Afmg Dec Surgery Breast & Thyroid Test

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Afmg Dec Surgery Breast & Thyroid Test - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    All are true ductal ca in situ except

    • A.

      Mammographically visible microcalcification

    • B.

      It has increased malignant potential

    • C.

      Comedo & papillary forms are the most common and are associated with multicentric disease

    • D.

      Grading was suggested by lagios and his collegues

    Correct Answer
    D. Grading was suggested by lagios and his collegues
    Explanation
    The given statement "Grading was suggested by Lagios and his colleagues" is incorrect because the grading system for ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) was actually suggested by a different group of researchers, known as the Van Nuys Prognostic Index (VNPI). The VNPI is a widely used system for predicting the risk of recurrence and guiding treatment decisions in patients with DCIS. Therefore, the correct answer is that the grading system was not suggested by Lagios and his colleagues.

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  • 2. 

    Fine needle aspiration cytology choose the correct answer

    • A.

      The false positive rates are high

    • B.

      The false positive does not occur

    • C.

      The false negative rate is hight

    • D.

      The false negative rate is low

    Correct Answer
    C. The false negative rate is hight
    Explanation
    The given answer states that the false negative rate is high. This implies that there is a high likelihood of the test incorrectly indicating the absence of a condition or disease when it is actually present. This is significant because it means that there is a higher chance of missing a diagnosis or having a false sense of security. It is important to be aware of this limitation when interpreting the results of fine needle aspiration cytology.

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  • 3. 

    The following are classic features of breast cancer on mammography except

    • A.

      Tissue asymmetry

    • B.

      Mass effect

    • C.

      Micro calcification

    • D.

      Skin thickening

    • E.

      Nipple inversion

    • F.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Skin thickening
    Explanation
    Skin thickening is not a classic feature of breast cancer on mammography. Classic features of breast cancer on mammography include tissue asymmetry, mass effect, microcalcifications, and nipple inversion. Skin thickening can be a sign of advanced breast cancer, but it is not typically seen on mammography.

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  • 4. 

    The treatment of choice for early breast cancer where conservative breast surgery is not possible

    • A.

      Modified radical mastectomy

    • B.

      Radical mastectomy

    • C.

      Extended radical mastectomy

    • D.

      RT

    Correct Answer
    A. Modified radical mastectomy
    Explanation
    Modified radical mastectomy is the treatment of choice for early breast cancer when conservative breast surgery is not possible. This procedure involves the removal of the entire breast tissue, including the breast lump or tumor, as well as the axillary lymph nodes. Unlike radical mastectomy, which also removes the chest muscles, modified radical mastectomy preserves the chest muscles, resulting in better cosmetic outcomes and improved quality of life for the patient. Extended radical mastectomy is a more extensive procedure that involves the removal of additional tissue, and RT refers to radiation therapy, which is often used as an adjuvant treatment after surgery.

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  • 5. 

    37year old premenopausal lady left breast carcinoma with axillary lymph node positive, MRM done, next procedure is

    • A.

      Adriamycin associated chemotherapy with tamoxifen if ER/PR positive

    • B.

      Only adriamycin

    • C.

      Radiotherapy

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    B. Only adriamycin
    Explanation
    The next procedure after a modified radical mastectomy (MRM) for a 37-year-old premenopausal woman with left breast carcinoma and positive axillary lymph nodes would be adriamycin associated chemotherapy. This is typically followed by tamoxifen if the tumor is estrogen receptor (ER) and/or progesterone receptor (PR) positive. The use of adriamycin as a chemotherapy drug is common in the treatment of breast cancer, as it helps to kill cancer cells. Radiotherapy may also be considered as part of the treatment plan, but it is not the immediate next step after MRM.

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  • 6. 

    True about male breast cancer

    • A.

      Doesn’t follow gynaecomastia

    • B.

      Lobular variety common

    • C.

      Estrogen receptor negative

    • D.

      Surgery treatment of choice

    Correct Answer
    D. Surgery treatment of choice
    Explanation
    Male breast cancer is a rare condition, and it does not typically follow gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of male breast tissue. The lobular variety of breast cancer is more common in men compared to the ductal variety. Male breast cancer is often estrogen receptor negative, meaning it does not respond to estrogen. The most common and effective treatment for male breast cancer is surgery, making it the treatment of choice.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is not associated with fat necrosis

    • A.

      Liposuction

    • B.

      Radiotherapy

    • C.

      Mammography

    • D.

      Breast carcinoma Trauma

    Correct Answer
    D. Breast carcinoma Trauma
    Explanation
    Fat necrosis is a condition where there is damage to fatty tissue, resulting in the formation of lumps or masses. Liposuction, radiotherapy, and trauma are all known to be associated with fat necrosis. Mammography, on the other hand, is a diagnostic procedure used to detect breast cancer and does not directly cause fat necrosis. Breast carcinoma, which refers to breast cancer, is also not directly associated with fat necrosis. Therefore, breast carcinoma is the correct answer as it is not typically linked to the development of fat necrosis.

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  • 8. 

    Mutated p53 gene is formed in most of

    • A.

      Anaplastic Ca

    • B.

      PTC

    • C.

      Follicular

    • D.

      Medullary

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaplastic Ca
    Explanation
    Anaplastic Ca is the correct answer because a mutated p53 gene is commonly found in this type of cancer. The p53 gene is responsible for regulating cell division and preventing the formation of tumors. When this gene becomes mutated, it loses its ability to control cell growth, leading to the development of cancer. Anaplastic Ca is a highly aggressive and rapidly growing cancer, and the presence of a mutated p53 gene contributes to its aggressive nature.

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  • 9. 

    Distant metastasis to lungs more commonly encountered is

    • A.

      Adult

    • B.

      Children

    • C.

      Advanced age

    • D.

      Any of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Children
    Explanation
    Children are more commonly encountered with distant metastasis to the lungs compared to adults or individuals of advanced age. This may be due to certain types of cancers that are more prevalent in children and have a higher tendency to spread to the lungs. Additionally, children may have a weaker immune system compared to adults, making them more susceptible to the spread of cancer cells.

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  • 10. 

    A 18 year old Manju, smart looking girl comes with symptoms of thyrotoxicosis and diagnosed as graves disease. She doesn’t have eye signs. What is the procedure of choice 

    • A.

      Lobectomy

    • B.

      Partial thyroidectomy

    • C.

      Subtotal thyroidectomy

    • D.

      Radio iodine

    Correct Answer
    C. Subtotal thyroidectomy
    Explanation
    The procedure of choice for a patient with thyrotoxicosis and diagnosed with Graves' disease, but without eye signs, is subtotal thyroidectomy. This surgical procedure involves the removal of a large portion of the thyroid gland, leaving behind a small remnant. Subtotal thyroidectomy is preferred in cases where the patient is young and has a small goiter. It helps to alleviate the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis and reduces the risk of recurrence while preserving some thyroid function.

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  • 11. 

    Thyroiditis which is more common in areas of iodine except

    • A.

      Hashimotos thyroiditis

    • B.

      De-Quervain’s thyroiditis

    • C.

      Ridel’s thyroiditis

    • D.

      Acue suppurative thyroiditis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hashimotos thyroiditis
    Explanation
    Thyroiditis is inflammation of the thyroid gland. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, leading to chronic inflammation. It is the most common form of thyroiditis and is characterized by an enlarged thyroid gland, fatigue, weight gain, and other symptoms. De-Quervain's thyroiditis is a viral infection that causes sudden pain and swelling of the thyroid gland. Ridel's thyroiditis is a rare form of thyroiditis where the thyroid gland becomes replaced by fibrous tissue. Acute suppurative thyroiditis is a bacterial infection of the thyroid gland. Therefore, the correct answer is Hashimoto's thyroiditis, as it is not associated with areas of iodine deficiency.

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  • 12. 

    36 years old shweta with diffuse enlargement of thyroid with increase TSH, decrease T4 T3, FNAC suggestive of chronic lympocytic thyroiditis. What will you do?

    • A.

      Thyroxine

    • B.

      Total thyroidectomy

    • C.

      Radio iodine

    • D.

      Antithyroid drugs

    Correct Answer
    A. Thyroxine
    Explanation
    Thyroxine is the correct answer because it is the main hormone produced by the thyroid gland and is responsible for regulating the body's metabolism. In the case of chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis, the thyroid gland is enlarged and not producing enough thyroxine, leading to an increase in TSH and a decrease in T4 and T3 levels. Therefore, supplementing with thyroxine (thyroid hormone replacement therapy) would help normalize the hormone levels and alleviate symptoms. Total thyroidectomy, radio iodine, and antithyroid drugs are not appropriate treatments for this condition.

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  • 13. 

    The investigation of choice in patients with thyroid nodule is

    • A.

      FNAC

    • B.

      USG

    • C.

      CT

    • D.

      Iodine uptake

    Correct Answer
    A. FNAC
    Explanation
    Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) is the investigation of choice in patients with thyroid nodules. FNAC involves inserting a thin needle into the nodule and aspirating cells for examination under a microscope. This procedure is minimally invasive, cost-effective, and has a high diagnostic accuracy for distinguishing between benign and malignant nodules. It helps in determining the nature of the nodule, guiding further management decisions, and avoiding unnecessary surgeries. Ultrasound (USG) and CT scans may also provide additional information, but FNAC is the preferred initial investigation for thyroid nodules. Iodine uptake is not used for the investigation of thyroid nodules.

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  • 14. 

    The most common cause of hypothyroidism is

    • A.

      Hashimoto’s

    • B.

      Thyroidectomy

    • C.

      131 I therapy

    • D.

      Anti thyroid drugs

    Correct Answer
    A. Hashimoto’s
    Explanation
    Hashimoto's is the most common cause of hypothyroidism. It is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, leading to inflammation and damage. This results in a decreased production of thyroid hormones, leading to hypothyroidism. Thyroidectomy, 131 I therapy, and anti-thyroid drugs are not the most common causes of hypothyroidism, although they can contribute to it in certain cases.

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  • 15. 

    The predominant thyroid cancer in children

    • A.

      PCT

    • B.

      MCT

    • C.

      FCT

    • D.

      Anaplastic

    Correct Answer
    A. PCT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PCT. PCT stands for Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma, which is the most common type of thyroid cancer in children. It is a slow-growing cancer that usually has a good prognosis. MCT (Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma) and FCT (Follicular Thyroid Carcinoma) are other types of thyroid cancer, but they are less common in children. Anaplastic thyroid cancer is a rare and aggressive form of thyroid cancer that is typically found in older adults.

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  • 16. 

    Kalloo 45 year’s presents with a swelling in the thyroid gland and a lymph node in the neck. Aspiration of the node shows amyloid material. What is the management of choice for this patient

    • A.

      Hemithyroidectomy with neck dissection

    • B.

      Total thyroidectomy with neck dissection

    • C.

      Total thyroidectomy with neck irradiation

    • D.

      Hemithyroidectomy

    Correct Answer
    B. Total thyroidectomy with neck dissection
    Explanation
    The management of choice for a patient presenting with a swelling in the thyroid gland and a lymph node in the neck, with aspiration of the node showing amyloid material, is total thyroidectomy with neck dissection. This is because the presence of amyloid material suggests the possibility of medullary thyroid carcinoma, which requires complete removal of the thyroid gland (total thyroidectomy) along with removal of the affected lymph nodes (neck dissection) to achieve optimal treatment outcomes. Hemithyroidectomy alone may not be sufficient in this case. Neck irradiation is not the preferred management option in this scenario.

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  • 17. 

    Damage  to the superior laryngeal nerve causes

    • A.

      No effect

    • B.

      Hoarseness

    • C.

      Loss of timbre and resonance

    • D.

      Loss of speech

    Correct Answer
    C. Loss of timbre and resonance
    Explanation
    Damage to the superior laryngeal nerve can lead to a loss of timbre and resonance in the voice. The superior laryngeal nerve controls the cricothyroid muscle, which is responsible for adjusting the tension of the vocal cords. When this nerve is damaged, it can result in a change in the quality of the voice, causing it to lose its characteristic tone and resonance. This can make the voice sound dull or flat, affecting the overall sound and quality of speech.

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  • 18. 

    Commonest complication after subtotal thyriodectomy is

    • A.

      RLY aplsy

    • B.

      Tetany

    • C.

      Progressive exophtnalmos

    • D.

      Haematoma

    Correct Answer
    D. Haematoma
    Explanation
    After a subtotal thyroidectomy, a common complication is the formation of a hematoma. A hematoma occurs when there is bleeding into the surgical site, leading to the accumulation of blood. This can cause swelling, pain, and pressure on surrounding structures. Prompt management is required to prevent further complications such as infection or compromised blood flow.

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  • 19. 

    Treatment of choice in cold nodule is

    • A.

      I-131

    • B.

      Hemithyroidectomy

    • C.

      Subtotal thyroidectomy

    • D.

      Wait and watch

    Correct Answer
    B. Hemithyroidectomy
    Explanation
    Hemithyroidectomy is the treatment of choice in a cold nodule. A cold nodule refers to a thyroid nodule that does not take up radioactive iodine (I-131) during a scan. This indicates a lower likelihood of being cancerous. Hemithyroidectomy involves the surgical removal of half of the thyroid gland, which is the affected side where the cold nodule is located. This procedure allows for both diagnosis and treatment of the cold nodule, while preserving the function of the remaining healthy thyroid tissue.

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  • 20. 

    Hyoid bone is removed to prevent the recurrence of

    • A.

      Thyroid nodule

    • B.

      Throglossal cyst

    • C.

      Ectopic thyroid

    • D.

      Papillary carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Throglossal cyst
    Explanation
    The hyoid bone is removed to prevent the recurrence of a throglossal cyst. Throglossal cysts are congenital cysts that develop from remnants of the thyroglossal duct, which is a structure that forms during embryonic development. The hyoid bone is located in the neck and is closely associated with the thyroglossal duct. By removing the hyoid bone, surgeons ensure that all remnants of the thyroglossal duct are excised, reducing the risk of recurrence of the cyst.

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  • 21. 

    High levels of calcitonin are seen in

    • A.

      Follicular ca

    • B.

      Papillary ca

    • C.

      Anaplastic ca

    • D.

      Medullary ca

    Correct Answer
    D. Medullary ca
    Explanation
    Medullary ca is a type of thyroid cancer that originates from the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland. These cells produce calcitonin, a hormone that helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Therefore, high levels of calcitonin are seen in medullary ca. This hormone can be used as a tumor marker to aid in the diagnosis and monitoring of this specific type of thyroid cancer. Follicular ca, papillary ca, and anaplastic ca are other types of thyroid cancer that do not typically exhibit elevated levels of calcitonin.

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  • 22. 

    Respiratory distress on the fifty day is due to

    • A.

      Hypopaarathyroidism

    • B.

      Wound haematoma

    • C.

      Laryngeal edema

    • D.

      RLN palsy

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypopaarathyroidism
    Explanation
    Respiratory distress on the fifty day is likely due to hypoparathyroidism. Hypoparathyroidism is a condition characterized by low levels of parathyroid hormone, which can lead to low levels of calcium in the blood. This can cause muscle spasms and contractions, including those in the respiratory muscles, leading to difficulty breathing. Hypoparathyroidism can also cause other symptoms such as numbness and tingling, muscle cramps, and seizures.

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  • 23. 

    Sings and symptoms of hyperthyroidism include all of the following except

    • A.

      Sleeping tachycardia

    • B.

      Exopthalmos

    • C.

      Pretibialmyxedema

    • D.

      Decreased sweating

    Correct Answer
    D. Decreased sweating
    Explanation
    Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones. This leads to an overactive metabolism and a range of symptoms. Common symptoms of hyperthyroidism include increased heart rate (tachycardia), bulging eyes (exopthalmos), and thickening of the skin on the lower legs (pretibial myxedema). However, decreased sweating is not a typical symptom of hyperthyroidism. Sweating is often increased in individuals with hyperthyroidism due to the increased metabolic activity. Therefore, the correct answer is "Decreased sweating."

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  • 24. 

    Surgery in thyroiditis is necessary because

    • A.

      To prevent concerous dengeneration

    • B.

      For relief of pain in the ear

    • C.

      To overcome pressure on the trachea

    • D.

      Cure toxic reaction

    Correct Answer
    C. To overcome pressure on the trachea
    Explanation
    Surgery in thyroiditis is necessary to overcome pressure on the trachea. Thyroiditis is inflammation of the thyroid gland, which can cause the gland to enlarge and put pressure on the trachea, leading to difficulty breathing and other respiratory problems. Surgery is performed to remove the enlarged thyroid gland and alleviate the pressure on the trachea, allowing for normal breathing and preventing further complications.

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  • 25. 

    Treatment of hashimoto disease is

    • A.

      Carbimazole

    • B.

      Thyroxine

    • C.

      Radioiodine

    • D.

      STT

    Correct Answer
    B. Thyroxine
    Explanation
    Thyroxine is the correct answer for the treatment of Hashimoto's disease. Hashimoto's disease is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks the thyroid gland, leading to an underactive thyroid. Thyroxine, a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone, is prescribed to replace the hormone that the thyroid gland is unable to produce. This medication helps to regulate the body's metabolism and energy levels. By taking thyroxine, patients with Hashimoto's disease can manage their symptoms and maintain a healthy thyroid function.

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  • 26. 

    Inferior thyroid artery ligation in STT is done

    • A.

      As close to the thyroid

    • B.

      As far as possible

    • C.

      At its origin

    • D.

      Anywhere

    Correct Answer
    B. As far as possible
    Explanation
    Inferior thyroid artery ligation in STT is done as far as possible because this ensures complete occlusion of the artery and prevents any potential bleeding or damage to surrounding structures. By ligating the artery as far as possible from its origin, the surgeon can ensure that there is minimal risk of collateral circulation and that the blood supply to the thyroid gland is effectively cut off. This approach also reduces the chances of any residual blood flow or complications during the procedure.

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  • 27. 

    All are true about de Quervans thyroiditis is except

    • A.

      Steroids are the mainstay of treatment

    • B.

      Seen after viral infection

    • C.

      Auto immune thyroiditis

    • D.

      Painful enlargement of thyroid gland

    Correct Answer
    C. Auto immune thyroiditis
    Explanation
    de Quervain's thyroiditis is a condition characterized by painful enlargement of the thyroid gland, which is usually preceded by a viral infection. It is an inflammatory disorder of the thyroid gland, but it is not classified as an autoimmune thyroiditis. Steroids are commonly used as the main treatment for de Quervain's thyroiditis to reduce inflammation and alleviate symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is "Auto immune thyroiditis."

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  • 28. 

    Papillary carcinoma all the following are true except

    • A.

      Multicentrenic

    • B.

      Secondaries to lymph nodes

    • C.

      Slowly growing

    • D.

      Spreads to bone

    Correct Answer
    D. Spreads to bone
    Explanation
    Papillary carcinoma is a type of thyroid cancer that typically spreads to nearby lymph nodes but rarely spreads to distant sites such as bone. Therefore, the statement "Spreads to bone" is not true for papillary carcinoma.

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  • 29. 

    Median ectopic thyroid is

    • A.

      Thyroglossal cyst

    • B.

      Normal thyroid tissue

    • C.

      Carcinoma metastasis

    • D.

      Struma ovary

    Correct Answer
    B. Normal thyroid tissue
    Explanation
    Median ectopic thyroid refers to the presence of normal thyroid tissue in the midline of the neck, instead of its usual location. This can occur due to abnormal migration of thyroid tissue during embryonic development. Therefore, the correct answer is "Normal thyroid tissue."

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  • 30. 

    A 50 year old male is suffering from severe dysphnoea, after thyroid surgery, first treatment would be

    • A.

      Tracheostomy

    • B.

      Wart & watch

    • C.

      Open the sutures

    • D.

      Trid thyroidectomy

    Correct Answer
    C. Open the sutures
    Explanation
    After thyroid surgery, it is possible that the patient is experiencing severe dyspnea due to the sutures being too tight or causing compression on the airway. Therefore, the first treatment would be to open the sutures to relieve the pressure and allow for proper airflow. Tracheostomy may be considered if the dyspnea persists or worsens after opening the sutures, but it is not the initial treatment. "Wart & watch" and "Trid thyroidectomy" are not relevant options in this scenario.

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  • 31. 

    Loss of convergence of eyeball in a patient with thyrotoxicosis is called

    • A.

      Mobeius sign

    • B.

      Ven graffe’s sign

    • C.

      Stellwag’s sign

    • D.

      Joffory’s sign

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobeius sign
    Explanation
    Mobeius sign refers to the loss of convergence of the eyeball in a patient with thyrotoxicosis. This condition is characterized by the inability of the eyes to move inward or converge towards each other, leading to a fixed or divergent gaze. It is caused by the overstimulation of the extraocular muscles due to excessive thyroid hormone levels. This sign is named after Paul Julius Mobius, a German neurologist who first described it. Ven graffe's sign, Stellwag's sign, and Joffory's sign are not associated with the loss of convergence in thyrotoxicosis.

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  • 32. 

    First investigation to be done in a patient with solitary thyroid nodule is called

    • A.

      Thyroid function tests

    • B.

      FNAC

    • C.

      Thyroid scan

    • D.

      Excision biops

    Correct Answer
    B. FNAC
    Explanation
    FNAC stands for Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology, which is a procedure used to collect cells from a thyroid nodule for examination under a microscope. It is the first investigation to be done in a patient with a solitary thyroid nodule because it can help determine whether the nodule is benign or malignant. FNAC is a relatively simple and safe procedure that provides valuable information for further management and treatment decisions. Thyroid function tests, thyroid scan, and excision biopsy are other investigations that may be performed depending on the results of the FNAC.

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  • 33. 

    Lateral aberrant thyroid referes to

    • A.

      Congenital thyroid abnormalities

    • B.

      Metastastis from primary in thyroid

    • C.

      Lingual thyroid

    • D.

      Branchial cyst

    Correct Answer
    B. Metastastis from primary in thyroid
    Explanation
    Lateral aberrant thyroid refers to the presence of metastasis from a primary tumor located in the thyroid gland. This means that cancer cells from the thyroid have spread to other parts of the body, such as nearby lymph nodes or distant organs. It is important to identify and treat these metastases, as they can have significant implications for the management and prognosis of the patient.

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  • 34. 

    All are true regarding folliacular carcinoma of thyroid gland except

    • A.

      Pulsating bony secondaries of veins

    • B.

      Seen in long standing multinodular goiter

    • C.

      Cann’t be distinguished from follicular adenoma on FNAC

    • D.

      Psamomma bodies

    Correct Answer
    D. Psamomma bodies
    Explanation
    Psammoma bodies are a characteristic finding in papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland, not follicular carcinoma. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland is typically associated with a pulsating bony secondaries of veins, is seen in long-standing multinodular goiter, and cannot be distinguished from follicular adenoma on fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC).

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  • 35. 

    Hurthle cell ca is a varrant of

    • A.

      Follicular ca

    • B.

      Medullary ca

    • C.

      Papullary ca

    • D.

      Anaplastic ca

    Correct Answer
    A. Follicular ca
    Explanation
    Hurthle cell carcinoma is a variant of follicular carcinoma. Hurthle cells are a type of thyroid cells that are larger and have more mitochondria compared to normal thyroid cells. In Hurthle cell carcinoma, these cells become cancerous and form a tumor in the thyroid gland. Follicular carcinoma is another type of thyroid cancer that arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Both Hurthle cell carcinoma and follicular carcinoma have similar characteristics and treatment approaches, which is why Hurthle cell carcinoma is considered a variant of follicular carcinoma.

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  • 36. 

    All are true in patient with hypothyroidism except

    • A.

      Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk

    • B.

      Increased appetite leading to weight gain

    • C.

      Constipation

    • D.

      Badycardia

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased appetite leading to weight gain
    Explanation
    In patients with hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone, which slows down the body's metabolism. This can lead to symptoms such as weight gain, constipation, and bradycardia (slow heart rate). However, increased appetite leading to weight gain is not a typical symptom of hypothyroidism. In fact, patients with hypothyroidism often experience a decreased appetite.

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  • 37. 

    Superior thyroid artery is a branch of

    • A.

      Internal cartotid artery

    • B.

      External carotid Artery

    • C.

      Subclavian Artery

    • D.

      Thyrocervical trunk

    Correct Answer
    B. External carotid Artery
    Explanation
    The superior thyroid artery is a branch of the external carotid artery. The external carotid artery is one of the major arteries that supplies blood to the head and neck region. It arises from the common carotid artery and gives off various branches, including the superior thyroid artery. This artery provides blood supply to the thyroid gland, as well as other structures in the neck such as the larynx and the muscles of the pharynx.

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  • 38. 

    All are true regarding thyroid carcinoma except  

    • A.

      Papillary ca is the post irradiation ca

    • B.

      Anaplastic ca carries the worst prognosis

    • C.

      Diarrhoea is the commonest symptom of medullary ca

    • D.

      Follicular ca has the best prognosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Diarrhoea is the commonest symptom of medullary ca
  • 39. 

    Berry’s sign in

    • A.

      Infiltration of trachea by Ca thyroid

    • B.

      Infilination of carotid sheath leading to unpalpable carotid pulsaltion

    • C.

      Lid retraction is of eye rids

    • D.

      Congestion & dilatation in retrosternal goiter

    Correct Answer
    B. Infilination of carotid sheath leading to unpalpable carotid pulsaltion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Infiltration of carotid sheath leading to unpalpable carotid pulsation." Berry's sign refers to the infiltration of the carotid sheath by a thyroid carcinoma, which can lead to compression and obstruction of the carotid artery. This compression can result in a decrease or absence of palpable carotid pulsations.

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  • 40. 

    Hashimoto’s disease. True is

    • A.

      Infiltrating fibrosis of thyroid gland

    • B.

      Initially hyperthyroid then hypothyroid

    • C.

      Untially hyperthyroid then ewchyroic

    • D.

      Never hyperthyroid

    Correct Answer
    B. Initially hyperthyroid then hypothyroid
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Initially hyperthyroid then hypothyroid." Hashimoto's disease is an autoimmune disorder that causes inflammation and damage to the thyroid gland. In the early stages of the disease, the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid, leading to an overproduction of thyroid hormones, resulting in hyperthyroidism. However, as the disease progresses, the thyroid gland becomes damaged and is unable to produce enough hormones, leading to hypothyroidism. Thus, the correct answer states the correct sequence of thyroid function changes in Hashimoto's disease.

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  • 41. 

    Most common site for bony metastases in a ca breast is

    • A.

      Thoracic vertebrae

    • B.

      Femur

    • C.

      Skull

    • D.

      Lumbar vertebrae

    Correct Answer
    D. Lumbar vertebrae
    Explanation
    Lumbar vertebrae are the most common site for bony metastases in breast cancer. Breast cancer often spreads to the bones, and the lumbar vertebrae, which are the lower back bones, are frequently affected. This can cause pain, weakness, and other symptoms. Metastases to the thoracic vertebrae, femur, and skull are also possible, but the lumbar vertebrae are the most common site for bony metastases in breast cancer.

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  • 42. 

    25-year old lactating mother with 4 days of painful swelling in it breast with cellulitis, localized, fluctuation, treatment of choice would be

    • A.

      Analgesics & antibiotics

    • B.

      Hot compression with antibiotics

    • C.

      Incision & drainage

    • D.

      Reassurance with breast emptying

    Correct Answer
    C. Incision & drainage
    Explanation
    In this case, the lactating mother has a painful swelling in her breast with cellulitis, which indicates an infection. The presence of localized fluctuation suggests the formation of an abscess. Incision and drainage is the treatment of choice for abscesses, as it allows for the removal of pus and promotes healing. Analgesics and antibiotics alone may not be sufficient to treat the abscess. Hot compression with antibiotics may help with pain relief and control the infection to some extent, but it may not completely resolve the abscess. Reassurance with breast emptying alone would not be enough to treat the abscess.

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  • 43. 

    Gynaecomastia is seen in all expect

    • A.

      Klienfilters syndrome

    • B.

      Turners syndrome

    • C.

      Testicular tumours

    • D.

      Puberty

    Correct Answer
    B. Turners syndrome
    Explanation
    Gynaecomastia is the enlargement of breast tissue in males. It is commonly seen during puberty due to hormonal changes. However, it is not seen in Klienfilters syndrome, Testicular tumours, or Turner's syndrome. Turner's syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females and is characterized by the absence or abnormalities of the X chromosome. Therefore, the correct answer is Turner's syndrome.

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  • 44. 

    The following genes are implicated in ca breast except

    • A.

      BRACA1

    • B.

      BRCA2

    • C.

      X-ras

    • D.

      P53

    Correct Answer
    C. X-ras
    Explanation
    The question asks for the gene that is not implicated in breast cancer. BRACA1 and BRCA2 are well-known genes associated with an increased risk of breast cancer. P53 is a tumor suppressor gene that plays a crucial role in preventing cancer development. X-ras, on the other hand, is not typically associated with breast cancer. Therefore, X-ras is the correct answer as it is the only gene listed that is not implicated in breast cancer.

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  • 45. 

    45-year a pretty woman presents with a  hard & mobile lump in right breast 1st investigation to be done is

    • A.

      USG breast

    • B.

      FNAC

    • C.

      Mammography

    • D.

      Core biopsy

    Correct Answer
    B. FNAC
    Explanation
    The first investigation to be done in this case is FNAC (Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology). FNAC is a minimally invasive procedure in which a thin needle is used to extract cells from the lump in the breast. These cells are then examined under a microscope to determine if they are cancerous or benign. FNAC is often the initial diagnostic test for breast lumps as it is quick, relatively painless, and provides valuable information about the nature of the lump. It helps in determining whether further tests like mammography or core biopsy are required.

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  • 46. 

    ​Most important prognostic factor in Ca breast is

    • A.

      Tumor size

    • B.

      Erpr status

    • C.

      Axillary lympoh node status

    • D.

      Histological type of tumour

    Correct Answer
    C. Axillary lympoh node status
    Explanation
    The most important prognostic factor in breast cancer is the axillary lymph node status. The presence of cancer cells in the lymph nodes indicates that the cancer has spread beyond the breast, increasing the risk of recurrence and metastasis. Therefore, the axillary lymph node status is crucial in determining the stage of the cancer and guiding treatment decisions. Tumor size, ER/PR status, and histological type of the tumor are also important factors, but the involvement of the lymph nodes has a stronger impact on prognosis.

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  • 47. 

    55 year old woman presents with 8cm*8cm ulcerating mass in right breast with fixed lymph nodes. Metastatic work up of patients was normal. Clinical stage of patient is

    • A.

      T4BN2MO

    • B.

      T4DN2MO

    • C.

      T4BN1MO

    • D.

      T4DN1MO

    Correct Answer
    A. T4BN2MO
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T4BN2MO. This is because the patient has a large ulcerating mass in the right breast (T4), with fixed lymph nodes (N2), and no evidence of distant metastasis (M0).

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  • 48. 

    The initial treatment in above pt will be

    • A.

      MRM

    • B.

      Neoadjuvant chemotherapy

    • C.

      Radiotherapy

    • D.

      Palliative hormonal therapy

    Correct Answer
    B. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
    Explanation
    Neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the initial treatment in the given patient. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy refers to the administration of chemotherapy before the main treatment, such as surgery or radiation therapy. It is commonly used in cancer treatment to shrink tumors before they are surgically removed or to make other treatments more effective. In this case, neoadjuvant chemotherapy would be the first step in the treatment plan to reduce the size of the tumor before considering other options like surgery or radiotherapy.

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  • 49. 

    Most common finding of ca breast in mammography is

    • A.

      Microcalcification

    • B.

      Spiculated mass

    • C.

      Stellate lesion

    • D.

      Nipple retraction

    Correct Answer
    B. Spiculated mass
    Explanation
    A spiculated mass is a common finding of breast cancer in mammography. It refers to a mass with irregular, spiky projections that extend outward from the main mass. This appearance is often indicative of an aggressive and invasive tumor, as the spiculations represent the tumor infiltrating and distorting the surrounding tissue. The presence of a spiculated mass in mammography is concerning and may require further diagnostic tests, such as a biopsy, to determine if it is cancerous.

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  • 50. 

    Risk of ca breast is associated with

    • A.

      Sclerosing adenosis

    • B.

      Breast cysts

    • C.

      Duct ectasia

    • D.

      Papilloma with a fibrovascular core

    Correct Answer
    D. Papilloma with a fibrovascular core
    Explanation
    Papilloma with a fibrovascular core is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer. Papillomas are benign tumors that develop in the breast ducts, and the presence of a fibrovascular core indicates a higher likelihood of malignancy. While sclerosing adenosis, breast cysts, and duct ectasia are also benign breast conditions, they do not carry the same level of risk for developing breast cancer as papilloma with a fibrovascular core.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 19, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Jishnufmgs
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