PEGA CSSA Mock Test

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 9,729
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PEGA CSSA Mock Test - Quiz

A Pega certification is not an easy achievement. Most people take up exams severally before getting it right. This Pega CSSA Mock Test will help you prepare well to get through at the first shot. All the best.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The BLOB is stored in the pzPVStream column of a table and contains the data associated with the instance. Which two statements are true

    • A.

      Since it is a column in a table in a database you can extract the BLOB and use it in another system

    • B.

      The BLOB contains the same clear text xml which you see when clicking the rule data or the View XML option on the clipboard

    • C.

      The "pzPVStream" can be eliminated by use of simple tables (those without embedded pages and page lists)

    • D.

      The BLOB enables a single table to store complex data structure that would normally require multiple tables in a non blob database.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. The "pzPVStream" can be eliminated by use of simple tables (those without embedded pages and page lists)
    D. The BLOB enables a single table to store complex data structure that would normally require multiple tables in a non blob database.
    Explanation
    The first statement is false because the BLOB cannot be easily extracted and used in another system since it is stored in a specific column of a table in a database. The second statement is also false because the BLOB does not contain clear text XML, but rather binary data. The third statement is true as simple tables without embedded pages and page lists do not require the use of "pzPVStream". The fourth statement is true as the BLOB allows for storing complex data structures in a single table, eliminating the need for multiple tables in a non BLOB database.

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  • 2. 

    What determines which table a work object is persisted to?

    • A.

      The Data-Admin-DB-Table record for the class group the work object belongs to and the Access Group

    • B.

      The Rule-Set the class belongs and Data-Admin-DB-Table definitions

    • C.

      Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated to the class group the work object belongs to

    • D.

      The Rule-Set the class belongs to

    Correct Answer
    C. Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated to the class group the work object belongs to
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated with the class group the work object belongs to. This is because the Data-Admin-DB-Table record defines the database table where the work object will be persisted. By associating the record with the class group, it ensures that all work objects belonging to that class group are stored in the same table.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following are disk based caches ?(choose two)

    • A.

      Rule Instance Cache

    • B.

      Static Contect Cache

    • C.

      Look up list cache

    • D.

      Conclusion cache

    • E.

      Dictionary cache

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Static Contect Cache
    C. Look up list cache
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Static Context Cache and Look up list cache. These two caches are disk-based caches because they store data on a disk rather than in memory. Disk-based caches are often used when the amount of data to be cached is too large to fit in memory. They provide a way to store and retrieve data quickly by utilizing the faster read and write speeds of a disk compared to traditional memory storage.

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  • 4. 

    How can you debug an agent using Tracer(choose one)

    • A.

      There is a way to select the agent and force its execution

    • B.

      You can delay the agent processing from SMA and then trace the given requestor

    • C.

      We can set a breakpoint in the activity that the agent runs to have tracer pick it up

    • D.

      We can set a log message step in the activity the agent runs to have tracer find the activity

    Correct Answer
    B. You can delay the agent processing from SMA and then trace the given requestor
    Explanation
    To debug an agent using Tracer, you can delay the agent processing from SMA and then trace the given requestor. This means that you can pause the execution of the agent and then trace the specific requestor that you want to debug. By doing this, you can analyze the execution flow and identify any issues or errors in the agent's processing.

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  • 5. 

    Which two of the below statements are about exposing BLOB data(Choose two)

    • A.

      ) Declare expression or Declare Trigger rules can be used to copy a single embedded property to a top level page property and can be exposed

    • B.

      Declare Index rules can be used to expose many or all of the items in an embedded list or group

    • C.

      Ask your DBA to create a database level index.This is a good mechanism to expose embedded properties

    • D.

      ) Exposing a new property with the Modify Databse schema Wizard will automatically populate all rws of the new column - both for new rows and existing rows

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. ) Declare expression or Declare Trigger rules can be used to copy a single embedded property to a top level page property and can be exposed
    B. Declare Index rules can be used to expose many or all of the items in an embedded list or group
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that Declare expression or Declare Trigger rules can be used to copy a single embedded property to a top-level page property and can be exposed, and Declare Index rules can be used to expose many or all of the items in an embedded list or group. These statements explain two different ways to expose BLOB data in a Pega application. The first statement suggests using Declare expression or Declare Trigger rules to copy a single embedded property to a top-level page property, which allows the data to be easily accessed and exposed. The second statement mentions using Declare Index rules to expose multiple items in an embedded list or group, providing a mechanism to expose BLOB data in bulk.

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  • 6. 

    Why is allowing instances to be stored in a default table(pr_other) a poor design practice?(choose one)

    • A.

      The default table does not contain adequate indexes and columns for performance

    • B.

      Data is purged by the system cleaner

    • C.

      The default table names are too generic

    • D.

      The default table is too small to hold of ur data

    • E.

      Because the Preflight tool will flag it as bad practice

    Correct Answer
    A. The default table does not contain adequate indexes and columns for performance
    Explanation
    Allowing instances to be stored in a default table (pr_other) is a poor design practice because the default table does not contain adequate indexes and columns for performance. This means that retrieving and manipulating data from the table may be slower and less efficient. In order to optimize performance and ensure proper data organization, it is recommended to use tables specifically designed for storing and managing the relevant data.

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  • 7. 

    . PRPC can be installed using a WAR or EAR configuration.Which of the following NOT require an EAR configuration (choose one)

    • A.

      JMS message services support need to be provided

    • B.

      Support for two-phase commits is required

    • C.

      Support for EJB services need to be provided

    • D.

      J2EE security is required

    • E.

      JSR-94 support is required

    Correct Answer
    E. JSR-94 support is required
    Explanation
    The question is asking which requirement does not require an EAR configuration. An EAR configuration is used to package multiple modules, such as EJBs and JMS, into a single deployable unit. JMS message services, support for two-phase commits, support for EJB services, and J2EE security all typically require an EAR configuration. However, JSR-94 is a specification for rules engines and does not require an EAR configuration.

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  • 8. 

    Which two statements are true about RuleSet prerequisites?(Choose 2)

    • A.

      ) Ruleset prerequisites as specified in the "Requires Ruleset and Versions" fields of the Ruleset form are enforced at runtime

    • B.

      Pre-requisites Rulesets govern the creation of new rules during development

    • C.

      RuleSet prerequisites are validated during export of application archives

    • D.

      When saving Application rules, Ruleset prerequisites are validated

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. ) Ruleset prerequisites as specified in the "Requires Ruleset and Versions" fields of the Ruleset form are enforced at runtime
    D. When saving Application rules, Ruleset prerequisites are validated
    Explanation
    Ruleset prerequisites as specified in the "Requires Ruleset and Versions" fields of the Ruleset form are enforced at runtime: This statement is true because RuleSet prerequisites specified in the "Requires Ruleset and Versions" fields of the Ruleset form define dependencies between different RuleSets. These dependencies are enforced at runtime to ensure that all required RuleSets and their versions are available for execution.
    When saving Application rules, Ruleset prerequisites are validated: This statement is true because when saving Application rules (such as Case Type rules, Data Transform rules, etc.), the system validates the RuleSet prerequisites to ensure that all necessary RuleSets and their versions are present. This validation helps maintain consistency and prevents issues during rule execution.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is true about Data-Agent-Queue instance (Choose one)

    • A.

      ) Data-Agnet-Queue instances are not locked so they allow you to control the behavior of Agents in a locke RuleSet at run time

    • B.

      Data-Agent-Queue instances are created by PRPC to support the new Queue for Agent functionality which was provided in PRPC 5.4

    • C.

      ) Data-Adgent-Queue instances are created automatically by PRPC whenevr Queue-For-Agent method is used in an activity step to queue work for agent

    • D.

      Data-Agent-Queue instances are data instances which are used by the Queue manager functionality to allow for concurrent access to a queued piece of work by agents running on multiple nodes

    • E.

      ) Data-Agent-Queue instances represent the master definition of PRPC agents and have been deprecated in PRPC 5.4 in favor of using Rule-Agent-Queue

    Correct Answer
    A. ) Data-Agnet-Queue instances are not locked so they allow you to control the behavior of Agents in a locke RuleSet at run time
    Explanation
    Data-Agent-Queue instances are not locked, which means they can be accessed and modified at runtime. This allows you to have control over the behavior of agents that are working on a locked RuleSet. By being able to modify the Data-Agent-Queue instance, you can make changes to the agent's behavior without having to make changes to the RuleSet itself. This flexibility enables you to adjust the agent's behavior dynamically based on specific conditions or requirements.

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  • 10. 

    What does the system pulse do(choose three)

    • A.

      It is used by PRPC to synchronize changes to the Data-Agent-Schedule instances whenever a Rule-Agen-Queue is modified

    • B.

      It invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache table

    • C.

      It processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches

    • D.

      It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes

    • E.

      It is used by PRPC to send information to PAL on a weekly basis so that the performance analysis can be performed over a period of time

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. It invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache table
    C. It processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches
    D. It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes
    Explanation
    The system pulse performs three main functions. Firstly, it invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache table. This ensures that any changes made to rules are reflected accurately in the system. Secondly, it processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches. This ensures that the search functionality remains up-to-date with any changes made to the indexed data. Lastly, it synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes. This ensures that any deletions or modifications to lookup lists or rule files are properly synchronized across the system.

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  • 11. 

    What does the rollback method do?

    • A.

      It supports incremental rollbacks

    • B.

      Rollback is not supported by PRPC.The only way to do a rollback is by using the compensation action method

    • C.

      Rollback is a way to rollback an object to a previous state using the History instance for a work object

    • D.

      Rolls back the entire deferred stack of operation

    Correct Answer
    D. Rolls back the entire deferred stack of operation
    Explanation
    The rollback method is used to undo a series of operations or changes that have been deferred or queued up. It is capable of rolling back multiple operations in one go, reverting the system to a previous state. This is useful in situations where a set of operations needs to be undone, such as in a transaction or when handling errors. By rolling back the entire deferred stack of operations, any changes made during the execution of those operations are effectively undone, restoring the system to its previous state.

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  • 12. 

    What is the Rule Assembly Cache? (Choose one)

    • A.

      The Rule assembly cache is a memory based cache that stores the generated XML and resulting class files, post compilation since what finally gets executed is XML , not Java code

    • B.

      The Rule Assembly cache is a memory cache which is used to determine the right instance or existence of the generated Java code on disk used by the classloader

    • C.

      The Rule Assembly Cache is a memory cache of the rule data accessed when using the Obj-Open, Obj-Open-By-Handle.The cache is checked when rule data is needed

    • D.

      The Rule Assembly cache is used by PRPC to feed the instance cache as the instance cache is the instance of a given rule for which code has been generated

    Correct Answer
    B. The Rule Assembly cache is a memory cache which is used to determine the right instance or existence of the generated Java code on disk used by the classloader
    Explanation
    The Rule Assembly Cache is a memory cache that is utilized to determine the correct instance or existence of the generated Java code on disk, which is then used by the classloader. This cache helps in efficiently managing and accessing the generated Java code, ensuring that the correct version is retrieved when needed.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following statements are true(Choose 2)

    • A.

      The overall size of a PRPC work object impacts the time it takes to compress and store the onject in the database

    • B.

      During ListView execution, PRPC will only retrieve/expand the BLOB if the properties retrieved are not exposed

    • C.

      During ListView execution, PRPC will only retrieve/expand the BLOB if the properties used in the generated where clause are not exposed

    • D.

      PRPC only retrieves/expands the BLOB via the use of the Obj-Open and obj-Open-B-Handle methods

    • E.

      By default the PRPC BLOB is stored in an encrypted format in the database

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The overall size of a PRPC work object impacts the time it takes to compress and store the onject in the database
    B. During ListView execution, PRPC will only retrieve/expand the BLOB if the properties retrieved are not exposed
    Explanation
    The overall size of a PRPC work object impacts the time it takes to compress and store the object in the database because larger objects require more storage space and take longer to compress. During ListView execution, PRPC will only retrieve/expand the BLOB if the properties retrieved are not exposed because if the properties are exposed, they can be directly retrieved without having to expand the BLOB.

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  • 14. 

    Your application just went into production and the users are complaining that response times are terrible.Your best initial action should be?(Choose one)

    • A.

      Use the PLA-PegaRULES Log Analyzer to analyze the ALERTS, System Logs and GC

    • B.

      Run PAL on every screen in the application

    • C.

      Run Pre-Flight

    • D.

      Ask the DBA to monitor the database

    Correct Answer
    A. Use the PLA-PegaRULES Log Analyzer to analyze the ALERTS, System Logs and GC
    Explanation
    The best initial action to take when users complain about terrible response times in a newly deployed application is to use the PLA-PegaRULES Log Analyzer to analyze the ALERTS, System Logs, and GC. This tool allows for a comprehensive analysis of the application's logs and garbage collection, which can help identify any performance issues or bottlenecks that may be causing the slow response times. By analyzing these logs, it becomes easier to pinpoint the root cause of the problem and take appropriate actions to optimize the application's performance.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following statements are true regarding the PRPC log files?(Choose 2)

    • A.

      The Alert log contains garbage collection details to help support performance monitoring

    • B.

      The Pega Log details the internal runtime exceptions thrown by the Application Server

    • C.

      The Pega Log contains messages created by the Application Server

    • D.

      The Log Usage log contains details on how the system is being used

    • E.

      The alert log contains only alerts and supports performance monitoring.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. The Pega Log contains messages created by the Application Server
    E. The alert log contains only alerts and supports performance monitoring.
    Explanation
    The Pega Log contains messages created by the Application Server. The alert log contains only alerts and supports performance monitoring.

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  • 16. 

    Which three actions help to optimize your database or promote effective SQL statements (Choose three)

    • A.

      Partition the database

    • B.

      Avoid arithmetic operations or functions in the where clause

    • C.

      Write queries that operate on large results sets but only display small amounts of data

    • D.

      Create and use indexes effectively

    • E.

      Avoid using Where clauses

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Partition the database
    B. Avoid arithmetic operations or functions in the where clause
    D. Create and use indexes effectively
    Explanation
    Partitioning the database helps to optimize the database by dividing it into smaller, more manageable parts. This can improve query performance and make it easier to manage and maintain the database. Avoiding arithmetic operations or functions in the where clause can also optimize the database as it reduces the complexity of the query and allows it to be executed more efficiently. Creating and using indexes effectively can improve query performance by allowing the database to quickly locate the required data.

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  • 17. 

    Which one stmt is true regarding configuring log files in PRPC(Choose one)

    • A.

      You can configure within an activity rule which log file you want to write errors to

    • B.

      You are able to configure within SMA which rules write to which log files

    • C.

      You can update prlogging.xml file to change the efault PegaRules log file name

    • D.

      You can update the prlogging.xml file to change the log file names, roll over settings and even add new log files for specific rule type and class within PRPC

    Correct Answer
    D. You can update the prlogging.xml file to change the log file names, roll over settings and even add new log files for specific rule type and class within PRPC
    Explanation
    You can update the prlogging.xml file to change the log file names, roll over settings and even add new log files for specific rule type and class within PRPC. This means that you have the flexibility to customize the logging configuration according to your specific requirements, such as specifying different log files for different types of rules or classes.

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  • 18. 

    Which one of the following is not a refactoring tool provided by PRPC (Choose one)

    • A.

      Renaming a class and propagating the name change through the heirarchy and rule references

    • B.

      Converting a Map-Value into a decision table

    • C.

      Search and replace of a string in all rules

    • D.

      Merging one ruleset into another

    Correct Answer
    B. Converting a Map-Value into a decision table
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Converting a Map-Value into a decision table". This is not a refactoring tool provided by PRPC. Refactoring tools are used to restructure code without changing its behavior, and they typically involve renaming, searching, replacing, and merging functionalities. However, converting a Map-Value into a decision table is not a refactoring action but rather a transformation or conversion of one data structure into another.

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  • 19. 

    Which tool gives you the broadest picture of a system's overall health (Choose one)

    • A.

      PAL

    • B.

      Profiler

    • C.

      SMA

    • D.

      DBTrace

    Correct Answer
    A. PAL
    Explanation
    PAL (Performance Analysis of Logs): PAL is a powerful tool that reads in a performance monitor counter log and analyzes it using known thresholds. It generates an HTML-based report that provides an overview of the performance-related aspects of the server environment. It is very comprehensive for system diagnostics and can provide insights into various system metrics. PAL (Performance Analysis of Logs) is the tool that gives the broadest picture of a system’s overall health.

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  • 20. 

    Which tool is best if you wanted to compare PRPC Error with alerts , as well as the JVM garabge collection log(Choose one)

    • A.

      PLA_ PegaRules Log Analyzer

    • B.

      AES

    • C.

      SMA

    • D.

      Excel

    Correct Answer
    A. PLA_ PegaRules Log Analyzer
    Explanation
    The best tool to compare PRPC Error with alerts, as well as the JVM garbage collection log, is PLA_ PegaRules Log Analyzer. This tool specifically analyzes and interprets PegaRules logs, allowing users to easily identify and troubleshoot errors and performance issues. AES (Automated Error Reporting System) is primarily used for monitoring and managing Pega applications, SMA (System Management Application) provides system administration capabilities, and Excel is a general-purpose spreadsheet tool that may not have the specific functionality required for comparing these logs.

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  • 21. 

    Which two of the following statements regarding the Preflight tool are true? (Choose one)

    • A.

      The Preflight checks rules when run to validate if they follow best practices

    • B.

      ) The Preflight tool checks the Index Warnings table to find which rules have warnings on them- (pr_index_warning table)

    • C.

      The Preflight tool is flexible and allows for you to create your own custom warnings on rules, possibly to implement additional best practises for client

    • D.

      The Pre-flight tool will check for specialization and re-use and determine if your application is following the best practices of an enterprise class structure.

    Correct Answer
    B. ) The Preflight tool checks the Index Warnings table to find which rules have warnings on them- (pr_index_warning table)
    Explanation
    The explanation for the correct answer is that the Preflight tool checks the Index Warnings table to find which rules have warnings on them. This means that the tool looks for any warnings that have been generated for specific rules and alerts the user to those warnings. By checking the Index Warnings table, the Preflight tool ensures that any potential issues or violations of best practices are identified and can be addressed. This helps to ensure that the application is following the necessary guidelines and standards.

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  • 22. 

    What is the Byte Governor Alert (PEGA0004) and how does it work?(Choose one)

    • A.

      It is a non-critical alert that says you have too much data on the clipboard

    • B.

      It is triggered when the total number of bytes sent to the browser in an interaction exceeds a byte count threshold

    • C.

      It is triggered when the total number of bytes read to the browser in an interaction exceeds a byte count threshold

    • D.

      It is triggered when the total number of bytes saved to the database in an interaction exceeds a byte count threshold

    Correct Answer
    C. It is triggered when the total number of bytes read to the browser in an interaction exceeds a byte count threshold
    Explanation
    The Byte Governor Alert (PEGA0004) is triggered when the total number of bytes sent to the browser in an interaction exceeds a byte count threshold. This alert is designed to notify the user when there is an excessive amount of data being sent to the browser, which can lead to performance issues. By monitoring the byte count, the system can identify and address any potential bottlenecks or inefficiencies in the application.

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  • 23. 

    Where can you view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache? (Choose one)

    • A.

      Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the form of an excel file

    • B.

      Using the Developer Portal you can viewe the contents of the instance cache which are displayed

    • C.

      By viewing the XML files from the TEMPDIR\PRGenJava\XML directory

    • D.

      By Viewing the XML files from the pzInsKey column by usng JDBC code

    Correct Answer
    A. Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the form of an excel file
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the form of an excel file." This is because the SMA (System Management Application) provides a user interface for monitoring and managing Pega applications. It allows users to view various system information, including the contents of the instance cache, which are displayed in the form of an excel file. The other options mentioned, such as using the Developer Portal or viewing XML files, do not provide a direct way to view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache.

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  • 24. 

    PegaRULES is installed on a multi-node system and a copy of the various caches is stored on each node. Each of these nodes must be updated with rule changes. Which functionality in RPC manages the update process?(choose one)

    • A.

      Node-Pulse

    • B.

      Rule Cache

    • C.

      System-Update

    • D.

      System-Pulse

    Correct Answer
    D. System-Pulse
    Explanation
    System-Pulse manages the update process in a multi-node system where PegaRULES is installed. It ensures that each node is updated with rule changes by coordinating the synchronization of the various caches stored on each node.

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  • 25. 

    What does PRPC do when executing a blocked rule (choose one)

    • A.

      It writes a message to log4j

    • B.

      only ignores the rule and continues to search for the next rule via rule resolution

    • C.

      It throws an exception

    • D.

      It either ignores the rule or throws an exception depending on the prcofig.xml setting

    Correct Answer
    C. It throws an exception
    Explanation
    When executing a blocked rule, PRPC throws an exception. This means that if a rule is blocked, PRPC will not ignore it or continue searching for the next rule, but instead, it will stop the execution and throw an exception.

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  • 26. 

    Given the following situation:A BPM application was deployed in to production 9 months ago and was performing well initially.Now users have statrted complaining slow responses on certain screen interactions irrespective of the time of day. Which of the following stmts is most likly to be accurate as to the root cause of this issue (choose one)

    • A.

      Over time more rows have been added to work, history, assignment and operator tables and inefficient queries on them are taking longer than they did 9 months ago

    • B.

      A memory leak in the configuration has led to more and more garbage collection over the past 9 months

    • C.

      If the PRPC application server has not been restarted recently it is likely the case that the PRPC cache has not been utilized well

    • D.

      As new rules have been added to PRPC rulebase , the database containing the rules needs to be tuned so that frequent access to the rules is made as efficient as possible

    Correct Answer
    A. Over time more rows have been added to work, history, assignment and operator tables and inefficient queries on them are taking longer than they did 9 months ago
    Explanation
    The most likely root cause of the slow response issue is that over time, more rows have been added to the work, history, assignment, and operator tables. This has resulted in inefficient queries on these tables, causing them to take longer than they did 9 months ago. As the number of rows increases, the queries become slower, impacting the overall performance of the BPM application.

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  • 27. 

    The PAL indicator that refer to the stream are measuring what

    • A.

      The HTML data going to the browser

    • B.

      Any processing of requests and responses via services

    • C.

      Reading and writing data in database

    • D.

      Database operations pertaining to BLOB

    Correct Answer
    D. Database operations pertaining to BLOB
    Explanation
    The PAL indicator that refers to the stream is measuring database operations pertaining to BLOB. This means that it is monitoring and tracking the actions related to Binary Large Objects (BLOB) in the database. BLOB operations involve storing, retrieving, updating, and deleting large binary data such as images, videos, or documents in a database. The PAL indicator helps in monitoring and optimizing the performance of these specific database operations.

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  • 28. 

    What are three performance impacts of having an extremely large work object

    • A.

      Slower persistence to database as the BLOB needs to be compressed

    • B.

      Garbage collection impacts when object is released

    • C.

      Large clipboard page foot print

    • D.

      Large work objects waste space in the instance cache

    • E.

      Large work objects are stored as XML files on the files system and

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Slower persistence to database as the BLOB needs to be compressed
    B. Garbage collection impacts when object is released
    C. Large clipboard page foot print
    Explanation
    An extremely large work object can have three performance impacts. Firstly, the persistence to the database will be slower as the Binary Large Object (BLOB) needs to be compressed before being stored. Secondly, when the object is released, it will have garbage collection impacts. Lastly, the large work object will have a large clipboard page footprint, which can consume a significant amount of memory.

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  • 29. 

    Which two statements are correct in regards to Java stack trace and PRPC

    • A.

      They are thrown only to log files when an internal engine class file throws an exception

    • B.

      They are very helpful in debugging because it shows you the entire execution

    • C.

      They can be found in the log file or within the application(on the screen)

    • D.

      They are thrown only when you can call the Log-Message method and check the

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. They are very helpful in debugging because it shows you the entire execution
    C. They can be found in the log file or within the application(on the screen)
    Explanation
    Java stack traces are very helpful in debugging because they show the entire execution flow of a program, including the sequence of method calls and the corresponding line numbers where exceptions occur. They can be found in the log file or displayed within the application on the screen. This allows developers to identify the exact location and cause of an exception, making it easier to troubleshoot and fix issues in the code.

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  • 30. 

    Which 3 statemets are true about the Log-Message method

    • A.

      You can force a stack trace

    • B.

      You can specify the file name where you want to write the message

    • C.

      It allows you to avoid using Java steps to write to the PegaRULEs log

    • D.

      You can add a message that will show up in tracer

    • E.

      It always uses the Debug log level

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. You can force a stack trace
    C. It allows you to avoid using Java steps to write to the PegaRULEs log
    D. You can add a message that will show up in tracer
    Explanation
    The Log-Message method allows you to force a stack trace, which can be helpful in debugging and identifying the source of an error. It also allows you to avoid using Java steps to write to the PegaRULEs log, making it more convenient and efficient. Additionally, you can add a message that will show up in the tracer, providing additional information and context during debugging.

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  • 31. 

    The customer wants to rollback a recently deployed Rule-Admin-Product which was imported into a target prduction system. How to solve this problem in the best possible way.(choose two)

    • A.

      By doing an export of the Rulesets from the target production system.An export also deletes the rules which were imported

    • B.

      By taking a DB backup before the import on the target system and restoring from the DB backup in a case of rollback

    • C.

      By explaining to the customer that even though the new rules are in the target system we can controls which rules are accssed by access groups

    • D.

      There is no way to do this in the product or outside of the product currently

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. By taking a DB backup before the import on the target system and restoring from the DB backup in a case of rollback
    C. By explaining to the customer that even though the new rules are in the target system we can controls which rules are accssed by access groups
    Explanation
    The first option suggests that by taking a DB backup before the import, the system can be restored to its previous state in case of rollback. This ensures that any changes made by the imported Rule-Admin-Product can be undone.

    The second option suggests that even though the new rules are in the target system, access to these rules can be controlled by access groups. This means that the customer can still have control over which rules are accessed, providing a solution to the problem without completely rolling back the import.

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  • 32. 

    Which statements are true about creating a Rule-Admin-Product ZIP files? (Choose Two)

    • A.

      All rules should be checked-in, otherwise errors are reported

    • B.

      RuleSet versions must be locked

    • C.

      You only need to include major and minor Rule-Set versions. All paches will be automatically

    • D.

      You must create a When Rule to include data instances.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. All rules should be checked-in, otherwise errors are reported
    C. You only need to include major and minor Rule-Set versions. All paches will be automatically
    Explanation
    When creating a Rule-Admin-Product ZIP file, it is important to ensure that all rules are checked-in, otherwise errors may be reported during the creation process. Additionally, when including RuleSet versions in the ZIP file, only major and minor versions are required as all patches will be automatically included. Therefore, the correct statements are: All rules should be checked-in, otherwise errors are reported and You only need to include major and minor Rule-Set versions. All patches will be automatically included.

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  • 33. 

    Which one statement describes the best practice for branding an application to meet a company's style requirements (choose one)

    • A.

      Using the application skin wizard and then use the inline styles on the User Interface rules

    • B.

      Use the Application Skin wizard and then modify the generated skins when needed, try to limit inline styles

    • C.

      Only use the style viewer and make the changes to the out of the box CSS files and your own RuleSets

    • D.

      Use inline styles to change displays to meet corporate standards.

    Correct Answer
    B. Use the Application Skin wizard and then modify the generated skins when needed, try to limit inline styles
    Explanation
    The best practice for branding an application to meet a company's style requirements is to use the Application Skin wizard and then modify the generated skins when needed, while trying to limit the use of inline styles. This approach allows for customization of the application's appearance while maintaining consistency and avoiding excessive use of inline styles, which can make maintenance and future updates more difficult.

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  • 34. 

    Which are the best practices when designing UI rules so they can be re-used?(choose 2)

    • A.

      By building all displays within cells of layouts it will allow you the granularity needed to re-use the rule

    • B.

      By building section rules or HTML-property rules with parameters it will allow you to re-use thee display rules more frequently within an application

    • C.

      By grouping related data into section rules, you can re-use these sections throughout the application and control if they should be updatabale or read-only in the parent section

    • D.

      The best practice for re-using interface rules is to assure it is in the right part of the class structure

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. By building section rules or HTML-property rules with parameters it will allow you to re-use thee display rules more frequently within an application
    D. The best practice for re-using interface rules is to assure it is in the right part of the class structure
    Explanation
    The first best practice for designing UI rules that can be re-used is to build section rules or HTML-property rules with parameters. This allows for more frequent re-use of display rules within an application. The second best practice is to ensure that the interface rule is placed in the correct part of the class structure. This ensures that it can be easily accessed and re-used throughout the application. By following these practices, designers can create UI rules that are flexible and can be used in multiple contexts.

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  • 35. 

    What is the default error handling mechanism for connector rules generated through the Connector Wizard

    • A.

      The connector activity does not handle a failure in the connector, processing is trnsferred to the connector error flow

    • B.

      The connector activity handles the result of the connector via a Precondition on the step following the

    • C.

      The connector activity handles the result of the connector via a transition

    • D.

      The connector activity doesnot handle a failure in the connector, processing is transferred to the Flow problem

    Correct Answer
    D. The connector activity doesnot handle a failure in the connector, processing is transferred to the Flow problem
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the connector activity does not handle a failure in the connector, and processing is transferred to the Flow problem. This means that if there is an error or failure in the connector, the processing will not be handled within the connector activity itself, but will instead be transferred to the Flow problem for further handling or resolution.

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  • 36. 

    Which two statemenst are true about SmartInfo display

    • A.

      You can trigger the SmartInfo display by hitting the down arrow

    • B.

      The SmartInfo display can contain a live URL

    • C.

      SmartInfo uses AJAX texchnology

    • D.

      The SmartInfo feature is part of Client-side processing and handled completely by the browser

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. The SmartInfo display can contain a live URL
    C. SmartInfo uses AJAX texchnology
    Explanation
    The SmartInfo display can contain a live URL, allowing users to access external websites or resources directly from the display. Additionally, SmartInfo uses AJAX technology, which enables dynamic content updates without requiring a full page reload.

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  • 37. 

    Which client side events are supported within PRPC(choose 3)

    • A.

      ONCHANGE

    • B.

      ONMOUSEOUT

    • C.

      ONCLICK

    • D.

      ONBLUR

    • E.

      ONFOCUS

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. ONCHANGE
    C. ONCLICK
    D. ONBLUR
    Explanation
    PRPC (Pega Rules Process Commander) supports three client-side events: ONCHANGE, ONCLICK, and ONBLUR. These events allow for interactive behavior and user input within the PRPC application. ONCHANGE event is triggered when the value of an input field is changed. ONCLICK event is triggered when a user clicks on an element. ONBLUR event is triggered when an element loses focus, typically when the user clicks outside of an input field. These events enable developers to create dynamic and responsive user interfaces in PRPC.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following are true(choose two)

    • A.

      Repeating list displays are only for pagelist

    • B.

      You can display lists as rows or column list(top to bottom or left to right)

    • C.

      You can only display a list as a row repeating lists display(list goes from top to bottom)

    • D.

      There is no support for tabs when displaying repeating lists

    • E.

      A section rule can be used to specify how items of the repeating list are displayed

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. You can display lists as rows or column list(top to bottom or left to right)
    E. A section rule can be used to specify how items of the repeating list are displayed
    Explanation
    The first true statement is that you can display lists as rows or column list, allowing you to arrange the items either from top to bottom or from left to right. The second true statement is that a section rule can be used to specify how items of the repeating list are displayed, providing flexibility in customizing the appearance of the list items.

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  • 39. 

    BPM(choose Two)

    • A.

      Rules Inspector

    • B.

      Tracer

    • C.

      Style Viewer

    • D.

      Preflight

    • E.

      Profiler

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Rules Inspector
    C. Style Viewer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Rules Inspector and Style Viewer. BPM stands for Business Process Management, and in this context, it refers to a software system used to manage and optimize business processes. The Rules Inspector is a tool in BPM that allows users to analyze and validate business rules within the system. It helps ensure that the rules are correctly implemented and functioning as intended. The Style Viewer, on the other hand, is a tool that allows users to view and modify the visual style and layout of BPM processes. It helps in customizing the appearance and user experience of the BPM system.

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  • 40. 

    What four steps must be taken to unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface /system is not yet available(Choose 4)

    • A.

      Create a Simulation activity

    • B.

      Set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity

    • C.

      Use Tracer and set a breakpoint

    • D.

      Define a Connect simulation instance

    • E.

      Test the flow with simulation enabled

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Create a Simulation activity
    B. Set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity
    D. Define a Connect simulation instance
    E. Test the flow with simulation enabled
    Explanation
    To unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface/system is not yet available, four steps must be taken. First, create a Simulation activity. Then, set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity. Next, define a Connect simulation instance. Finally, test the flow with simulation enabled. These steps allow for testing the connector functionality without the actual target system being available.

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  • 41. 

    What is the recommended way to configure Service endpoint URLs and other connector specific information(Choose one)

    • A.

      The requestor page

    • B.

      The process page

    • C.

      A Declarative page

    • D.

      The primary page

    Correct Answer
    C. A Declarative page
    Explanation
    A Declarative page is the recommended way to configure Service endpoint URLs and other connector specific information. Declarative pages provide a centralized and reusable approach to define and manage connector configurations. They allow for easy maintenance and updates, as any changes made to the declarative page will automatically reflect in all the instances where it is used. Using a declarative page ensures consistency and reduces the need for duplicating configuration settings across multiple pages or processes.

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  • 42. 

    Which two statements are true about testing services and connectors?(choose 2)

    • A.

      Using tools that allow u to monitor traffic and interaction between a SOAP client and service helps you in determing where the problem lies

    • B.

      Service invocation in PRPC cannot be traced because the requestor doesn’t exist before service execution

    • C.

      When connect simulation is enabled for MQ connecotr, the connector itself is not tested

    • D.

      The only way to simulate a connector when the service isnt available is to comment out the Connect-SOAP method and replace it with an activity that directly creates pages and properties as the connector would

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Using tools that allow u to monitor traffic and interaction between a SOAP client and service helps you in determing where the problem lies
    C. When connect simulation is enabled for MQ connecotr, the connector itself is not tested
    Explanation
    Using tools that allow you to monitor traffic and interaction between a SOAP client and service helps you in determining where the problem lies. This means that by using such tools, you can track the communication between the client and the service and identify any issues or errors that may occur during the interaction.

    When connect simulation is enabled for MQ connector, the connector itself is not tested. This means that when the connect simulation feature is enabled for an MQ connector, the connector is not actually tested or executed. Instead, a simulated response is generated, allowing you to test the behavior of the system without actually making a connection to the MQ server.

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  • 43. 

    Which method of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener?(choose one)

    • A.

      SOAP

    • B.

      BPEL

    • C.

      EJB

    • D.

      JMS

    • E.

      SQL

    Correct Answer
    D. JMS
    Explanation
    JMS stands for Java Message Service, which is a method of service integration within PRPC that requires the configuration of a listener. JMS allows applications to send, receive, and process messages asynchronously, making it a suitable choice for integrating services within PRPC. By configuring a listener, PRPC can listen for incoming messages and process them accordingly, enabling effective communication and integration between different systems.

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  • 44. 

    Which statement is true abt running Connect- methods in parallel (choose one)

    • A.

      RunInParallel uses the same mechanism as a Spin-off flow to achieve asynchronous behavior

    • B.

      Only connect soap rules can run in parallel

    • C.

      Connect Wait is used with the run in parallel option to wait for the parallel connection to complete

    • D.

      Connect cancel can be used to cancel a running connector

    Correct Answer
    C. Connect Wait is used with the run in parallel option to wait for the parallel connection to complete
    Explanation
    Connect Wait is used with the run in parallel option to wait for the parallel connection to complete. This means that when running Connect- methods in parallel, the Connect Wait method can be used to pause the execution of the flow until all the parallel connections have completed their tasks. This ensures that the flow does not proceed further until all the parallel connections have finished their execution.

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  • 45. 

    Which two stmts are true when using the stateless services?Choose two

    • A.

      You are guranteed to connect to a new application requestor each time the service is invoked

    • B.

      You cannot assume which application requestor u will connect to

    • C.

      You must manually clear the clipboard of any data left on from previous application requestors

    • D.

      When invoked ur service may or may nt result in the creation of new application requestor

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. You cannot assume which application requestor u will connect to
    D. When invoked ur service may or may nt result in the creation of new application requestor
    Explanation
    When using stateless services, it is true that you cannot assume which application requestor you will connect to. This is because stateless services do not maintain any state information between requests, so each request may be handled by a different application requestor. Additionally, when invoking a stateless service, it may or may not result in the creation of a new application requestor, depending on the specific implementation or configuration.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following stmts are true about service packages (choose 2)

    • A.

      SP allow u to disable requestor pooling

    • B.

      SP allow u 2 specify priority of requestors so that stateless requetors are used

    • C.

      SP allow u 2 specify an access group under which the services run

    • D.

      SP allow u 2 either execute the service synchronously or queue for later execution

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SP allow u to disable requestor pooling
    C. SP allow u 2 specify an access group under which the services run
    Explanation
    Service packages (SP) allow you to disable requestor pooling, which means that each requestor will have its own dedicated resources instead of sharing them with other requestors. This can be useful in scenarios where you want to ensure isolation and avoid resource contention. Additionally, service packages allow you to specify an access group under which the services run. This allows you to control the permissions and privileges for the services based on the access group settings, ensuring proper security and access control.

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  • 47. 

    Which to statements are true about services and the services accelerator (Choose 2)

    • A.

      The SA generates service activities that allow services to create or manage work

    • B.

      The service accelerator generates a service rule for activities of your choice allowing you to invoke those

    • C.

      Services can be configured so that service requests that fail PRPC processing are re-queued for another execution

    • D.

      The performance of long running service request can be significantly improved through requestor pooling

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. The service accelerator generates a service rule for activities of your choice allowing you to invoke those
    C. Services can be configured so that service requests that fail PRPC processing are re-queued for another execution
    Explanation
    The service accelerator generates a service rule for activities of your choice allowing you to invoke those. This means that the service accelerator creates a rule that allows you to execute specific activities within a service.

    Services can be configured so that service requests that fail PRPC processing are re-queued for another execution. This means that if a service request fails during PRPC processing, it can be set up to be re-queued for another attempt at execution. This helps to ensure that the service request is eventually processed successfully.

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  • 48. 

    Compare SOAP and HTTP messaging protocols. Which of the below statements (Choose )

    • A.

      HTTP is a low-overhead alternative to SOAP

    • B.

      SOAP is more reliable protocol than HTTP

    • C.

      SOAP is needed if I want to exchange XML messages

    • D.

      HTTP services can be configured to process service request asynchronously

    • E.

      HTTP connectors can be generated with the Connector and Metadata

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. HTTP is a low-overhead alternative to SOAP
    B. SOAP is more reliable protocol than HTTP
    D. HTTP services can be configured to process service request asynchronously
  • 49. 

    There are two session-related timeouts that are configurable in PRPC, the authentication timeout and the requestor timeout. Which statement is true

    • A.

      Authentication timeout should be set to occur first

    • B.

      Requestor timeout should be set to occur first

    • C.

      Both timeouts should be set to the same value

    • D.

      With passivation enabled , authentication timeout should be set to 0

    Correct Answer
    A. Authentication timeout should be set to occur first
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Authentication timeout should be set to occur first. This means that the authentication timeout should be set to a shorter duration compared to the requestor timeout. This ensures that the user is prompted to re-authenticate before their session expires due to inactivity. By setting the authentication timeout to occur first, it helps to maintain the security of the system by regularly verifying the user's identity.

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  • 50. 

    Access groups cannot be referenced from which of the following objects?(Choose one)

    • A.

      Divison

    • B.

      Unit

    • C.

      Requestor type definition

    • D.

      Operator ID

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit
    Explanation
    Access groups cannot be referenced from the "Unit" object. Access groups are used to control the level of access and permissions granted to users within an application. They are typically associated with divisions, requestor type definitions, and operator IDs, allowing for the management of access rights. However, units are not directly related to access control, and therefore, access groups cannot be referenced from them.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 16, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 25, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Mocker4

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