PEGA CSSA Mock Test

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1. Which tool is best if you wanted to compare PRPC Error with alerts , as well as the JVM garabge collection log(Choose one)

Explanation

The best tool to compare PRPC Error with alerts, as well as the JVM garbage collection log, is PLA_ PegaRules Log Analyzer. This tool specifically analyzes and interprets PegaRules logs, allowing users to easily identify and troubleshoot errors and performance issues. AES (Automated Error Reporting System) is primarily used for monitoring and managing Pega applications, SMA (System Management Application) provides system administration capabilities, and Excel is a general-purpose spreadsheet tool that may not have the specific functionality required for comparing these logs.

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About This Quiz
PEGA CSSA Mock Test - Quiz

A Pega certification is not an easy achievement. Most people take up exams severally before getting it right. This Pega CSSA Mock Test will help you prepare well to get through at the first shot. All the best.

2. Why is allowing instances to be stored in a default table(pr_other) a poor design practice?(choose one)

Explanation

Allowing instances to be stored in a default table (pr_other) is a poor design practice because the default table does not contain adequate indexes and columns for performance. This means that retrieving and manipulating data from the table may be slower and less efficient. In order to optimize performance and ensure proper data organization, it is recommended to use tables specifically designed for storing and managing the relevant data.

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3. Your application just went into production and the users are complaining that response times are terrible.Your best initial action should be?(Choose one)

Explanation

The best initial action to take when users complain about terrible response times in a newly deployed application is to use the PLA-PegaRULES Log Analyzer to analyze the ALERTS, System Logs, and GC. This tool allows for a comprehensive analysis of the application's logs and garbage collection, which can help identify any performance issues or bottlenecks that may be causing the slow response times. By analyzing these logs, it becomes easier to pinpoint the root cause of the problem and take appropriate actions to optimize the application's performance.

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4. How can you debug an agent using Tracer(choose one)

Explanation

To debug an agent using Tracer, you can delay the agent processing from SMA and then trace the given requestor. This means that you can pause the execution of the agent and then trace the specific requestor that you want to debug. By doing this, you can analyze the execution flow and identify any issues or errors in the agent's processing.

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5. Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel

Explanation

Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel because Excel provides a user-friendly interface and a wide range of features that allow users to input and manipulate data easily. Excel also offers various tools for organizing and analyzing data, making it a suitable platform for creating and editing decision tables. Users can enter the conditions and corresponding actions in separate columns, and use Excel's formatting and formula capabilities to create and modify decision table rules efficiently. Additionally, Excel allows for easy collaboration and sharing of decision tables among team members.

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6. What determines which table a work object is persisted to?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated with the class group the work object belongs to. This is because the Data-Admin-DB-Table record defines the database table where the work object will be persisted. By associating the record with the class group, it ensures that all work objects belonging to that class group are stored in the same table.

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7. Which one statement describes the best practice for branding an application to meet a company's style requirements (choose one)

Explanation

The best practice for branding an application to meet a company's style requirements is to use the Application Skin wizard and then modify the generated skins when needed, while trying to limit the use of inline styles. This approach allows for customization of the application's appearance while maintaining consistency and avoiding excessive use of inline styles, which can make maintenance and future updates more difficult.

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8. Where can you view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache? (Choose one)

Explanation

The correct answer is "Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the form of an excel file." This is because the SMA (System Management Application) provides a user interface for monitoring and managing Pega applications. It allows users to view various system information, including the contents of the instance cache, which are displayed in the form of an excel file. The other options mentioned, such as using the Developer Portal or viewing XML files, do not provide a direct way to view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache.

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9. What does PRPC do when executing a blocked rule (choose one)

Explanation

When executing a blocked rule, PRPC throws an exception. This means that if a rule is blocked, PRPC will not ignore it or continue searching for the next rule, but instead, it will stop the execution and throw an exception.

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10. Given the following situation:A BPM application was deployed in to production 9 months ago and was performing well initially.Now users have statrted complaining slow responses on certain screen interactions irrespective of the time of day. Which of the following stmts is most likly to be accurate as to the root cause of this issue (choose one)

Explanation

The most likely root cause of the slow response issue is that over time, more rows have been added to the work, history, assignment, and operator tables. This has resulted in inefficient queries on these tables, causing them to take longer than they did 9 months ago. As the number of rows increases, the queries become slower, impacting the overall performance of the BPM application.

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11. Which one of the following rules can use backward chaining as a method of propagation ?(Choose one)

Explanation

Rule-Declare-Expression can use backward chaining as a method of propagation because it allows the system to infer values based on the values of other properties. Backward chaining starts with the goal and works backward to find the conditions that need to be satisfied. In this case, the rule is declared as an expression, which means that it is used to calculate a value based on the values of other properties. Therefore, backward chaining can be used to propagate the value of the rule based on the values of the properties it depends on.

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12. There are two session-related timeouts that are configurable in PRPC, the authentication timeout and the requestor timeout. Which statement is true

Explanation

The correct answer is that the Authentication timeout should be set to occur first. This means that the authentication timeout should be set to a shorter duration compared to the requestor timeout. This ensures that the user is prompted to re-authenticate before their session expires due to inactivity. By setting the authentication timeout to occur first, it helps to maintain the security of the system by regularly verifying the user's identity.

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13. What four steps must be taken to unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface /system is not yet available(Choose 4)

Explanation

To unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface/system is not yet available, four steps must be taken. First, create a Simulation activity. Then, set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity. Next, define a Connect simulation instance. Finally, test the flow with simulation enabled. These steps allow for testing the connector functionality without the actual target system being available.

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14. Which method of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener?(choose one)

Explanation

JMS stands for Java Message Service, which is a method of service integration within PRPC that requires the configuration of a listener. JMS allows applications to send, receive, and process messages asynchronously, making it a suitable choice for integrating services within PRPC. By configuring a listener, PRPC can listen for incoming messages and process them accordingly, enabling effective communication and integration between different systems.

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15. A user has the access role that allows Level 5 access to modify instances of the MyCo-Work-Policy. What should you use to disallow access to instances of the MyCo-Work-PolicyApp-Endorse class

Explanation

To disallow access to instances of the MyCo-Work-PolicyApp-Endorse class, the user should use "Access Deny". This access setting will prevent the user from having access to modify instances of the specified class, ensuring that they cannot make any changes to it.

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16. What does the rollback method do?

Explanation

The rollback method is used to undo a series of operations or changes that have been deferred or queued up. It is capable of rolling back multiple operations in one go, reverting the system to a previous state. This is useful in situations where a set of operations needs to be undone, such as in a transaction or when handling errors. By rolling back the entire deferred stack of operations, any changes made during the execution of those operations are effectively undone, restoring the system to its previous state.

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17. The customer wants to rollback a recently deployed Rule-Admin-Product which was imported into a target prduction system. How to solve this problem in the best possible way.(choose two)

Explanation

The first option suggests that by taking a DB backup before the import, the system can be restored to its previous state in case of rollback. This ensures that any changes made by the imported Rule-Admin-Product can be undone.

The second option suggests that even though the new rules are in the target system, access to these rules can be controlled by access groups. This means that the customer can still have control over which rules are accessed, providing a solution to the problem without completely rolling back the import.

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18. Which one of the following is not a refactoring tool provided by PRPC (Choose one)

Explanation

The correct answer is "Converting a Map-Value into a decision table". This is not a refactoring tool provided by PRPC. Refactoring tools are used to restructure code without changing its behavior, and they typically involve renaming, searching, replacing, and merging functionalities. However, converting a Map-Value into a decision table is not a refactoring action but rather a transformation or conversion of one data structure into another.

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19. PegaRULES is installed on a multi-node system and a copy of the various caches is stored on each node. Each of these nodes must be updated with rule changes. Which functionality in RPC manages the update process?(choose one)

Explanation

System-Pulse manages the update process in a multi-node system where PegaRULES is installed. It ensures that each node is updated with rule changes by coordinating the synchronization of the various caches stored on each node.

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20. What is the recommended way to configure Service endpoint URLs and other connector specific information(Choose one)

Explanation

A Declarative page is the recommended way to configure Service endpoint URLs and other connector specific information. Declarative pages provide a centralized and reusable approach to define and manage connector configurations. They allow for easy maintenance and updates, as any changes made to the declarative page will automatically reflect in all the instances where it is used. Using a declarative page ensures consistency and reduces the need for duplicating configuration settings across multiple pages or processes.

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21. . PRPC can be installed using a WAR or EAR configuration.Which of the following NOT require an EAR configuration (choose one)

Explanation

The question is asking which requirement does not require an EAR configuration. An EAR configuration is used to package multiple modules, such as EJBs and JMS, into a single deployable unit. JMS message services, support for two-phase commits, support for EJB services, and J2EE security all typically require an EAR configuration. However, JSR-94 is a specification for rules engines and does not require an EAR configuration.

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22. The BLOB is stored in the pzPVStream column of a table and contains the data associated with the instance. Which two statements are true

Explanation

The first statement is false because the BLOB cannot be easily extracted and used in another system since it is stored in a specific column of a table in a database. The second statement is also false because the BLOB does not contain clear text XML, but rather binary data. The third statement is true as simple tables without embedded pages and page lists do not require the use of "pzPVStream". The fourth statement is true as the BLOB allows for storing complex data structures in a single table, eliminating the need for multiple tables in a non BLOB database.

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23. Which tool gives you the broadest picture of a system's overall health (Choose one)

Explanation

PAL (Performance Analysis of Logs): PAL is a powerful tool that reads in a performance monitor counter log and analyzes it using known thresholds. It generates an HTML-based report that provides an overview of the performance-related aspects of the server environment. It is very comprehensive for system diagnostics and can provide insights into various system metrics. PAL (Performance Analysis of Logs) is the tool that gives the broadest picture of a system’s overall health.

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24. Which statement is true abt running Connect- methods in parallel (choose one)

Explanation

Connect Wait is used with the run in parallel option to wait for the parallel connection to complete. This means that when running Connect- methods in parallel, the Connect Wait method can be used to pause the execution of the flow until all the parallel connections have completed their tasks. This ensures that the flow does not proceed further until all the parallel connections have finished their execution.

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25. If an access role to Object and an access deny rule are defined on the same class which rule is applied

Explanation

When an access role to an object and an access deny rule are defined on the same class, the access deny rule takes precedence over the access role. This means that the access deny rule will be applied, and the access role will not have any effect on the class.

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26. What is the Rule Assembly Cache? (Choose one)

Explanation

The Rule Assembly Cache is a memory cache that is utilized to determine the correct instance or existence of the generated Java code on disk, which is then used by the classloader. This cache helps in efficiently managing and accessing the generated Java code, ensuring that the correct version is retrieved when needed.

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27. If you created Rule-Declare-Expression on a target property A first, will PRPC let you to use property A in the left hand side of a property-set in a new activity?

Explanation

PRPC will not allow you to use property A in the left hand side of a property-set in a new activity if you created a Rule-Declare-Expression on the target property A first. This is because Rule-Declare-Expression locks the target property for any updates or modifications. Therefore, it cannot be used in a property-set in a new activity.

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28. Which two of the below statements are about exposing BLOB data(Choose two)

Explanation

The correct answer is that Declare expression or Declare Trigger rules can be used to copy a single embedded property to a top-level page property and can be exposed, and Declare Index rules can be used to expose many or all of the items in an embedded list or group. These statements explain two different ways to expose BLOB data in a Pega application. The first statement suggests using Declare expression or Declare Trigger rules to copy a single embedded property to a top-level page property, which allows the data to be easily accessed and exposed. The second statement mentions using Declare Index rules to expose multiple items in an embedded list or group, providing a mechanism to expose BLOB data in bulk.

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29. Which three actions help to optimize your database or promote effective SQL statements (Choose three)

Explanation

Partitioning the database helps to optimize the database by dividing it into smaller, more manageable parts. This can improve query performance and make it easier to manage and maintain the database. Avoiding arithmetic operations or functions in the where clause can also optimize the database as it reduces the complexity of the query and allows it to be executed more efficiently. Creating and using indexes effectively can improve query performance by allowing the database to quickly locate the required data.

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30. Which two of the following statements regarding the Preflight tool are true? (Choose one)

Explanation

The explanation for the correct answer is that the Preflight tool checks the Index Warnings table to find which rules have warnings on them. This means that the tool looks for any warnings that have been generated for specific rules and alerts the user to those warnings. By checking the Index Warnings table, the Preflight tool ensures that any potential issues or violations of best practices are identified and can be addressed. This helps to ensure that the application is following the necessary guidelines and standards.

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31. Which of the following are disk based caches ?(choose two)

Explanation

The correct answer is Static Context Cache and Look up list cache. These two caches are disk-based caches because they store data on a disk rather than in memory. Disk-based caches are often used when the amount of data to be cached is too large to fit in memory. They provide a way to store and retrieve data quickly by utilizing the faster read and write speeds of a disk compared to traditional memory storage.

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32. Can the out of the box PRPC Access Roles be modified?(Choose one)

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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33. Which two statements are true about RuleSet prerequisites?(Choose 2)

Explanation

Ruleset prerequisites as specified in the "Requires Ruleset and Versions" fields of the Ruleset form are enforced at runtime: This statement is true because RuleSet prerequisites specified in the "Requires Ruleset and Versions" fields of the Ruleset form define dependencies between different RuleSets. These dependencies are enforced at runtime to ensure that all required RuleSets and their versions are available for execution.

When saving Application rules, Ruleset prerequisites are validated: This statement is true because when saving Application rules (such as Case Type rules, Data Transform rules, etc.), the system validates the RuleSet prerequisites to ensure that all necessary RuleSets and their versions are present. This validation helps maintain consistency and prevents issues during rule execution.

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34. What is true about Container managed and PRPC managed authentication (choose one)

Explanation

Container managed authentication cannot be used when deploying a PRPC WAR on TOMCAT.

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35. Which one stmt is true regarding configuring log files in PRPC(Choose one)

Explanation

You can update the prlogging.xml file to change the log file names, roll over settings and even add new log files for specific rule type and class within PRPC. This means that you have the flexibility to customize the logging configuration according to your specific requirements, such as specifying different log files for different types of rules or classes.

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36. What is the Byte Governor Alert (PEGA0004) and how does it work?(Choose one)

Explanation

The Byte Governor Alert (PEGA0004) is triggered when the total number of bytes sent to the browser in an interaction exceeds a byte count threshold. This alert is designed to notify the user when there is an excessive amount of data being sent to the browser, which can lead to performance issues. By monitoring the byte count, the system can identify and address any potential bottlenecks or inefficiencies in the application.

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37. Which of the following is true about Data-Agent-Queue instance (Choose one)

Explanation

Data-Agent-Queue instances are not locked, which means they can be accessed and modified at runtime. This allows you to have control over the behavior of agents that are working on a locked RuleSet. By being able to modify the Data-Agent-Queue instance, you can make changes to the agent's behavior without having to make changes to the RuleSet itself. This flexibility enables you to adjust the agent's behavior dynamically based on specific conditions or requirements.

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38. What is the default error handling mechanism for connector rules generated through the Connector Wizard

Explanation

The correct answer is that the connector activity does not handle a failure in the connector, and processing is transferred to the Flow problem. This means that if there is an error or failure in the connector, the processing will not be handled within the connector activity itself, but will instead be transferred to the Flow problem for further handling or resolution.

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39. Which two statements are true about PRPC security?(Choose 2)

Explanation

An access group can reference one or more access roles, meaning that multiple roles can be assigned to a single access group, allowing for more granular control over user access and permissions. Security in PRPC can also be controlled at a class level, meaning that access to specific classes and their associated rules can be restricted or granted based on user roles and permissions. This allows for more fine-grained control over who can access and modify specific areas of the application.

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40. Which two statements are correct in regards to Java stack trace and PRPC

Explanation

Java stack traces are very helpful in debugging because they show the entire execution flow of a program, including the sequence of method calls and the corresponding line numbers where exceptions occur. They can be found in the log file or displayed within the application on the screen. This allows developers to identify the exact location and cause of an exception, making it easier to troubleshoot and fix issues in the code.

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41. Which client side events are supported within PRPC(choose 3)

Explanation

PRPC (Pega Rules Process Commander) supports three client-side events: ONCHANGE, ONCLICK, and ONBLUR. These events allow for interactive behavior and user input within the PRPC application. ONCHANGE event is triggered when the value of an input field is changed. ONCLICK event is triggered when a user clicks on an element. ONBLUR event is triggered when an element loses focus, typically when the user clicks outside of an input field. These events enable developers to create dynamic and responsive user interfaces in PRPC.

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42. Which statements are true about creating a Rule-Admin-Product ZIP files? (Choose Two)

Explanation

When creating a Rule-Admin-Product ZIP file, it is important to ensure that all rules are checked-in, otherwise errors may be reported during the creation process. Additionally, when including RuleSet versions in the ZIP file, only major and minor versions are required as all patches will be automatically included. Therefore, the correct statements are: All rules should be checked-in, otherwise errors are reported and You only need to include major and minor Rule-Set versions. All patches will be automatically included.

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43. Which two of the out-of-box feature do List Views Provide?

Explanation

List Views provide the features of Pagination and Single or Multi Selection. Pagination allows users to navigate through a large set of data by displaying a limited number of records per page. Single or Multi Selection allows users to select one or multiple items from the list. These features enhance the usability and functionality of List Views by providing efficient data navigation and selection capabilities.

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44. Which of the following statements are true about Summary Views ?(Choose two)

Explanation

Summary Views provide a multi-level report display with drill down capabilities, allowing users to navigate through different levels of data. Additionally, Summary Views allow reporting on tables with a large number of rows (10,000+), thanks to the aggregate first level display. The drill down capability in Summary Views enables users to invoke another Summary View for further analysis. The Summary View rules generate HTML and JSP for display, which can be customized as per requirements.

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45. Pick the most appropriate statement about PRPC reporting (Choose one)

Explanation

PRPC includes powerful BAM reports that provide business managers with real-time and historical information to measure and manage business process performance. This statement suggests that PRPC has built-in reporting capabilities that are specifically designed to help business managers track and analyze their business processes. These reports provide real-time and historical data, allowing managers to make informed decisions and improve process performance.

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46. Which two statemenst are true about SmartInfo display

Explanation

The SmartInfo display can contain a live URL, allowing users to access external websites or resources directly from the display. Additionally, SmartInfo uses AJAX technology, which enables dynamic content updates without requiring a full page reload.

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47. Access groups cannot be referenced from which of the following objects?(Choose one)

Explanation

Access groups cannot be referenced from the "Unit" object. Access groups are used to control the level of access and permissions granted to users within an application. They are typically associated with divisions, requestor type definitions, and operator IDs, allowing for the management of access rights. However, units are not directly related to access control, and therefore, access groups cannot be referenced from them.

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48. What are three performance impacts of having an extremely large work object

Explanation

An extremely large work object can have three performance impacts. Firstly, the persistence to the database will be slower as the Binary Large Object (BLOB) needs to be compressed before being stored. Secondly, when the object is released, it will have garbage collection impacts. Lastly, the large work object will have a large clipboard page footprint, which can consume a significant amount of memory.

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49. Which four statements are true about roles? (Choose four)

Explanation

Roles in a system define the levels of access to rules that apply to a class and its instances. They can be created and modified using the Role Editor. A role also defines a list of privileges that a user has on a class level. Additionally, an access when rule is used to test whether a system allows or disallows a requestor to perform actions on a specific class.

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50. Which two statements are true about List View Reports?

Explanation

List View rules allow users to use Excel to add or update work and data. This means that users can manipulate and modify data within the List View using Excel. Additionally, access to List View and Summary View rules can be controlled with privileges, meaning that administrators can restrict or grant access to these rules based on user roles or permissions.

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51. The PAL indicator that refer to the stream are measuring what

Explanation

The PAL indicator that refers to the stream is measuring database operations pertaining to BLOB. This means that it is monitoring and tracking the actions related to Binary Large Objects (BLOB) in the database. BLOB operations involve storing, retrieving, updating, and deleting large binary data such as images, videos, or documents in a database. The PAL indicator helps in monitoring and optimizing the performance of these specific database operations.

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52. Which of the following are true(choose two)

Explanation

The first true statement is that you can display lists as rows or column list, allowing you to arrange the items either from top to bottom or from left to right. The second true statement is that a section rule can be used to specify how items of the repeating list are displayed, providing flexibility in customizing the appearance of the list items.

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53. A user has the following class access mappings . MyCo-App-Work Modify rules =3 .MyCo-App-Work-CaseCretae Modify rules=5 . MyCo-App-Work-CaseDelete Modify rules =0 Which three of the below statements are correct (choose 3)

Explanation

The first statement is correct because the user has Modify rules access in the MyCo-App-Work-Research class on a development system.

The second statement is incorrect because the user does not have Modify rules access in the MyCo-App-Work-CaseDelete class on any system.

The third statement is correct because the user has Modify rules access in the MyCo-App-Work-CaseCreate class on a test system.

The fourth statement is incorrect because the user does not have Modify rules access in the MyCo-App-Work-CaseCreate class on a production system.

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54. Which two stmts are true when using the stateless services?Choose two

Explanation

When using stateless services, it is true that you cannot assume which application requestor you will connect to. This is because stateless services do not maintain any state information between requests, so each request may be handled by a different application requestor. Additionally, when invoking a stateless service, it may or may not result in the creation of a new application requestor, depending on the specific implementation or configuration.

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55. Which three statements are true about List View reports?(choose 3)

Explanation

A listview report can be displayed in a flow action, allowing users to view the report within the context of their current workflow. Both developers and managers can create and update list view rules, giving them the flexibility to customize and modify reports as needed. In an activity, a List View rule can be executed to provide searching and sorting with the activity step method, enabling developers to programmatically interact with the report and manipulate the data.

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56. Which 3 statemets are true about the Log-Message method

Explanation

The Log-Message method allows you to force a stack trace, which can be helpful in debugging and identifying the source of an error. It also allows you to avoid using Java steps to write to the PegaRULEs log, making it more convenient and efficient. Additionally, you can add a message that will show up in the tracer, providing additional information and context during debugging.

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57. Which of the following statements are true(Choose 2)

Explanation

The overall size of a PRPC work object impacts the time it takes to compress and store the object in the database because larger objects require more storage space and take longer to compress. During ListView execution, PRPC will only retrieve/expand the BLOB if the properties retrieved are not exposed because if the properties are exposed, they can be directly retrieved without having to expand the BLOB.

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58. Which of the following statements are true regarding the PRPC log files?(Choose 2)

Explanation

The Pega Log contains messages created by the Application Server. The alert log contains only alerts and supports performance monitoring.

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59. Which two statements are true about testing services and connectors?(choose 2)

Explanation

Using tools that allow you to monitor traffic and interaction between a SOAP client and service helps you in determining where the problem lies. This means that by using such tools, you can track the communication between the client and the service and identify any issues or errors that may occur during the interaction.

When connect simulation is enabled for MQ connector, the connector itself is not tested. This means that when the connect simulation feature is enabled for an MQ connector, the connector is not actually tested or executed. Instead, a simulated response is generated, allowing you to test the behavior of the system without actually making a connection to the MQ server.

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60. What does the system pulse do(choose three)

Explanation

The system pulse performs three main functions. Firstly, it invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache table. This ensures that any changes made to rules are reflected accurately in the system. Secondly, it processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches. This ensures that the search functionality remains up-to-date with any changes made to the indexed data. Lastly, it synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes. This ensures that any deletions or modifications to lookup lists or rule files are properly synchronized across the system.

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61. Which are the best practices when designing UI rules so they can be re-used?(choose 2)

Explanation

The first best practice for designing UI rules that can be re-used is to build section rules or HTML-property rules with parameters. This allows for more frequent re-use of display rules within an application. The second best practice is to ensure that the interface rule is placed in the correct part of the class structure. This ensures that it can be easily accessed and re-used throughout the application. By following these practices, designers can create UI rules that are flexible and can be used in multiple contexts.

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62. BPM(choose Two)

Explanation

The correct answer is Rules Inspector and Style Viewer. BPM stands for Business Process Management, and in this context, it refers to a software system used to manage and optimize business processes. The Rules Inspector is a tool in BPM that allows users to analyze and validate business rules within the system. It helps ensure that the rules are correctly implemented and functioning as intended. The Style Viewer, on the other hand, is a tool that allows users to view and modify the visual style and layout of BPM processes. It helps in customizing the appearance and user experience of the BPM system.

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63. Which of the following stmts are true about service packages (choose 2)

Explanation

Service packages (SP) allow you to disable requestor pooling, which means that each requestor will have its own dedicated resources instead of sharing them with other requestors. This can be useful in scenarios where you want to ensure isolation and avoid resource contention. Additionally, service packages allow you to specify an access group under which the services run. This allows you to control the permissions and privileges for the services based on the access group settings, ensuring proper security and access control.

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64. Which to statements are true about services and the services accelerator (Choose 2)

Explanation

The service accelerator generates a service rule for activities of your choice allowing you to invoke those. This means that the service accelerator creates a rule that allows you to execute specific activities within a service.

Services can be configured so that service requests that fail PRPC processing are re-queued for another execution. This means that if a service request fails during PRPC processing, it can be set up to be re-queued for another attempt at execution. This helps to ensure that the service request is eventually processed successfully.

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65. What features allows the worklist to display additional data from the wotkobject(Choose two)

Explanation

The JOIN feature on ListViews allows the worklist to display additional data from the workobject by joining the assignment table to the workobject table and adding exposed columns for display. This feature retrieves any columns from the workobject table, allowing for more information to be displayed on the worklist. Additionally, the smart info hover feature allows for the display of section rules, which can show additional work object information.

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66. Which two statements are true about reports (choose two)

Explanation

Paging improves response time and reduces the size of the clipboard because it allows the report results to be displayed in smaller segments or pages, rather than loading the entire report at once. This helps to improve the performance of the report by reducing the amount of data that needs to be processed and displayed. Additionally, the report display generated by a ListView can be embedded in a section, allowing for easy integration and customization of the report within a larger user interface.

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67. Which three statements are true about Summary View and List View reports (choose 3)

Explanation

Summary View reports allow you to drill down to another summary view report, which means that you can navigate from one summary view report to another for more detailed information. Summary View reports also allow you to drill down to a detailed view, allowing you to access more specific and granular data. List views, on the other hand, allow you to pass in parameter values to be used as selection criteria, which means that you can customize the data displayed in the list view by specifying certain parameters or filters.

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68. Which two statements are true about the get Content activity? (Choose two)

Explanation

The first statement is true because the getContent activity is optimized for retrieving reporting data and should not be replaced. The second statement is true because you can customize the getContent activity by creating a copy with the same name in your application ruleset. This allows you to modify the activity according to your specific requirements. The third statement is false because customizing the getContent activity does not necessarily allow you to fetch data from sources other than databases. The fourth statement is true because you can fetch data from an external database table as long as the key of the table is mapped to the pxInsHandle property.

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69. Compare SOAP and HTTP messaging protocols. Which of the below statements (Choose )

Explanation

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70. Which three statements are true about the out-of-box PRPC reports (choose 3)

Explanation

The first statement is true because reports in the Monitor Processes category are designed to monitor work that has arrived but is incomplete, providing visibility into the progress and status of ongoing work.

The second statement is true because reports in the Analyze performance group analyze the frequency and timeliness of flow actions being selected by assignments, allowing for performance analysis and optimization.

The fifth statement is true because the Final Conflicts report is a tool for developers to identify conflicts between rules in the current application Rule set and previous RuleSet versions, helping to resolve any conflicts and ensure smooth rule execution.

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