A&pii Exam1

52 Questions | Attempts: 118
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Medical Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Pressure in the left ventricle during ventricular diastole would be:

    • A.

      A) 120 mmHg

    • B.

      B) near zero

    • C.

      C) 80 mmHg

    • D.

      D) 100 mmHg

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. B) near zero
  • 2. 

    According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,

    • A.

      A) the left ventricle ejects a larger volume of blood with each systole that the right ventricle

    • B.

      B) the intrinsic rate of the heart's pacemaker is 100 beats/min

    • C.

      C) cardiac output increases as heart rate increases

    • D.

      D) stroke volume increases with increased venous return

    • E.

      E) both ventricles contract simultaneously

    Correct Answer
    D. D) stroke volume increases with increased venous return
  • 3. 

    The adrenergic receptors that directly mediate increases in the heart rate and contractility of the heart are classified as:

    • A.

      A) alpha-1

    • B.

      B) beta-1

    • C.

      C) beta-2

    • D.

      D) beta-3

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. B) beta-1
  • 4. 

    The most important factor in determining blood flow to a given tissue or organ is:

    • A.

      A) arterial pressure

    • B.

      B) vascular resistance

    • C.

      C) venous pressure

    • D.

      D) all of the above

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. B) vascular resistance
  • 5. 

    Even though vessel radius decreases, the cross-sectional area of a capillary bed increases, causing blood flow velocity to:

    • A.

      A) increase

    • B.

      B) decrease

    • C.

      C) stay the same

    • D.

      D) decrease, then increase

    • E.

      E) increase/decrease

    Correct Answer
    B. B) decrease
  • 6. 

    Serum differed from plasma in that serum lacks which component?

    • A.

      A) fibrinogen

    • B.

      B) immunoglobulins

    • C.

      C) albumin

    • D.

      D) globulins

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A) fibrinogen
  • 7. 

    A preserved pig heart with a complete pericardium contains a pin passing from the outer-most layer into the lumen of the left ventricle. What is the correct order of the  layers the pin would pass through?

    • A.

      A) parietal pericardium, fibrous pericardium, visceral pericardium, myocardium, endothelium, endocardium

    • B.

      B) fibrous pericardium, visceral pericardium, parietal pericardium, endocardium, myocardium, endothelium

    • C.

      C) parietal pericardium, endocardium, fibrous pericardium, myocardium, visceral pericardium, endothelium

    • D.

      D) fibrous pericardium, parietal pericardium, visceral pericardium, myocardium, endocardium, endothelium

    • E.

      E) visceral pericardium, fibrous pericardium, parietal pericardium, endothelium, myocardium, endocardium

    Correct Answer
    D. D) fibrous pericardium, parietal pericardium, visceral pericardium, myocardium, endocardium, endothelium
  • 8. 

    The epicardium is actually the same as which layer

    • A.

      A) visceral pericardium

    • B.

      B) fibrous pericardium

    • C.

      C) parietal pericardium

    • D.

      D) endothelium

    • E.

      E) endocardium

    Correct Answer
    A. A) visceral pericardium
  • 9. 

    Identify the correct blood flow pathway

    • A.

      A) RA-tricuspid valve-RV-aortic semilunar valve-aorta

    • B.

      B) LA-tricuspid valve-LV-pulmonary semilunar valve-aorta

    • C.

      C) LA-bicuspid valve-LV-aortic semilunar valve-aorta

    • D.

      D) RA-bicuspid valve-RV-aortic semilunar valve-aorta

    • E.

      E) LA-tricupid valve-LV-pulmonary semilunar valve-aorta

    Correct Answer
    C. C) LA-bicuspid valve-LV-aortic semilunar valve-aorta
  • 10. 

    Where would you expect to find the origin of the left and right coronary arteries?

    • A.

      A) just above the pulmonary semilunar valve

    • B.

      B) just above the aortic semilunar valve

    • C.

      C) just below the pulmonary semilunar valve

    • D.

      D) just below the pulmonary semilunar valve

    • E.

      E) right above the pulmonary semilunar valve & left above the aortic semilunar valve

    Correct Answer
    B. B) just above the aortic semilunar valve
  • 11. 

    Which channels account for the "plateau" characteristic of fast cardiac ventricular fibers?

    • A.

      A) voltage-gated K+ channels

    • B.

      B) voltage-gated Na+ channels

    • C.

      C) voltage-gated funny (F-type) Na+ channels

    • D.

      D) voltage-gated slow (L-type) CA+2 channels

    • E.

      E) voltage-gated transient (T-type) Ca+2 channels

    Correct Answer
    D. D) voltage-gated slow (L-type) CA+2 channels
  • 12. 

    What happens during the ECG "S-T" segment?

    • A.

      A) atrial depolarization

    • B.

      B) atrial systole

    • C.

      C) ventricular depolarization

    • D.

      D) ventricular systole

    • E.

      E) ventricular repolarization

    Correct Answer
    D. D) ventricular systole
  • 13. 

    Which heart valve opens at the end of the left ventricular isovolemic contraction phase?

    • A.

      A) mitral valve

    • B.

      B) tricuspid valve

    • C.

      C) aortic semilunar valve

    • D.

      D) pulmonary semilunar valve

    • E.

      E) venous valves

    Correct Answer
    C. C) aortic semilunar valve
  • 14. 

    During one cardiac cycle where is the highest maximum pressure achieved?

    • A.

      A) left atrium

    • B.

      B) left ventricle

    • C.

      C) right atrium

    • D.

      D) right ventricle

    • E.

      E) aorta

    Correct Answer
    B. B) left ventricle
  • 15. 

    Parasympathetic nervous system effects on heart-rate are mediated by which SA node receptors?

    • A.

      A) beta-1

    • B.

      B) beta-2

    • C.

      C) nicotinic

    • D.

      D) muscarinic

    • E.

      E) alpha-1

    Correct Answer
    D. D) muscarinic
  • 16. 

    An increase in stroke volume due to an increased venous return represents which mechanism for increasing ventricular contraction force?

    • A.

      A) increased afterload

    • B.

      B) increased preload (Frank-Sterling)

    • C.

      C) increased contractility

    • D.

      D) increased total peripheral resistance

    • E.

      E) increased end systolic volume

    Correct Answer
    B. B) increased preload (Frank-Sterling)
  • 17. 

    A decrease in the pressure difference from the arterioles to the capillaries would reflect which change?

    • A.

      A) decrease in flow

    • B.

      B) increase in flow

    • C.

      C) increase in resistance and decrease in flow

    • D.

      D) decrease in resistance increase in flow

    • E.

      E) decrease in resistance and decrease in flow

    Correct Answer
    D. D) decrease in resistance increase in flow
  • 18. 

    A heart rate of 75 bpm and the presence of P waves without accompanying QRS complexes suggest?

    • A.

      A) SA node damage

    • B.

      B) ventricular fibrillation

    • C.

      C) cor pulmonale

    • D.

      D) extra systole

    • E.

      E) AV node damage

    Correct Answer
    E. E) AV node damage
  • 19. 

    Atrial filling and contraction occurs prior to initiation of ventricular contraction due to a signal conduction delay where?

    • A.

      A) SA node

    • B.

      B) AV node

    • C.

      C) Bundle of His

    • D.

      D) bundle branches

    • E.

      E) Purkinje fibers

    Correct Answer
    B. B) AV node
  • 20. 

    The QRS complex of a normal electrocardiogram indicates?

    • A.

      A) atrial depolarization

    • B.

      B) atrial repolarization

    • C.

      C) ventricule depolarization

    • D.

      D) ventricular repolarization

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. C) ventricule depolarization
  • 21. 

    An increase in ventricular contractile force due to Frank-Starling mechanisms would be termed an increase in?

    • A.

      A) preload

    • B.

      B) cardiac output

    • C.

      C) contractility

    • D.

      D) pressure

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A) preload
  • 22. 

    Which effect could lead to a decrease in blood pressure?

    • A.

      A) increased sympathetic stimulation of blood vessels

    • B.

      B) increased blood volume

    • C.

      C) increased venous return

    • D.

      D) increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart

    • E.

      E) increased activity of the skeletal muscle pump

    Correct Answer
    D. D) increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart
  • 23. 

    The term used to describe an elevated heart rate is?

    • A.

      A) fibrillation

    • B.

      B) bradycardia

    • C.

      C) arrhythmia

    • D.

      D) tachycardia

    • E.

      E) sinus rhythm

    Correct Answer
    D. D) tachycardia
  • 24. 

    Drugs that increase cardiac contractility are said to be?

    • A.

      A) myogenic

    • B.

      B) negative inotropic

    • C.

      C) positive inotropic

    • D.

      D) negative chronotropic

    • E.

      E) positive chronotropic

    Correct Answer
    C. C) positive inotropic
  • 25. 

    The blood contained in a ventricle during the isovolumetric relaxation phase is?

    • A.

      A) end systolic volume (ESV)

    • B.

      B) end diastolic volume (EDV)

    • C.

      C) stroke volume (VS)

    • D.

      D) ejection fraction

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A) end systolic volume (ESV)
  • 26. 

    Which channels account for action potential depolarization in fast cardiac muscle cells?

    • A.

      A) Na channels

    • B.

      B) slow, L-type Ca channels

    • C.

      C) fast T-type Ca channels

    • D.

      D) F-type Na channels

    • E.

      E) potassium channels

    Correct Answer
    B. B) slow, L-type Ca channels
  • 27. 

    Which channels account for action potential depolarization in slow, autorhythmic cardiac cells?

    • A.

      A) Na channels

    • B.

      B) slow, L-type Ca channels

    • C.

      C) fast T-tyle Ca channels

    • D.

      D) F-type Na channels

    • E.

      E) potassium channels

    Correct Answer
    B. B) slow, L-type Ca channels
  • 28. 

    Assume that one ventricle of a child's heart has an EDV of 90 mL and an ESV of 60 mL. What is the child's stroke volume?

    • A.

      A) 60 mL

    • B.

      B) 30 mL

    • C.

      C) 150 mL

    • D.

      D) 90 mL

    • E.

      E) 120 mL

    Correct Answer
    B. B) 30 mL
  • 29. 

    Where does the cardiac cycle typically begin?

    • A.

      A) sin-atrial (SA) node

    • B.

      B) antri-ventricular (AV) node

    • C.

      C) bundle branches

    • D.

      D) Purkinje fibers

    • E.

      E) brainstem cardivascular center

    Correct Answer
    A. A) sin-atrial (SA) node
  • 30. 

    The vagus nerves mediate parasympathetic regulation of the heart by the cardiac control centers. If the vagus nerves were stimulated with an electrode, the heart rate would:

    • A.

      A) remain unchanged

    • B.

      B) decrease

    • C.

      C) increase

    • D.

      D) alternatively speed-up and slow-down

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. B) decrease
  • 31. 

    The T-wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates?

    • A.

      A) atrial depolarization

    • B.

      B) atrial repolarization

    • C.

      C) ventricular depolarization

    • D.

      D) ventricular repolarization

    • E.

      E) atrial & ventricular repolarization

    Correct Answer
    D. D) ventricular repolarization
  • 32. 

    Ventricular filling primarily occurs during which phase:

    • A.

      A) atrial & ventricular diastole

    • B.

      B) atrial & ventricular systole

    • C.

      C) ventricular systole

    • D.

      D) atrial systole

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A) atrial & ventricular diastole
  • 33. 

    The Frank-Starling mechanism describes the relationship between:

    • A.

      A) end-diastolic volume and heart rate

    • B.

      B) end-diastolic volume and stroke volume

    • C.

      C) end-systolic volume and heart rate

    • D.

      D) end-systolic volume and stroke volume

    • E.

      E) contractility and stroke volume

    Correct Answer
    B. B) end-diastolic volume and stroke volume
  • 34. 

    An increase in ventricular contractile force due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation would be terms an increase in?

    • A.

      A) preload

    • B.

      B) cardiac output

    • C.

      C) contractility

    • D.

      D) pressure

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. C) contractility
  • 35. 

    Carotid sinus baroreceptor and carotid body chemoreceptor sensation is principally mediated by which pathway?

    • A.

      A) Cranial nerve IX Glossopharyngeal afferent fibers

    • B.

      B) cranial nerve I Glossopharyngeal efferent fibers

    • C.

      C) cranial nerve X Vagus afferent fibers

    • D.

      D) cranial nerve X Vagus efferent fibers

    • E.

      E) sympathetic efferent fibers

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Cranial nerve IX Glossopharyngeal afferent fibers
  • 36. 

    Which statement characterizes a portal system of blood vessels?

    • A.

      A) the absence of a capillary bed, thus shunting arterial blood directly to venules

    • B.

      B) a capillary bed supplied and drained by a larger, no capillary vessel

    • C.

      C) two capillary beds connected by a larger blood vessel

    • D.

      D) a continuous capillary bed that extends from one organ to another

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. C) two capillary beds connected by a larger blood vessel
  • 37. 

    Which catecholamine receptor regulated vascular smooth muscle tone via the IP3 and DAG second messenger system?

    • A.

      A) alpha 1

    • B.

      B) alpha 2

    • C.

      C) beta 1

    • D.

      D) beta 2

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A) alpha 1
  • 38. 

    During exercise, skeletal muscle total blood flow increases 12-fold or more. What is the basis for this dramatic increase in blood flow?

    • A.

      A) increase in total peripheral resistance

    • B.

      B) increase in cardiac output

    • C.

      C) change in blood flow distribution

    • D.

      D) A and B

    • E.

      E) B and C

    Correct Answer
    E. E) B and C
  • 39. 

    Which factor does not contribute to intrinsic (local) control of blood flow?

    • A.

      A) ANG-II

    • B.

      B) myogenic effects

    • C.

      C) decreased O2 or increased CO2

    • D.

      D) nitric oxide

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A) ANG-II
  • 40. 

    A blood vessel made-up of only endothelial cells and their basal lamina would be classified as?

    • A.

      A) metarteriole

    • B.

      B) muscular venule

    • C.

      C) capillary

    • D.

      D) arteriole

    • E.

      E) elastic artery

    Correct Answer
    C. C) capillary
  • 41. 

    The most important determinant of "long-term" regulation of blood pressure would be:

    • A.

      A) cardiac output

    • B.

      B) blood volume

    • C.

      C) peripheral resistance

    • D.

      D) heart rate

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. B) blood volume
  • 42. 

    Aortic arch stretch receptors that are sensitive to changes in vascular pressure are termed:

    • A.

      A) pressoreceptors

    • B.

      B) chemoreceptors

    • C.

      C) peripheral resistance

    • D.

      D) heart rate

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. B) chemoreceptors
  • 43. 

    While capillary hyostratic pressure is important for fluid filtration out of the capillaries, which effect is most important for fluid reabsorption back into the capillaries?

    • A.

      A) plasma colloid "oncotic" pressure

    • B.

      B) interstitial colloid osomotic pressure

    • C.

      C) interstitial pressure

    • D.

      D) plasma [Na]

    • E.

      E) none of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. C) interstitial pressure
  • 44. 

    Which change would decrease blood flow resistance the most?

    • A.

      A) decrease the vessel radius by half

    • B.

      B) double the vessel radius

    • C.

      C) increase the pressure different (delta P)

    • D.

      D) double the vessel length

    • E.

      E) increase the hematocrit from 40% to 50%

    Correct Answer
    B. B) double the vessel radius
  • 45. 

    Which class of blood vessels serves as the primary determinant of the total peripheral resistance (TPR) and therefore blood pressure?

    • A.

      A) elastic arteries

    • B.

      B) muscular arteries

    • C.

      C) arterioles

    • D.

      D) capillaries

    • E.

      E) venules

    Correct Answer
    C. C) arterioles
  • 46. 

    An elevated reticulocyte count would indicate overproduction of which cell type?

    • A.

      A) neutrophils

    • B.

      B) eosinophils

    • C.

      C) basophils

    • D.

      D) erythrocytes

    • E.

      E) lymphocytes

    Correct Answer
    D. D) erythrocytes
  • 47. 

    Pernicious anemia results from?

    • A.

      A) hypoxemia

    • B.

      B) iron deficiency

    • C.

      C) malaria

    • D.

      D) lack of intrinsic factor

    • E.

      E) Rh incompatibility

    Correct Answer
    D. D) lack of intrinsic factor
  • 48. 

    Someone with Type-B blood would have reduced risk of a transfusion reaction if the donor was type?

    • A.

      A) AB or O

    • B.

      B) B or O

    • C.

      C) A or O

    • D.

      D) A and AB

    • E.

      E) B and AB

    Correct Answer
    B. B) B or O
  • 49. 

    The hematocrit is used to assess the?

    • A.

      A) volume of the plasma in a blood sample

    • B.

      B) buffy coat volume

    • C.

      C) packed red blood cell volume

    • D.

      D) leukocyte volume

    • E.

      E) volume of serum in a blood sample

    Correct Answer
    C. C) packed red blood cell volume
  • 50. 

    In a typical blood smear which white blood cell is the most prevalent?

    • A.

      A) lymphocytes

    • B.

      B) monocytes

    • C.

      C) neutrophils

    • D.

      D) eosinophils

    • E.

      E) basophils

    Correct Answer
    C. C) neutrophils

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