Immunology Practice Test For Exam 2

32 Questions | By XavierFoxShandi | Last updated: Mar 21, 2022 | Total Attempts: 261

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Formative assessment with the intent of checking and reinforcing information for Immunology exam 2. Facts not fully checked, learn at your own risk. Also Questions 5 and 8 may or may not register correctly for all participants. There should be four answers for each, if it seems wrong check your notes. I'm not sure why it fails for certain people.

Questions and Answers

1.

Which of the following have live attenuated vaccines?
- A.
  
  Hepatitis A
- B.
  
  Hepatitis B
- C.
  
  Hepatitis C
- D.
  
  Varicella
- E.
  
  Typhoid
- F.
  
  Tetanus
- G.
  
  Rotavirus
- H.
  
  Influenza
- I.
  
  Poliomyelitis
- J.
  
  Rabies
- K.
  
  Yellow Fever
- L.
  
  Anthrax
- M.
  
  Zoster
2.

Tetanus toxoid vaccines provide immunity to the organism for 10 years, after which a "booster" must be administered.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
3.

Little Suzie needs her MMR and Varicella vaccines. When can we administer them to her?
- A.
  
  Both at the same time in different injection sites.
- B.
  
  Both at the same time regardless of injection site.
- C.
  
  One now and the other in 14 days, order doesn't matter.
- D.
  
  One now and the other in 28 days, order doesn't mater.
- E.
  
  A and C
- F.
  
  A and D
- G.
  
  B and C
- H.
  
  B and D
4.

A patient gets a vaccine now and is recommended to come back for a booster in several months. This is a quality of:
- A.
  
  Live vaccines
- B.
  
  Inactivated vaccines
- C.
  
  Both Live and Inactivated vaccines
5.

Large donor pools of IVIG provide:
- A.
  
  Increased diversity
- B.
  
  Decreased diversity
- C.
  
  Increased batch variation
- D.
  
  Rare Ig
- E.
  
  Increased testing costs
- F.
  
  Decreased testing costs
- G.
  
  Increased infection risk
- H.
  
  Decreased infection risk
6.

Renal disfunction from IVIG administration is related to:
- A.
  
  The content of IgA present that attacks the kidney directly
- B.
  
  The high sodium content that causes the kidneys to overwork from retention
- C.
  
  Glucose content
- D.
  
  Sucrose content
- E.
  
  The large volume of the IV
- F.
  
  All of these factors contribute to renal disfunction
7.

It is ok to give a patient on IVIG a tetanus shot during the same trip to the clinic.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
8.

Small donor pools of IVIG provide:
- A.
  
  Increased diversity
- B.
  
  Decreased diversity
- C.
  
  Increased batch variation
- D.
  
  Rare Ig
- E.
  
  Increased testing costs
- F.
  
  Decreased testing costs
- G.
  
  Increased infection risk
- H.
  
  Decreased infection risk
9.

The body excretes two different main corticosteroids from the adrenal medulla: cortisol (which has glucocorticoid action) and aldosterone (which has mineralocorticoid action).
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
10.

Steroids work by three different mechanisms: Direct genomic effects, Indirect genomic effects, and non-genomic effects. Regardless of the method, the final product is always ____________.
- A.
  
  Hormones
- B.
  
  Proteins
- C.
  
  Electrolytes
- D.
  
  Nuclear receptors
- E.
  
  B and D
11.

One of the areas of the body that contains many corticosteroid receptors is the brain. Activation of these receptors cause:
- A.
  
  Leukocytosis
- B.
  
  Headaches
- C.
  
  Narcolepsy
- D.
  
  Psychosis
- E.
  
  Anatidaephobia
- F.
  
  A and D
- G.
  
  C and E
- H.
  
  All of the above
12.

Overstimulation of mineralocorticoid receptors could potentially lead to:
- A.
  
  Hypernatremia
- B.
  
  Hyponatremia
- C.
  
  Hyperkalemia
- D.
  
  Hypokalemia
- E.
  
  Hypermagnesemia
- F.
  
  Hypomagnesemia
13.

Corticosteroids modify the immune system by all of these methods EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Blocking plasma cell antibody production
- B.
  
  Directly killing circulating T cells
- C.
  
  Blocking expression of inflammatory genes
- D.
  
  Demargination of WBCs from storage compartments
14.

Which of these is the anabolic mechanistic response from glucocorticoids?
- A.
  
  Increase lipolysis
- B.
  
  Inhibited protein synthesis
- C.
  
  Increased gluconeogenesis
- D.
  
  Inhibit uptake of glucose
15.

Diabetics are at substantially increased risk of adverse side effects from taking glucocorticoids because of all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Increased gluconeogenesis can cause hyperglycemia
- B.
  
  Mood disorders are more pronounced, leading to higher rates of depression
- C.
  
  The downregulation of the immune response adds to the already impaired immune response seen in these patients
- D.
  
  Impaired wound healing can compound with their already impaired ability to heal wounds
16.

Hi there! I love sodium but I hate potassium. I work real hard with my boys in the renin-angiotensin system but I don't occur naturally in the body. I could have a small effect elsewhere but I really just hang out at the kidneys. My name is:
- A.
  
  Dexamethasone
- B.
  
  Fludrocortisone
- C.
  
  Hydrocortisone
- D.
  
  Methylprednisolone
17.

I'm another unnatural corticosteriod, but I wouldn't do any of that wussy stuff the last guy did. I'm all about going in there and stopping those prostaglandins cold (the jerks). Sometimes I get a little out of control when I don't have hotheads to knock out and use the stomach as my punching bag. My name is:
- A.
  
  Dexamethasone
- B.
  
  Fludrocortisone
- C.
  
  Hydrocortisone
- D.
  
  Methylprednisolone
18.

Guess what? I'm another unnatural corticosteroid, but I'm not nearly as polarized as my two previous brothers. I tend to do all of the jobs equally and try to just blend in with the natural steroids. This jack of all trades is named:
- A.
  
  Methylprednisolone
- B.
  
  Prednisone
- C.
  
  Hydrocortisone
- D.
  
  Dexamethasone
19.

Sudden withdrawal of supratherapeutic corticosteroids can cause iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency. A symptom of this is:
- A.
  
  Hypertension
- B.
  
  Weight gain
- C.
  
  Increased stress
- D.
  
  Headaches
20.

Corticosteroids are used most frequently for their anti-inflammatory effect.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
21.

A type IV hypersensativity reaction could activate any of the following cells EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Macrophages
- B.
  
  Dendritic cells
- C.
  
  Eosinophils
- D.
  
  Neutrophils
22.

Penicillin allergies are typically considered a type II or III hypersensativity reaction. Given a patient who presents with such a reaction but absolutely must take penacillin for a specific infection, you can administer a desensitization regimen to lessen the hypersensativity reaction.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
23.

The ultimate desired activity of calcineurin inhibitors is to block:
- A.
  
  IL-1
- B.
  
  IL-2
- C.
  
  IL-3
- D.
  
  IFN-gamma
24.

Gengraf was created from sandimmune in order to:
- A.
  
  Increase the bioavailability
- B.
  
  Stabilize the bioavailability
- C.
  
  Decrease the bioavailability
- D.
  
  Increase dependance on bile
- E.
  
  Stabilize dependance on bile
- F.
  
  Decrease dependance on bile
- G.
  
  A and D
- H.
  
  A and E
- I.
  
  A and F
- J.
  
  B and D
- K.
  
  B and E
- L.
  
  B and F
- M.
  
  C and D
- N.
  
  C and E
- O.
  
  C and F
25.

A common side effect of cyclosporine is nephrotoxicity that manifests in the form of electrolyte imbalances.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False