HM1 Mock Exam

124 Questions | Total Attempts: 293

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HM1 Mock Exam

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What DD Form is used for a certificate if Death?
    • A. 

      DD 2061

    • B. 

      DD 2062

    • C. 

      DD 2063

    • D. 

      DD 2064

  • 2. 
    What form is used for medical record emergency care and treatment of ambulance care?
    • A. 

      SF 557

    • B. 

      SF 558

    • C. 

      SF 600

    • D. 

      SF 601

  • 3. 
    What form is used for chronological record of medical care?
    • A. 

      SF 557

    • B. 

      SF 558

    • C. 

      SF 600

    • D. 

      SF 601

  • 4. 
    What form is for Medical consultation?
    • A. 

      SF 512

    • B. 

      SF 510

    • C. 

      SF 511

    • D. 

      SF 513

  • 5. 
    What Visual Record shall be prepared upon the determination of a need for corrective eyewear?
    • A. 

      DD 646

    • B. 

      DD 771

    • C. 

      SF 646

    • D. 

      SF 771

  • 6. 
    What form is used for writing progress notes?
    • A. 

      SF 509

    • B. 

      SF 502

    • C. 

      SF 503

    • D. 

      SF 504

  • 7. 
    What side in the medical record is the abbreviated Temporary Limited Duty form?
    • A. 

      Right side-Part IV

    • B. 

      Left side-Part III

    • C. 

      Right side-Part II

    • D. 

      Left side- Part II

  • 8. 
    What side in the medical record can you find teh privacy act statement?
    • A. 

      Right side-Part IV

    • B. 

      Left side-Part III

    • C. 

      Right side-part II

    • D. 

      Left side-Part II

  • 9. 
    The Health record is the significant medical-legal value to the?
    • A. 

      Member

    • B. 

      His beneficiaries

    • C. 

      Federal goverment

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 10. 
    What DD form is used for record of exposure to ionizing radiation?
    • A. 

      DD 877

    • B. 

      DD 1191

    • C. 

      DD 1141

    • D. 

      DD 771

  • 11. 
    What DD form is used to request for medical and/or dental records?
    • A. 

      DD 877

    • B. 

      DD 1191

    • C. 

      DD 1141

    • D. 

      DD 771

  • 12. 
    All health records hall be verified on receipt, transfer and on? 
    • A. 

      01 September

    • B. 

      Special Duty

    • C. 

      Physical Examination

    • D. 

      Each of the above

  • 13. 
    What chapter in the manual of medical department gives complete details on teh proper page arrangement of the health record?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      21

    • D. 

      23

  • 14. 
    The Health and Dental records of (Navy) individuals who have had prior service and have been discharged may be obtained by sending a DD-877 to?
    • A. 

      National Personnel records center, St. Louis Mo

    • B. 

      Naval Reserve Personnel center, new orleans, LA

    • C. 

      Reserve forces administration activity Kansas City, MO

    • D. 

      Chief, Bureau of Medicine and surgery

  • 15. 
    Upon the apprehension of a navy deserter, you would request his health record from?
    • A. 

      Last permanent duty station

    • B. 

      BUMED

    • C. 

      BUPERS

    • D. 

      Naval Personnel records center

  • 16. 
    What is the most popular stain used to highlight the difference in leukocytes?
    • A. 

      Methylene blue

    • B. 

      Sam's starin

    • C. 

      Giemasa stain

    • D. 

      Wright's stain

  • 17. 
    What is the drug of choice in petit mal epilepsy?
    • A. 

      Pyrantel (Antiminth)

    • B. 

      Phenobarbital (Luminal)

    • C. 

      Chloroquine (Aralen)

    • D. 

      Primaquine

  • 18. 
    What is the drug of choice used in the treatment adn management of GRAND mal epilepsy?
    • A. 

      Pyrantel (Antiminth)

    • B. 

      Phenobarbital (Luminal)

    • C. 

      Phenyoin (Dilantin)

    • D. 

      Primaquine

  • 19. 
    What is the drug of choice for serve asthmatics?
    • A. 

      Lithium (Eskalith/Lithonate)

    • B. 

      Diasepam (Valium)

    • C. 

      Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

    • D. 

      Erythromycin (E-Mycin)

  • 20. 
    What local anesthetic is the standard to which all other anesthetics are compared?
    • A. 

      Procaine

    • B. 

      Mepivicaine

    • C. 

      Prilocaine

    • D. 

      Lidocaine

  • 21. 
    What is the standard by which all other ANTISEPTICS, DISINFECTANTS ADN GERMICIDAL agents are measured in there effectiveness?
    • A. 

      Isopropyl alcohol

    • B. 

      Phenol (carbic acid)

    • C. 

      Hydrogen peroxide

    • D. 

      Hexachlorphene

  • 22. 
    What is used to treat infections caused by Rickettsiae such as; Rocky mountain spotted fever and Typhus?
    • A. 

      Penicillins

    • B. 

      Erythromycin

    • C. 

      Tetracycline

    • D. 

      Sulfonamides

  • 23. 
    What program systematically monitors medical service and identify opportunites to improve patient care?
    • A. 

      Health Promotions Program

    • B. 

      HIPPA program

    • C. 

      Malpractice Program

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance Program

  • 24. 
    Routine Quality Assurance program-related documentation must be maintained in a secure location for a period of how long before disposal?
    • A. 

      2 years

    • B. 

      3 years

    • C. 

      4 years

    • D. 

      5 years

  • 25. 
    Quality Assurance inquires and medical records related to potentially compensable event (PCE) and Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN) investigations must be maintaned in a secure location at the local command for a min. of how many years?
    • A. 

      2 years

    • B. 

      3 years

    • C. 

      4 years

    • D. 

      5 years

  • 26. 
    Clinical department or service review of monitoring and evaluation of the quality and appropriateness of important aspects of care should be documented how often?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Biannually

    • D. 

      Yearly

  • 27. 
    What type of waste is a microbiology waste from cultures?
    • A. 

      Infectious waste

    • B. 

      Non-infectious waste

    • C. 

      Non-biohazard waste

    • D. 

      Sterile waste

  • 28. 
    What % of body heat loss is through the head?
    • A. 

      90

    • B. 

      80

    • C. 

      75

    • D. 

      70

  • 29. 
    What instruction or manual provides the basic naval uniform policy?
    • A. 

      NAVEDTRA 15665

    • B. 

      NAVEDTRA 14325

    • C. 

      NAVPERS 15565

    • D. 

      NAVPERS 15665

  • 30. 
    What should be given to the PNOK to claim reinbursement or payment for primary expenses, transportation, and secondary expenses?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1145, Request for Reimbursement Expenses

    • B. 

      SF Form 1145, Request of Reimbursement Expenses

    • C. 

      DD Form 1375, Request for Payment of Funeral and/or Interment Expenses

    • D. 

      SF Form 1375, Request for Payment of Funeral and/or Interment Expenses

  • 31. 
    In a health record what form provides a chronological history of the ships and stations which a member has been assigned for duty and treatment?
    • A. 

      NAVMED 6150/4

    • B. 

      DD FORM 1141

    • C. 

      NAVMED 6100/1

    • D. 

      DD FORM 771

  • 32. 
    In a tactical situation, what class would injuries require minor professional treatment that can be done on an outpatient ambulatory basis?
    • A. 

      CLASS I

    • B. 

      CLASS II

    • C. 

      CLASS III

    • D. 

      CLASS IV

  • 33. 
    An abnormal white blood cell count of 10,000 to 30,000/mm3 is representative of what infection?
    • A. 

      Meningitis

    • B. 

      Appendicitis

    • C. 

      Pneumonia

    • D. 

      Influenza

  • 34. 
    What section of the EDVR contains the Personnel Status Summary?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 35. 
    What information would you find in the EDVR section 10?
    • A. 

      All member assigned to the activity

    • B. 

      Diary Message Summary

    • C. 

      Duty preferences that have been received and processed

    • D. 

      NEC Qualifications

  • 36. 
    All complete physical examinations will include forms DD 2807-1 and?
    • A. 

      DD 2807

    • B. 

      DD 2808

    • C. 

      DD 2808-1

    • D. 

      DD 2909

  • 37. 
    What type of diet is used in the treatment of hypoglycemia?
    • A. 

      High-carb, low-protein

    • B. 

      High-carb, high protein

    • C. 

      Low-carb, High-protein

    • D. 

      Bland diet

  • 38. 
    When treating a victim for heat stroke, you should discontinue cooling when the rectal temp. reaches how many degrees Fahrenheit?
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      101

    • C. 

      102

    • D. 

      103

  • 39. 
    When suturing, the best cosmetic effect is obtained by using numerous interrupted simple sutures placed how far apart?
    • A. 

      1/16 inch

    • B. 

      1/8 inch

    • C. 

      1/4 inch

    • D. 

      1/2 inch

  • 40. 
    What CBR agen has a faint bitter almond odor?
    • A. 

      Hydrocyanic acid (AC)

    • B. 

      Phosgene (CG)

    • C. 

      Cyanogen chloride (CK)

    • D. 

      Nitrogen Mustard

  • 41. 
    What type of CBR agent leaves symptoms of lacrimation, eye pain, photophobia, cough, respiratory, irritation, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, skin erythema and itching and headache?
    • A. 

      Nerve agent

    • B. 

      Blood agent

    • C. 

      Choking agent

    • D. 

      Vesicants

  • 42. 
    The decon supply cabinets will be kept locked, and the keys will be in the custody of whom?
    • A. 

      SMO

    • B. 

      CO

    • C. 

      DCA

    • D. 

      Supp O

  • 43. 
    What establishes policies for operating and managing afloat supply departments and activities?
    • A. 

      NAVSUP P-409

    • B. 

      NAVSUP P-437

    • C. 

      NAVSUP P-485

    • D. 

      NAVSUP P-400

  • 44. 
    What TSP fund is invested in a stock index fund that tracks the Standard & Poor's (S&p) 500 Stock index?
    • A. 

      S Fund

    • B. 

      C Fund

    • C. 

      I Fund

    • D. 

      L Fund

  • 45. 
    Of the following TSP funds, which can you safely contribute into without the risk of investment loss?
    • A. 

      F Fund

    • B. 

      G Fund

    • C. 

      L Fund

    • D. 

      C Fund

  • 46. 
     A sponsor should be assigned within how many days of the receipt of orders or the sponsor's request?
    • A. 

      5 days

    • B. 

      7 days

    • C. 

      10 days

    • D. 

      14 days

  • 47. 
    Who is the principal Federal Official for domestic incident management?
    • A. 

      Secretary of Homeland Security

    • B. 

      Secretary of Defense

    • C. 

      Secretary of State

    • D. 

      Central Intelligence Agency

  • 48. 
    If you are on a lookout watch, your reports over sound powered phones will go over what circuit to the bridge?
    • A. 

      JA

    • B. 

      JC

    • C. 

      JZ

    • D. 

      JL

  • 49. 
    When talking on an intercom, what do you look for to assume that the line is clear for your messages
    • A. 

      A blinking red light

    • B. 

      A steady red light

    • C. 

      A blinking green light

    • D. 

      A steady green light

  • 50. 
    • A. 

      1st

    • B. 

      2nd

    • C. 

      3rd

    • D. 

      4th

  • 51. 
    What vessel has the distinction of being the Navy's first flagship?
    • A. 

      USS Hornet

    • B. 

      USS Constitution

    • C. 

      USS Turtle

    • D. 

      USS Alfred

  • 52. 
    An individual is defined as a heavy drinker if they drink more than how many drinks or more per drinking occasion at least once a week?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 53. 
    Who was the only Navy Admiral to be appointed "Admiral of the Navy," by authorization of the President?
    • A. 

      John Paul Jones

    • B. 

      George Dewey

    • C. 

      David Glasgow Farragut

    • D. 

      Chester W. Nimitz

  • 54. 
    First Element of Administration
    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Organization

    • C. 

      Accountablility

    • D. 

      Authority

  • 55. 
    Power to command, enforce laws, exact obedience, determine or judge?
    • A. 

      Delegation

    • B. 

      Authority

    • C. 

      Accountability

    • D. 

      Organization

  • 56. 
    Obligation of an individual to render an account of proper discharge of his or  her responsibilities?
    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Organization

    • C. 

      Accountability

    • D. 

      Authority

  • 57. 
    Element of administration entails the orderly arrangement of materials and personnel by function in order to attain the objective of the unit?
    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Organization

    • C. 

      Accountability

    • D. 

      Authority

  • 58. 
    What refers to the tasks which the individual is required to perform
    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Authority

    • C. 

      Delegation

    • D. 

      Duties

  • 59. 
    What is the assigning of a superior's authority of a superior's authority to act to a subordinate?
    • A. 

      Organization

    • B. 

      Accountability

    • C. 

      Authority

    • D. 

      Delegation

  • 60. 
    In order for active duty personnel to be eligible for the command advancement program (CAP), they must be permanently or temp. be assigned to a command for a min. of how many consecutive days?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      45

  • 61. 
    What cranial nerve is responsible for eye movement, size of pupil, and eye focus?
    • A. 

      Oculomotor

    • B. 

      Optic

    • C. 

      Acoustic

    • D. 

      Vagus

  • 62. 
    In regards to supply, what type of measurement indicates the quantity of an item, over and above the operating level that should be maintained to ensure that operations will continue of replenishment supplies are not received on time?
    • A. 

      Operating Level

    • B. 

      Safety Level

    • C. 

      Stockage Objectives

    • D. 

      AMAL level

  • 63. 
    What six-part form is used to requistion material that cannot be identified by an NSN, NATO stock number, or NICN other than permanent "LL"-coded NICNs
    • A. 

      DD 877

    • B. 

      DD 1348

    • C. 

      OPNAV 1348

    • D. 

      OPNAV 1420.1

  • 64. 
    For Patients who present for non-emergeny treatment without a valid ID ard, within how many days must a valid as a Civilian Humanitarian Non-indigents?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      35

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      45

  • 65. 
    Upon the death of an active duty service member, commanding officers are required to write a condolence letter to the NOK within how many hours of casualty?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      72

  • 66. 
    Annual contracts are awarded to funeral directors serving the local area of activities anticipating how many deaths or more a year?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      25

  • 67. 
    Notices are of short duration, and may not be in effect for more than how long?
    • A. 

      30 Days

    • B. 

      45 Days

    • C. 

      180 Days

    • D. 

      1 Year

  • 68. 
    What paragraph of a notice is the cancellation paragraph if the notice cancels another directive?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 69. 
    If a live vaccine is to be administered to a female of childbearing age, how long should you advise the female avoid becoming pregnant following immunization of measles, mumps, smallpox or varicella?
    • A. 

      1 month

    • B. 

      3 months

    • C. 

      6 months

    • D. 

      1 year

  • 70. 
    Multiple dose vials of the Yellow Fever vaccine that are reconstituted, must be used within how long of reconstitution?
    • A. 

      30 minutes

    • B. 

      1 hour

    • C. 

      2 hour

    • D. 

      7 days

  • 71. 
    Where should health care providers document immunizations, toxoids, and other immunobiologicals that they administer?
    • A. 

      PHS 731 (Yellow Card)

    • B. 

      Electronic database that reports to DEERS

    • C. 

      Health Record

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 72. 
    What dental class is a patient given if they a current dental examination and require non-urgent dental treatment or dental reevaluation for oral conditions, which are unlikely to result in dental emergencies within 12 months?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 73. 
    What type of report is a measure of a unit's dental health and readiness?
    • A. 

      Dental Class Report

    • B. 

      ODR Report

    • C. 

      SAMS Dental Report

    • D. 

      AD-Hoc Report

  • 74. 
    What phase of caualty care managment is the urgent initial surgery required to render a patient stabilized enough to withstand further movement to the next level of care?
    • A. 

      PHASE II- Forward Resuscitative Surgery

    • B. 

      PHASE III - Theater Hospitalization

    • C. 

      PHASE IV - En Route Care

    • D. 

      PHASE V - Care Outside Theater

  • 75. 
    A food borne disease outbreak occurs when how many number of people or more experience a similar illnes after ingestion of a common food?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 76. 
    All food service employees must receive a min. of how many hours of initial food safety training?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 77. 
    When inspecting fish, what would indicate that the fish is fresh?
    • A. 

      Cloudy and red bordered

    • B. 

      Bright red gills, prominent clear eyes

    • C. 

      Elastic Flesh

    • D. 

      Both C and B

  • 78. 
    All meats and cheeses must be consumed within how many calendar days after opening?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      10

  • 79. 
    What species of cockroach is similar in appearance to the American cockroach, except that the adults have a yellow strip along one third of the  outside margin of the forewings?
    • A. 

      Australian Cockroach

    • B. 

      German Cockroach

    • C. 

      Brown-banded Cockroach

    • D. 

      Florida Woods Cockroach

  • 80. 
    What type of mite is considered the most important member of the nest inhabiting mites because it vectors rickettsial pox from mouse to man?
    • A. 

      Bird MIte

    • B. 

      Mouse Mite

    • C. 

      House Mite

    • D. 

      Eastern Mite

  • 81. 
    What is the most common indoor species of cockroach especially in and around food service spaces and facilities?
    • A. 

      American Cockroach

    • B. 

      German Cockroach

    • C. 

      Oriental Cockroach

    • D. 

      Surinam Cockroach

  • 82. 
    In support of military weight control programs, each military dining facility will offer reduced calorie menus of how many calories a day?
    • A. 

      1200-1300

    • B. 

      1300-1400

    • C. 

      1400-1500

    • D. 

      1500-1600

  • 83. 
    What stage of dental development is known as histodifferentiation?
    • A. 

      Bud Stage

    • B. 

      Cap Stage

    • C. 

      Bell Stage

    • D. 

      Calcification Stage

  • 84. 
    When primary teeth get ready to fall out what and make way for eruption of permanent teeth, they go through a process called what? 
    • A. 

      Eruption

    • B. 

      Apposition

    • C. 

      Exfoliation

    • D. 

      Calcification

  • 85. 
    When teeth have more than one root, what is the region where the roots separate called?
    • A. 

      Furcation

    • B. 

      Separation

    • C. 

      Apical Foraman

    • D. 

      Cementum

  • 86. 
    What type of mucosa is found on the inside of the lips, cheeks, vestibule, soft palate, and under the tongue?
    • A. 

      Gingival Mucosa

    • B. 

      Lining Mucosa

    • C. 

      Soft Mucosa

    • D. 

      Epithelial Mucosa

  • 87. 
    Trenchmouth is another name for what type of dental infection?
    • A. 

      Marginal Gingivitis

    • B. 

      Periodontal Abcess

    • C. 

      Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis

    • D. 

      Pericoronitis

  • 88. 
    If a patient presents to the dental clinic with signs of heavy plaque and calculus deposits, gingival inflammation, localized or generalized gingival bleeding ulcerated or cratered papilla, or tooth mobility, what should you expect?
    • A. 

      Pericoronitis

    • B. 

      Stomatitis

    • C. 

      Periodontal Abcess

    • D. 

      Periodontitis

  • 89. 
    Tricare Prime is available for active duty and families in distant U.S. locations, typically how many miles or more from a military treatment facility?
    • A. 

      25 miles

    • B. 

      45 miles

    • C. 

      50 miles

    • D. 

      75 miles

  • 90. 
    What Tricare plan offers the greatest flexibility in choosing a provider, but will also involved greater out-of-pocket expenses for the patient?
    • A. 

      Tricare Extra

    • B. 

      Tricare Prime

    • C. 

      Tricare Standard

    • D. 

      Tricare Remote

  • 91. 
    What includes all measures taken by the chain of command and the military health system to promote, improve, conserve, or restore the mental or physical well-being of personnel across the range of military operations?
    • A. 

      Healthy, Fit Force

    • B. 

      Health Care Policy

    • C. 

      Force Medical Protection

    • D. 

      Force health Protection

  • 92. 
    Which OCONUS MTF (s) has a personnel augmentation and bed expansion requirement?
    • A. 

      Okinawa

    • B. 

      Yokosuka

    • C. 

      Guam

    • D. 

      All the above

  • 93. 
    Service members of the rank E4 and below will be approved for overseas orders if their debt to income ration does not exceed what percentage?
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      50

  • 94. 
    What TSP fund is invested in a bond index fund that tracks the Lehman Brothers U.S. Aggregate (LBA) index?
    • A. 

      G

    • B. 

      I

    • C. 

      F

    • D. 

      S

  • 95. 
    If you wanted to take money out of your TSP account, what could you do?
    • A. 

      A loan

    • B. 

      An in-service withdrawal

    • C. 

      A post-separation withdrawal

    • D. 

      All of the Above

  • 96. 
    By Law, you must withdraw your entire TSP account or being receiving monthly payments by the TSP withdrawal deadline, which is April 1 of teh year after you have reached what age?
    • A. 

      59 1/2

    • B. 

      65

    • C. 

      70

    • D. 

      70 1/2

  • 97. 
    Who, on March 31, 1854, signed a treaty with Japan that opened Japan's ports American trade and provisioning of ships?
    • A. 

      Commodore Matthew Perry

    • B. 

      Captain Issac Hull

    • C. 

      Captain H. L. Hunely

    • D. 

      John Paul Jones

  • 98. 
    Of the following, who do you not salute?
    • A. 

      Foregin Military Officers

    • B. 

      Vice President

    • C. 

      Medal of Honor Recipients

    • D. 

      Public Health Service Officers

  • 99. 
    The following photo is the rate insignia of a Senior Master Sergeant in the Air Force, what is the equivalent Navy rank?
    • A. 

      Petty Officer First Class

    • B. 

      Chief Petty Officer

    • C. 

      Senior Chief Petty Officer

    • D. 

      Master Chief Petty Officer

  • 100. 
    Of the following, which would find annotated in your service record on your page 4?
    • A. 

      Emergency Data

    • B. 

      TSP Allocations

    • C. 

      PRT failure

    • D. 

      Awards

  • 101. 
    Involuntary allotments from a Navy member's pay usually means one thing, what is that one thing?
    • A. 

      Financial Irresponsibility

    • B. 

      Financial Responsibility

    • C. 

      PSD messed up

    • D. 

      A member purchased savings bonds

  • 102. 
    • A. 

      National Objectives

    • B. 

      National Interests

    • C. 

      National Strategy

    • D. 

      National Power

  • 103. 
    How many months before an enlisted individuals EAOS/PRD, does the Command Career Counselor ensure that a Sailor meets any prerequisites for transfer (i.e., Screening Requirements, Dependent Entry Approval, Exceptional Family Member (EFM) concerns, etc)?
    • A. 

      4 to 1 months

    • B. 

      5-6 months

    • C. 

      10 -12 months

    • D. 

      12 - 24 months

  • 104. 
    What provides all enlisted Sailors the opportunity for optimal development of their professional skills, both military and technical, thereby enhancing unit readiness, individual upward mobility, job satisfaction and ultimately the retention of better qualified Sailors?
    • A. 

      Career Assessment Board

    • B. 

      Career Development Board

    • C. 

      Career Appraisal Board

    • D. 

      Career Focus Assessment

  • 105. 
    How often should all personnel who have access to classified information receive a refresher briefing that is designed to enhance security awareness?
    • A. 

      Every 6 months

    • B. 

      Once a year

    • C. 

      Every 2 years

    • D. 

      Every 5 years

  • 106. 
    What Naval message precedence is reserved for messages that furnish essential information for the conduct of operations in progress?
    • A. 

      Routine

    • B. 

      Flash

    • C. 

      Priority

    • D. 

      Immediate

  • 107. 
    What part of a Naval message begins on the line following the classification line of the passing instruction line when it is used?
    • A. 

      Subject

    • B. 

      Reference

    • C. 

      From

    • D. 

      Nothing follows the classificationline

  • 108. 
    What is considered the most important form of performance feedback?
    • A. 

      Constructive Criticism

    • B. 

      Negative feedback

    • C. 

      360 degree feedback

    • D. 

      Positive feedback

  • 109. 
    What form is used to request a urinalysis?
    • A. 

      SF 540

    • B. 

      SF 545

    • C. 

      SF 550

    • D. 

      SF 555

  • 110. 
    What part of the compound microscope is the platform on which a specimen is placed for examination?
    • A. 

      Base

    • B. 

      Stage

    • C. 

      Arm

    • D. 

      Ocular Lense

  • 111. 
    A tourniquet should be applied approximately how far from the anticubital fossa depression in the anterior region of the elbow?
    • A. 

      1 to 2 inches

    • B. 

      2 to 3 inches

    • C. 

      3 to 4 inches

    • D. 

      4 to 5 inches

  • 112. 
    Which of the following choices is the preferred method to clean lenses?
    • A. 

      Xylene

    • B. 

      Alcohol

    • C. 

      Soap and Water

    • D. 

      Providone-iodine

  • 113. 
    What is the normal red blood cell count for an adult male?
    • A. 

      3.6 to 5.6 million per mm3

    • B. 

      4.2 to 6.0 million per mm3

    • C. 

      5.0 to 6.5 million per mm3

    • D. 

      7.0 to 7.5 million per mm3

  • 114. 
    What is the normal red blood cell count for an adult female?
    • A. 

      3.6 to 5.6 million per mm3

    • B. 

      4.2 to 6.0 million per mm3

    • C. 

      5.0 to 6.5 million per mm3

    • D. 

      7.0 to 7.5 million per mm3

  • 115. 
    What is the normal red blood count for a newborn?
    • A. 

      3.6 to 5.6 million per mm3

    • B. 

      4.2 to 6.0 million per mm3

    • C. 

      5.0 to 6.5 million per mm3

    • D. 

      7.0 to 7.5 million per mm3

  • 116. 
    Which of the following is a normal hemoglobin level for women?
    • A. 

      12.5 to 15

    • B. 

      14 to 17

    • C. 

      17 to 23

    • D. 

      24 to 27

  • 117. 
    What is the normal hemoglobin level for men?
    • A. 

      12.5 to 15

    • B. 

      14 to 17

    • C. 

      17 to 23

    • D. 

      24 to 27

  • 118. 
    Of the following methods, which is teh best manual way for determining blood hemoglobin?
    • A. 

      Cyanmethemoglobin method

    • B. 

      Haden-Hausse adn Sahli-Hellige methods

    • C. 

      DRI-DOT slide test

    • D. 

      RPR card test

  • 119. 
    What is the normal white blood cell count for an adult?
    • A. 

      2,500 to 3,000

    • B. 

      3,500 to 4,000

    • C. 

      4,500 to 11,000

    • D. 

      5,000 to 15,000

  • 120. 
    What s the normal white blood cell (WBC) count in children?
    • A. 

      2,500 to 3,000

    • B. 

      3,500 to 4,000

    • C. 

      4,500 to 11,000

    • D. 

      5,000 to 15,000

  • 121. 
    Who is the narcotics vault custodian and has the combination to the vault?
    • A. 

      CO

    • B. 

      XO

    • C. 

      Directorate

    • D. 

      Pharmacist

  • 122. 
    What is the method of treatment for bulk blood and other potentially bulk blood and other potentially infection liquids?
    • A. 

      Steam Sterilization

    • B. 

      Chemical Disinfection

    • C. 

      Gelatinization

    • D. 

      Incineration

  • 123. 
    Portuguese man-of-war (Jellyfish) nematocysts can be neutralized with of the following substances?
    • A. 

      Formalin

    • B. 

      Dilute ammonia

    • C. 

      Vinegar

    • D. 

      Any of the above

  • 124. 
    What Hazardous Material Warning label has white and red stripes?
    • A. 

      Poisons & biohazards

    • B. 

      Flammable solids

    • C. 

      Flammable liquids

    • D. 

      Nonflammable gases