A&p II Exam 3 Review

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1. Match the following:
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A&p II Exam 3 Review - Quiz

We all get pre-exam jitters, when studying for that human anatomy and physiology final exam one needs all the help they can get so as to nail down a pass grade. This means enrolling in study groups and taking quizzes to polish up your knowledge. Give the test review below... see morea try. All the best see less

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2. Match the following:
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3. Erythrocytes lack a nucleus.

Explanation

Erythrocytes, also known as red blood cells, lack a nucleus. This is because during their development, the nucleus is expelled to create more space for hemoglobin, the molecule responsible for carrying oxygen. Without a nucleus, erythrocytes have a biconcave shape that allows them to efficiently transport oxygen throughout the body.

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4. Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss.

Explanation

Hemorrhagic anemias occur when there is excessive blood loss, leading to a decrease in the number of red blood cells and a decrease in hemoglobin levels. This can happen due to various reasons such as trauma, gastrointestinal bleeding, or excessive menstrual bleeding. Therefore, the statement "Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss" is true.

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5. What is the average normal pH range of blood?

Explanation

The average normal pH range of blood is 7.35-7.45. This range is slightly alkaline, indicating that blood is slightly basic. Maintaining this pH range is crucial for the proper functioning of various physiological processes in the body, including enzyme activity, oxygen transport, and acid-base balance. Any significant deviation from this range can lead to health issues and disrupt normal bodily functions.

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6. Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?

Explanation

Blood type O is generally called the universal donor because it lacks both A and B antigens on the red blood cells. This means that it can be transfused to individuals with any blood type without causing an adverse immune reaction. In contrast, individuals with blood types A, B, or AB have antigens on their red blood cells that can potentially react with antibodies in the recipient's blood, leading to complications. Therefore, blood type O is considered the safest and most compatible for transfusions in emergency situations or when the recipient's blood type is unknown.

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7. The normal RBC "graveyard" is the liver.

Explanation

The normal RBC "graveyard" is not the liver. RBCs are broken down and destroyed by macrophages in the spleen. The spleen acts as a filter for the blood, removing old and damaged RBCs from circulation. The liver also plays a role in the breakdown of RBCs, but it is not the primary site for their destruction. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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8. A person who lacks agglutinogens A and B would have blood type ____________.

Explanation

A person who lacks agglutinogens A and B would have blood type O. Agglutinogens are the antigens found on the surface of red blood cells. Blood type O individuals do not have either A or B antigens, making them universal donors as their blood does not contain any antigens that could potentially react with the recipient's antibodies.

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9. Which of the following is true of the structure of an erythrocyte?

Explanation

Erythrocytes, also known as red blood cells, are shaped like biconcave discs. This means that they have a concave shape on both sides, resembling a disc with a thinner middle region. This unique shape allows erythrocytes to have a larger surface area for the exchange of gases, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide, in the bloodstream. The biconcave shape also enables erythrocytes to be flexible and squeeze through narrow capillaries, ensuring efficient oxygen delivery to tissues throughout the body.

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10. The __________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

Explanation

The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle. It consists of three leaflets or cusps, which open to allow blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle, and close to prevent backflow of blood. This valve plays a crucial role in ensuring that blood flows in the correct direction within the heart, specifically from the atrium to the ventricle.

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11. One of the changes that occur in the pacemaker potential (unstable resting membrane potential) in the SA node (an autorhythmic cell) is a decreased efflux of what ion?

Explanation

In the pacemaker potential of the SA node, the resting membrane potential becomes more unstable. This change is characterized by a decreased efflux of potassium ions. Potassium ions play a crucial role in repolarizing the cell after an action potential, so a decrease in their efflux would result in a slower repolarization process. This slower repolarization allows the cell to reach the threshold for firing an action potential more gradually, contributing to the rhythmicity of the SA node as it generates electrical impulses for the heart's contraction.

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12. Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?

Explanation

Macrophages are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the body's immune response. They are part of the second line of defense against microorganisms, as they engulf and destroy foreign particles, including bacteria and viruses. Macrophages are particularly effective in phagocytosis, the process of engulfing and digesting pathogens. They also release chemicals that help activate other immune cells and initiate an inflammatory response. Overall, macrophages are an important component of the body's immune system and contribute to the second line of defense against microorganisms.

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13. What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

Explanation

The kidney is responsible for regulating erythrocyte production in the body. It produces a hormone called erythropoietin (EPO) which stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells (erythrocytes). When the oxygen levels in the body are low, the kidney detects this and releases EPO, which then signals the bone marrow to increase the production of red blood cells. This process helps to maintain the balance of red blood cells in the body and ensure adequate oxygen delivery to tissues and organs.

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14. Action potentials generated by the autorhythmic cells spread to the contractile cells through what structures in the membrane?

Explanation

Gap junctions are specialized protein channels that allow for direct electrical communication between cells. In the context of the question, they are responsible for transmitting action potentials from the autorhythmic cells (which generate the electrical signals) to the contractile cells in the heart. These gap junctions create a pathway for the rapid spread of electrical impulses, ensuring coordinated contraction of the cardiac muscle. Tight junctions and desmosomes are involved in cell adhesion and do not play a role in electrical signal transmission. Intercalated discs, on the other hand, are specialized regions of the cell membrane that contain both gap junctions and desmosomes, facilitating both electrical and mechanical coupling between cardiac cells.

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15. Which of the following would increase heart rate?

Explanation

Epinephrine and norepinephrine are both hormones that are released during times of stress or excitement. These hormones bind to specific receptors in the heart, causing it to beat faster and stronger. This increase in heart rate is part of the body's response to prepare for physical activity or a perceived threat.

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16. Which of the following factors does not influence heart rate?

Explanation

Heart rate is primarily influenced by factors such as age, body temperature, and gender. Skin color, on the other hand, does not directly affect heart rate. Skin color is determined by the amount of melanin in the skin, which is a pigment that protects against harmful UV radiation. While skin color can vary among individuals, it does not have a direct impact on heart rate regulation.

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17. Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ___________.

Explanation

Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the left atrium. The pulmonary veins are responsible for carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart. Once the blood reaches the left atrium, it is then pumped into the left ventricle, which will eventually pump it out to the rest of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is the left atrium.

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18. Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and red pigment globin.

Explanation

Hemoglobin is actually made up of the protein globin and the red pigment heme. The statement in the question is incorrect, as it states that hemoglobin is made up of heme and globin. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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19. If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ______________.

Explanation

If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action. This is because tetanic contractions are sustained contractions that occur when a muscle is stimulated rapidly and does not have enough time to relax between contractions. In skeletal muscle cells, the refractory period is short, allowing for rapid contractions. However, in cardiac muscle cells, the refractory period is longer to ensure that the heart has enough time to relax and refill with blood before the next contraction. If the refractory period in cardiac cells was as short as in skeletal cells, the heart would not have enough time to relax, leading to sustained contractions and a cessation of pumping action.

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20. Which of the following terms is correctly matched to its description?

Explanation

Stoke volume refers to the amount of blood that is pumped out by each ventricle in one minute. This is the correct match because stoke volume specifically measures the volume of blood ejected by the ventricles during each heartbeat. It is an important parameter in assessing cardiac function and can be used to diagnose and monitor various cardiovascular conditions.

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21. Choose the compatible transfusion

Explanation

Type AB blood is considered the universal recipient, as it can receive blood from any blood type. Type O blood is considered the universal donor, as it can be donated to any blood type. Therefore, donating type O blood to a recipient with type AB blood is compatible, as the recipient can safely receive the type O blood.

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22. The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates _____________.

Explanation

The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates atrial depolarization. This means that the atria are contracting and sending an electrical signal to initiate the contraction of the ventricles. The P wave represents the depolarization of the atria, which is the process of the cardiac muscle cells becoming electrically charged and ready to contract. This is an important step in the cardiac cycle and helps to maintain proper heart function and blood flow throughout the body.

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23. Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the time during which the atria repolarize?

Explanation

The QRS complex represents the time during which the ventricles depolarize and contract. Since the question asks for the time during which the atria repolarize, the correct answer is not available.

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24. Which of the following is NOT a formed element of the blood?

Explanation

Antibodies are not considered a formed element of the blood. Formed elements refer to the cellular components of blood, such as erythrocytes (red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cells), and platelets. Antibodies, on the other hand, are proteins produced by certain white blood cells called B lymphocytes in response to the presence of foreign substances (antigens) in the body. They play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and neutralizing antigens.

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25. If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells _________.

Explanation

If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action. The absolute refractory period is the period during which a muscle cell cannot be stimulated to contract again, and in skeletal muscle cells, it is very short (1-2 ms). If the refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same, it would be much longer before the cells could respond to a second stimulation. This delay could lead to tetanic contractions, which are sustained contractions without relaxation, and this could interrupt the heart's normal pumping action.

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26. Which of the following cells combines bother cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity?

Explanation

Helper T cells combine both cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity. They play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells such as B cells and cytotoxic T cells. Helper T cells recognize antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and release chemical signals called cytokines, which stimulate the production of antibodies by B cells and activate cytotoxic T cells to destroy infected cells. Therefore, helper T cells are essential for the effective functioning of both the cellular and humoral immune responses.

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27. Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include

Explanation

All of the options listed (mucus, sebaceous glands, epidermal layers, and epithelia) are examples of physical barriers that can protect against pathogens. Mucus acts as a sticky trap for pathogens, preventing them from entering the body. Sebaceous glands produce an oily substance that can create a protective barrier on the skin, preventing pathogens from penetrating. Epidermal layers provide a tough outer layer of skin that acts as a physical barrier against pathogens. Epithelia, which are found in various tissues and organs, form a protective layer that can prevent the entry of pathogens. Therefore, all of the options listed are correct examples of physical barriers against pathogens.

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28. Platelets _______________.

Explanation

Platelets are small cell fragments that play a crucial role in the process of blood clotting. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets adhere to the site of injury and form a plug, which helps to seal the break and prevent excessive bleeding. This process is essential for the body to initiate the healing process and prevent further damage. Therefore, the statement "Stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break" accurately describes the function of platelets.

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29. The heart's pacemaker is the __________.

Explanation

The sinoatrial node is known as the heart's pacemaker because it is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heart's rhythm. Located in the right atrium, the sinoatrial node generates electrical signals that cause the atria to contract, initiating the heartbeat. These signals then travel to the atrioventricular node, which acts as a relay station, sending the impulses to the ventricles to complete the contraction and pump blood throughout the body. The sinoatrial node is crucial in maintaining a regular and coordinated heartbeat.

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30. During the period of ventricular filling __________.

Explanation

During the period of ventricular filling, blood flow mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valves into the ventricles. This is because the atria are relaxed (in diastole) and the AV valves are open, allowing blood to flow into the ventricles due to the pressure difference. The P wave on the ECG represents atrial depolarization, which occurs just before ventricular filling. The statement about pressure in the heart being at its peak is incorrect, as pressure in the heart is actually low during ventricular filling.

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31. The layers of the heart wall from superficial to deep are:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium". The epicardium is the outermost layer of the heart wall, followed by the myocardium which is the middle layer responsible for the contraction of the heart. The endocardium is the innermost layer that lines the chambers of the heart and covers the heart valves.

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32. Inflammation produces localized

Explanation

Inflammation is a natural response of the body to injury or infection. It is characterized by various symptoms such as heat, pain, swelling, and redness in the affected area. These symptoms occur due to increased blood flow and accumulation of immune cells at the site of inflammation. Therefore, all of the given answers - heat, pain, swelling, and redness - are correct as they are common manifestations of localized inflammation.

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33. T cells and B cells can be activated only by

Explanation

T cells and B cells are specialized types of white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune response. They can be activated by exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane. Antigens are molecules that are recognized by the immune system as foreign, such as those found on pathogens or infected cells. When T or B cells encounter an antigen that matches their specific receptors, they become activated and initiate an immune response to eliminate the threat. This activation process is essential for the body to mount an effective immune response against pathogens, viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells.

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34. Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

Explanation

Hypoxia is a condition in which there is a deficiency of oxygen in the body's tissues. EPO (erythropoietin) is a hormone produced by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels in the blood. When EPO-producing cells detect hypoxia, they release erythropoietin, which stimulates the production of red blood cells (RBCs) in the bone marrow. Therefore, hypoxia of EPO-producing cells can trigger erythropoiesis, the process of RBC production, in order to increase oxygen-carrying capacity and alleviate the oxygen deficiency in the body.

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35. The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it _____________.

Explanation

The left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle because it needs to pump blood against a greater resistance. The left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, while the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Since the body's systemic circulation has a higher resistance compared to the pulmonary circulation, the left ventricle needs to generate more force to overcome this resistance. This is why it has a thicker muscular wall, allowing it to pump blood effectively against the greater resistance.

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36. The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ___________.

Explanation

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to pump blood with greater pressure. The left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, while the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Since the left ventricle has to pump blood to the entire body, it needs to generate higher pressure to overcome the resistance of the systemic circulation. Therefore, the left ventricular wall is thicker to provide the necessary strength and force to pump blood with greater pressure.

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37. Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?

Explanation

Blood performs several important functions in the body, including regulation, protection, and distribution. However, hormone production is not a function of blood. Hormones are produced by various endocrine glands in the body, such as the pituitary gland, thyroid gland, and adrenal glands. These glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream, but the blood itself does not produce hormones. Instead, it serves as a transport system, carrying hormones to their target organs and tissues.

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38. Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open?

Explanation

When the semilunar valves are open, blood enters the pulmonary arteries and the aorta. This happens during systole, which is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles contract and pump blood out of the heart. Diastole, on the other hand, is the phase when the ventricles relax and fill with blood. Therefore, when the semilunar valves are open, the ventricles are not in diastole.

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39. Cytotoxic T cells

Explanation

Cytotoxic T cells are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells. They do not require the double recognition signal of I MHC plus II MHC on the target cell in order to function. They do not self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized. They do not function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations. The given answer correctly identifies the unique ability of cytotoxic T cells to directly attack and kill other cells.

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40. Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies.

Explanation

Complement activation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection. When antibodies bind to antigens on the surface of invading cells, they can activate the complement system. This triggers a cascade of reactions that lead to the formation of membrane attack complexes, which can puncture and destroy the cell membrane of the invader. This mechanism helps in neutralizing and eliminating the invading cells, providing protection against infections.

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41. Which layer of the heart wall contracts and is composed primarily of cardiac muscle tissue?

Explanation

The correct answer is myocardium because it is the layer of the heart wall that contracts and is primarily composed of cardiac muscle tissue. The myocardium is responsible for the pumping action of the heart, as it contracts and relaxes to pump blood throughout the body. It is the thickest layer of the heart wall and provides the strength and force needed for the heart to function properly.

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42. How many oxygen molecules can be transported  by one hemoglobin molecule?

Explanation

One hemoglobin molecule can transport four oxygen molecules. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues. Each hemoglobin molecule consists of four subunits, each of which can bind to one oxygen molecule. Therefore, when fully saturated, one hemoglobin molecule can transport four oxygen molecules.

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43. Choose the statement that is true concerning hemoglobin.

Explanation

Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that is responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. It is composed of four protein chains and four heme groups. Each heme group contains an iron atom that can bind to one molecule of oxygen. When oxygen binds to hemoglobin, it changes its color from blue to red. Therefore, the statement that is true concerning hemoglobin is that it is composed of four protein chains and four heme groups.

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44. In a health individual which of the following would be low?

Explanation

Afterload refers to the amount of resistance the heart must overcome to pump blood out of the left ventricle and into the systemic circulation. In a healthy individual, the afterload is typically low because the blood vessels are relaxed and not constricted. This allows for easier blood flow and reduces the workload on the heart. Therefore, in a healthy individual, afterload would be low.

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45. Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the depolarization wave received by the atria from the sinoatrial (SA) node?

Explanation

The P wave represents the depolarization wave received by the atria from the sinoatrial (SA) node. During this phase, the SA node sends an electrical signal to the atria, causing them to contract and pump blood into the ventricles. The P wave is the first deflection seen on the ECG and represents the atrial depolarization. This wave is followed by the QRS complex, which represents ventricular depolarization, and the T wave, which represents ventricular repolarization. The S-T segment is the isoelectric period between the QRS complex and the T wave.

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46. What is happening during the "pause" when the heart is resting (relaxing)?

Explanation

During the "pause" when the heart is resting (relaxing), the ventricles are filling. This is the phase known as diastole, where the heart muscles relax and the ventricles expand to allow blood to flow into them. The atria have already contracted to push blood into the ventricles, and the valves are closed to prevent backflow of blood. This filling phase prepares the ventricles for the next contraction (systole) to pump the blood out of the heart.

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47. If preload increases, what effect will that have on Stroke Volume?

Explanation

An increase in preload refers to an increase in the volume of blood that fills the ventricles of the heart during diastole (relaxation phase). This increased volume stretches the myocardial fibers, leading to a more forceful contraction during systole (contraction phase). As a result, the stroke volume, which is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each beat, will increase.

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48. What is occurring in the left atrium at the circle labeled "2" on the graph? 

Explanation

The left atrium is in systole. This means that the left atrium is contracting to push blood into the left ventricle. During systole, the atria contract to push blood into the ventricles, while the ventricles relax. This allows for the efficient filling of the ventricles before they contract during ventricular systole.

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49. The plasma protein that is the major contributor to osmotic pressure is ______________.

Explanation

Albumin is the correct answer because it is a plasma protein that plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure. Osmotic pressure is the pressure exerted by solutes in a solution, and albumin helps to balance the osmotic pressure between the blood vessels and the surrounding tissues. It is responsible for maintaining proper fluid balance and preventing fluid from leaking out of the blood vessels. Therefore, albumin is the major contributor to osmotic pressure in the plasma.

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50. Which of the following is true about blood plasma?

Explanation

Blood plasma is a yellowish fluid component of blood that makes up about 55% of the total blood volume. It is mainly composed of water, accounting for approximately 90% of its composition. The remaining 10% consists of various dissolved substances, including proteins, electrolytes, hormones, nutrients, waste products, and gases. Hemoglobin, the main protein component of red blood cells, is not found in blood plasma. Serum, on the other hand, is similar to plasma but lacks the clotting proteins. Therefore, the statement "It is about 90% water" accurately describes blood plasma.

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51. In order to cause cardiac muscle contraction, the contractile cells must also depolarize. What causes the depolarization of the contractile cells?

Explanation

The correct answer is the flow of positive ions from adjacent cells. Depolarization of the contractile cells occurs when positive ions, such as calcium and sodium, flow into the cell from adjacent cells. This influx of positive ions changes the electrical charge inside the cell, leading to the initiation of an action potential and subsequent contraction of the cardiac muscle.

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52. During which event of hemostasis do clotting factors (procoagulants) assist with the transformation of blood from a liquid to a gel? Select from letters A-D.

Explanation

Clotting factors (procoagulants) assist with the transformation of blood from a liquid to a gel during the event of hemostasis known as coagulation. This process involves a series of complex reactions that result in the formation of a fibrin clot, which helps to stop bleeding and promote wound healing.

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53. Norepinephrine acs on the heart by ______________.

Explanation

Norepinephrine acts on the heart by causing the threshold to be reached more quickly. This means that it increases the excitability of the heart cells, allowing them to reach the point at which they can generate an action potential more rapidly. This can result in an increased heart rate and stronger contractions, leading to an overall increase in cardiac output.

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54. Hemostasis leads to ____________.

Explanation

Hemostasis refers to the physiological process of stopping bleeding. It involves a series of complex mechanisms that work together to prevent excessive blood loss from damaged blood vessels. These mechanisms include vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, and blood clot formation. Therefore, the correct answer is "Stoppage of bleeding."

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55. Which of the following would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia?

Explanation

Sleeping in a well-ventilated room would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia because sickling occurs due to the abnormal shape of the red blood cells. In sickle-cell anemia, the red blood cells are crescent-shaped instead of the normal round shape. This abnormal shape makes it difficult for the red blood cells to flow smoothly through the blood vessels, leading to blockages and reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Sleeping in a well-ventilated room does not have any direct effect on the shape of red blood cells and therefore would not cause sickling.

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56. The order of impulse conduction in the heart, from beginning to end, is _____________.

Explanation

The correct order of impulse conduction in the heart is as follows: The impulse originates in the SA (sinoatrial) node, then travels to the AV (atrioventricular) node, then to the bundle of His, then to the bundle branches, and finally to the Purkinje fibers.

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57. The primary source of RBCs in the adult human being is the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones.

Explanation

The statement is false because the primary source of red blood cells (RBCs) in adult humans is not the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones. In adults, the primary source of RBCs is the bone marrow in the flat bones, such as the pelvis, sternum, and skull. The bone marrow in the shafts of long bones, such as the femur, primarily produces white blood cells and platelets.

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58. Determine which ECG shows a normal sinus rhythm.

Explanation

ECG A shows a normal sinus rhythm because it has a consistent and regular pattern of P waves, QRS complexes, and T waves. The P waves precede each QRS complex, indicating normal atrial depolarization. The QRS complexes are narrow and consistent in shape, suggesting normal ventricular depolarization. The T waves are upright and follow each QRS complex, indicating normal ventricular repolarization. Overall, ECG A demonstrates a regular and coordinated electrical activity of the heart, which is characteristic of a normal sinus rhythm.

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59. Which of the following is not an age-related change affecting the heart?

Explanation

Thinning of the valve flaps is not an age-related change affecting the heart. As people age, they commonly experience atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the arteries, leading to narrowing and hardening of the blood vessels. Fibrosis of the cardiac muscle refers to the replacement of healthy heart muscle tissue with scar tissue, which can occur with age. Additionally, there is a decline in cardiac reserve, which is the ability of the heart to respond to increased demands, as people get older. However, thinning of the valve flaps is not a typical age-related change in the heart.

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60. If preload increases because venous return increases, what effect will that have on Cardiac Output?

Explanation

If preload increases because venous return increases, it means that more blood is being returned to the heart, leading to an increase in the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction. This increased preload results in a stronger contraction of the heart muscle, leading to an increase in stroke volume. Since cardiac output is the product of stroke volume and heart rate, an increase in stroke volume will ultimately lead to an increase in cardiac output. Therefore, the correct answer is that it will increase.

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61. Match the following:
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62. Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?

Explanation

The inflammatory response is a protective mechanism of the body that is triggered in response to tissue injury or infection. It involves various processes such as increased blood flow, migration of immune cells, and release of chemical mediators. The purpose of the inflammatory response is to prevent the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue, set the stage for repair processes, and dispose of cellular debris and pathogens. However, replacing injured tissues with connective tissue is not a function of the inflammatory response. This process is known as fibrosis or scarring, which occurs during the later stages of tissue repair.

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63. What "clot buster" enzyme removes unneeded clots after healing has occurred during fibrinolysis?

Explanation

Plasmin is the correct answer because it is the enzyme responsible for breaking down and removing unneeded blood clots after the healing process has taken place during fibrinolysis. Fibrin is the insoluble protein that forms the initial clot, plasminogen is the inactive precursor to plasmin, and thrombin is the enzyme responsible for converting fibrinogen into fibrin to initiate clot formation. Therefore, plasmin is the enzyme specifically involved in clot removal.

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64. Match the following:
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65. Match the following:
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66. During which portion of the electrocardiogram do the atria contract?

Explanation

The P-R interval represents the time it takes for the electrical signal to travel from the atria to the ventricles. During this interval, the atria contract, pushing blood into the ventricles. This contraction is reflected as a small upward deflection in the ECG known as the P wave. Therefore, the correct answer is the P-R interval.

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67. Match the following:
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68. Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?

Explanation

The transport of salts to maintain blood volume is not a distribution function of blood. Blood is responsible for delivering oxygen to body cells, transporting hormones to their target organs, and removing metabolic wastes from cells. However, maintaining blood volume is primarily regulated by the kidneys through the process of reabsorption and excretion, rather than by the distribution of salts through the bloodstream.

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69. Match the following
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70. In a centrifuged sample of blood, what makes up the buffy coat?

Explanation

The buffy coat in a centrifuged sample of blood consists of white blood cells and platelets. When blood is spun in a centrifuge, it separates into three layers: the top layer is plasma, the middle layer is the buffy coat, and the bottom layer is composed of red blood cells. The buffy coat contains white blood cells and platelets, which are important components of the immune system and play a role in blood clotting.

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71. What separates the parietal and visceral pericardium?

Explanation

The pericardial cavity is the space that separates the parietal and visceral pericardium. The parietal pericardium is the outer layer of the pericardium, while the visceral pericardium is the inner layer that covers the heart. The pericardial cavity contains a small amount of fluid that lubricates the surfaces of the parietal and visceral layers, allowing the heart to move smoothly within the pericardium.

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72. When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what channels open causing further depolarization of the membrane?

Explanation

When the threshold is reached at the SA node, fast calcium channels open. This allows calcium ions to enter the cell, causing further depolarization of the membrane. This depolarization ultimately leads to the generation of an action potential and the initiation of the cardiac cycle.

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73. Which event of hemostasis constricts the damaged artery to reduce blood loss? Select from letters A-D.

Explanation

The event of hemostasis that constricts the damaged artery to reduce blood loss is vasoconstriction. Vasoconstriction is the narrowing of the blood vessels, specifically the damaged artery, which helps to decrease the flow of blood and minimize bleeding.

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74. What does the QRS wave of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represent?

Explanation

The QRS wave of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represents ventricular depolarization. Depolarization is the process by which the electrical charge of the heart muscle cells becomes more positive, leading to contraction of the ventricles. The QRS complex represents the spread of electrical activity through the ventricles, causing them to contract and pump blood to the rest of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is ventricular depolarization.

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75. Specifically, what part of the intrinsic conduction system stimulates the atrioventricular (AV) node to conduct impulses to the atrioventricular bundle?

Explanation

The Sinoatrial (SA) node is responsible for initiating electrical impulses in the heart and is often referred to as the natural pacemaker. It is located in the right atrium near the opening of the superior vena cava. The SA node sends electrical signals to the atrioventricular (AV) node, which is located in the lower part of the right atrium near the ventricles. The AV node then conducts these impulses to the atrioventricular bundle (also known as the Bundle of His), which is located in the interventricular septum. Therefore, the SA node stimulates the AV node to conduct impulses to the atrioventricular bundle.

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76. Adaptive defenses depend on the activities of

Explanation

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in adaptive immune responses. They are responsible for recognizing and targeting specific pathogens, such as bacteria or viruses, through the production of antibodies or by directly attacking infected cells. Lymphocytes are able to adapt and remember previous encounters with pathogens, allowing for a more efficient immune response upon subsequent exposures. Therefore, adaptive defenses heavily rely on the activities of lymphocytes to provide targeted and long-lasting protection against infectious agents.

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77. The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ____________.

Explanation

The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates atrial depolarization. Depolarization refers to the electrical activation of the heart muscle cells, causing them to contract. In this case, the P wave represents the depolarization of the atria, which is the electrical signal that spreads through the atria and causes them to contract. This is followed by the QRS complex, which represents the depolarization of the ventricles and the subsequent contraction of the ventricles. Therefore, the correct answer is atrial depolarization.

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78. Which of the following cannot trigger tachycardia?

Explanation

Increased vagal tone cannot trigger tachycardia because the vagus nerve, which is part of the parasympathetic nervous system, slows down the heart rate. When the vagal tone is increased, it leads to increased parasympathetic activity, resulting in a decrease in heart rate rather than an increase. Tachycardia, on the other hand, refers to an abnormally fast heart rate.

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79. Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?

Explanation

The transport of salts to maintain blood volume is not a distribution function of blood. Blood is responsible for delivering oxygen to body cells, transporting hormones to their target organs, and removing metabolic wastes from cells. However, maintaining blood volume is primarily regulated by the kidneys and their control over water and salt balance in the body.

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80. What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

Explanation

The kidney regulates erythrocyte production. Erythrocytes, also known as red blood cells, are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. The kidney produces a hormone called erythropoietin, which stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. This hormone is released in response to low oxygen levels in the blood. Therefore, the kidney plays a crucial role in maintaining the appropriate number of red blood cells in the body.

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81. Which of the following would cause a DECREASE in cardiac output (CO)?

Explanation

Decreasing thyroid function (thyroxine) would cause a decrease in cardiac output (CO) because thyroxine is responsible for regulating the metabolic rate of the body. When thyroid function decreases, the metabolic rate slows down, leading to a decrease in heart rate and stroke volume, which ultimately results in a decrease in cardiac output.

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82. What is the period during the cardiac cycle when the ventricles are completely closed chambers and blood volume in the chambers remain constant as the ventricles contract?

Explanation

During the isovolumetric contraction phase, the ventricles of the heart are completely closed chambers, meaning that the valves leading into and out of the ventricles are closed. This prevents any blood from entering or leaving the ventricles, resulting in a constant volume of blood within the chambers. At the same time, the ventricles are contracting, which increases the pressure within them. This phase occurs after the ventricles have filled with blood and before they start ejecting blood into the arteries.

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83. Which of the following is not characteristic of a virus?

Explanation

The characteristic of a virus that is not mentioned in the options is "Cause infections in body fluids." Viruses can cause infections in various ways, such as respiratory droplets, contaminated surfaces, or through vectors like mosquitoes. However, the options provided do mention other characteristics of a virus, such as having an RNA or DNA core, causing cell lysis, and having a protein coating.

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84. B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ___________.

Explanation

When B cells are initially exposed to an antigen, they respond by producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells. Plasma cells are responsible for the immediate production of antigen-specific antibodies, which help in the immune response against the antigen. Memory cells, on the other hand, are long-lived cells that "remember" the antigen and provide long-term immunity. This response allows the immune system to mount a quicker and more effective response upon subsequent exposure to the same antigen.

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85. The primary immune response ________________.

Explanation

The primary immune response refers to the initial immune response that occurs when the body is exposed to a specific pathogen for the first time. During this response, B cells need time to recognize the pathogen, proliferate (multiply), and differentiate into plasma cells, which produce antibodies to fight against the pathogen. This process takes some time, resulting in a lag period before sufficient levels of antibodies are produced. This is why the primary immune response has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells.

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86. Normal heart founds are caused by which of the following events?

Explanation

The normal heart sounds are caused by the closure of the heart valves. When the valves close, they produce a sound that can be heard with a stethoscope. This closure prevents blood from flowing back into the previous chamber, ensuring that it moves forward through the heart. The opening and closing of the heart valves, as well as the friction of blood against the chamber walls, also contribute to the overall heart sounds, but the closure of the heart valves is the primary cause. The excitation of the SA node is responsible for initiating the electrical signals that regulate the heart's rhythm, but it does not directly cause the normal heart sounds.

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87. Which of the following is NOT a part of hemostasis?

Explanation

Vascular relaxation is not a part of hemostasis. Hemostasis refers to the process of stopping bleeding, and it involves several steps such as vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, and coagulation. Vascular spasm is the constriction of blood vessels to reduce blood flow, platelet plug formation involves the aggregation of platelets to form a temporary plug at the site of injury, and coagulation is the formation of a blood clot to seal the damaged blood vessel. Vascular relaxation, on the other hand, would counteract the vasoconstriction and promote blood flow, which is not a part of the hemostatic process.

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88. What occurs at the circled label "5" on the graph?

Explanation

At the circled label "5" on the graph, the occurrence is the peak systolic pressure. This refers to the highest pressure reached in the arteries during ventricular contraction. It represents the force exerted by the blood against the arterial walls when the heart pumps blood out of the ventricles.

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89. Which of the following would increase cardiac output to the greatest extent?

Explanation

Increased heart rate and increased stroke volume would increase cardiac output to the greatest extent. Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying heart rate (number of heartbeats per minute) by stroke volume (amount of blood pumped by each heartbeat). By increasing both heart rate and stroke volume, the heart is able to pump a larger volume of blood per minute, resulting in an increased cardiac output.

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90. What occurs at the circled label "7" on the graph?

Explanation

At the circled label "7" on the graph, isovolumetric ventricular relaxation occurs. This refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles are relaxed and the pressure inside them decreases. During this phase, the ventricles are not contracting, and the atrioventricular valves are closed. The decrease in pressure allows blood to flow from the atria into the ventricles, preparing for the next phase of ventricular filling.

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91. Which of the following is best suited to the clotting process that occurs when blood vessels are ruptured?

Explanation

Platelets are best suited to the clotting process that occurs when blood vessels are ruptured. Platelets are small, disc-shaped cells that are involved in the formation of blood clots. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets adhere to the site of injury and aggregate together to form a plug, which helps to stop bleeding. This process is essential for preventing excessive blood loss and promoting wound healing. Megakaryocytes are the precursor cells of platelets, while lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response. Megakaryoblasts are immature cells that eventually differentiate into megakaryocytes.

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92. Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell is due to the opening of which channels?

Explanation

Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell refers to the process of restoring the cell's resting membrane potential after depolarization. This is achieved by allowing positively charged potassium ions to exit the cell. Voltage-gated potassium channels play a crucial role in this process by opening in response to a change in membrane potential, allowing potassium ions to flow out of the cell. This efflux of potassium ions helps to restore the negative charge inside the cell, leading to repolarization. Therefore, the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels is responsible for the repolarization of an autorhythmic cell.

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93. Which chamber of the heart has the highest probability of being the site of a myocardial infarction?

Explanation

The left ventricle has the highest probability of being the site of a myocardial infarction because it is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body. It receives blood from the left atrium and contracts forcefully to push the blood out through the aorta. Due to its high workload and constant contraction, the left ventricle is more prone to developing blockages in the coronary arteries, leading to a myocardial infarction.

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94. Which of the following is NOT a factor that increases stroke volume?

Explanation

Increasing afterload is not a factor that increases stroke volume. Afterload refers to the resistance that the heart has to overcome to pump blood out of the ventricles and into the arteries. When afterload increases, it becomes more difficult for the heart to eject blood, resulting in a decrease in stroke volume. Therefore, increasing afterload actually decreases stroke volume rather than increasing it.

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95. An abnormal P wave could be indicative of ___________.

Explanation

An abnormal P wave could be indicative of enlarged atria. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, so any abnormality in the shape or duration of the P wave could suggest an abnormality in the atria. Enlarged atria can cause changes in the electrical conduction system, leading to abnormal P wave morphology. This can be seen in conditions such as atrial enlargement or atrial fibrillation.

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96. Which of the following is a protective function of blood?

Explanation

The protective function of blood is the prevention of blood loss. Blood contains platelets that help in clotting and forming a plug at the site of injury, preventing excessive bleeding. This function is crucial in maintaining the integrity and stability of the circulatory system, ensuring that the body does not lose excessive amounts of blood, which could be life-threatening.

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97. Which of these is a condition marked by premature ventricular contraction?

Explanation

Extrasystole is a condition marked by premature ventricular contraction. It is characterized by an abnormal heartbeat that occurs earlier than expected, disrupting the normal rhythm of the heart. This can cause a sensation of skipped or extra beats and may lead to palpitations, dizziness, or fainting. Extrasystole can be caused by various factors such as stress, caffeine, nicotine, or underlying heart conditions. Treatment options may include lifestyle changes, medication, or in severe cases, medical procedures to correct the abnormal rhythm.

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98. If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, _____________.

Explanation

If the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells is artificially altered to allow for more rapid sodium influx, the threshold for depolarization would be reached more quickly. This would result in an increase in heart rate, as the pacemaker cells would fire more frequently and initiate more action potentials. The other options are not likely because they do not directly relate to the effect of altering membrane permeability on the pacemaker cells.

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99. The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ____________.

Explanation

The correct answer is coronary arteries. The myocardium, which is the muscular tissue of the heart, receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries. These arteries branch off from the aorta and deliver oxygenated blood to the heart muscle. The coronary arteries ensure that the myocardium receives the necessary nutrients and oxygen for proper functioning.

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100. How would an increase in the sympathetic nervous system increase stroke volume?

Explanation

An increase in the sympathetic nervous system would increase stroke volume by increasing contractility. The sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine, which binds to beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart. This leads to an increase in calcium influx into the cardiac muscle cells, resulting in stronger and more forceful contractions. As a result, the heart is able to pump out a larger volume of blood with each beat, leading to an increased stroke volume.

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101. By what mechanism would an increase in venous return increase stroke volume?

Explanation

An increase in venous return refers to an increased amount of blood returning to the heart from the veins. This increased blood volume fills the ventricles of the heart during diastole, leading to an increased end diastolic volume. The end diastolic volume is the volume of blood in the ventricles just before they contract. When the end diastolic volume increases, it stretches the myocardial fibers, leading to an increased force of contraction. This increased force of contraction, known as increased contractility, allows for a larger volume of blood to be ejected from the ventricles during systole, resulting in an increased stroke volume.

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102. The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to

Explanation

The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to activate T cells, display antigen fragments, bind antigens to glycoproteins, and process antigens. Antigen-presenting cells play a crucial role in the immune response by presenting antigens to T cells, which then recognize and respond to the antigens. They display antigen fragments on their cell surface, allowing T cells to recognize them. They also bind antigens to glycoproteins, facilitating their presentation to T cells. Additionally, antigen-presenting cells process antigens by breaking them down into smaller fragments for presentation. Therefore, all of the answers are correct.

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103. Point that represents the "dup" sound made by the heart.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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104. Which of the following would cause a decrease in the contractility of the heart?

Explanation

Increasing extracellular potassium levels would cause a decrease in the contractility of the heart. High levels of extracellular potassium can disrupt the electrical balance in cardiac muscle cells, leading to a decrease in the strength and efficiency of contractions. This can result in a decrease in the contractility of the heart, affecting its ability to pump blood effectively.

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105. With each ventricular systole,

Explanation

During ventricular systole, the ventricles contract, causing an increase in pressure within the blood vessels. This increase in pressure is known as systolic blood pressure. As the ventricles forcefully pump blood out of the heart and into the arteries, the blood pressure rises. This increase in blood pressure helps to propel the blood forward and ensures that it reaches all parts of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is that blood pressure increases during ventricular systole.

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106. What heart problem would be experienced by an individual whose ECG is seen at C?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the ventricles are not reaching systole in every cardiac cycle. This means that the ventricles are not contracting fully or effectively, leading to a reduced pumping of blood from the heart. This can result in inadequate blood flow to the body and may cause symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and fainting. It is important to diagnose and treat this condition to prevent further complications.

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107. What causes the abnormal swishing or whooshing sound that is heard as blood regurgitates back into an atrium from its associated ventricle?

Explanation

The abnormal swishing or whooshing sound that is heard as blood regurgitates back into an atrium from its associated ventricle is caused by blood turbulence. When there is a disruption in the normal flow of blood, such as when it regurgitates back into the atrium, it creates turbulence, resulting in the characteristic sound. This can be caused by various factors, including valve dysfunction or structural abnormalities in the heart.

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108. If preload increases, what effect will that have on ESV?

Explanation

The answer "There is no relationship" suggests that preload and ESV are not related to each other. Preload refers to the amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole, while ESV (end-systolic volume) refers to the amount of blood remaining in the ventricles at the end of systole. The question implies that there is no direct cause-and-effect relationship between preload and ESV. Therefore, changes in preload would not have any specific effect on ESV.

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109. Which of the following is not characteristic of a bacteria?

Explanation

The statement "Not a living cell" is not characteristic of bacteria because bacteria are living cells. Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms that can be found in various environments. They have a distinct cellular structure, including a cell wall, and contain genetic material in the form of a single chromosome. Additionally, some bacteria may have a slime coat, which helps protect them and aid in their attachment to surfaces.

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110. At what point in the cardiac cycle is pressure in the ventricles the highest (around 120 mm Hg)?

Explanation

During ventricular systole, the ventricles contract and pump blood out into the arteries. This contraction creates pressure in the ventricles, causing the pressure to rise to its highest point (around 120 mm Hg). This is when the blood is forcefully pushed out of the heart and into the systemic circulation.

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111. What occurs at "A" on the graph?

Explanation

At "A" on the graph, the semilunar valve opens. This is indicated by the upward movement of the graph. The semilunar valve is responsible for allowing blood to flow out of the heart from the ventricles to the arteries. When the semilunar valve opens, it allows blood to be ejected from the heart into the circulation.

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112. As your muscles contract during activity, more blood is returned to the heart. Which variable would be affected ad what would be the outcome of this action?

Explanation

When the muscles contract during activity, more blood is returned to the heart. This increased blood volume, known as preload, stretches the ventricles of the heart. As a result, the ventricles contract more forcefully, leading to an increased cardiac output. Therefore, an increase in preload would cause an increase in cardiac output.

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113. What occurs at the area labeled "B" on the graph?

Explanation

At the area labeled "B" on the graph, the semilunar valve closes. This means that the valve between the ventricles and the arteries leading away from the heart shuts, preventing the backflow of blood into the ventricles. This closure ensures that blood flows only in one direction, from the ventricles to the arteries, allowing for efficient circulation throughout the body.

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114. Which of the following statements does not describe blood?

Explanation

Blood carries body cells to injured areas for repair. This statement does not describe blood because blood does not carry body cells to injured areas for repair. Instead, it carries oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the body. The process of repairing injured areas is performed by other components of the blood, such as platelets and white blood cells.

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115. If preload increases, what effect will that have on EDV?

Explanation

If preload increases, it means that the amount of blood returning to the heart during diastole is increasing. This increased blood volume will lead to an increase in the end-diastolic volume (EDV), which is the amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole. Therefore, an increase in preload will result in an increase in EDV.

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116. Cardiac tamponade results in ineffective pumping of blood by the heart because the excessive amount of fluid in  the pericardial cavity will ___________.

Explanation

Cardiac tamponade is a condition where there is an excessive amount of fluid in the pericardial cavity, which is the space between the heart and the pericardium. This fluid accumulation puts pressure on the heart, compressing it and preventing it from filling properly with blood. As a result, the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to decreased cardiac output and potentially life-threatening consequences.

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117. The tricuspid valve is closed ____________.

Explanation

When the ventricle is in systole, it is contracting to pump blood out of the heart and into the arteries. During this phase, the tricuspid valve, which is located between the right atrium and right ventricle, closes to prevent the backflow of blood from the ventricle back into the atrium. This closure ensures that blood flows in the correct direction, from the atrium to the ventricle, and then out of the heart.

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118. What volume is labeled "E" on the graph?

Explanation

Stroke volume refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction. It is typically measured in milliliters. On the graph, the volume labeled "E" represents the stroke volume, indicating the volume of blood ejected from the heart during systole (contraction) and is therefore the correct answer.

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119. Adding a chemical that reduces Na+ transport near the sinoatrial (SA) node would have what effect on the heart's intrinsic conducting system?

Explanation

Adding a chemical that reduces Na+ transport near the sinoatrial (SA) node would decrease the rate at which the SA node depolarizes. This would lead to a slower depolarization of the SA node, resulting in a decrease in the heart rate.

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120. Select the correct partial path. This path is part of the complete blood flow pathway. You should be able to trace flow starting in any location.

Explanation

The correct partial path is the Aorta to smaller systemic arteries to systemic capillaries to systemic veins to right atrium through the tricuspid valve. This pathway describes the flow of blood from the heart to the rest of the body. The aorta is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the smaller systemic arteries. These arteries then branch out into smaller vessels called capillaries, where oxygen and nutrients are exchanged with the surrounding tissues. The deoxygenated blood then flows back to the heart through systemic veins, ultimately returning to the right atrium through the tricuspid valve.

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121. What best describes afterload?

Explanation

Afterload refers to the back pressure exerted by blood in the atria on the ventricles during systole. This pressure opposes the ejection of blood from the heart and determines the workload that the heart must overcome to pump blood out of the ventricles. It is influenced by factors such as vascular resistance and arterial blood pressure. The degree of stretch of the heart muscle, cardiac reserve, and contractility of the cardiac muscle are not accurate descriptions of afterload.

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122. What volume is labeled "G" on the graph?

Explanation

The volume labeled "G" on the graph represents the end-systolic volume. End-systolic volume refers to the amount of blood remaining in the ventricle at the end of systole, or the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle. This volume is important because it indicates the amount of blood that remains in the ventricle after it has pumped out blood during systole. It can be used to calculate other important cardiac parameters such as stroke volume and ejection fraction.

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123. How would a decrease in blood volume affect both stroke volume and cardiac output?

Explanation

A decrease in blood volume would lead to a decrease in stroke volume because there is less blood available to be pumped out with each heartbeat. However, cardiac output may not necessarily change because it can be maintained by increasing heart rate to compensate for the decrease in stroke volume. Therefore, the correct answer is that there would be a decreased stroke volume and no change in cardiac output.

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124. Determine which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) tracings is missing P waves. Select from letters A-D.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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125. What occurs a the area labeled "D" on the graph?

Explanation

At the area labeled "D" on the graph, the AV valve opens and diastolic filling begins. This means that the atrioventricular (AV) valve, which separates the atria and ventricles, opens to allow blood to flow from the atria into the ventricles. At the same time, diastolic filling begins, which refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles relax and fill with blood. This is an important step in the overall process of the heart pumping blood throughout the body.

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126. The presence of an incompetent tricuspid valve would have the direct effect of causing ____________.

Explanation

An incompetent tricuspid valve is a condition where the valve does not close properly, causing blood to leak back into the right atrium instead of flowing forward into the right ventricle. This would result in reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the lungs because the blood that is supposed to be pumped to the lungs for oxygenation would be partially leaking back into the heart.

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127. The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the ___________ cells. 

Explanation

Cytotoxic T cells are the cells directly responsible for cellular immunity. These cells play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and destroying infected or abnormal cells. They do this by releasing toxic substances that induce cell death in their target cells. Cytotoxic T cells are a type of T lymphocyte and are essential for eliminating pathogens and cancer cells from the body. They are an important component of the adaptive immune system and contribute to the overall defense against infections and diseases.

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128. The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the _________ cells.

Explanation

B cells are the cells responsible for humoral immunity. They are a type of white blood cell that produce and secrete antibodies, which are proteins that can recognize and neutralize pathogens. B cells play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing antigens and initiating the production of antibodies to eliminate the invaders. Helper T cells, NK cells, Suppressor T cells, and Cytotoxic T cells are all involved in different aspects of the immune response, but they are not specifically responsible for humoral immunity like B cells are.

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129. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects _________ cells.

Explanation

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) specifically targets and infects Helper T cells, also known as CD4+ T cells. These cells play a crucial role in the immune response by coordinating and activating other immune cells. By infecting and destroying Helper T cells, HIV weakens the immune system, making the individual more susceptible to infections and diseases.

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130. Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?

Explanation

Fibrinolysis is the process of breaking down fibrin, the protein that forms blood clots, in order to prevent excessive clotting. It is not a phase of hemostasis, which refers to the body's natural process of stopping bleeding. The other options - coagulation, vascular spasm, and platelet plug formation - are all phases of hemostasis that work together to form a clot and stop bleeding. Fibrinolysis occurs after the clot has served its purpose and needs to be dissolved.

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131. Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open?

Explanation

When the semilunar valves are open, blood is able to flow from the ventricles into the pulmonary arteries and the aorta. This occurs during ventricular systole, which is the contraction phase of the ventricles. During ventricular diastole, the ventricles relax and fill with blood. Therefore, the event that does not occur when the semilunar valves are open is "Ventricles are diastole."

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132. What occurs at the circled label "4" on the graph?

Explanation

At the circled label "4" on the graph, isovolumetric ventricular contraction occurs. This refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles contract without any change in volume. During this phase, the ventricles are closed and the pressure within them rises rapidly, causing the semilunar valves to remain closed. This contraction allows the ventricles to build up pressure before the next phase of ventricular ejection, where blood is pumped out of the ventricles.

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133. A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker to prevent angina (chest pain) by decreasing the demand for oxygen. What is the explanation for this pharmacological effect?

Explanation

Calcium channel blockers work by inhibiting the entry of calcium ions into the cytoplasm of cardiac cells. This leads to a decrease in the force of myocardial contractility, meaning that the heart beats with less force. As a result, the oxygen demand of the heart is reduced, which helps to prevent angina (chest pain) caused by a lack of oxygen supply to the heart muscle.

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134. If preload increases, what effect will that have on Cardiac Output?

Explanation

The question states that if preload increases, the effect on cardiac output is not known. Preload refers to the amount of blood that fills the heart before it contracts. While an increase in preload can potentially increase cardiac output, it is not always the case. Other factors such as contractility and afterload also play a role in determining cardiac output. Without information on these factors, it is not possible to determine the exact effect of an increase in preload on cardiac output.

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135. Which part of the hemoglobin molecule binds carbon dioxide for transport?

Explanation

The amino acids of globin in the hemoglobin molecule bind carbon dioxide for transport. Hemoglobin is composed of four protein chains called globins, each containing a heme group with an iron atom at its center. While the iron atom in heme binds oxygen, it does not directly bind carbon dioxide. Instead, carbon dioxide binds to specific amino acids in the globin chains, allowing for its transport in the bloodstream.

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136. Match the following:
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137. Match the following:
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138. Match the following:
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139. Match the following:
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Match the following:
Match the following:
Erythrocytes lack a nucleus.
Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss.
What is the average normal pH range of blood?
Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?
The normal RBC "graveyard" is the liver.
A person who lacks agglutinogens A and B would have blood type...
Which of the following is true of the structure of an erythrocyte?
The __________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right...
One of the changes that occur in the pacemaker potential (unstable...
Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against...
What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?
Action potentials generated by the autorhythmic cells spread to the...
Which of the following would increase heart rate?
Which of the following factors does not influence heart rate?
Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ___________.
Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and red pigment globin.
If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle...
Which of the following terms is correctly matched to its description?
Choose the compatible transfusion
The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates _____________.
Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the time during...
Which of the following is NOT a formed element of the blood?
If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle...
Which of the following cells combines bother cell-mediated and...
Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include
Platelets _______________.
The heart's pacemaker is the __________.
During the period of ventricular filling __________.
The layers of the heart wall from superficial to deep are:
Inflammation produces localized
T cells and B cells can be activated only by
Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?
The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the...
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall...
Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?
Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are...
Cytotoxic T cells
Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies.
Which layer of the heart wall contracts and is composed primarily of...
How many oxygen molecules can be transported  by one hemoglobin...
Choose the statement that is true concerning hemoglobin.
In a health individual which of the following would be low?
Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the depolarization...
What is happening during the "pause" when the heart is...
If preload increases, what effect will that have on Stroke Volume?
What is occurring in the left atrium at the circle labeled...
The plasma protein that is the major contributor to osmotic pressure...
Which of the following is true about blood plasma?
In order to cause cardiac muscle contraction, the contractile cells...
During which event of hemostasis do clotting factors (procoagulants)...
Norepinephrine acs on the heart by ______________.
Hemostasis leads to ____________.
Which of the following would not be a possible cause of sickling of...
The order of impulse conduction in the heart, from beginning to end,...
The primary source of RBCs in the adult human being is the bone marrow...
Determine which ECG shows a normal sinus rhythm.
Which of the following is not an age-related change affecting the...
If preload increases because venous return increases, what effect will...
Match the following:
Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?
What "clot buster" enzyme removes unneeded clots after...
Match the following:
Match the following:
During which portion of the electrocardiogram do the atria contract?
Match the following:
Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?
Match the following
In a centrifuged sample of blood, what makes up the buffy coat?
What separates the parietal and visceral pericardium?
When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what...
Which event of hemostasis constricts the damaged artery to reduce...
What does the QRS wave of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represent?
Specifically, what part of the intrinsic conduction system stimulates...
Adaptive defenses depend on the activities of
The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ____________.
Which of the following cannot trigger tachycardia?
Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?
What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?
Which of the following would cause a DECREASE in cardiac output (CO)?
What is the period during the cardiac cycle when the ventricles are...
Which of the following is not characteristic of a virus?
B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ___________.
The primary immune response ________________.
Normal heart founds are caused by which of the following events?
Which of the following is NOT a part of hemostasis?
What occurs at the circled label "5" on the graph?
Which of the following would increase cardiac output to the greatest...
What occurs at the circled label "7" on the graph?
Which of the following is best suited to the clotting process that...
Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell is due to the opening of which...
Which chamber of the heart has the highest probability of being the...
Which of the following is NOT a factor that increases stroke volume?
An abnormal P wave could be indicative of ___________.
Which of the following is a protective function of blood?
Which of these is a condition marked by premature ventricular...
If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of...
The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be...
How would an increase in the sympathetic nervous system increase...
By what mechanism would an increase in venous return increase stroke...
The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to
Point that represents the "dup" sound made by the heart.
Which of the following would cause a decrease in the contractility of...
With each ventricular systole,
What heart problem would be experienced by an individual whose ECG is...
What causes the abnormal swishing or whooshing sound that is heard as...
If preload increases, what effect will that have on ESV?
Which of the following is not characteristic of a bacteria?
At what point in the cardiac cycle is pressure in the ventricles the...
What occurs at "A" on the graph?
As your muscles contract during activity, more blood is returned to...
What occurs at the area labeled "B" on the graph?
Which of the following statements does not describe blood?
If preload increases, what effect will that have on EDV?
Cardiac tamponade results in ineffective pumping of blood by the heart...
The tricuspid valve is closed ____________.
What volume is labeled "E" on the graph?
Adding a chemical that reduces Na+ transport near the sinoatrial (SA)...
Select the correct partial path. This path is part of the complete...
What best describes afterload?
What volume is labeled "G" on the graph?
How would a decrease in blood volume affect both stroke volume and...
Determine which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) tracings is...
What occurs a the area labeled "D" on the graph?
The presence of an incompetent tricuspid valve would have the direct...
The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the...
The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the _________ cells.
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known...
Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?
Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are...
What occurs at the circled label "4" on the graph?
A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker to prevent angina...
If preload increases, what effect will that have on Cardiac Output?
Which part of the hemoglobin molecule binds carbon dioxide for...
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