Meds
- 1.
Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 2.
What is the potential problem with bioequivalence between different brand names of medications?
- A.
The medications may not be absorbed or act in the same way after administration.
- B.
Consumers may get confused about the availability of more than one preparation.
- C.
The labels on the containers may be different.
- D.
The colours of the preparations may be different.
Correct Answer
A. The medications may not be absorbed or act in the same way after administration. -
- 3.
In Australia there are some Schedule 3 medications that can be advertised in the popular media. Give one example of a medication to which this advertising policy applies:
- A.
Royal jelly preparation
- B.
Codeine tablets.
- C.
Miconazole pessaries.
- D.
Ampicillin capsules.
Correct Answer
C. Miconazole pessaries. -
- 4.
Patients taking OTC and complementary medication may:
- A.
Not discuss the OTC or complementary medicines with their health provider as they do not consider them important.
- B.
Attempt self-diagnosis and treatment prior to consulting their doctor.
- C.
Have adverse drug interactions if they are also taking prescription medications.
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above -
- 5.
According to the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Drugs and Poisons in Australia, in which drug schedule is a controlled drug classified?
- A.
Schedule 1.
- B.
Schedule 2.
- C.
Schedule 4.
- D.
Schedule 8.
Correct Answer
D. Schedule 8. -
- 6.
Naturopaths may:
- A.
Recommend and dispense doses of herbal, mineral and animal-based products.
- B.
Prescribe Schedule 1-3 medications only.
- C.
Prescribe any medicines that will have a holistic effect on their client
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
A. Recommend and dispense doses of herbal, mineral and animal-based products. -
- 7.
Following buccal administration, a drug:
- A.
Goes directly to the hepatic portal circulation.
- B.
Is broken down by the stomach.
- C.
Is absorbed directly into blood vessels.
- D.
Travels along the gastrointestinal system.
Correct Answer
C. Is absorbed directly into blood vessels. -
- 8.
Following the use of a nebuliser unit:
- A.
Leave it hanging by the patients bedside
- B.
Dismantle the unit, rinse and towel dry
- C.
Dismantle the unit, rise and shake to allow to dry
- D.
Pack it away to the clint bedside draw
Correct Answer
C. Dismantle the unit, rise and shake to allow to dry -
- 9.
Storing biological products, for example insulin at 0-4°C, prevents:
- A.
Proliferation
- B.
Pain on administration.
- C.
Medication errors.
- D.
Denaturation.
Correct Answer
D. Denaturation. -
- 10.
Is it problematic to administer heparin via intramuscular injection?
- A.
No, as long as the dose is appropriate.
- B.
Yes, limited blood flow to skeletal muscles causes reduced bioavailability of the drug.
- C.
Yes, it can cause a haematoma to form
- D.
No, intramuscular and subcutaneous administration are both safe and effective
Correct Answer
C. Yes, it can cause a haematoma to form -
- 11.
A conscious client with respiratory depression should be placed:
- A.
In a semi-upright position.
- B.
In a side position.
- C.
In a flat position.
- D.
In a prone position.
Correct Answer
A. In a semi-upright position. -
- 12.
Laxative enemas are hypertonic in order to:
- A.
Improve the fluid balance of the client.
- B.
Bulk up the faeces in order to minimise diarrhoea.
- C.
Dissolve faecal matter to enable it to be excreted.
- D.
Draw water into the lower gastrointestinal tract to soften stool.
Correct Answer
D. Draw water into the lower gastrointestinal tract to soften stool. -
- 13.
Suppositories, in general when inserted inti the lower third of the rectum:
- A.
Are for laxative use only
- B.
Always have a fast onset of action
- C.
Avoid the hepatic first pass
- D.
Are useful for ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer
C. Avoid the hepatic first pass -
- 14.
It is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
- A.
At opposite ends of the hospital ward.
- B.
Opposite each other.
- C.
Next to the central office area.
- D.
Next to each other.
Correct Answer
D. Next to each other. -
- 15.
The involuntary subconscious motor component of the peripheral nervous system is called the:
- A.
Autonomic nervous system.
- B.
Somatic nervous system.
- C.
Brain.
- D.
Afferent nervous system.
Correct Answer
A. Autonomic nervous system. -
- 16.
The 'fight or flight' responses are initiated by which system?
- A.
Sympathetic nervous system.
- B.
Parasympathetic nervous system
- C.
Somatic nervous system.
- D.
Central nervous system.
Correct Answer
A. Sympathetic nervous system. -
- 17.
Receptors that respond to ACh are called:
- A.
Acetylergic.
- B.
Adrenergic.
- C.
Dopaminergic.
- D.
Ionotropic
Correct Answer
D. Ionotropic -
- 18.
Receptors that respond to noradrenaline are called:
- A.
Cholinergic.
- B.
Adrenergic.
- C.
Dopaminergic.
- D.
Noradrenergic.
Correct Answer
B. Adrenergic. -
- 19.
A clinical use for β antagonists is in the treatment of:
- A.
Bronchial asthma.
- B.
Hypertension.
- C.
Nasal decongestion.
- D.
Hypotension.
Correct Answer
B. Hypertension. -
- 20.
Which one of the following drug effects would not be associated with central adrenergic receptor activation?
- A.
Anxiety.
- B.
Insomnia.
- C.
Depression.
- D.
Talkativeness.
Correct Answer
C. Depression. -
- 21.
Which one of the following is not an acceptable route of nicotine administration in the management of tobacco dependence?
- A.
Nasal spray.
- B.
Oral formulation.
- C.
Subcutaneous injection.
- D.
Transdermal patch.
Correct Answer
C. Subcutaneous injection. -
- 22.
Which set of drug responses best matches the action of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
- A.
Feelings of relaxation, increased skeletal muscle tone, increased autonomic tone and the release of catecholamines.
- B.
Tachycardia, histamine-induced hypotension, muscle relaxation and decreased gastrointestinal motility.
- C.
Bronchoconstriction, increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, increased skeletal muscle tension and bradycardia.
- D.
Tachycardia, facial flushing, decreased gastrointestinal motility, dry mouth and urinary retention.
Correct Answer
C. Bronchoconstriction, increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, increased skeletal muscle tension and bradycardia. -
- 23.
An expected central nervous system response associated with cholinergic agonists would be:
- A.
Mental confusion.
- B.
Sedation.
- C.
Facial flushing.
- D.
Tremor.
Correct Answer
D. Tremor. -
- 24.
Which of the following does not act directly as a chemical mediator in cell-to-cell communication?
- A.
Insulin.
- B.
Acetylcholine.
- C.
Angiotensin II.
- D.
Cholesterol.
Correct Answer
D. Cholesterol. -
- 25.
A paracrine secretion is also known as:
- A.
A classic hormone.
- B.
A local hormone.
- C.
An autacoid.
- D.
A neurotransmitter.
Correct Answer
B. A local hormone. -
- 26.
A traditional characteristic of neurocrine transmission has been that neurotransmitters:
- A.
Produce responses slowly.
- B.
Interact with short-range targets.
- C.
Have a prolonged action.
- D.
Are released directly into the bloodstream.
Correct Answer
B. Interact with short-range targets. -
- 27.
The key difference between autocrine and paracrine secretions is that:
- A.
Autocrine secretions enter the blood and act on neighbouring cells and paracrine secretions remain in the tissues and act locally.
- B.
Paracrine secretions enter the blood and act on neighbouring cells and autocrine secretions remain in the tissues and act locally.
- C.
Paracrine secretions are more potent.
- D.
Autocrine secretions have a more rapid action.
Correct Answer
B. Paracrine secretions enter the blood and act on neighbouring cells and autocrine secretions remain in the tissues and act locally. -
- 28.
How many endothelins have been identified so far?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3 -
- 29.
Clients with asthma should avoid antihistamines because:
- A.
These drugs narrow the airways of the bronchioles.
- B.
These drugs increase the thickness of bronchial secretions and drug mucous membranes. these drugs increase the thickness of bronchial secretions and drug mucous membranes. these drugs increase the thickness of bronchial secretions and drug mucous membranes.
- C.
These drugs can cause anaphylaxis.
- D.
These drugs inhibit the activity of β2 receptor agonists.
Correct Answer
B. These drugs increase the thickness of bronchial secretions and drug mucous membranes. these drugs increase the thickness of bronchial secretions and drug mucous membranes. these drugs increase the thickness of bronchial secretions and drug mucous membranes. -
- 30.
The key difference between the first and second generation antihistamines is that:
- A.
With second generation antihistamines, lower dosages are required for the same therapeutic effect.
- B.
The first generation antihistamines are more lipophobic and therefore cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) causing central nervous system effects.
- C.
Second generation medications have more undesireable side effects.
- D.
The first generation antihistamines are more lipophilic and therefore cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) causing central nervous system effects.
Correct Answer
D. The first generation antihistamines are more lipophilic and therefore cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) causing central nervous system effects. -
- 31.
To maximise the therapeutic effects of antihistamines for motion sickness, they should be taken:
- A.
When symptoms of nausea and vomiting occur.
- B.
In a double dose as soon as symptoms begin.
- C.
With milk.
- D.
Before the symptoms of nausea and vomiting occur.
Correct Answer
D. Before the symptoms of nausea and vomiting occur. -
- 32.
The number of histamine receptor subtypes that have been identified are:
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
D. 4 -
- 33.
Benzodiazepines can induce:
- A.
Depression.
- B.
Amnesia.
- C.
Rage
- D.
All the above
Correct Answer
D. All the above -
- 34.
Which one of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasoconstriction?
- A.
Endothelin-1.
- B.
Nitric oxide.
- C.
Prostacyclin
- D.
Prostaglandin E2.
Correct Answer
A. Endothelin-1. -
- 35.
Which antihypertensive drug group should be avoided when a person has a pre-existing respiratory condition like asthma?
- A.
β-blockers.
- B.
ACE inhibitors.
- C.
Diuretics.
- D.
Calcium channel antagonists.
Correct Answer
A. β-blockers. -
- 36.
The current optimal drug therapy in the management of heart failure is:
- A.
An ACE inhibitor and a diuretic.
- B.
A non selective β-blocker.
- C.
The cardiac glycoside, digoxin.
- D.
The dopamine agonist, dobutamine.
Correct Answer
A. An ACE inhibitor and a diuretic. -
- 37.
Which one of the following mechanisms describes the general action of antidysrhythmic agents?
- A.
Enhancing cardiac automaticity.
- B.
Shortening the cardiac action potential.
- C.
Impeding the movement of ions across cardiac cell membranes.
- D.
Enhancing impulse conduction in the heart.
Correct Answer
C. Impeding the movement of ions across cardiac cell membranes. -
- 38.
Inhaled corticosteroids should be considered as part of the medication regime for asthma if the client is using their β2 agonists more than:
- A.
One time each month.
- B.
Three times each month.
- C.
Three to four times each week.
- D.
Two times each month.
Correct Answer
C. Three to four times each week. -
- 39.
The inclusion of ________ in the diet may help to avoid hypercholesterolaemia.
- A.
Mutton
- B.
Chicken
- C.
Beef
- D.
Trout
Correct Answer
D. Trout -
- 40.
Which one of the following antihypertensive drug groups is thought to reduce sympathetic drive in the myocardium and mediate the release of renin?
- A.
Calcium channel antagonists.
- B.
Angiotensin II receptor antagonists.
- C.
β-blockers.
- D.
Thiazides.
Correct Answer
C. β-blockers. -
- 41.
Which of the following laxative groups is used for bowel preparation before a medical procedure?
- A.
Bulk-forming laxatives and lubricants.
- B.
Stimulant laxatives and selected osmotic laxatives.
- C.
Faecal softeners and bulk-forming laxatives.
- D.
Lubricants and stimulant laxatives.
Correct Answer
B. Stimulant laxatives and selected osmotic laxatives. -
- 42.
An example of a proton pump inhibitor is:
- A.
Astemizole.
- B.
Omeprazole
- C.
Misoprostol.
- D.
Ranitidine.
Correct Answer
B. Omeprazole -
- 43.
Constipation may be best avoided in many cases by increasing dietary levels of:
- A.
Lipids
- B.
Fibre
- C.
Meat
- D.
Alcohol
Correct Answer
B. Fibre -
- 44.
Which of the laxative groups acts directly on the wall of intestines to stimulate defecation?
- A.
Lubricants.
- B.
Faecal softeners.
- C.
Osmotic laxatives.
- D.
Stimulant laxatives.
Correct Answer
D. Stimulant laxatives. -
- 45.
Which one of the following physiological responses is not associated with thyroid hormones?
- A.
Glucose storage in the liver.
- B.
The normal development of the nervous system.
- C.
The facilitation of normal musculoskeletal growth.
- D.
Normal lactation.
Correct Answer
A. Glucose storage in the liver. -
- 46.
An injection of glucagon would be appropriate for which of the the following?
- A.
A client with a blood sugar level less than 3.5 mmol/L.
- B.
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has hypersensitivity reactions to metformin
- C.
A client with unstable diabetes insipidus.
- D.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who presents with a blood glucose reading above 18 mmol/L.
Correct Answer
A. A client with a blood sugar level less than 3.5 mmol/L. -
- 47.
Which statement is true about oral hypoglycaemic drugs?
- A.
This group of drugs does not lower blood sugar levels directly.
- B.
This group of drugs alters liver function or increases effectiveness of endogenous insulin.
- C.
This group of drugs is always first-line treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus.
- D.
Both A and B.
Correct Answer
D. Both A and B. -
- 48.
A typical adverse effect profile of systemic corticosteroid therapy includes:
- A.
Hot flushes, thromboembolism, leg cramps and gastrointestinal disturbances.
- B.
Nausea, breast tenderness, hypotension and hypoglycaemia.
- C.
Fluid retention, altered mood, altered blood pressure, hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia and impaired wound healing.
- D.
Hyperkalaemia, gynaecomastia, skin rashes and menstrual disruption.
Correct Answer
C. Fluid retention, altered mood, altered blood pressure, hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia and impaired wound healing. -
- 49.
Which of the following antimicrobial agents has a dose-dependent activity on microorganisms?
- A.
The glycoprotein, vancomycin.
- B.
The aminoglycoside, gentamicin.
- C.
The penicillin, amoxycillin.
- D.
The glycoprotein, teicoplanin.
Correct Answer
B. The aminoglycoside, gentamicin. -
- 50.
How often should aminoglycoside antimicrobial agents be administered
- A.
Once daily.
- B.
Two times a day.
- C.
Three times a day.
- D.
Four times a day.
Correct Answer
A. Once daily. -
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Oct 05, 2017Quiz Edited by
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Oct 29, 2012Quiz Created by
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