A&p II Exam 3 Review

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AP Biology Quizzes & Trivia

We all get pre-exam jitters, when studying for that human anatomy and physiology final exam one needs all the help they can get so as to nail down a pass grade. This means enrolling in study groups and taking quizzes to polish up your knowledge. Give the test review below a try. All the best


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      RNA or DNA core

    • B. 

      Causes cell lysis

    • C. 

      Protein coating

    • D. 

      Cause infections in body fuids

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      May have a slime coat

    • B. 

      One chromosome

    • C. 

      Not a living cell

    • D. 

      Has a cell wall

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue

    • B. 

      Sets the stage for repair processes

    • C. 

      Replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

    • D. 

      Disposes of cellular debris and pathogens

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Macrophage

    • B. 

      Gastric juice

    • C. 

      Keratin

    • D. 

      Cilia

  • 5. 
    B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ___________.
    • A. 

      Forming of a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell

    • B. 

      Producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells

    • C. 

      Immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies

    • D. 

      Reducing its size

  • 6. 
    Cytotoxic T cells
    • A. 

      Require the double recognition signal of I MHC plus II MHC on the target cell in order to function

    • B. 

      Self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized

    • C. 

      Function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations

    • D. 

      Are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells

  • 7. 
    The primary immune response ________________.
    • A. 

      Is another name for immunological memory

    • B. 

      Has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

    • C. 

      Occurs when memory cells are stimulated

    • D. 

      Occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response

  • 8. 
    Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies.
    • A. 

      Neutralization is the process by which antibodies cause invading cells to clump together

    • B. 

      Antibodies may directly destroy "invaders"

    • C. 

      Complement activation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection

    • D. 

      The most potent agglutinating agent is IgG

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Cytotoxic T cells

    • B. 

      APC

    • C. 

      B cell

    • D. 

      Helper T cell

  • 10. 
    The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the ___________ cells. 
    • A. 

      Suppressor T

    • B. 

      Cytotoxic T

    • C. 

      B

    • D. 

      Plasma

    • E. 

      Helper T

  • 11. 
    The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the _________ cells.
    • A. 

      Helper T

    • B. 

      NK

    • C. 

      Suppressor T

    • D. 

      B

    • E. 

      Cytotoxic T

  • 12. 
    Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include
    • A. 

      Mucus

    • B. 

      Sebaceous glands

    • C. 

      Epidermal layers

    • D. 

      Epithelia

    • E. 

      All of the answers are correct

  • 13. 
    Inflammation produces localized
    • A. 

      Heat

    • B. 

      Pain

    • C. 

      Swelling

    • D. 

      Redness

    • E. 

      All of the answers are correct

  • 14. 
    Adaptive defenses depend on the activities of
    • A. 

      Agranulocytes

    • B. 

      Lymphocytes

    • C. 

      Monocytes

    • D. 

      Erythrocytes

    • E. 

      Leukocytes

  • 15. 
    T cells and B cells can be activated only by
    • A. 

      Interleukins, interferons, and colony-stimulating factors

    • B. 

      Exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane

    • C. 

      Pathogens

    • D. 

      Cells infected with viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells

    • E. 

      Disease-causing agents

  • 16. 
    The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to
    • A. 

      Activate T cells

    • B. 

      Display antigen fragments

    • C. 

      Bind antigens to glycoproteins

    • D. 

      Process antigens

    • E. 

      All of the answers are correct

  • 17. 
    The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects _________ cells.
    • A. 

      Helper T

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      Cytotoxic T

    • D. 

      Suppressor T

    • E. 

      Plasma

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      4.65-4.75

    • B. 

      8.35-8.45

    • C. 

      7.35-7.45

    • D. 

      7.75-7.85

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      O

    • C. 

      AB

    • D. 

      B

  • 20. 
    Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?
    • A. 

      Delivery of oxygen to body cells

    • B. 

      Transport of hormones to their target organs

    • C. 

      Transport of salts to maintain blood volume

    • D. 

      Transport of metabolic wastes from cells

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      An increased number of RBCs

    • B. 

      Hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

    • C. 

      Moving to a lower altitude

    • D. 

      Decreased tissue demand for oxygen

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Kidney

    • B. 

      Pancreas

    • C. 

      Brain

    • D. 

      Liver

  • 23. 
    Normal heart founds are caused by which of the following events?
    • A. 

      Opening and closing of the heart valves

    • B. 

      Friction of blood against the chamber walls

    • C. 

      Closure of the heart valves

    • D. 

      Excitation of the SA node

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      AV valves are closed

    • B. 

      Ventricles are systole

    • C. 

      Ventricles are diastole

    • D. 

      Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta

  • 25. 
    The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ____________.
    • A. 

      Ventricular repolarization

    • B. 

      Atrial repolarization

    • C. 

      Ventricular depolarization

    • D. 

      Atrial depolarization

  • 26. 
    Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ___________.
    • A. 

      Left atrium

    • B. 

      Left ventricle

    • C. 

      Right atrium

    • D. 

      Right ventricle

  • 27. 
    The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it _____________.
    • A. 

      Expands the thoracic cage

    • B. 

      Sends blood through a smaller valve

    • C. 

      Pumps blood against a greater resistance

    • D. 

      Pumps a greater volume of blood

  • 28. 
    Which of the following is not an age-related change affecting the heart?
    • A. 

      Atherosclerosis

    • B. 

      Fibrosis of cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      Thinning of the valve flaps

    • D. 

      Decline in cardiac reserve

  • 29. 
    If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ______________.
    • A. 

      Contractions would last as long as the refractory period

    • B. 

      It would be less than 1-2m

    • C. 

      Tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action

    • D. 

      It would be much longer before cardiac cells could respond to a second stimulation

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      AV valve opens

    • B. 

      Ventricle contracts

    • C. 

      Diastolic filling begins

    • D. 

      Semilunar valve opens

    • E. 

      AV valve opens and diastolic filling beings

  • 31. 
    What volume is labeled "G" on the graph?
    • A. 

      Stroke volume

    • B. 

      End-systolic volume

    • C. 

      Cardiac output

    • D. 

      Ejection fraction

    • E. 

      End-diastolic volume

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      Semilunar valve closes

    • B. 

      End systolic volume

    • C. 

      AV valve opens

    • D. 

      Semilunar valve opens

    • E. 

      AV valve closes

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      End-systolic volume

    • B. 

      Total cardiac volume

    • C. 

      Cardiac output

    • D. 

      Stroke volume

    • E. 

      End-diastolic volume

  • 34. 
    What occurs at the circled label "5" on the graph?
    • A. 

      Peak systolic pressure

    • B. 

      Isovolumetric systole

    • C. 

      Ventricular refilling

    • D. 

      Increased heart rate

    • E. 

      Isovolumetric contraction

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Semilunar valve opens

    • B. 

      AV valve opens

    • C. 

      AV valve closes

    • D. 

      Semilunar valve closes

    • E. 

      Ventricular ejection occurs

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation

    • B. 

      Ventricular filling

    • C. 

      Sympathetic stimulation

    • D. 

      Isovolumetric ventricular contraction

    • E. 

      Ventricular ejection

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Ventricular filling

    • B. 

      Isovolumetric ventricular contraction

    • C. 

      Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation

    • D. 

      Ventricular ejection

    • E. 

      Sympathetic stimulation

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      Left atrium is receiving pressure from the left ventricle

    • B. 

      Left atrial pressure is decreasing

    • C. 

      Left atrium is in diastole

    • D. 

      Left atrium is pressurizing the left ventricle

    • E. 

      Left atrium is in systole

  • 39. 
    With each ventricular systole,
    • A. 

      The ventricles fill with blood

    • B. 

      Blood pressure remains steady

    • C. 

      Blood pressure increases

    • D. 

      Blood pressure decreases

    • E. 

      Cardiac output decreases

  • 40. 
    If preload increases, what effect will that have on Cardiac Output?
    • A. 

      It will decrease

    • B. 

      It will increase

    • C. 

      Not enough information known

    • D. 

      There is no relationship

  • 41. 
    If preload increases because venous return increases, what effect will that have on Cardiac Output?
    • A. 

      It will increase

    • B. 

      Not enough information known

    • C. 

      It will decrease

    • D. 

      There is no relationship

  • 42. 
    If preload increases, what effect will that have on Stroke Volume?
    • A. 

      Not enough information known

    • B. 

      It will increase

    • C. 

      It will decrease

    • D. 

      There is no relationship

  • 43. 
    If preload increases, what effect will that have on EDV?
    • A. 

      It will increase

    • B. 

      It will decrease

    • C. 

      There is no relationship

    • D. 

      Not enough information known

  • 44. 
    If preload increases, what effect will that have on ESV?
    • A. 

      It will decrease

    • B. 

      It will increase

    • C. 

      Not enough information known

    • D. 

      There is no relationship

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      Delivery of oxygen to body cells

    • B. 

      Transport of salts to maintain blood volume

    • C. 

      Transport of hormones to their target organs

    • D. 

      Transport of metabolic wastes from cells

  • 46. 
    • A. 

      Maintenance of body temperature

    • B. 

      Maintenance of normal pH in body tissue

    • C. 

      Maintenance of adequate fluid volume

    • D. 

      Prevention of blood loss

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      Blood varies from bright red to dark red color

    • B. 

      Blood is denser and more viscous than water

    • C. 

      Blood carries body cells to injured areas for repair

    • D. 

      Blood pH is normally between 7.35 and 7.45

  • 48. 
    In a centrifuged sample of blood, what makes up the buffy coat?
    • A. 

      Red blood cells

    • B. 

      Plasma

    • C. 

      Plaelets only

    • D. 

      White blood cells and platelets

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      Regulation

    • B. 

      Hormone production

    • C. 

      Protection

    • D. 

      Disteibution

  • 50. 
    The plasma protein that is the major contributor to osmotic pressure is ______________.
    • A. 

      Gamma globulin

    • B. 

      Fibrinogen

    • C. 

      Albumin

    • D. 

      Alpha globulin

  • 51. 
    • A. 

      It is about 90% water

    • B. 

      The main protein component is hemoglobin

    • C. 

      It is the same as serum but without the clotting proteins

    • D. 

      It contains about 20 dissolved components

  • 52. 
    Which of the following is true of the structure of an erythrocyte?
    • A. 

      Erythrocytes are a fixed shape and cannot change shape

    • B. 

      Erythrocytes are shaped like biconcave discs

    • C. 

      Erythrocytes are cell fragments

    • D. 

      Erythrocytes are nucleated cells

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      Iron

    • B. 

      Heme group

    • C. 

      Amino acids of globin

    • D. 

      Spectrin

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      Four

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Eight

    • D. 

      Six

  • 55. 
    • A. 

      Erythrocytes

    • B. 

      Leukocytes

    • C. 

      Platelets

    • D. 

      Antibodies

  • 56. 
    Choose the statement that is true concerning hemoglobin.
    • A. 

      When hemoglobin is not bound to oxygen, it appears blue

    • B. 

      It is composed of four protein chains and four heme groups

    • C. 

      It is found in the plasma portion of blood

    • D. 

      It can bind a maximum of three oxygen molecules

  • 57. 
    Erythrocytes lack a nucleus.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 58. 
    Platelets _______________.
    • A. 

      Are the precursors of leukocytes

    • B. 

      Have a life span of about 120 days

    • C. 

      Stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break

    • D. 

      Have multiple nuclei

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      Sleeping in a well-ventilated room

    • B. 

      Vigorous exercise

    • C. 

      Travel at a high altitude

    • D. 

      Malaria and travel at high altitude

  • 60. 
    • A. 

      Liver

    • B. 

      Pancreas

    • C. 

      Kidney

    • D. 

      Brain

  • 61. 
    The primary source of RBCs in the adult human being is the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 62. 
    The normal RBC "graveyard" is the liver.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 63. 
    Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 64. 
    Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and red pigment globin.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 65. 
    • A. 

      Megakaryocyte

    • B. 

      Lymphocytes

    • C. 

      Platelets

    • D. 

      Megakaryoblast

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 67. 
    During which event of hemostasis do clotting factors (procoagulants) assist with the transformation of blood from a liquid to a gel? Select from letters A-D.
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 68. 
    • A. 

      Plasmin

    • B. 

      Fibrin

    • C. 

      Plasminogen

    • D. 

      Thrombin

  • 69. 
    Hemostasis leads to ____________.
    • A. 

      Red blood cell production

    • B. 

      Heme production

    • C. 

      Stoppage of bleeding

    • D. 

      White blood cell production

  • 70. 
    • A. 

      Coagulation

    • B. 

      Vascular spasm

    • C. 

      Fibrinolysis

    • D. 

      Platelet plug formation

  • 71. 
    • A. 

      Vascular spasm

    • B. 

      Coagulation

    • C. 

      Vascular relaxation

    • D. 

      Platelet plug formation

  • 72. 
    A person who lacks agglutinogens A and B would have blood type ____________.
    • A. 

      O

    • B. 

      AB

    • C. 

      B

    • D. 

      A

  • 73. 
    Choose the compatible transfusion
    • A. 

      Donate type O blood to a recipient with type AB blood

    • B. 

      Donate type B blood to a recipient with type O blood

    • C. 

      Donate AB blood to a recipient with type B blood

    • D. 

      Donate type A blood to a recipient with type B blood

  • 74. 
    The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ___________.
    • A. 

      Expand the thoracic cage during diastole

    • B. 

      Pump blood with greater pressure

    • C. 

      Accommodate a greater volume of blood

    • D. 

      Pump blood through a smaller valve

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      Fibrous pericardium

    • B. 

      Pericardial cavity

    • C. 

      Epicardium

    • D. 

      Myocardium

  • 76. 
    • A. 

      Epicardium

    • B. 

      Visceral layer of the serous pericardium

    • C. 

      Endocardium

    • D. 

      Myocardium

  • 77. 
    The layers of the heart wall from superficial to deep are:
    • A. 

      Myocardium, endocardium, and epicardium

    • B. 

      Epicardium, endocardium, and myocardium

    • C. 

      Epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium

    • D. 

      Endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium

  • 78. 
    The __________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
    • A. 

      Tricuspid

    • B. 

      Aortic semilumar

    • C. 

      Mitral

    • D. 

      Pulmonary semilunar

  • 79. 
    A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker to prevent angina (chest pain) by decreasing the demand for oxygen. What is the explanation for this pharmacological effect?
    • A. 

      A drug the inhibits the entry of calcium ions into the cytoplasm of cardiac cells decreases the membrane potential, thereby making the heart beat slower, relieving the chest pain.

    • B. 

      A drug that enhances the entry of calcium ions into the cytoplasm of cardiac cells decreases the force of myocardial contractility, thereby decreasing the oxygen demand, relieving the chest pain.

    • C. 

      A drug that inhibits the entry of calcium ions into the cytoplasm of cardiac cells decreases the force of myocardial contractility, thereby decreasing the oxygen demand, relieving the chest pain.

    • D. 

      A drug that enhances the entry of calcium ions into the cytoplasm of cardiac cells increases the membrane potential, thereby making the heart beat slower, relieving the chest pain.

    • E. 

      A drug the blocks the calcium channels prevents the cardiac cells from contracting, thereby relieving the chest pain.

  • 80. 
    Cardiac tamponade results in ineffective pumping of blood by the heart because the excessive amount of fluid in  the pericardial cavity will ___________.
    • A. 

      Prevent the visceral layer of the serous pericardium from properly surrounding the heart

    • B. 

      Prevent the heart from filling properly with blood

    • C. 

      Prevent proper oxygenation of the blood

    • D. 

      Interfere with the ability of this fluid to lubricate the serous membranes

  • 81. 
    Which chamber of the heart has the highest probability of being the site of a myocardial infarction?
    • A. 

      Left atrium

    • B. 

      Right atrium

    • C. 

      Left ventricle

    • D. 

      Right ventricle

  • 82. 
    The presence of an incompetent tricuspid valve would have the direct effect of causing ____________.
    • A. 

      Reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the lungs

    • B. 

      Reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the myocardium

    • C. 

      Reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood from the lungs to the heart

    • D. 

      Reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood from the head to the heart

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      Ventricles are in diastole

    • B. 

      Ventricles are in systole

    • C. 

      Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta

    • D. 

      AV valve are closed

  • 84. 
    The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ____________.
    • A. 

      Fossa ovalis

    • B. 

      Coronary veins

    • C. 

      Coronary arteries

    • D. 

      Coronary sinus

  • 85. 
    Specifically, what part of the intrinsic conduction system stimulates the atrioventricular (AV) node to conduct impulses to the atrioventricular bundle?
    • A. 

      Interventricular septum

    • B. 

      Subendocardial conducting network (Purkinje fibers)

    • C. 

      Bundle brances

    • D. 

      Sinoatrial (SA) node

  • 86. 
    • A. 

      P wave

    • B. 

      QRS complex

    • C. 

      T wave

    • D. 

      Q-T interval

  • 87. 
    During which portion of the electrocardiogram do the atria contract?
    • A. 

      S-T segment

    • B. 

      P-R interval

    • C. 

      P wave

    • D. 

      Q-T interval

  • 88. 
    Determine which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) tracings is missing P waves. Select from letters A-D.
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      Isovolumetric contraction phase

    • B. 

      Ventricular filling

    • C. 

      Ventricular ejection

    • D. 

      Isovolumetric relaxation phase

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      Increasing extracellular calcium levels

    • B. 

      Thyroxine

    • C. 

      Epinephrine

    • D. 

      Increasing extracellular potassium levels

  • 91. 
    At what point in the cardiac cycle is pressure in the ventricles the highest (around 120 mm Hg)?
    • A. 

      Mid-to-late diastole (ventricular filling)

    • B. 

      Mid-to-late diastole (atrial contraction)

    • C. 

      Early diastole (isovolumetric relaxtation)

    • D. 

      Ventricular systole

  • 92. 
    The heart's pacemaker is the __________.
    • A. 

      Atrioventricular bundle

    • B. 

      Atrioventricular node

    • C. 

      Purkinje fibers

    • D. 

      Sinoatrial node

  • 93. 
    The order of impulse conduction in the heart, from beginning to end, is _____________.
    • A. 

      SA node, bundle of His, AV node, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers

    • B. 

      SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers

    • C. 

      SA node, bundle branches, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers

    • D. 

      SA node, bundle branches, bundle of His, AV node, and Purkinje fibers

  • 94. 
    Point that represents the "dup" sound made by the heart.
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

    • E. 

      E

  • 95. 
    The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates _____________.
    • A. 

      Atrial depolarization

    • B. 

      Ventricular repolarization

    • C. 

      Atrial repolarization

    • D. 

      Ventricular depolarization

  • 96. 
    If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, _____________.
    • A. 

      Potassium channels compensate and no change in heart rate would occur

    • B. 

      Heart rate would decrease, but blood pressure would rise due to the excess sodium present

    • C. 

      Threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase

    • D. 

      Tetanic contraction would occur due to the short absolute refractory period of cardiac muscle

  • 97. 
    During the period of ventricular filling __________.
    • A. 

      The atria remain in diastole

    • B. 

      It is represented by the P wave on the ECG

    • C. 

      Blood flow mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valves into the ventricles

    • D. 

      Pressure in the heart is at its peak

  • 98. 
    The tricuspid valve is closed ____________.
    • A. 

      When the ventricle is in systole

    • B. 

      By the movement of blood from atrium to ventricle

    • C. 

      While the atrium is contracting

    • D. 

      While the ventricle is in diastole

  • 99. 
    Norepinephrine acs on the heart by ______________.
    • A. 

      Decreasing heart contractility

    • B. 

      Blocking the action of calcium

    • C. 

      Causing a decrease in stroke volume

    • D. 

      Causing threshold to be reached more quickly

  • 100. 
    If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells _________.
    • A. 

      Contractions would last as long as the refractory period

    • B. 

      It would be less than 1-2 ms

    • C. 

      Tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action

    • D. 

      It would be much longer before cardiac cells would respond to a second stimulation

  • 101. 
    • A. 

      Age

    • B. 

      Skin color

    • C. 

      Body temperature

    • D. 

      Gender

  • 102. 
    • A. 

      Systole: relaxed period

    • B. 

      Stoke volume: amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in one minute

    • C. 

      Quiescent period: total heart relaxation between heartbeats

    • D. 

      Diastole: contraction period

  • 103. 
    In a health individual which of the following would be low?
    • A. 

      Contractility

    • B. 

      Afterload

    • C. 

      Stroke volume

    • D. 

      Perload

  • 104. 
    • A. 

      Increasing contractility

    • B. 

      Increasing afterload

    • C. 

      Increasing preload

    • D. 

      Increasing sympathetic stimulation

  • 105. 
    As your muscles contract during activity, more blood is returned to the heart. Which variable would be affected ad what would be the outcome of this action?
    • A. 

      Preload would be increased, which would increase cardiac output

    • B. 

      End-systolic volume would be increased, which would increase cardiac output

    • C. 

      Contractility would be increase, which would increase cardiac output

    • D. 

      Afterload would increase, which would increase cardiac output

  • 106. 
    Adding a chemical that reduces Na+ transport near the sinoatrial (SA) node would have what effect on the heart's intrinsic conducting system?
    • A. 

      The SA node would depolarize less quickly, reducing the heart rate

    • B. 

      There will be no change

    • C. 

      The SA node would depolarize more quickly, increasing the heart rate

    • D. 

      The SA node would depolarize more quickly, decreasing the heart rate

    • E. 

      The SA node would depolarize less quickly, increasing the heart rate

  • 107. 
    • A. 

      Cardiovascular center

    • B. 

      Increased sympathetic stimulation

    • C. 

      Increased vagal tone

    • D. 

      Increased venous return

  • 108. 
    An abnormal P wave could be indicative of ___________.
    • A. 

      An abnormal AV node

    • B. 

      An abnormal AV bundle

    • C. 

      Incomplete ventricular repolarization

    • D. 

      Enlarged atria

  • 109. 
    • A. 

      Suddenly standing up from a supine position

    • B. 

      Heightened use of skeletal muscle

    • C. 

      Decreasing thyroid function (thyroxine)

    • D. 

      An increase in adrenal medulla output (epinephrine)

  • 110. 
    • A. 

      Ectopic focus

    • B. 

      Arhythmia

    • C. 

      Extrasystole

    • D. 

      Heart block

  • 111. 
    • A. 

      Degree of stretch of the heart muscle

    • B. 

      Back pressure exerted by atrial blood

    • C. 

      Cardiac reserve

    • D. 

      Contractility of cardiac muscle

  • 112. 
    Determine which ECG shows a normal sinus rhythm.
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 113. 
    • A. 

      Atrial depolarization

    • B. 

      Atrial repolarization

    • C. 

      Ventricular repolarization

    • D. 

      Ventricular depolarization

  • 114. 
    • A. 

      Decreased heart rate and decreased stroke volume

    • B. 

      Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume

    • C. 

      Increased heart rate and increased stroke volume

    • D. 

      Decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume

  • 115. 
    • A. 

      Epinephrine and norepinephrine

    • B. 

      Aceytlcholine

    • C. 

      Decreased activity of the sympathetic nervous system

    • D. 

      Increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system

  • 116. 
    • A. 

      Increased contractility

    • B. 

      Increased end diastolic volume

    • C. 

      Decreased end diastolic volume

    • D. 

      Increased end systolic volume

  • 117. 
    By what mechanism would an increase in venous return increase stroke volume?
    • A. 

      Increased end diastolic volume

    • B. 

      Increased end systolic volume

    • C. 

      Increased contractility

    • D. 

      Decreased end diastolic volume

  • 118. 
    • A. 

      No change in stroke volume and decreased cardiac ouput

    • B. 

      Decreased stroke volume and decreased cardiac output

    • C. 

      Decreased stroke volume and no change in cardiac output

    • D. 

      Increased stroke volume and increased cardiac output

  • 119. 
    • A. 

      The ventricles are not reaching systole in every cardiac cycle

    • B. 

      The heart would pump with too much pressure (hypertension)

    • C. 

      The heart is not pumping any blood at all

    • D. 

      The atria are not pumping blood

  • 120. 
    • A. 

      S-T segment

    • B. 

      QRS complex

    • C. 

      T wave

    • D. 

      P wave

  • 121. 
    • A. 

      Ventricles are filling

    • B. 

      Ventricles are contracting

    • C. 

      Atria are contracting

    • D. 

      Valves are closing

  • 122. 
    What causes the abnormal swishing or whooshing sound that is heard as blood regurgitates back into an atrium from its associated ventricle?
    • A. 

      Aortic recoil

    • B. 

      Pulmonary trunk expansion

    • C. 

      Blood turbulence

    • D. 

      Semilunar valve closure

  • 123. 
    Action potentials generated by the autorhythmic cells spread to the contractile cells through what structures in the membrane?
    • A. 

      Tight junctions

    • B. 

      Desmosomes

    • C. 

      Gap junctions

    • D. 

      Intercalated discs

  • 124. 
    One of the changes that occur in the pacemaker potential (unstable resting membrane potential) in the SA node (an autorhythmic cell) is a decreased efflux of what ion?
    • A. 

      Calcium

    • B. 

      Sodium

    • C. 

      Potassium

  • 125. 
    When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what channels open causing further depolarization of the membrane?
    • A. 

      Slow calcium

    • B. 

      Potassium

    • C. 

      Fast sodium

    • D. 

      Fast calcium

  • 126. 
    Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell is due to the opening of which channels?
    • A. 

      Voltage-gated potassium channels

    • B. 

      Chemically gated calcium channels

    • C. 

      Chemically gated potassium channels

    • D. 

      Voltage-gated sodium channels

  • 127. 
    In order to cause cardiac muscle contraction, the contractile cells must also depolarize. What causes the depolarization of the contractile cells?
    • A. 

      The flow of positive ions from adjacent cells

    • B. 

      An unstable resting membrane potential in the contractile cells

    • C. 

      The flow of negative ions from adjacent cells

  • 128. 
    Select the correct partial path. This path is part of the complete blood flow pathway. You should be able to trace flow starting in any location.
    • A. 

      Pulmonary trunk to pulmonary arteries to pulmonary capillaries to pulmonary veins returning to the right atrium

    • B. 

      Systemic veins returning to the left atrium and forward through the mitral valve

    • C. 

      Aorta to smaller systemic arteries to systemic capillaries to systemic veins to right atrium through the tricuspid valve

    • D. 

      Pulmonary artery into the left atrium through mitral valve to left ventricle