A&p 1 Final

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A&p 1 final


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  • 1. 
    A (n) ________ muscle contraction changes tension, but remains the same length
    • A. 

      Concentric

    • B. 

      Isotonic

    • C. 

      Physiologically fatigued

    • D. 

      Isometric

    • E. 

      Plyometric

  • 2. 
    A cells plasma membrane would not contain
    • A. 

      Phospholipids

    • B. 

      Proteins

    • C. 

      Cholesterol

    • D. 

      Nucleic acids

    • E. 

      All of the above are found in plasma membranes

  • 3. 
    A codon is a three-base group of nucleotides that encodes a (n)
    • A. 

      Phospholipid

    • B. 

      Nucliec acid

    • C. 

      Monosaccharide

    • D. 

      Amino acid

    • E. 

      Glycocalyx

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      The effects of alchohol on the structure of the liver

    • B. 

      The growth of the fetal nervous system in utero

    • C. 

      Changes to muscle tissue as a result of exercise

    • D. 

      How the adult brain responds to sleep deprivation

    • E. 

      The process of bone repair following a break

  • 5. 
    A joint cavity is found in
    • A. 

      Synovial joints

    • B. 

      Gomphoses

    • C. 

      Syndesmoses

    • D. 

      Both a and c

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      An electrochemical gradient across a biological membrane

    • B. 

      The ability of charged ion to carry an electrical signal in solution

    • C. 

      The potential for a membrane to do work

    • D. 

      The role of the plasma membrane in cell to cell recognition

    • E. 

      The ability to transport vesicle to merge with the plasma membrane during exocytosis

  • 7. 
    A metabolic poison that inhibits the production of ATP most likely affects the
    • A. 

      Mitochondria

    • B. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • C. 

      Ribosomes

    • D. 

      Cytoskeleton

    • E. 

      Lysosomes

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, straum basale, stratum spinosum

    • B. 

      Stratum spinosum, stratum basale, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum

    • C. 

      Stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum basale

    • D. 

      Stratum basale, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum corneum

    • E. 

      Stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

  • 9. 
    A patient has a ruptured appendix, into which activity would a surgeon cut
    • A. 

      Abdominal

    • B. 

      Thoracic

    • C. 

      Vertebral

    • D. 

      Cranial

    • E. 

      Pleural

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      1st degree non critical burn

    • B. 

      2nd degree non critical burn

    • C. 

      2nd degree critical

    • D. 

      3rd degree non critical

    • E. 

      3rd degree critical

  • 11. 
    A red blood cell placed in pure water would
    • A. 

      Swell

    • B. 

      Shrink initially, and then return to normal as equilibrium is reached

    • C. 

      Neither shrink nor swell

    • D. 

      Shrink only

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      Partially, low

    • B. 

      Fully, high

    • C. 

      Partially, high

    • D. 

      Fully, low

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 13. 
    A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be a (n)
    • A. 

      Organ

    • B. 

      Complex tissue

    • C. 

      Organelle

    • D. 

      Compound tissue

    • E. 

      Complex cell

  • 14. 
    A thin layer of ________ provides cushioning at articulations
    • A. 

      Adipose tissue

    • B. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • C. 

      Dense connective tissue

    • D. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • E. 

      Endosteum

  • 15. 
    About 96% of the body is some combination of the following four elements:
    • A. 

      C, O, NA, H

    • B. 

      P, C, H, O

    • C. 

      N, C, O, K

    • D. 

      O, H, N, Ca

    • E. 

      H, O, C, N

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      Small motor units are most sensitive and recruited first

    • B. 

      Large motor units are most sensitve and recruited first

    • C. 

      Small motor units are most sensitve and recruited last

    • D. 

      Large motor units are least sensitve and recruited last

    • E. 

      Small motor units are least sensitive and recruited last

  • 17. 
    Action potentials are propagated along the membrane primarily by
    • A. 

      Leakage ion channels

    • B. 

      Voltage gated ion channels

    • C. 

      Mechanogated ion channels

    • D. 

      Ligand gated ion channels

  • 18. 
    After a fair skinned person spent the day at the beach with no sun screen which cell type is most likely to become highly active?
    • A. 

      Keratinocyte

    • B. 

      Melanocyte

    • C. 

      Astrocyte

    • D. 

      Matrix cell

    • E. 

      Papillary cell

  • 19. 
    After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by
    • A. 

      Wallerian cells

    • B. 

      Schwann cells

    • C. 

      Dendrites

    • D. 

      Golgi organs

  • 20. 
    All preganglionic neurons of the ANS release acetylcholine
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 21. 
    An atom is found to have 7 protons and 8 neutrons.  The atom is:
    • A. 

      Nitrogen with a mass number of 15

    • B. 

      Carbon with a mass number of 8

    • C. 

      Oxygen with a mass number of 8

    • D. 

      Nitrogen with a mass number of 7

    • E. 

      Oxygen with a mass number of 15

  • 22. 
    An example of an irregular bone would be
    • A. 

      Thoracic vertebrae

    • B. 

      Calcaneous

    • C. 

      Sternum

    • D. 

      Radius

    • E. 

      Patella

  • 23. 
    An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with
    • A. 

      A change in sodium ion permeability

    • B. 

      Hyperpolarization

    • C. 

      Opening of voltage regulated channels

    • D. 

      Lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur

  • 24. 
    Andergenic receptors are most likely found on
    • A. 

      Effector organs of the sympathetic division

    • B. 

      Post-ganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic division

    • C. 

      The adrenal medulla

    • D. 

      Preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic division

  • 25. 
    As a result of bone tissue response to mechanical stress (load) _______ occurs at sites of _______ stress.
    • A. 

      Bone deposit, high

    • B. 

      Bone resorption, high

    • C. 

      Osteomalacia, high

    • D. 

      Intramembranous ossification, low

    • E. 

      Bony callus formation, continuous

  • 26. 
    At the intial stages of muscle activity ATP is first regenerated through the _______pathway
    • A. 

      Anaerobic glycolytic

    • B. 

      Creatine phosphate

    • C. 

      Cross bridge

    • D. 

      Lypolytic

    • E. 

      Aerobic respiratory

  • 27. 
    A_______ fracture is incomplete and common in the more flexible bones of children
    • A. 

      Compound

    • B. 

      Depression

    • C. 

      Green stick

    • D. 

      Supramembranous

    • E. 

      Catastrophic

  • 28. 
    Before puberty, long bone lengthens at a zone of cartilage called the
    • A. 

      Epiphyseal plate

    • B. 

      Articular cartilage

    • C. 

      Medullary cavity

    • D. 

      Spongy bone

    • E. 

      Primary ossification center

  • 29. 
    Broca's area ___________
    • A. 

      Corresponds to Brodmann's area 8

    • B. 

      Is usually found in the right hemisphere

    • C. 

      Serves the recognition of complex objects

    • D. 

      Is considered a motor speech area

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      Disks or wedges of connective tissue that cushion articular surfaces

    • B. 

      External layers of connective tissue that stabalize joints

    • C. 

      Bags of lubricant that reduce friction between the bones of a joint

    • D. 

      Extensions of they synovial membrane that allow passage of blood vessels and nerves to the interior of joints

    • E. 

      Sheetlike indirect attachment for a skeletal muscle

  • 31. 
    Cancer that originates from the stratum spinosum is called
    • A. 

      Basal cell carcinoma

    • B. 

      Osteoesarcoma

    • C. 

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    • D. 

      Spinosal carcinoma

    • E. 

      Melanoma

  • 32. 
    Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except
    • A. 

      Constriction of most blood vessels

    • B. 

      Dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles

    • C. 

      Increase of heart rate and force

    • D. 

      Dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

  • 33. 
    Cartilage is an example of ____________tissue
    • A. 

      Stratified epithelial

    • B. 

      Bone

    • C. 

      Connective

    • D. 

      Nervous

    • E. 

      Alveolar

  • 34. 
    Cell junctions that promote the controlled exchange of materials between neighboring cells are called ___________
    • A. 

      Desmosomes

    • B. 

      Gap junctions

    • C. 

      Transmembrane proteins

    • D. 

      Tight junctions

    • E. 

      Secretory vesicles

  • 35. 
    Cells that exit the cell cycle are said to enter ____________phase
    • A. 

      Terminal

    • B. 

      G o

    • C. 

      Stop

    • D. 

      Mature

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 36. 
    Cerminous glands are located in the skin of the
    • A. 

      Anogenital area

    • B. 

      Ear canal

    • C. 

      Mucous membranes

    • D. 

      Nasal canals

    • E. 

      Scalp

  • 37. 
    Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous sytem are called
    • A. 

      Nuclei

    • B. 

      Nerves

    • C. 

      Ganglia

    • D. 

      Tracts

  • 38. 
    Compared to a solution with a pH of 6, a solution with a pH of 8 has:
    • A. 

      100 times more H+

    • B. 

      2 times more H+

    • C. 

      100 times less H+

    • D. 

      4 times less H+

    • E. 

      1000 times less H+

  • 39. 
    During ___________ a protein is synthesized from mRNA
    • A. 

      Transcription

    • B. 

      Transgenesis

    • C. 

      Translation

    • D. 

      Elongation

    • E. 

      RNA processing

  • 40. 
    Exocrine glandular tissue consists of _________& __________ cells.
    • A. 

      Secretory/duct

    • B. 

      Cuboidal/ columnar

    • C. 

      Basal/ apical

    • D. 

      Dense/ loose

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 41. 
    Fast glycolytic muscle fibers tend to __________, compared to slow oxidative muscle fibers
    • A. 

      Have a fast contracation cycle, but fatigue quickly

    • B. 

      Have a slow contraction cycle but fatigue slowly

    • C. 

      Have a fast contraction cycle, but fatigue slowly

    • D. 

      Have a slow contraction cycle but fatigue quickly

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 42. 
    For the cross-bridge cycle to be intitiated it is necessary for calcium to bind to
    • A. 

      Actin

    • B. 

      Myosin

    • C. 

      Tropomyosin

    • D. 

      Troponin

    • E. 

      Acetylcholine

  • 43. 
    Freely moveable joints are classified as
    • A. 

      Synthroses

    • B. 

      Diarthroses

    • C. 

      Condyloses

    • D. 

      Amphiarthroses

    • E. 

      Gomphoses

  • 44. 
    Functional classification of joints is based on movements allowed by the joint, are classified as slightly moveable joints
    • A. 

      Synovial

    • B. 

      Synathroses

    • C. 

      Diathroses

    • D. 

      Condyloses

    • E. 

      Amphiarthoroses

  • 45. 
    Glycogen is important as a
    • A. 

      Energy storage molecule in the liver

    • B. 

      Plasma membrane marker for cell recognition (cell marker)

    • C. 

      Monosaccharide important for cell growth

    • D. 

      Structural element in the cytoskeleton

    • E. 

      Backbone for building fat (triglyceride) molecules

  • 46. 
    Histology is the study of
    • A. 

      Tissues

    • B. 

      Cells

    • C. 

      DNA

    • D. 

      Organ systems

    • E. 

      The respiratory system

  • 47. 
    If the posterior portion of the neural tube failed to develop properly the
    • A. 

      Spinal cord may be affected

    • B. 

      Cranial nerves would not form

    • C. 

      Hindbrain would not be present

    • D. 

      Telencephalon would cease development

  • 48. 
    In a negative feedback mechanism
    • A. 

      The effect is usually damaging to the body

    • B. 

      The response of the effector is to enchance the original stimulus

    • C. 

      The response of the effector is to end the original stimulus

    • D. 

      Large changes in the state of the variable are stimulated

    • E. 

      The negative feedback triggers a positive feedback loop

  • 49. 
    In one complete cycle of the sodium/potassium pump
    • A. 

      3 Na+ enter and 2 K+ exit the cell

    • B. 

      3 K+ enter and 2 Na+ exit the cell

    • C. 

      2 Na+ enter and 3 K+exit the cell

    • D. 

      2 K+ enter and 3 Na+ exit the cell

    • E. 

      3 Na+ enter and 3 K+ exit the cell

  • 50. 
    In response to vigorous activity/ exercise the blood vessels of the skin dilate (open) to allow greater blood flow to the surface of the body, this is an example of the intergumentary system functioning in (as)
    • A. 

      Cutaneous sensation

    • B. 

      Biological barrier

    • C. 

      Temperature regulation

    • D. 

      Excretion

    • E. 

      Energy source

  • 51. 
    In the process of __________ cartilage forming cells in the perichondrium secrete new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage
    • A. 

      Intramembranous ossification

    • B. 

      Interstitial growth

    • C. 

      Calcification

    • D. 

      Bone remodeling

    • E. 

      Appositional growth

  • 52. 
    In which phase of muscle contraction would you expect calcium to be returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
    • A. 

      Latent phase

    • B. 

      Refactory phase

    • C. 

      Contractile phase

    • D. 

      Stimulation phase

    • E. 

      Relaxation phase

  • 53. 
    Kyphosis (hunchback) results from exaggerated ________ curvature of the vertebral column
    • A. 

      Cervical

    • B. 

      Thoracic

    • C. 

      Lumbar

    • D. 

      Sacral

    • E. 

      Coccygeal

  • 54. 
    Moving one's head back and forth in a "NO" fashion is an example of
    • A. 

      Flexion

    • B. 

      Extension

    • C. 

      Circumduction

    • D. 

      Rotation

    • E. 

      Opposition

  • 55. 
    Muscle contraction always results in muscle shortening
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      The ability of the muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements

    • B. 

      The feeling of well-being following exercise

    • C. 

      The state of sustained partial contraction

    • D. 

      The increase in capillary formation to support energy needs of active muscle

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 57. 
    Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are
    • A. 

      Afferent nerves

    • B. 

      Efferent nerves

    • C. 

      Motor nerves

    • D. 

      Mixed nerves

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      The ability to recieve and respond to stimuli

    • B. 

      The ability to shorten forcibly when adequately stimulated

    • C. 

      The ability to be stretched or extended

    • D. 

      The ability of a muscle cell to recoil and resting length after being stretched

  • 59. 
    Organic compounds both _________ & ___________
    • A. 

      Carbon, oxygen

    • B. 

      Oxygen, hydrogen

    • C. 

      Hydrogen, carbon

    • D. 

      Oxygen, nitrogen

    • E. 

      Carbon, nitrogen

  • 60. 
    Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex1.molecules2. tissues3. organ system4. cells5. organ
    • A. 

      1,2,4,3,5

    • B. 

      4,1,2,5,3

    • C. 

      1,4,2,5,3

    • D. 

      2,4,1,5,3

    • E. 

      3,5,2,4,1

  • 61. 
    Plane joints allow nonaxial movement
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 62. 
    Pointing one's toes downward toward the ground is known as
    • A. 

      Dorsiflexion

    • B. 

      Plantar flexion

    • C. 

      Extension

    • D. 

      Inversion

    • E. 

      Opposition

  • 63. 
    Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by
    • A. 

      Interoceptors

    • B. 

      Photoreceptors

    • C. 

      Nociceptors

    • D. 

      Proprioceptors

  • 64. 
    Preparing the body for the "flight-or fight" response is the role of the
    • A. 

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • B. 

      Cerebrum

    • C. 

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    • D. 

      Somatic nervous system

  • 65. 
    Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are
    • A. 

      Interoceptors

    • B. 

      Exteroceptors

    • C. 

      Proprioceptors

    • D. 

      Mechanoreceptors

  • 66. 
    Repolarization of sarcolemma following a action potential is accomplished by
    • A. 

      Opening of voltage gated K+ channels

    • B. 

      Release of Ca2+ from the SR

    • C. 

      Release of acetylcholine from synaptic vesicles

    • D. 

      Regeneration of ATP after contraction

    • E. 

      The creatine phosphate pathway

  • 67. 
    Resistance exercise (weight lifting) is most likey to result in
    • A. 

      Increased size of fast glycolic muscle fibers

    • B. 

      Increased number of slow oxidative muscle fibers

    • C. 

      Conversion of fast glyoclytic fibers into slow oxidative fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 68. 
    Ribosomes located in/on the ____________ synthesize proteins that are incorporated into the membrane or exported from the cell in vesicles
    • A. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • B. 

      Cytoplasm

    • C. 

      Endoplamic reticulum

    • D. 

      Nuclear envelope

    • E. 

      Centriole

  • 69. 
    Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called
    • A. 

      Gyri

    • B. 

      Sulci

    • C. 

      Fissures

    • D. 

      Ganglia

  • 70. 
    RNA differs from DNA because RNA contains
    • A. 

      Thymine and no uracil

    • B. 

      Guanine and no cytocine

    • C. 

      Uracil and no thymine

    • D. 

      Adenine and no thymine

    • E. 

      Uracil and no cytocine

  • 71. 
    Saltatory conduction is made possible by 
    • A. 

      The myelin sheath

    • B. 

      Large nerve fibers

    • C. 

      Diphasic impulses

    • D. 

      Erratic transmission of nerve impulses

  • 72. 
    Schwann cells are functionally similar to
    • A. 

      Ependymal cells

    • B. 

      Microglia

    • C. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D. 

      Astrocytes

  • 73. 
    Smooth muscle tissue is composed of two layers the _____ layer and the ________ layer.
    • A. 

      Fast, slow

    • B. 

      Active, inactive

    • C. 

      Sensitve, dense

    • D. 

      Longitudinal, circular

    • E. 

      Crossed, orthagonal

  • 74. 
    Sucrose is composed of one glucose and one fructose chemically bonded, so sucrose is considered a __________.
    • A. 

      Monosaccharide

    • B. 

      Dipeptide

    • C. 

      Polymer

    • D. 

      Disaccharide

    • E. 

      Polysaccharide

  • 75. 
    Sympathetic division stimulation causes
    • A. 

      A decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalisis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

    • B. 

      Increase blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

    • C. 

      Increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalisis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

    • D. 

      Decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

  • 76. 
    Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because
    • A. 

      Inactivation of ACh is fairly slow

    • B. 

      NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response

    • C. 

      Preganglionic fibers are short

    • D. 

      Preganglionc fibers are long

  • 77. 
    Synovial joints with a biaxial range of motion have the greatest range of motion
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 78. 
    Temporal or wave summation of muscle twitch can best be described as
    • A. 

      A wave of depolarization that travels down the sarcolemma

    • B. 

      An increased rate of neural stimulation that leads to muscle twitch "piggy backing" before the muscle can fully relax

    • C. 

      Process of sarcomere shortening resulting from the crossbridge cycle

    • D. 

      Muscle adaptation that results from aerobic exercise

    • E. 

      Increased motor unit recruitment that follows stronger neural signals

  • 79. 
    The anatomical position is used
    • A. 

      Rarely because people seldom assume that position

    • B. 

      As a standard reference for directional terms, regardless of the actual body position

    • C. 

      Only by physicians during physical exams

    • D. 

      Only when the body is lying down

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 80. 
    The arbor vitae refers to
    • A. 

      Cerebellar gray matter

    • B. 

      Cerebellar white matter

    • C. 

      The pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum

    • D. 

      Flocculonodular nodes

  • 81. 
    The axial skeleton includes all of the following
    • A. 

      Sternum, sacrum, cranium

    • B. 

      Tarsals, femur, humerous

    • C. 

      Tibia, scapula, thoracic vertebrae

    • D. 

      Cranium, vertebral column, pelvic girdle

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 82. 
    The bonds in a water molecule can be best characterized as ____________.
    • A. 

      Ionic

    • B. 

      Polar covalent

    • C. 

      Non-polar covalent

    • D. 

      Highly unstable

    • E. 

      Semi-cationic

  • 83. 
    The connective tissue sheath that surrounds a fasicle of a nerve fiber is the
    • A. 

      Neurilema

    • B. 

      Epinerurium

    • C. 

      Endoneurium

    • D. 

      Perineurium

  • 84. 
    The cranial sutures include the squamous, lambdoid, coronal, and
    • A. 

      Deltoid

    • B. 

      Sagital

    • C. 

      Nasal

    • D. 

      Mandibular

    • E. 

      Ethmoid

  • 85. 
    The division of anatomy that deals with large structures that are visible to the naked eye is called
    • A. 

      Developmental anatomy

    • B. 

      Gross anatomy

    • C. 

      Histological anatomy

    • D. 

      Coarse anatomy

    • E. 

      Micro anatomy

  • 86. 
    The essential element of DNA that determines the order of amino acids in protein is
    • A. 

      The sequence of the nucleotide bases

    • B. 

      The regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules

    • C. 

      The three-dimensional structure of the double helix

    • D. 

      The ordered arrangement of the histones

    • E. 

      The ratio between adenine and guanine

  • 87. 
    The femur is an example of a (n)
    • A. 

      Long bone

    • B. 

      Short bone

    • C. 

      Flat bone

    • D. 

      Intermidiate bone

    • E. 

      Irregular bone

  • 88. 
    The functional contractile unit of skeletal muscle is
    • A. 

      Titin

    • B. 

      The sacromere

    • C. 

      The myofibril

    • D. 

      The sacrolemma

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 89. 
    The functional unit of skeletal muscle is
    • A. 

      Titin

    • B. 

      The sarcomere

    • C. 

      The myofibril

    • D. 

      The sarcolemma

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 90. 
    The hypothalamus ___________
    • A. 

      Is the thermostat of the body because it regulates temperature

    • B. 

      Is an important auditory and visual relay center

    • C. 

      Has the pulvinar body as part of its structure

    • D. 

      Mediates sensations

  • 91. 
    The linkage formed between amino acids in a protein is known as a (n) _____________
    • A. 

      Ionic bond

    • B. 

      Peptide bond

    • C. 

      Amino bond

    • D. 

      Hydrogen bond

    • E. 

      Polar bond

  • 92. 
    The main function of __________ is thermoregulation
    • A. 

      Eccrine sweat glands

    • B. 

      Aprocrine sweat glands

    • C. 

      Mammary glands

    • D. 

      Ceruminous glands

    • E. 

      Pineal gland

  • 93. 
    The major event of the S-phase of mitosis is
    • A. 

      Synthesis of new nucleus

    • B. 

      Condesing of the chromatin into chromosomes

    • C. 

      Splitting of the cellular cytoplasm into two new cells

    • D. 

      The chromosomes lining up at the "equator" of the cell

    • E. 

      Replication of genomic DNA

  • 94. 
    The medullary cavity of a long bone is located in the _______and contains __________ which is_________
    • A. 

      Diaphysis, red marrow, the site for hematopoiesis

    • B. 

      Epiphysis, yellow marrow, used for osteogenesis

    • C. 

      Spongy bone, red marrow, the site for immune response

    • D. 

      Diaphysis, yellow marrow, adipose storage

    • E. 

      Diaphysis, trabeculae, made of hydroxyapatite

  • 95. 
    The most superficial layer of the dermis is the
    • A. 

      Papillary layer

    • B. 

      Stratum corneum

    • C. 

      Reticular layer

    • D. 

      Stratum spinosum

    • E. 

      Stratum granulosum

  • 96. 
    The movement of molecules or ions down their concentration gradient and across a biological membrane utilizing a transmembrane protein without the use of ATP is called
    • A. 

      Simple diffusion

    • B. 

      Facilitated diffusion

    • C. 

      Active transport

    • D. 

      Osmosis

    • E. 

      Complex diffusion

  • 97. 
    The occipital bone of the skull is an example of a (n)
    • A. 

      Long bone

    • B. 

      Short bone

    • C. 

      Flat bone

    • D. 

      Intermediate bone

    • E. 

      Irregular bone

  • 98. 
    The overall three-dimensional structure of one folded polypeptide (protein) is called its __________ structure.
    • A. 

      Primary

    • B. 

      Secondary

    • C. 

      Tertiary

    • D. 

      Quaternary

    • E. 

      Double helix

  • 99. 
    The patellar "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n)
    • A. 

      Extensor thrust reflex

    • B. 

      Stress reflex

    • C. 

      Crossed extensor reflex

    • D. 

      Stretch reflex

  • 100. 
    The period after an intial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ____________.
    • A. 

      Resting period

    • B. 

      Repolarization

    • C. 

      Depolarization

    • D. 

      Absolute refractory period

  • 101. 
    The primary auditory cortex is located in the
    • A. 

      Prefrontal lobe

    • B. 

      Frontal lobe

    • C. 

      Temporal lobe

    • D. 

      Parietal lobe

  • 102. 
    The primary protein constituent of thick myofilaments is
    • A. 

      Tropomyosin

    • B. 

      Myosin

    • C. 

      Actin

    • D. 

      Troponin

    • E. 

      Tubulin

  • 103. 
    The primary role of nervous tissue is to ______________
    • A. 

      Respond to stimuli and transmit electrical signals to other body regions

    • B. 

      Pull on the skin and bones to create body movements

    • C. 

      Provide cushioning and protection for vital organs

    • D. 

      Function as a barrier

  • 104. 
    The principle that states that the structure and function of any bodily system are inseparable is known as the principle of
    • A. 

      Symbiosis

    • B. 

      Duality

    • C. 

      Continuity

    • D. 

      Sustainability

    • E. 

      Complementarity

  • 105. 
    The process of bone remodling called bone resorption is accomplished by _________ in response to_________ Ca2+ levels in the blood
    • A. 

      Osteoblasts, low

    • B. 

      Osteoclasts, high

    • C. 

      Osteoblasts, high

    • D. 

      Osteoclasts, excessive

    • E. 

      Osteoclasts, low

  • 106. 
    The region of the sarcolemma that carries an action potential into the deep interior of a muscle is called a
    • A. 

      Neuromuscular junction

    • B. 

      Myofibril

    • C. 

      T- tubule

    • D. 

      Aponeurosis

    • E. 

      Motor end plate

  • 107. 
    The region of the sarcolemma that carries an action potential into the deep interior of a muscle is called a
    • A. 

      Neuromuscular junction

    • B. 

      Terminal cisterna

    • C. 

      T-tubule

    • D. 

      Aponeruosis

    • E. 

      Motor end plate

  • 108. 
    The rib cage contains ____true ribs,_____ false ribs, and ______ floating ribs
    • A. 

      7, 3, 2

    • B. 

      8, 2, 3

    • C. 

      6, 4, 3

    • D. 

      10, 1, 2

    • E. 

      9, 4, 4

  • 109. 
    The role of cholestrol in the plasma membrane is to
    • A. 

      Prevent excess sodium from entering the cell

    • B. 

      Act as an "identifacation tag" for neighboring cells

    • C. 

      Import glucose molecules

    • D. 

      Stabalize and increase the fluidty of the membrane

    • E. 

      Increase surface area to aid absorption

  • 110. 
    The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores what cation?
    • A. 

      Potassium

    • B. 

      Sodium

    • C. 

      Phosphate

    • D. 

      Calcium

    • E. 

      Magnesium

  • 111. 
    The sliding filament model of contraction involves
    • A. 

      Actin and myosin filaments sliding past each other while partially overlapping

    • B. 

      The shortening of thick filaments so that each thin filament slides past it

    • C. 

      Actin being broken down during each contraction and replaced while resting

    • D. 

      Actin heads binding to ATP and sliding the myosin filaments inward

    • E. 

      Actin and myosin filaments getting shorter, but not sliding past each other

  • 112. 
    The sodium/potassium pump is an example of
    • A. 

      Simple diffusion

    • B. 

      Facilitated diffusion

    • C. 

      Osmosis

    • D. 

      Active transport

    • E. 

      Receptor mediated endocytosis

  • 113. 
    The stratum basale of the epidermis can best be described as
    • A. 

      Playing a major role in water proofing the skin

    • B. 

      Simple epithelium with an excretory function

    • C. 

      Primarily immune system cells

    • D. 

      Storage cell for subcutaneous fat

    • E. 

      Single layer of mitotically active cells

  • 114. 
    The stratum lucidum is found
    • A. 

      Just deep to the papillary layer

    • B. 

      Within the areolar tissure of the dermal layer

    • C. 

      Only in thick skin

    • D. 

      More in females than males

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 115. 
    The structure in compact bone that runs perpendicular (right angle) to connect adjacent osteons is called ___________.
    • A. 

      Volkmann's canal

    • B. 

      Circumferential lamellae

    • C. 

      Haversian canal

    • D. 

      Lacunae

    • E. 

      Trabeculae

  • 116. 
    The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
    • A. 

      Arachnoid and epidura

    • B. 

      Arachnoid and pia

    • C. 

      Arachnoid and dura

    • D. 

      Dura and epidura

  • 117. 
    The subatomic particle that determines what the specific element is:
    • A. 

      Electron

    • B. 

      Proton

    • C. 

      Isotope

    • D. 

      Neutron

    • E. 

      Lepton

  • 118. 
    The thalamus and the hypothalamus are both located
    • A. 

      In the cerebrum

    • B. 

      In the diencephalon

    • C. 

      Next to the medula

    • D. 

      Posterior to the cerebellum

  • 119. 
    The three primary element of the cytoskeleton are microfilaments, intermediate filaments and
    • A. 

      Centrioles

    • B. 

      Nuclear pores

    • C. 

      Microtubules

    • D. 

      Connexons

    • E. 

      Fibrocytes

  • 120. 
    The two layers of an articular capsule of a synovial joint are ______ and________.
    • A. 

      Intervening pad, periosteum

    • B. 

      Fibrous capsule, synovial membrane

    • C. 

      Synovial membrane, bursa

    • D. 

      Fibrous capsule, fatty pad

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 121. 
    The _______ bone is an example of a facial bone
    • A. 

      Zygomatic

    • B. 

      Parietal

    • C. 

      Lamboid

    • D. 

      Temporal

    • E. 

      Occipital

  • 122. 
    The ________ give an osteon a structure resembling tree rings
    • A. 

      Canaliculi

    • B. 

      Lamellae

    • C. 

      Central canal

    • D. 

      Trabeculae

    • E. 

      Volkmanns canal

  • 123. 
    The __________ system eliminates nitrogenous waste and regulates water and electrolyte balance
    • A. 

      Digestive

    • B. 

      Excretory

    • C. 

      Respiratory

    • D. 

      Cardiovascular

    • E. 

      Endocrine

  • 124. 
    These cells primarily function as part of the integuments role as a biological barrier
    • A. 

      Langerhans (dendritic) cells

    • B. 

      Melanocytes

    • C. 

      Merkel

    • D. 

      Arrector pili

    • E. 

      Alpha cells

  • 125. 
    The_____ is an example of a hinge joint
    • A. 

      Shoulder

    • B. 

      Wrist

    • C. 

      Elbow

    • D. 

      Temporomandibular

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 126. 
    The________joint is an example of a ball and socket joint
    • A. 

      Shoulder

    • B. 

      Wrist

    • C. 

      Elbow

    • D. 

      Temporomandibular

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 127. 
    Virtually all chemical reactions in our body are catalized (sped up) by
    • A. 

      Salts

    • B. 

      Enzymes

    • C. 

      Phospholipids

    • D. 

      Polysaccharides

    • E. 

      Electrolytes

  • 128. 
     The primary role of the biological pigment melanin is
    • A. 

      Cutaneous stretch sensation

    • B. 

      Protect DNA from UV damage

    • C. 

      Activate immune cells in response to microorganisms

    • D. 

      Aid in tissue repair after mechanical stress/ damage

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 129. 
    ____________ muscle tissue is striated, branched and has intercalated disks
    • A. 

      Skeletal

    • B. 

      Voluntary

    • C. 

      Involuntary

    • D. 

      Cardiac

    • E. 

      Smooth

  • 130. 
    ____________ adhere neighboring cells together so that no fluids or solutes may pass between the cells
    • A. 

      Tight junctions

    • B. 

      Connexons

    • C. 

      Keratin

    • D. 

      Desmosomes

    • E. 

      Gap junctions

  • 131. 
    ___________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane
    • A. 

      Simple squamous

    • B. 

      Complex

    • C. 

      Stratified

    • D. 

      Cuboidal

    • E. 

      Pseudostratified

  • 132. 
    • A. 

      Periosteum

    • B. 

      Flat bone

    • C. 

      Diaphysis

    • D. 

      Interstitial lamellae

    • E. 

      Hyaline cartilage

  • 133. 
    Wolfs law is concerned with ______________
    • A. 

      Calcium homeostasis

    • B. 

      The thickness and strength of bone being determined by mechanical and gravitational forces

    • C. 

      The electrical charge in the bone surface

    • D. 

      The rate of bone repair following a fracture

    • E. 

      The strength to weight ratio of bone tissue determined by the relative composition of organic and inorganic components

  • 134. 
    Which type of muscle tissue would be found in the walls of arteries?
    • A. 

      Striated muscle

    • B. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • C. 

      Caridac muscle

    • D. 

      Smooth muscle

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 135. 
    Which structure of the integumentary system would most likely respond to a sudden drop in temperature?
    • A. 

      Eccrine glands

    • B. 

      Arrector pili

    • C. 

      Ceruminous glands

    • D. 

      Pacinian corpuscle

    • E. 

      Merkel disk

  • 136. 
    Which statement best describes connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Usually contains large amounts of extracellular matrix

    • B. 

      Primary concerned with secretion

    • C. 

      Usually lines a body cavity or covers an organ

    • D. 

      Typically arranged in a single cell layer

    • E. 

      Mostly functions to signal information to other tissues

  • 137. 
    Which of these nonmetals is not listed with the number of covalent bonds it naturally forms?
    • A. 

      O oxygen 2

    • B. 

      C carbon 3

    • C. 

      N nitrogen 3

    • D. 

      H hydrogen 1

    • E. 

      Na sodium 2

  • 138. 
    Which of the following systems is dependent on the cardiovascular system for its function?
    • A. 

      Digestive system

    • B. 

      Nervous system

    • C. 

      Skeletal system

    • D. 

      Integumentary system

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 139. 
    Which of the following is true concerning the atomic nucleus?
    • A. 

      Contains the mass of the atom

    • B. 

      Contains the particle that create chemical bonds

    • C. 

      Contains negatively charged particles

    • D. 

      Its mass is constantly changing

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 140. 
    Which of the following is not a functional charactersistic of life?
    • A. 

      Movement

    • B. 

      Responsiveness to external stimuli

    • C. 

      Maintenance of external boundry

    • D. 

      Decay

    • E. 

      Reproduction

  • 141. 
    Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue
    • A. 

      Exhibits polarity

    • B. 

      Supported by connective tissue

    • C. 

      Highly vascualr (supplied with blood vessels)

    • D. 

      Innervated (supplied by nerve fibers)

    • E. 

      Highly regenerative

  • 142. 
    • A. 

      Amino acid

    • B. 

      Cholesterol

    • C. 

      Enzymes

    • D. 

      Glycogen

    • E. 

      Tryptophan

  • 143. 
    Which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure?
    • A. 

      The cell membrane is solid at room temperature thus protecting the cell

    • B. 

      Membrane proteins "float" within the lipid bilayer creating a constantly changing mosaic pattern

    • C. 

      Membrane proteins transport fluids from the interior to the exterior of the cell

    • D. 

      The phospholipids that compose the membrane are tightly attached to each other to prevent fluid loss

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 144. 
    Which of the following epdiermal glands produces a milky sweat that tends to become odoriferous over time?
    • A. 

      Sebaceous

    • B. 

      Eccrine

    • C. 

      Merkel

    • D. 

      Aprocrine

    • E. 

      Axillary

  • 145. 
    Which of the following elements is most likely to form an ionic bond with potassium (atomic symbol K)?
    • A. 

      Carbon

    • B. 

      Oxygen

    • C. 

      Sodium

    • D. 

      Chlorine

    • E. 

      Nitrogen

  • 146. 
    Which is not essential for survival
    • A. 

      Water

    • B. 

      Oxygen

    • C. 

      Nutrients

    • D. 

      Light

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 147. 
    Which element is matched with the correct number of valence electrons
    • A. 

      Carbon, 5

    • B. 

      Sodium, 1

    • C. 

      Oxygen, 3

    • D. 

      Nitrogen, 2

    • E. 

      Chlorine, 6

  • 148. 
    What chemical is stored in the synaptic vesicles of a motor neuron?
    • A. 

      potassium

    • B. 

      Sodium

    • C. 

      ATP

    • D. 

      Calcium

    • E. 

      Acetylcholine

  • 149. 
    What is the direct role of ATP hydrolysis in skeletal muscle contraction?
    • A. 

      Promotes a shift of tropomyosin, exposing myosin binding sites on actin

    • B. 

      Opens calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

    • C. 

      Return the myosin head to the high energy "cocked" position

    • D. 

      Allows the myosin to form crossbridges with the actin filament

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 150. 
    • A. 

      A sheetlike extension of connective tissue that provides indirect attachment for muscles to bone

    • B. 

      A whispy sheath of connective tissue that suround each individual muscle fiber

    • C. 

      An "overcoat" of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the whole muscle

    • D. 

      Granule of stored glycogen that provides glucose during muscle activity

    • E. 

      A rodlike bundle of contractile filaments

  • 151. 
    What is acetylchoinesterase?
    • A. 

      An enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine

    • B. 

      Signaling molecule that initiates contraction

    • C. 

      Protein that blocks the myosin binding site on actin filaments

    • D. 

      The control center for excitation contraction coupling

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 152. 
    What are ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid called?
    • A. 

      Ependymal cells

    • B. 

      Schwann cells

    • C. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D. 

      Astrocytes

  • 153. 
    Which of the following is false or incorrect?
    • A. 

      An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold

    • B. 

      A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibatory effects are equal

    • C. 

      An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane

  • 154. 
    Which of the following is not true of graded potentials
    • A. 

      They are short lived

    • B. 

      They can form on receptor endings

    • C. 

      They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point

    • D. 

      They can be called postsynaptic potentials

  • 155. 
    Which of the following is not a special characteristic of neurons?
    • A. 

      They conduct impulses

    • B. 

      They have extreme longevity

    • C. 

      They are mitotic

    • D. 

      They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate

  • 156. 
    Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres?
    • A. 

      Central fissure

    • B. 

      Longitudinal fissure

    • C. 

      Parieto-occipital fissure

    • D. 

      Lateral fissure

  • 157. 
    Which statement correctly describes an antomical feature of the ANS
    • A. 

      The parasympathetic divison has long post-ganglionic neurons

    • B. 

      The sympathetic division exits the CNS in the thoraco-lumbar region of the spinal chord

    • C. 

      The parasympathetic divsion exits the CNS through the lumbar and sacral regions of the spinal chord

    • D. 

      The sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons are heavily mylenated