic of urticaria.

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  • 4. 

    Contact mucositis and dermatitis is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    D. IV
    Explanation
    Contact mucositis and dermatitis is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Type IV hypersensitivity, also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity, occurs when there is a delayed immune response mediated by T cells. In this type of reaction, T cells recognize antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells and release cytokines, causing inflammation and tissue damage. Contact mucositis and dermatitis are characterized by an inflammatory response in the skin and mucous membranes due to exposure to allergens or irritants, which triggers a delayed immune response mediated by T cells.

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  • 5. 

    Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe form of?

    • A.

      Erythema Multiforme

    • B.

      Lichen Planus

    • C.

      Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

    • D.

      Pemphigus Vulgaris

    Correct Answer
    A. Erythema Multiforme
    Explanation
    Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe form of Erythema Multiforme. This condition is characterized by a widespread rash, blisters, and mucous membrane involvement. It is usually caused by a reaction to certain medications or infections. Stevens-Johnson syndrome can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.

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  • 6. 

    Raynaud's phenomenom, which is a disorder affecting the fingers and toes, can often be seen with which disorder?

    • A.

      Crohn's Disease

    • B.

      Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid

    • C.

      Behcet Syndrome

    • D.

      Sjogren Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    D. Sjogren Syndrome
    Explanation
    Raynaud's phenomenon is a condition characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in the fingers and toes, leading to color changes and numbness. It is often associated with autoimmune disorders, and one such disorder is Sjogren Syndrome. Sjogren Syndrome is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the salivary and tear glands, leading to dryness of the mouth and eyes. Since both Raynaud's phenomenon and Sjogren Syndrome are autoimmune disorders, they can often be seen together.

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  • 7. 

    A blister that forms from breakdown of cellular adhesion between epithelial cells if termed acantholysis.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A blister that forms from breakdown of cellular adhesion between epithelial cells is indeed termed acantholysis. This occurs when the connections between the cells are weakened or disrupted, leading to the separation of the layers of the epithelium and the formation of a blister.

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  • 8. 

    This is an example of?

    • A.

      Behcet syndrome

    • B.

      Lichen Planus

    • C.

      Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid

    • D.

      Erythema Multiforme

    Correct Answer
    C. Mucous Membrane PempHigoid
    Explanation
    Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects mucous membranes, such as the mouth, eyes, and genitals. It is characterized by inflammation and blistering of these membranes, leading to pain, ulcers, and scarring. This condition is often associated with autoantibodies targeting proteins in the basement membrane zone, causing damage to the tissues. Behcet syndrome, Lichen Planus, and Erythema Multiforme are other conditions that can affect the mucous membranes, but they have different clinical features and underlying mechanisms compared to Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid.

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  • 9. 

    A single tooth germ that attempts to divide is an example of?

    • A.

      Gemination

    • B.

      Fusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Gemination
    Explanation
    Gemination is a dental anomaly where a single tooth germ tries to divide into two separate tooth structures. This results in a tooth with an abnormal appearance, often appearing as two teeth fused together. In this case, the correct answer is gemination because it describes the specific condition of a single tooth germ attempting to divide. Fusion, on the other hand, refers to the joining of two separate tooth germs, resulting in a single larger tooth.

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  • 10. 

    The union of two normally separated adjacent tooth germs is called?

    • A.

      Gemination

    • B.

      Fusion

    Correct Answer
    B. Fusion
    Explanation
    Fusion refers to the union or merging of two normally separated adjacent tooth germs. It occurs when two tooth germs develop too closely to each other and instead of forming separate teeth, they fuse together to form a single tooth. This can result in a larger tooth with abnormal shape and structure. Gemination, on the other hand, refers to a condition where a single tooth germ attempts to divide into two teeth, resulting in a tooth with an abnormal appearance.

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  • 11. 

    Microndontia is most often seen in?

    • A.

      Mandibular lateral incisors and mandibular third molars Mandibular lateral incisors and mandibular third molars

    • B.

      Maxillary lateral incisors and maxillary third molars

    • C.

      Mandibular 1st premolars and Maxillary 1st premolars

    • D.

      Maxillary canines and mandibular canines

    Correct Answer
    B. Maxillary lateral incisors and maxillary third molars
  • 12. 

    An accessory cusp located in the area of the cingulum of a permanent incisor is?

    • A.

      Dens evaginatus

    • B.

      Dens invaginatus

    • C.

      Talon cusp

    • D.

      Dens in dente

    Correct Answer
    C. Talon cusp
    Explanation
    A talon cusp is an accessory cusp that is located in the area of the cingulum of a permanent incisor. It appears as a prominent, additional cusp on the lingual surface of the tooth. This extra cusp can vary in size and shape, but it is typically elongated and resembles an eagle's talon, hence the name "talon cusp". It is a developmental anomaly that occurs during tooth formation and can cause various dental issues such as occlusal interferences, esthetic concerns, and increased susceptibility to tooth decay.

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  • 13. 

    Dens invaginatus most frequently involves?

    • A.

      Maxillary premolars

    • B.

      Mandibular molars

    • C.

      Maxillary lateral incisors

    • D.

      Mandibular lateral incisors

    Correct Answer
    C. Maxillary lateral incisors
    Explanation
    Dens invaginatus is a dental anomaly where there is an infolding or invagination of the enamel into the dental pulp. It most commonly occurs in the maxillary lateral incisors, which are the teeth on either side of the front two teeth in the upper jaw. This condition is less frequently seen in other teeth such as the maxillary premolars, mandibular molars, and mandibular lateral incisors.

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  • 14. 

    This is an example of?

    • A.

      Dilaceration

    • B.

      Taurodontism

    • C.

      Enamel Pearl

    • D.

      Dens in Dente

    Correct Answer
    B. Taurodontism
    Explanation
    Taurodontism is a dental condition characterized by elongated pulp chambers and shortened roots, resulting in a rectangular shape of the affected teeth. This condition is often hereditary and can be seen in various syndromes. It is not related to dilaceration, which refers to an abnormal curvature or angulation of the tooth root. Enamel Pearl is a small, spherical, calcified structure that can be found on the surface of a tooth. Dens in Dente, also known as dens invaginatus, is a developmental anomaly where the enamel and dentin fold into the pulp chamber.

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  • 15. 

    This is an example of?

    • A.

      Dens evaginatus

    • B.

      Talon cusp

    • C.

      Dens in dente

    • D.

      Taurodontism

    Correct Answer
    C. Dens in dente
    Explanation
    Dens in dente, also known as dens invaginatus, is a dental anomaly where the enamel and dentin invaginate into the pulp chamber. This condition is usually present at birth and can result in a deep pit or groove on the surface of the tooth. It can also lead to complications such as increased susceptibility to tooth decay, infection, and pulp necrosis.

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  • 16. 

    Enamel hypoplasia that is inherited is termed ________

    Correct Answer
    amelogenesis imperfecta
    Explanation
    Enamel hypoplasia refers to the incomplete development of tooth enamel. When this condition is inherited, it is known as amelogenesis imperfecta. This genetic disorder affects the enamel formation process, leading to abnormal enamel structure and appearance. It can result in teeth that are discolored, pitted, or prone to damage. Amelogenesis imperfecta can be caused by mutations in various genes involved in enamel formation, and it can be inherited in an autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, or X-linked pattern.

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  • 17. 

    The incomplete or defective formation of enamel is ________

    Correct Answer
    enamel hypoplasia
    Explanation
    Enamel hypoplasia refers to the incomplete or defective formation of enamel. It is a condition where the enamel, the outer layer of the tooth, does not develop properly. This can result in thin enamel, pits, grooves, or missing enamel on the teeth. Enamel hypoplasia can be caused by various factors such as malnutrition, illness, trauma, or genetic conditions. It can lead to increased sensitivity, discoloration, and vulnerability to tooth decay. Treatment options for enamel hypoplasia include dental bonding, veneers, or dental crowns to protect and strengthen the affected teeth.

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  • 18. 

    What type of enamel hypoplasia affects all teeth that are developing at the time of exposure to a harmful agent?

    • A.

      Turner's tooth

    • B.

      Contemporaneour

    • C.

      Amelogenesis imperfecta

    • D.

      Fluorosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Contemporaneour
  • 19. 

    This type of enamel hypoplasia will typically occur from ________

    Correct Answer
    too much fluoride, high concentrations of fluoride during tooth formation
    Explanation
    Enamel hypoplasia is a condition characterized by the incomplete development of tooth enamel. In this case, it is caused by excessive fluoride exposure during tooth formation. Fluoride, when consumed in high concentrations, can disrupt the normal enamel development process, leading to hypoplasia. This condition is commonly seen in areas with high fluoride levels in drinking water or excessive use of fluoride-containing dental products.

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  • 20. 

    A ________ is an abnormal pathologic sac or cavity lined by epithelium and enclosed in a connective tissue capsule.

    Correct Answer
    cyst
    Explanation
    A cyst is an abnormal pathologic sac or cavity lined by epithelium and enclosed in a connective tissue capsule. Cysts can form in various parts of the body and can contain fluid, semi-solid material, or gas. They can be caused by a variety of factors, including infections, blockages of ducts or glands, or genetic conditions. Cysts can vary in size and may or may not cause symptoms depending on their location and size. Treatment options for cysts can include observation, medication, drainage, or surgical removal.

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  • 21. 

    A radicular cyst is also know as a ________

    Correct Answer
    Periapical cyst
    Explanation
    A radicular cyst is a type of cyst that develops at the root of a tooth. It is caused by an infection or inflammation in the tooth pulp, leading to the formation of a fluid-filled sac. This type of cyst is commonly referred to as a periapical cyst because it occurs in the periapical region, which is the area around the tooth's apex.

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  • 22. 

    This is a ________ cyst.

    Correct Answer
    periapical, radicular
    Explanation
    This is a periapical, radicular cyst.

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  • 23. 

    Residual cyst are what type of cyst?

    • A.

      Odontogenic

    • B.

      Non-odontogenic

    Correct Answer
    A. Odontogenic
    Explanation
    Residual cysts are a type of odontogenic cyst. These cysts occur after the extraction of a tooth, when the epithelial lining of the previous dental follicle remains in the jawbone and becomes fluid-filled. They are considered odontogenic because they originate from the tooth-forming tissues. Non-odontogenic cysts, on the other hand, originate from other tissues or structures in the body, such as the skin or glands. Therefore, the correct answer is odontogenic.

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  • 24. 

    A Dentigerous cyst is also known as a ________.

    Correct Answer
    follicular cyst
    Explanation
    A Dentigerous cyst is also known as a follicular cyst.

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  • 25. 

    What type of cyst is this known as?

    • A.

      Residual cyst

    • B.

      Radicular cyst

    • C.

      Dentigerous cyst

    • D.

      Primordial cyst

    Correct Answer
    C. Dentigerous cyst
    Explanation
    A dentigerous cyst is a type of cyst that forms around the crown of an unerupted tooth. It occurs when the fluid accumulates between the reduced enamel epithelium and the crown of the tooth. This type of cyst is commonly associated with impacted third molars (wisdom teeth) but can also occur with other teeth. It is usually asymptomatic and is often discovered on routine dental X-rays. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the cyst and extraction of the affected tooth.

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  • 26. 

    What type of cyst develops in place of a tooth; in the space where a tooth should have formed?

    Correct Answer
    primordial cyst
    Explanation
    A primordial cyst is a type of cyst that develops in the space where a tooth should have formed. It occurs when the tooth fails to develop properly and is replaced by a fluid-filled sac. This type of cyst is often asymptomatic and is usually discovered during routine dental examinations or when there are symptoms such as swelling or pain in the affected area. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the cyst to prevent any complications or damage to surrounding structures.

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  • 27. 

    What type of cyst is this?

    Correct Answer
    odontogenic keratocyst
    Explanation
    An odontogenic keratocyst is a type of cyst that originates from the cells in the dental follicle. It is a developmental cyst that commonly occurs in the jawbone, particularly in the posterior mandible. Odontogenic keratocysts are characterized by a lining of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and have a high recurrence rate. They are often associated with impacted teeth and can cause bone destruction if left untreated.

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  • 28. 

    What type of cyst is this?

    Correct Answer
    Lateral periodontal cyst
    Explanation
    A lateral periodontal cyst is a type of cyst that occurs in the periodontal ligament, which is the tissue that surrounds and supports the teeth. This cyst is usually found on the lateral aspect of the root of a tooth and is often asymptomatic. It appears as a well-defined radiolucency on dental X-rays and can be diagnosed through histological examination. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the cyst to prevent complications and promote oral health.

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  • 29. 

    If the lumen of a gingival cyst is tinged with ________, it may have a ________ color.

    Correct Answer
    blood, blue
    Explanation
    If the lumen of a gingival cyst is tinged with blood, it may have a blue color.

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  • 30. 

    A nasopalatine canal cyst is..?

    • A.

      Symptomatic

    • B.

      Asymptomatic

    Correct Answer
    B. Asymptomatic
    Explanation
    A nasopalatine canal cyst is a type of cyst that forms in the nasopalatine canal, which is a small canal located in the midline of the maxilla (upper jaw). This type of cyst is typically asymptomatic, meaning that it does not cause any noticeable symptoms or discomfort. However, in some cases, the cyst may become symptomatic if it grows large enough to cause pressure or if it becomes infected. Nonetheless, the most common characteristic of a nasopalatine canal cyst is its asymptomatic nature.

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  • 31. 

    What type of cyst is this?

    Correct Answer
    Nasopalatine canal cyst
    Explanation
    This type of cyst is known as a nasopalatine canal cyst. The nasopalatine canal is a small canal that runs through the midline of the maxilla (upper jaw) and connects the nasal cavity to the oral cavity. When a cyst forms in this canal, it is referred to as a nasopalatine canal cyst. This type of cyst is typically benign and often asymptomatic, but it can cause discomfort or complications if it grows in size or becomes infected. Treatment usually involves surgical removal of the cyst.

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  • 32. 

    What type is cyst is this?

    Correct Answer
    Median palatine cyst
  • 33. 

    What type of cyst is shown here?

    Correct Answer
    Nasolabial cyst
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Nasolabial cyst.

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  • 34. 

    What type of cyst is shown here?

    Correct Answer
    globulomaxillary cyst
    Explanation
    The correct answer is globulomaxillary cyst because the question asks for the type of cyst shown in the image. Since there is no image provided, it is not possible to determine the type of cyst visually. Therefore, an explanation cannot be provided.

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  • 35. 

    A cavity that is not lined with epithelium is known as what type of cyst?

    Correct Answer
    pseudocyst
    Explanation
    A cavity that is not lined with epithelium is known as a pseudocyst. This term is used to describe a cyst that lacks an epithelial lining, which distinguishes it from other types of cysts. Pseudocysts can occur in various parts of the body, such as the pancreas or ovaries, and are often filled with fluid or semi-solid material. Unlike true cysts, which have a distinct epithelial lining, pseudocysts typically result from inflammation or injury rather than being a natural part of the body's structure.

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  • 36. 

    An anatomical defect of the mandible that forms during development of the jaw is know as what?

    Correct Answer
    Static bone cavity, Stafne defect
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Stafne defect. Stafne defect refers to an anatomical defect of the mandible that occurs during the development of the jaw. It is characterized by a static bone cavity or concavity in the mandible, usually located in the posterior region. This defect is often asymptomatic and does not require treatment unless it causes functional or aesthetic concerns.

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  • 37. 

    Marked destruction of the periodontal tissues of both dentitions, premature loss of teeth, and hyperkeratosis of the palms of hands and soles of feet is known as?

    • A.

      Van der Woude Syndrome

    • B.

      Hereditary Gingival Enlargement

    • C.

      Cyclic Neutropenia

    • D.

      Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    D. Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome
    Explanation
    Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by marked destruction of the periodontal tissues, leading to premature loss of teeth. In addition, individuals with this syndrome may also have hyperkeratosis of the palms of hands and soles of feet. This condition typically manifests in childhood, with the first signs being the loss of primary teeth. The syndrome is caused by mutations in the cathepsin C gene, which plays a role in the immune system and the breakdown of proteins.

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  • 38. 

    What genetic disorder is this known as?

    Correct Answer
    Hereditary gingival enlargement
    Explanation
    Hereditary gingival enlargement is a genetic disorder characterized by the abnormal growth of gum tissue. It is usually inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene from either parent to develop the disorder. This condition can cause the gums to become swollen, enlarged, and sometimes discolored. It is often associated with poor oral hygiene and can lead to difficulties in eating, speaking, and maintaining oral health. Treatment options include surgical removal of excess gum tissue and regular dental care to manage the condition.

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  • 39. 

    Hereditary gingival enlargement can be seen clinically as pink, firm, fibrous, little tendency to bleed, marked enlarged, asymptomatic, and may also cover the crowns of the teeth.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement accurately describes the clinical presentation of hereditary gingival enlargement. It is characterized by pink, firm, fibrous gums that do not bleed easily. The gums are noticeably enlarged and may cover the crowns of the teeth. Additionally, this condition is usually asymptomatic. Therefore, the answer "True" is correct.

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  • 40. 

    What type of genetic disorder causing these abnormalities?

    • A.

      Cherubism

    • B.

      Van der Woude Syndrome

    • C.

      Hereditary Gingival Enlargement

    • D.

      Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    B. Van der Woude Syndrome
    Explanation
    Van der Woude Syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by the presence of cleft lip and/or cleft palate, along with other abnormalities such as lower lip pits and hypodontia (missing teeth). It is caused by mutations in the IRF6 gene, which plays a role in the development of the face and mouth. This syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that an affected individual has a 50% chance of passing the condition on to their children.

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  • 41. 

    Radiographs that reveal a "soap bubble" or multilocular appearance in areas of the mandible is seen in what inherited disorder?

    Correct Answer
    Cherubism
    Explanation
    Cherubism is an inherited disorder characterized by the presence of multilocular or "soap bubble" appearance in the mandible on radiographs. This condition typically affects children and causes abnormal growth of the jaw bones, resulting in a swollen, cherubic-like appearance. The multilocular appearance is due to the presence of cyst-like lesions within the mandible. Cherubism is caused by mutations in the SH3BP2 gene and is usually self-limiting, with symptoms improving as the affected individual reaches adulthood.

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  • 42. 

    What inherited disorder causes this adnormality?

    Correct Answer
    Cleidocrancial dysplasia
    Explanation
    Cleidocranial dysplasia is an inherited disorder that causes abnormalities in the development of the bones and teeth. It affects the collarbones, causing them to be absent or underdeveloped, which leads to abnormal shoulder movement. Additionally, it affects the development of the skull, causing delayed closure of the fontanelles and abnormal growth of the facial bones. This condition also affects the development of teeth, resulting in delayed eruption and abnormal shape. Cleidocranial dysplasia is caused by mutations in the RUNX2 gene, which plays a crucial role in bone and tooth development.

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  • 43. 

    A disease characterized by the replacement of bone with abnormal fibrous connective tissue and calcifications and is composed of vascularized cellular fibrous connective tissue with irregular trabeculae of bone is known as?

    Correct Answer
    Fibrous dysplasia
    Explanation
    Fibrous dysplasia is a disease that involves the replacement of normal bone tissue with abnormal fibrous connective tissue and calcifications. It is characterized by the presence of vascularized cellular fibrous connective tissue with irregular trabeculae of bone. This condition can affect any bone in the body and can lead to bone pain, deformities, and fractures.

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  • 44. 

    The most common type of fibrous dysplasia, which involves a single bone is known as?

    Correct Answer
    Monostotic fibrous dysplasia, monostotic
    Explanation
    Monostotic fibrous dysplasia is the most common type of fibrous dysplasia that involves only a single bone. In this condition, there is abnormal growth of fibrous tissue in the affected bone, leading to weakening and deformity. The term "monostotic" refers to the involvement of a single bone, distinguishing it from polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, which involves multiple bones.

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  • 45. 

    What type of inherited disorder has the presence of multiple osteomas in various bones and intestinal polyps as the most serious component?

    Correct Answer
    Gardner Syndrome
    Explanation
    Gardner Syndrome is a type of inherited disorder characterized by the presence of multiple osteomas (benign bone tumors) in various bones and intestinal polyps. The most serious component of this disorder is the development of intestinal polyps, which can lead to an increased risk of colorectal cancer. Other features of Gardner Syndrome may include benign soft tissue tumors, dental abnormalities, and skin cysts. It is caused by mutations in the APC gene and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Regular screening and surveillance are important for early detection and management of the associated complications.

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  • 46. 

    What type of inherited disorder of the jaw bones and face involves a defect in collagen and results in abnormally-formed bones that fracture easily?

    Correct Answer
    Osteogenesis imperfecta
    Explanation
    Osteogenesis imperfecta is a type of inherited disorder of the jaw bones and face that involves a defect in collagen. This defect in collagen leads to the formation of abnormally-shaped bones that are weak and prone to fractures. Individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta often experience multiple fractures throughout their lives, even with minimal trauma or stress on the bones. This condition can also cause other symptoms such as short stature, blue sclerae, and hearing loss.

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  • 47. 

    A milder case of osteogenesis imperfecta is known as blue sclerae?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Blue sclerae is a symptom commonly associated with osteogenesis imperfecta, a genetic disorder that affects the bones and causes them to be brittle and prone to fractures. The blue coloration of the sclerae, or the whites of the eyes, is caused by the underlying connective tissue being more translucent and allowing the underlying veins to show through. Therefore, it can be inferred that a milder case of osteogenesis imperfecta may present with blue sclerae.

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  • 48. 

    Teeth that show bulbous crowns, opalescent brown-bluish color, and radiographs reveal no pulp chambers is known as?

    • A.

      Amelogenesis imperfecta

    • B.

      Dentinogenesis imperfecta

    Correct Answer
    B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
    Explanation
    Dentinogenesis imperfecta is the correct answer because it is a condition characterized by teeth that have bulbous crowns, opalescent brown-bluish color, and radiographs that show no pulp chambers. This condition affects the formation of dentin, which is the hard tissue that makes up the majority of the tooth. Amelogenesis imperfecta, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the enamel, the outer layer of the tooth, and does not typically present with the same characteristics described in the question.

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  • 49. 

    Teeth with normal crowns, normal color, but abnormal roots is known as?

    • A.

      Dentin Dysplasia Type I

    • B.

      Dentin Dysplasia Type II

    Correct Answer
    A. Dentin Dysplasia Type I
    Explanation
    Dentin Dysplasia Type I is characterized by teeth with normal crowns and color, but abnormal roots. This condition affects the development of dentin, which is the hard tissue that makes up the majority of the tooth. In Dentin Dysplasia Type I, the roots of the teeth are shorter and thinner than normal, leading to potential tooth loss and other dental problems. This condition is inherited and can cause discomfort and difficulty with chewing and speaking. Dentin Dysplasia Type II, on the other hand, is characterized by teeth with a blue-gray or amber color and does not involve abnormal roots.

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  • 50. 

    This is an example of?

    Correct Answer
    Ectodermal dysplasia
    Explanation
    The given answer, Ectodermal dysplasia, is the correct answer for the question. Ectodermal dysplasia is a group of genetic disorders that affect the development of ectodermal tissues, which include the skin, hair, nails, teeth, and sweat glands. These disorders can cause various abnormalities in these tissues, such as thin hair, missing teeth, and abnormal sweating. Therefore, based on the information provided, Ectodermal dysplasia is the most appropriate explanation for the question.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Nov 13, 2016
    Quiz Created by
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