Host Defense Practice Exam 2

44 Questions | Total Attempts: 153

SettingsSettingsSettings
Defense Quizzes & Trivia

This is the practice exam sent out for the second Host Defense test.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which complement component and biological activity are incorrectly paired?
    • A. 

      C9; membrane pore formation

    • B. 

      C3b; pathogen opsonization

    • C. 

      C3a; anaphylatoxin

    • D. 

      C4a; binding to erythrocyte for IC removal

    • E. 

      C5a; chemoattractant for leukocyte recruitment

  • 2. 
    Which of the following would directly regulate formation of the membrane attack complex?
    • A. 

      Factor H

    • B. 

      Factor I & CD 46

    • C. 

      CD 55

    • D. 

      CD 59

    • E. 

      C1 INH

  • 3. 
    C3 and C5 convertases are involved in which pathway(s)?
    • A. 

      Classical pathway only

    • B. 

      MB-Lectin pathway only

    • C. 

      Alternative pathway only

    • D. 

      Both classical and MB-Lectin pathways

    • E. 

      Classical, MB-Lectin and alternative pathways

  • 4. 
    A deficiency of complement component C1 would cause increased susceptibility to:
    • A. 

      Immune complex disease

    • B. 

      Bacterial infections, particularly in childhood

    • C. 

      Infection by pyogenic bacteria and Neisseria spp.

    • D. 

      Infection by Neisseria spp. only

    • E. 

      Infection by pyogenic bacteria only

  • 5. 
    Which of the following correctly describes IgA?
    • A. 

      Serum IgA is primarily dimeric

    • B. 

      Secreted mucosal IgA is mostly monomeric

    • C. 

      The production of sIgA requires only the epithelial cells of the mucosa, not the plasma cell epithelium

    • D. 

      SIgA contains a component of pIgR that is bound covalently

    • E. 

      Dimeric IgA has no J chain

  • 6. 
    When an antigen is consumed orally, the key feature that distinguishes the induction of a response and the induction of tolerance is...
    • A. 

      Desensitization

    • B. 

      Commensal bacterial development

    • C. 

      Dendritic cell inactivation

    • D. 

      Inflammation

    • E. 

      Mucosal epithelium leakiness

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is not a symptom of selective IgA deficiency?
    • A. 

      A family history of IgA deficiency of aggamaglobulinemia

    • B. 

      A high incidence of oral infections

    • C. 

      Frequency of respiratory infections

    • D. 

      Chronic diarrhea

    • E. 

      Subcutaneous mycoses in adulthood

  • 8. 
    Commensal bacteria...
    • A. 

      Promote the colonization of pathogenic bacteria in the guyt

    • B. 

      Thrive with antibiotic treatment

    • C. 

      Inhibit regulatory T cells

    • D. 

      Are not involved in mucosal tolerance

    • E. 

      Prevent the differentiation of immature dendritic cells to mature dendritic cells

  • 9. 
    Onset of symptoms associated with X-linked Agammaglobulinemia develop later in infancy than problems associated with SCID.  For X-linked Agammaglobulinemia, this is in part due to the mother's maternal Ab conferring immunity for 6-9 months post-partum.  Why doesn't the maternal antibody help the SCID patients as much and why is the IgG pooled antibody administration not the preferred treatment choice for SCID patients?
    • A. 

      Maternal antibody is inactivated in children with SCID; antibody administration is too risky

    • B. 

      SCID involves a defect with both B & T cells; administering pooled antibodies does not solve the T-cell defect

    • C. 

      SCID involves a defect with only T cells; administering pooled antibodies does not solve T-cell related defects

    • D. 

      SCID patients have B-cells that are functional but they do not develop; administering pooled antibodies does not stimulate these faulty B-cells

    • E. 

      Maternal antibody does help the SCID patients and IgG pooled antibody is the preferred treatment choice

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)?
    • A. 

      Patient has increased number of lymphocytes and produces abnormal IgG

    • B. 

      Early B-cell development is normal but there is a marked reduction in terminal B-cells, plasma cells and reduced numbers of germinal centers

    • C. 

      On an FACS analysis, you not normal or normal high levels of B-cells

    • D. 

      CVI could involve inappropriate inhibition of B-cells by CD4, 25 FoxP3 cells

    • E. 

      Defects may reside in defective cytokine signaling or cross-talk between B and Th2 cells

  • 11. 
    Some SCID patients cannot be treated with a bone marrow transplant because they have no sibs that match and there is no donor in the registry who is an MHC match, so they are sometimes treated with gene transfer.  What is the reason for a rare gamma-delta T-cell lymphoma found in SCID gene transfer patients?
    • A. 

      The point of insertion of the viral vector leads to the lymphoma

    • B. 

      The pathology of SCID leads to the lymphoma

    • C. 

      A failed bone marrow transplant leads to the lymphoma

    • D. 

      An uncontrolled TMMI response leads to the lymphoma

    • E. 

      HLA antigen incompatibility leads to the lymphoma

  • 12. 
    Which of the following distinguishes an Arthus reaction from a normal inflammatory response?
    • A. 

      Erythrocytes are needed to take excess IC to the liver for disposal

    • B. 

      Activated neutrophils release IL-8

    • C. 

      Preexisting antibodies complex with antigen

    • D. 

      Antigen-antibody complexes interact with both FcR and CR1 on neutrophils

    • E. 

      Painful inflammation results

  • 13. 
    What is the major way the body clears excess immune complexes?
    • A. 

      They travel unbound in the blood to the liver.

    • B. 

      They are bound to CR1 receptors on vascular endothelium and cause vascular inflammation

    • C. 

      They travel bound to erythrocytes in the blood to the spleen

    • D. 

      They travel in the circulation to the liver bound to CR1 receptors on blood cells

    • E. 

      They are degraded at the site of inflammation

  • 14. 
    Which is Type III hypersensitivity?
    • A. 

      Systemic Lupus

    • B. 

      Allergic Rhinitis

    • C. 

      Goodpasture's Syndrome

    • D. 

      A positive TB skin test

    • E. 

      Grave's Disease

  • 15. 
    Choose the correct choice in each set of answers in the parentheses.  How was the Rh problem solved?Maternal (APCs/B-cells) are inactivated by Rh specific (IgM/IgG) binding to (FcgRII/FcgRIII).  The associated (ITAM/ITIM) signals the cell to stop (producing antibody/presenting antigen).  This will protect the second Rh+ pregnancy.
  • 16. 
    Tregs regulate in all of the following ways except...
    • A. 

      Competition

    • B. 

      Inhibition via DCs

    • C. 

      Secreting TGF-B

    • D. 

      T-cell inhibition

    • E. 

      Secreting INF-g

  • 17. 
    Hyperacute rejection is characterized in all of the following ways except...
    • A. 

      Is defined as accelerated rejection taking place within 48 hours of the transplantation

    • B. 

      Arteriolar narrowing due to an increase in the thickness of the intima

    • C. 

      Is mediated by recipient alloantibody directed against donor antigens that were present prior to transplantation

    • D. 

      Transplantation of an A, B or AB organ into an "O" individual

    • E. 

      Widespread vascular injury

  • 18. 
    All of the following are examples of Host-versus-graft disease except
    • A. 

      Hyperacute rejection

    • B. 

      Bone marrow transplant

    • C. 

      Acute rejection

    • D. 

      Chronic rejection

    • E. 

      Xenotransplant rejection

  • 19. 
    Which of the following statements is true:
    • A. 

      The development of swelling, redness and throbbing pain in the patient's arm 8 hours after receiving a tetanus shot for the second time in a month is an example of acute hypersensitivity

    • B. 

      If a patient develops Immune Complex disease, this is a definite sign that the patient has a bacterial infection

    • C. 

      Peroxidase or immunoflorescent labelled anti-IgG, but not anti-C3b, are reagents used to identify ICs in a tissue biopsy

    • D. 

      Binding of the IC to endothelial CR1 receptors results first in production of cytokines and next in attraction of neutrophils to the site of binding

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 20. 
    Which of the following statements is true:
    • A. 

      UVA light is especially influential in stimulating antigen presentation by dendritic cells of the skin

    • B. 

      Postmenopausal women have a higher likelihood of developing autoimmune disorders due to their decreased estrogen levels

    • C. 

      Patients with systemic immune complex disorders like SLE (systemic lupus erythomatus) often present with skin rashes, glomerular nephritis and joint pain

    • D. 

      SLE is an example of Type II hypersensitivity

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 21. 
    Which of the following statements is true:
    • A. 

      In secondary immune responses the level of IgG in a patient's serum is always greater than the level of albumin

    • B. 

      In SLE, the patient makes antibodies against proteins encoded in their DNA

    • C. 

      Spleenomegaly develops as a result of the spleen's attempt to phagocytize the increased number of antibody-antigen complexes formed during IC disease

    • D. 

      Serum from a patient with a chronic infection would have significantly increased levels of polyclonal IgE antibodies

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 22. 
    What type of hypersensitivity disease is Goodpasture's Syndrome?
    • A. 

      Type I

    • B. 

      Type II

    • C. 

      Type III

    • D. 

      Type IV

  • 23. 
    Which of the following statements is true:
    • A. 

      Serum sickness is an example of a systemic, rather than local, immune response

    • B. 

      Persons with chronic infections usually have monoclonal hypergammaglobulinemia

    • C. 

      Glomerular nephritis, thyroiditis, and juvenile rheumatoid arthritis result from Type I hypersensitivity responses

    • D. 

      Platelets, but not fibrin, are found where an IC binds to FcgR on vascular endothelium

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 24. 
    Which of the following properties is NOT shared by basophils and mast cells?
    • A. 

      Both constitutively express high affinity Fce receptors

    • B. 

      Both have cytoplasmic stores of vasoactive mediators

    • C. 

      Both develop from hematopoietic precursors

    • D. 

      Both reside in tissue sites

    • E. 

      Both have cytoplasmic granules

  • 25. 
    Mast cells do NOT contain:
    • A. 

      Histamine

    • B. 

      Heparin

    • C. 

      Thrombopoietin

    • D. 

      GM-CSF

    • E. 

      TNF-a

Back to Top Back to top