Meds

1. Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.

True

False

2. Constipation may be best avoided in many cases by increasing dietary levels of:

Lipids

Fibre

Meat

Alcohol

3. A conscious client with respiratory depression should be placed:

In a semi-upright position.

In a side position.

In a flat position.

In a prone position.

4. If a microbe has developed resistance to a certain antimicrobial preparation the prescriber should:

Determine which antimicrobial the microbe may be sensitive to.

Increase the dose of the antimicrobial.

Increase the frequency of the dose of the antimicrobial.

Prescribe topical preparations only.

5. Patients taking OTC and complementary medication may:

Not discuss the OTC or complementary medicines with their health provider as they do not consider them important.

Attempt self-diagnosis and treatment prior to consulting their doctor.

Have adverse drug interactions if they are also taking prescription medications.

All of the above

6. Benzodiazepines can induce:

Depression.

Amnesia.

Rage

All the above

7. Storing biological products, for example insulin at 0-4°C, prevents:

Proliferation

Pain on administration.

Medication errors.

Denaturation.

8. Analgesic agents that are effective in treating mild to moderate acute migraine headaches include:

Ibuprofen and indomethacin.

Propanolol and ketamine

Piroxicam and sulindac.

Aspirin and paracetamol.

9. What is the potential problem with bioequivalence between different brand names of medications?

The medications may not be absorbed or act in the same way after administration.

Consumers may get confused about the availability of more than one preparation.

The labels on the containers may be different.

The colours of the preparations may be different.

10. An example of a proton pump inhibitor is:

Astemizole.

Omeprazole

Misoprostol.

Ranitidine.

11. Viruses are best defined as:

Infectious agents.

Primitive bacteria.

Mycoplasma.

Microorganisms.

12. Which one of the following is not an acceptable route of nicotine administration in the management of tobacco dependence?

Nasal spray.

Oral formulation.

Subcutaneous injection.

Transdermal patch.

13. Which statement is true about oral hypoglycaemic drugs?

This group of drugs does not lower blood sugar levels directly.

This group of drugs alters liver function or increases effectiveness of endogenous insulin.

This group of drugs is always first-line treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus.

Both A and B.

14. The 'fight or flight' responses are initiated by which system?

Sympathetic nervous system.

Parasympathetic nervous system

Somatic nervous system.

Central nervous system.

15. To maximise the therapeutic effects of antihistamines for motion sickness, they should be taken:

When symptoms of nausea and vomiting occur.

In a double dose as soon as symptoms begin.

With milk.

Before the symptoms of nausea and vomiting occur.

16. Naturopaths may:

Recommend and dispense doses of herbal, mineral and animal-based products.

Prescribe Schedule 1-3 medications only.

Prescribe any medicines that will have a holistic effect on their client

None of the above.

17. Is it problematic to administer heparin via intramuscular injection?

No, as long as the dose is appropriate.

Yes, limited blood flow to skeletal muscles causes reduced bioavailability of the drug.

Yes, it can cause a haematoma to form

No, intramuscular and subcutaneous administration are both safe and effective

18. An injection of glucagon would be appropriate for which of the the following?

A client with a blood sugar level less than 3.5 mmol/L.

A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has hypersensitivity reactions to metformin

A client with unstable diabetes insipidus.

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who presents with a blood glucose reading above 18 mmol/L.

19. According to the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Drugs and Poisons in Australia, in which drug schedule is a controlled drug classified?

Schedule 1.

Schedule 2.

Schedule 4.

Schedule 8.

20. Laxative enemas are hypertonic in order to:

Improve the fluid balance of the client.

Bulk up the faeces in order to minimise diarrhoea.

Dissolve faecal matter to enable it to be excreted.

Draw water into the lower gastrointestinal tract to soften stool.

21. A clinical use for β antagonists is in the treatment of:

Bronchial asthma.

Hypertension.

Nasal decongestion.

Hypotension.

22. Inhaled corticosteroids should be considered as part of the medication regime for asthma if the client is using their β2 agonists more than:

One time each month.

Three times each month.

Three to four times each week.

Two times each month.

23. Following buccal administration, a drug:

Goes directly to the hepatic portal circulation.

Is broken down by the stomach.

Is absorbed directly into blood vessels.

Travels along the gastrointestinal system.

24. Suppositories, in general when inserted inti the lower third of the rectum:

Are for laxative use only

Always have a fast onset of action

Avoid the hepatic first pass

Are useful for ulcerative colitis

25. Clients with asthma should avoid antihistamines because:

These drugs narrow the airways of the bronchioles.

These drugs can cause anaphylaxis.

These drugs inhibit the activity of β2 receptor agonists.

26. A typical adverse effect profile of systemic corticosteroid therapy includes:

Hot flushes, thromboembolism, leg cramps and gastrointestinal disturbances.

Nausea, breast tenderness, hypotension and hypoglycaemia.

Fluid retention, altered mood, altered blood pressure, hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia and impaired wound healing.

Hyperkalaemia, gynaecomastia, skin rashes and menstrual disruption.

27. Which antihypertensive drug group should be avoided when a person has a pre-existing respiratory condition like asthma?

β-blockers.

ACE inhibitors.

Diuretics.

Calcium channel antagonists.

28. The current optimal drug therapy in the management of heart failure is:

An ACE inhibitor and a diuretic.

A non selective β-blocker.

The cardiac glycoside, digoxin.

The dopamine agonist, dobutamine.

29. The involuntary subconscious motor component of the peripheral nervous system is called the:

Autonomic nervous system.

Somatic nervous system.

Brain.

Afferent nervous system.

30. An expected central nervous system response associated with cholinergic agonists would be:

Mental confusion.

Sedation.

Facial flushing.

Tremor.

31. The inclusion of ________ in the diet may help to avoid hypercholesterolaemia.

Mutton

Chicken

Beef

Trout

32. Which of the laxative groups acts directly on the wall of intestines to stimulate defecation?

Lubricants.

Faecal softeners.

Osmotic laxatives.

Stimulant laxatives.

33. What is the key difference between the common cold and influenza?

The common cold can be treated with antiviral medications.

The symptom of a headache is typical of influenza only.

Influenza is a respiratory tract infection.

There is a vaccine for influenza

34. Following the use of a nebuliser unit:

Leave it hanging by the patients bedside

Dismantle the unit, rinse and towel dry

Dismantle the unit, rise and shake to allow to dry

Pack it away to the clint bedside draw

35. Receptors that respond to noradrenaline are called:

Cholinergic.

Adrenergic.

Dopaminergic.

Noradrenergic.

36. Which one of the following drug effects would not be associated with central adrenergic receptor activation?

Anxiety.

Insomnia.

Depression.

Talkativeness.

37. Which of the following does not act directly as a chemical mediator in cell-to-cell communication?

Insulin.

Acetylcholine.

Angiotensin II.

Cholesterol.

38. The key difference between autocrine and paracrine secretions is that:

Autocrine secretions enter the blood and act on neighbouring cells and paracrine secretions remain in the tissues and act locally.

Paracrine secretions enter the blood and act on neighbouring cells and autocrine secretions remain in the tissues and act locally.

Paracrine secretions are more potent.

Autocrine secretions have a more rapid action.

39. How often should aminoglycoside antimicrobial agents be administered

Once daily.

Two times a day.

Three times a day.

Four times a day.

40. Clients who have renal impairment are at risk of developing ________ during treatment with ACE inhibitors

Hypokalaemia

Hypernatraemia

Hyponatraemia

Hyperkalaemia

41. It is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:

At opposite ends of the hospital ward.

Opposite each other.

Next to the central office area.

Next to each other.

42. Tea tree oil has been proven to have a therapeutic effect for clients suffering from:

Osteoarthritis.

Vaginitis.

Migraine headache.

Acne.

43. The number of histamine receptor subtypes that have been identified are:

1

2

3

4

44. Which set of drug responses best matches the action of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?

Feelings of relaxation, increased skeletal muscle tone, increased autonomic tone and the release of catecholamines.

Tachycardia, histamine-induced hypotension, muscle relaxation and decreased gastrointestinal motility.

Bronchoconstriction, increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, increased skeletal muscle tension and bradycardia.

Tachycardia, facial flushing, decreased gastrointestinal motility, dry mouth and urinary retention.

45. Which one of the following mechanisms describes the general action of antidysrhythmic agents?

Enhancing cardiac automaticity.

Shortening the cardiac action potential.

Impeding the movement of ions across cardiac cell membranes.

Enhancing impulse conduction in the heart.

46. In Australia there are some Schedule 3 medications that can be advertised in the popular media. Give one example of a medication to which this advertising policy applies:

Royal jelly preparation

Codeine tablets.

Miconazole pessaries.

Ampicillin capsules.

47. Which of the following laxative groups is used for bowel preparation before a medical procedure?

Bulk-forming laxatives and lubricants.

Stimulant laxatives and selected osmotic laxatives.

Faecal softeners and bulk-forming laxatives.

Lubricants and stimulant laxatives.

48. The combined use of salicylates and corticosteroids may lead to ________ and should therefore be avoided.

Renal failure

Peptic ulceration

Tinnitus

Liver failure

49. A paracrine secretion is also known as:

A classic hormone.

A local hormone.

An autacoid.

A neurotransmitter.

50. Which of the following antimicrobial agents has a dose-dependent activity on microorganisms?

The glycoprotein, vancomycin.

The aminoglycoside, gentamicin.

The penicillin, amoxycillin.

The glycoprotein, teicoplanin.

51. Which one of the following is not considered a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Chronic bronchitis.

Bronchial asthma.

Emphysema.

All of the above are considered COPDs.

52. The key difference between the first and second generation antihistamines is that:

With second generation antihistamines, lower dosages are required for the same therapeutic effect.

The first generation antihistamines are more lipophobic and therefore cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) causing central nervous system effects.

Second generation medications have more undesireable side effects.

The first generation antihistamines are more lipophilic and therefore cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) causing central nervous system effects.

53. Which one of the following physiological responses is not associated with thyroid hormones?

Glucose storage in the liver.

The normal development of the nervous system.

The facilitation of normal musculoskeletal growth.

Normal lactation.

54. A traditional characteristic of neurocrine transmission has been that neurotransmitters:

Produce responses slowly.

Interact with short-range targets.

Have a prolonged action.

Are released directly into the bloodstream.

55. Which one of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasoconstriction?

Endothelin-1.

Nitric oxide.

Prostacyclin

Prostaglandin E2.

56. Which set of drug responses matches the action of the β1 agonists?

Increased blood pressure, tachycardia and constipation.

A decrease in cardiac workload and blood pressure, as well as increased gastrointestinal peristalsis.

Bronchodilation, fine muscle tremor and tachycardia.

Increased vasoconstriction and blood pressure, constipation and pupil dilation.

57. To which drug group are cough suppressants closely related?

Benzodiazepines.

Narcotics

Dopamine antagonists.

NSAIDs.

58. Which one of the following antihypertensive drug groups is thought to reduce sympathetic drive in the myocardium and mediate the release of renin?