Hematology: Leukopoiesis, Blood Smear, And Cytochemistry

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Hematology: Leukopoiesis, Blood Smear, And Cytochemistry - Quiz

This is a 40 item quiz. 15 items per topic. Time limit is 50 minutes.
This is not meant to substitute studying. This is merely to simulate the test. This is not taken from any source other than the notes given by the lecturers.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The common progenitor cell for granulocytes and monocytes which gives rise to the myeloblase

    • A.

      GM-CSF

    • B.

      Eo-CSF

    • C.

      GM-CFC

    • D.

      A and C

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. GM-CFC
    Explanation
    GM-CFC stands for granulocyte-macrophage colony-forming cell. This cell is the common progenitor cell for both granulocytes and monocytes. It gives rise to the myeloblast, which is an immature precursor of both granulocytes and monocytes. GM-CSF (granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor) is a cytokine that stimulates the production and differentiation of granulocytes and monocytes. Eo-CSF is eosinophil colony-stimulating factor, which specifically stimulates the production and differentiation of eosinophils. Therefore, the correct answer is GM-CFC because it is the common progenitor cell for granulocytes and monocytes.

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  • 2. 

    Has more azurophil granules and less specific granules

    • A.

      Early neutrophi myelocyte

    • B.

      Late neutrophil myelocyte

    • C.

      Both

    • D.

      Neither

    Correct Answer
    A. Early neutropHi myelocyte
    Explanation
    An early neutrophil myelocyte has more azurophil granules and less specific granules compared to a late neutrophil myelocyte. This is because azurophil granules are present in the early stages of neutrophil development and contain enzymes and proteins involved in the destruction of ingested microorganisms. Specific granules, on the other hand, are more abundant in the later stages of neutrophil development and contain proteins involved in immune response regulation. Therefore, the correct answer is early neutrophil myelocyte.

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  • 3. 

    Appearance of specific granules

    • A.

      Early neutrophi myelocyte

    • B.

      Late neutrophi myelocyte

    • C.

      Both

    • D.

      Neither

    Correct Answer
    C. Both
    Explanation
    Both early neutrophil myelocytes and late neutrophil myelocytes exhibit the appearance of specific granules. These granules are characteristic organelles found in neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response. The presence of specific granules in both early and late neutrophil myelocytes indicates their maturation and development towards becoming fully functional neutrophils.

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  • 4. 

    They proliferate in response to immunologic stimulation (e.g. allergic reactions)

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Eosinophils

    • C.

      Basophils

    • D.

      Monocytes

    • E.

      Lymphocytes

    Correct Answer
    B. EosinopHils
    Explanation
    Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that increase in number in response to immunologic stimulation, such as allergic reactions. These cells play a role in fighting off parasites and are involved in the inflammatory response. Therefore, eosinophils are the correct answer because they specifically proliferate in response to immunologic stimulation.

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  • 5. 

    Stage when cell may be recognized specifically as a neutrophil, eosinophil, or basophil.

    • A.

      Myeloblast

    • B.

      Promyelocyte

    • C.

      Myelocyte

    • D.

      Metamyelocyte

    • E.

      Stab Form

    Correct Answer
    C. Myelocyte
    Explanation
    A myelocyte is a stage in the development of a white blood cell, specifically a neutrophil, eosinophil, or basophil. At this stage, the cell has undergone some differentiation and is starting to acquire the characteristics of its specific type. It is more mature than a promyelocyte but less mature than a metamyelocyte. Therefore, the myelocyte stage is when a cell may be recognized specifically as a neutrophil, eosinophil, or basophil. The other options listed are either earlier stages in the development of these cells or a different type of cell altogether.

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  • 6. 

    Has a ground-glass appearance

    • A.

      Metamyelocyte

    • B.

      Megakaryocyte

    • C.

      Promyelocyte

    • D.

      Myeloblast

    • E.

      Promonocyte

    Correct Answer
    E. Promonocyte
    Explanation
    A promonocyte is a type of immature white blood cell that is derived from a myeloblast. It is characterized by its ground-glass appearance, which refers to the presence of fine granules in the cytoplasm that give it a cloudy or frosted appearance. This distinguishes it from other cells listed, such as metamyelocytes, megakaryocytes, and myeloblasts, which do not exhibit this feature.

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  • 7. 

    Has a pale clear blue cytoplasm

    • A.

      Metamyelocyte

    • B.

      Megakaryocyte

    • C.

      Promyelocyte

    • D.

      Myeloblast

    • E.

      Promonocyte

    Correct Answer
    D. Myeloblast
    Explanation
    A myeloblast is an immature cell found in the bone marrow that gives rise to various types of white blood cells called granulocytes. It is characterized by a pale, clear blue cytoplasm. The other options listed are different types of cells found in the bone marrow, but they do not have the same cytoplasmic appearance as a myeloblast. Therefore, the correct answer is myeloblast.

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  • 8. 

    Last stage capable of cell division

    • A.

      Myeloblast

    • B.

      Promonocyte

    • C.

      Myelocyte

    • D.

      Band form

    • E.

      Segmented form

    Correct Answer
    C. Myelocyte
    Explanation
    A myelocyte is the last stage capable of cell division in the process of myelopoiesis, which is the development of myeloid cells. After the myelocyte stage, the cells mature into band forms and then into segmented forms. The myelocyte stage is characterized by the presence of granules in the cytoplasm and a round nucleus. It is an intermediate stage between the myeloblast and the band form, and represents a stage of maturation in the development of myeloid cells.

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  • 9. 

    Has an indented kidney shaped nucleus

    • A.

      Myeloblast

    • B.

      Promyelocyte

    • C.

      Myelocyte

    • D.

      Metamyelocyte

    • E.

      Stab form

    Correct Answer
    D. Metamyelocyte
    Explanation
    A metamyelocyte is a type of immature white blood cell that is found in the bone marrow. It is characterized by having an indented kidney-shaped nucleus. As the cell matures, the nucleus becomes more indented and eventually forms a band shape, hence the name "metamyelocyte." This stage of development occurs before the cell becomes a fully mature white blood cell.

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  • 10. 

    Also called a "juvenile cell"

    • A.

      Myeloblast

    • B.

      Promyelocyte

    • C.

      Myelocyte

    • D.

      Metamyelocyte

    • E.

      Megakaryoblast

    Correct Answer
    D. Metamyelocyte
    Explanation
    A metamyelocyte is a type of immature white blood cell that has gone through several stages of maturation. It is the stage between a myelocyte and a mature white blood cell. This cell is characterized by having a kidney-shaped nucleus that is partially lobulated. It is considered a "juvenile cell" because it is not fully matured and is still undergoing development.

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  • 11. 

    Has a partially constricted nucleus

    • A.

      Segmented form

    • B.

      Band form

    • C.

      Metamyelocyte

    • D.

      Myelocyte

    • E.

      Promyelocyte

    Correct Answer
    B. Band form
    Explanation
    The band form refers to a type of white blood cell that has a partially constricted nucleus. This means that the nucleus is not fully condensed and has a band-like shape. The band form is an intermediate stage in the maturation process of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes. It is characterized by a segmented appearance, where the nucleus is divided into two or more lobes connected by thin strands of chromatin. This stage comes after the metamyelocyte stage and before the myelocyte stage in the development of white blood cells.

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  • 12. 

    Has a streaked chromatin pattern

    • A.

      Monocyte

    • B.

      Megakaryocyte

    • C.

      Neutrophilic Myelocyte

    • D.

      Mast cells

    • E.

      Plasma cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Monocyte
    Explanation
    Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that can be identified by their characteristic features, such as a large size and a kidney-shaped nucleus. One of the distinguishing features of monocytes is their streaked chromatin pattern. The chromatin refers to the genetic material present in the nucleus of a cell, and a streaked pattern indicates that the genetic material is arranged in a linear and organized manner. This feature helps to differentiate monocytes from other cell types listed, such as megakaryocytes, neutrophilic myelocytes, mast cells, and plasma cells, which have different chromatin patterns.

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  • 13. 

    Contain heparin, peroxidase, and histamine

    • A.

      Neutrophil

    • B.

      Basophil

    • C.

      Eosinophil

    • D.

      Mast cells

    • E.

      B and D

    Correct Answer
    E. B and D
    Explanation
    Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and mast cells are all types of white blood cells involved in the immune response. Neutrophils are the most abundant type and play a crucial role in fighting bacterial infections. Basophils release histamine, which is involved in allergic reactions and inflammation. Eosinophils are important in fighting parasitic infections and are also involved in allergic reactions. Mast cells also release histamine and are involved in allergic responses and inflammation. Therefore, options B and D, which include basophils and mast cells, are correct as they both contain peroxidase, histamine, and heparin.

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  • 14. 

    Nucleus has a horse-shoe appearnace

    • A.

      Megakaryoblast

    • B.

      Promegakaryocyte

    • C.

      Granular megakaryocyte

    • D.

      Mature megakaryocyte

    • E.

      A and B only

    Correct Answer
    B. Promegakaryocyte
    Explanation
    The correct answer is promegakaryocyte because it is the precursor cell to the mature megakaryocyte. The nucleus of a promegakaryocyte has a horse-shoe appearance, which is a characteristic feature of this cell type. The other options, megakaryoblast and granular megakaryocyte, do not have this specific nucleus shape.

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  • 15. 

    Stage where azurophil granules start to appear

    • A.

      Myeloblast

    • B.

      Promyelocyte

    • C.

      Myelocyte

    • D.

      Metamyelocyte

    • E.

      Stab form

    Correct Answer
    B. Promyelocyte
    Explanation
    The promyelocyte stage is the stage where azurophil granules start to appear. This stage occurs after the myeloblast stage and before the myelocyte stage. Azurophil granules are specialized lysosomes found in certain white blood cells, such as neutrophils. These granules contain enzymes that are important for the immune response and the destruction of pathogens. Therefore, the appearance of azurophil granules in the promyelocyte stage signifies the maturation and specialization of the white blood cells.

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  • 16. 

    What can be used as a substitute of the buffer solution?

    • A.

      1N NaOH

    • B.

      NSS

    • C.

      0.85% NaCl

    • D.

      Distilled water

    • E.

      B and C

    Correct Answer
    D. Distilled water
    Explanation
    Distilled water can be used as a substitute for a buffer solution because it has a neutral pH and does not contain any additional ions or compounds that can alter the pH of the solution. Buffer solutions are used to maintain a stable pH in various chemical and biological processes, and distilled water can serve this purpose by not introducing any changes to the pH of the system.

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  • 17. 

    What has grayish to lilac granules?

    • A.

      Neutrophil

    • B.

      Basophil

    • C.

      Eosinophil

    • D.

      Monocyte

    • E.

      Lymphocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. NeutropHil
    Explanation
    Neutrophils have grayish to lilac granules.

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  • 18. 

    Which are the characteristics of a good smear?

    • A.

      Has a smooth even appearance with no holes, ridges, or a wavy appearance.

    • B.

      Exhibits tailing at the end of the thin portion

    • C.

      There is a gradual transition from the thick to thin portion

    • D.

      The smear does not cover the entire length of the slide

    • E.

      Cells should be closely clumped to one another

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Has a smooth even appearance with no holes, ridges, or a wavy appearance.
    C. There is a gradual transition from the thick to thin portion
    D. The smear does not cover the entire length of the slide
    Explanation
    A good smear should have a smooth even appearance with no holes, ridges, or a wavy appearance. This ensures that the cells are evenly distributed and can be easily observed under a microscope. It should also exhibit a gradual transition from the thick to thin portion, indicating that the cells have been properly spread. The smear should not cover the entire length of the slide, as this would make it difficult to focus on specific areas. These characteristics allow for accurate and clear examination of the cells.

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  • 19. 

    What does a metallic sheen indicate?

    • A.

      Dirty slide

    • B.

      There is staining of the cells

    • C.

      Proper stain:buffer ratio

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    C. Proper stain:buffer ratio
    Explanation
    A metallic sheen on a slide indicates a proper stain:buffer ratio. This means that the staining process was done correctly, with the right balance of stain and buffer solution. A metallic sheen is a desirable outcome in staining techniques, as it indicates that the cells or tissue on the slide have been properly stained and are ready for further analysis or observation.

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  • 20. 

    What is the remedy if RBCs stain blue or green?

    • A.

      Use more diluents

    • B.

      Shorten staining time

    • C.

      Make buffer solution slightly acidic

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      A and B only

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is all of the above. If RBCs stain blue or green, it indicates that the staining process is not optimal. Using more diluents can help in achieving the desired staining intensity. Shortening the staining time can also prevent over-staining and reduce the chances of RBCs staining blue or green. Additionally, making the buffer solution slightly acidic can improve the staining process by providing the ideal conditions for the stain to bind to the RBCs. Therefore, all of these remedies can be used to address the issue of RBCs staining blue or green.

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  • 21. 

    Check the causes of precipitates on s stained blood film

    • A.

      Inadequate washing

    • B.

      Inadequate filtration of the stain

    • C.

      Drying during the period of staining

    • D.

      Overflowing the stain

    • E.

      Dirty glass slides

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Inadequate washing
    B. Inadequate filtration of the stain
    C. Drying during the period of staining
    D. Overflowing the stain
    E. Dirty glass slides
    Explanation
    The presence of precipitates on a stained blood film can be caused by a variety of factors. Inadequate washing may result in residual debris or excess stain remaining on the slide, leading to the formation of precipitates. Similarly, inadequate filtration of the stain can introduce impurities that can precipitate during the staining process. Drying during the period of staining can cause the formation of precipitates as the solvent evaporates. Overflowing the stain can result in an excessive amount of stain on the slide, leading to the formation of precipitates. Finally, dirty glass slides can introduce contaminants that can precipitate during the staining process.

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  • 22. 

    Staining should be performed within _____ after making the film

    • A.

      30 min

    • B.

      1 hr

    • C.

      1 hr and 30min

    • D.

      2 hrs

    • E.

      3-4 hrs

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 hr
    Explanation
    Staining should be performed within 1 hour after making the film to ensure accurate and reliable results. Waiting too long to perform the staining process may lead to degradation or alteration of the film, resulting in inaccurate staining results. It is important to perform the staining process in a timely manner to obtain the best possible outcome.

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  • 23. 

    Delayed smearing may cause: (select appropriate answer/s)

    • A.

      Wavy appearance of the smear

    • B.

      Holes and ridges on the smear

    • C.

      Abnormal distribution of WBCs

    • D.

      Rouleaux formation of RBCs

    • E.

      Clumping of platelets

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Abnormal distribution of WBCs
    D. Rouleaux formation of RBCs
    E. Clumping of platelets
    Explanation
    Delayed smearing refers to a technique used in preparing a blood smear for microscopic examination. If the smearing process is not done immediately after obtaining the blood sample, it can lead to certain changes in the appearance of the smear. These changes include an abnormal distribution of white blood cells (WBCs), where the WBCs may be unevenly spread across the smear. Additionally, delayed smearing can also cause the formation of rouleaux, which is the stacking of red blood cells (RBCs) like a stack of coins. Lastly, delayed smearing may result in the clumping of platelets, where the platelets may aggregate together instead of being evenly dispersed.

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  • 24. 

    What causes ridges on the smear?

    • A.

      Jerky movement

    • B.

      Large blood sample

    • C.

      Small blood sample

    • D.

      Rough edges of the spreader slide

    • E.

      Incorrect angle of the spreader slide

    Correct Answer
    D. Rough edges of the spreader slide
    Explanation
    Rough edges on the spreader slide can cause ridges on the smear. When the slide is not smooth, it can create uneven pressure on the blood sample, leading to the formation of ridges. These ridges can interfere with the accuracy of the smear and make it difficult to properly analyze the blood sample. It is important to ensure that the spreader slide is in good condition and free from any rough edges to obtain a smooth and accurate smear.

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  • 25. 

    If the drop of blood gets ahead of the spreader slide, what occurs?

    • A.

      Wavy appearance of the slide

    • B.

      Cell distortion

    • C.

      Holes

    • D.

      Ridges

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Cell distortion
    Explanation
    When the drop of blood gets ahead of the spreader slide, it causes the cells to be distorted. This happens because the spreader slide is meant to evenly distribute the blood across the slide, but when the drop gets ahead, it creates uneven spreading. As a result, the cells may become stretched, compressed, or otherwise distorted, leading to an inaccurate or unreliable analysis of the blood sample.

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  • 26. 

    Which is NOT true?

    • A.

      Cover glass method employs 2 22mmx22mm cover glasses

    • B.

      The spinner method is advantageous because there is uniform distribution of the cells

    • C.

      The slower the film is air-dried, the better the spreading of the cells

    • D.

      2-3mm is the ideal size of the drop of blood on the glass slide

    • E.

      If EDTA blood is used, the smear should be made within 120 minutes of blood collection

    Correct Answer
    C. The slower the film is air-dried, the better the spreading of the cells
    Explanation
    The FASTER the film is air-dried, the better the spreading.

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  • 27. 

    If the drop of blood is too large, one may

    • A.

      Increase the angle

    • B.

      Decrease the angle

    • C.

      Smear faster

    • D.

      Smear slower

    • E.

      B and D

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase the angle
    Explanation
    Increasing the angle when the drop of blood is too large would allow for a larger surface area to be covered, resulting in a more even and efficient smear. This would help prevent the smear from becoming too thick or uneven. Smearing faster or slower would not address the issue of a large drop of blood, and decreasing the angle may result in a smaller surface area being covered, making the smear even more difficult. Therefore, increasing the angle is the most logical solution in this scenario.

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  • 28. 

    A wavy smear is caused by

    • A.

      Rough spreader slide

    • B.

      Too large sample

    • C.

      Too large angle

    • D.

      Delayed smearing

    • E.

      Jerky movement

    Correct Answer
    E. Jerky movement
    Explanation
    A wavy smear is caused by jerky movement because when the movement is not smooth and continuous, it can result in uneven spreading of the sample on the slide. This can lead to the formation of wavy patterns instead of a smooth and consistent smear.

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  • 29. 

    A good spreader slide should be

    • A.

      Slightly narrower

    • B.

      Has absolutely smooth edges

    • C.

      Longer than the other slide

    • D.

      Clean and dry

    • E.

      Have rounded edges

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Slightly narrower
    B. Has absolutely smooth edges
    D. Clean and dry
    Explanation
    A good spreader slide should be slightly narrower to ensure that it fits easily into the desired space and does not cause any obstruction. It should have absolutely smooth edges to prevent any injuries or damage while sliding. Being clean and dry is important to maintain hygiene and prevent any contamination. Additionally, having rounded edges adds to the safety and comfort of the user while using the slide.

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  • 30. 

    Which statements are NOT true?

    • A.

      Wright stain is composed of Na2HPO4 and KH2PO4

    • B.

      Bacteria stain blue

    • C.

      Eosinophil granules stain bright red

    • D.

      The acid dye in the Wright stain is the Thiazine Group

    • E.

      Methanol is the preservative in the Wright stain

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Wright stain is composed of Na2HPO4 and KH2PO4
    C. EosinopHil granules stain bright red
    D. The acid dye in the Wright stain is the Thiazine Group
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Wright stain is composed of Na2HPO4 and KH2PO4, Eosinophil granules stain bright red, The acid dye in the Wright stain is the Thiazine Group." This means that these statements are NOT true. Wright stain is actually composed of a mixture of eosin Y, methylene blue, and azure B. Eosinophil granules stain bright red is also not true, as eosinophil granules stain pink. Lastly, the acid dye in the Wright stain is not from the Thiazine Group, but rather from the Eosin Group.

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  • 31. 

    Positive cells for naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase

    • A.

      Neutrophil

    • B.

      Monocytes

    • C.

      Mast cells

    • D.

      A and B

    • E.

      A and C

    Correct Answer
    E. A and C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A and C because neutrophils and mast cells are known to be positive for naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase. Monocytes, on the other hand, are not typically positive for this enzyme.

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  • 32. 

    The counterstain for the diaminobenzidine method

    • A.

      Mayer's hematoxylin

    • B.

      Giemsa

    • C.

      Harris hematolxylin

    • D.

      Sudan black B

    • E.

      N,N dimethyl formamide

    Correct Answer
    B. Giemsa
    Explanation
    Giemsa is the correct counterstain for the diaminobenzidine method. Giemsa is commonly used in histology and cytology to stain cell nuclei and other structures. It is a mixture of methylene blue, eosin, and azure dyes, which allows for differentiation of different cell types and structures. Giemsa stain is particularly useful for visualizing blood cells and parasites, making it a suitable counterstain for the diaminobenzidine method.

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  • 33. 

    These methods employ buffered formalin acetone as the fixative

    • A.

      Diaminobenzidine method

    • B.

      Cyanide-resistant peroxidase staining

    • C.

      Naphrhol AS-D chloroacetate esterase

    • D.

      Alpha-napthyl acetate esterase

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    These methods all use buffered formalin acetone as the fixative. The diaminobenzidine method, cyanide-resistant peroxidase staining, naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase, and alpha-napthyl acetate esterase all require the use of buffered formalin acetone to fix the tissue samples.

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  • 34. 

    Enzymes that hydrolyze aliphatic esters at an acid or neutral pH

    • A.

      Peroxidases

    • B.

      Esterases

    • C.

      Phosphatases

    • D.

      B and C

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Esterases
    Explanation
    Esterases are enzymes that hydrolyze ester bonds. They are able to break down aliphatic esters at both acid and neutral pH levels. Peroxidases are enzymes that catalyze the oxidation of substrates using hydrogen peroxide, while phosphatases are enzymes that remove phosphate groups from molecules. Therefore, the correct answer is esterases, as they specifically match the description given in the question.

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  • 35. 

    In alpha-naphthyl butyrate esterase method, enzyme activity is noted by:

    • A.

      Dark red precipitates in the cytoplasm of lymphocytes

    • B.

      Dark red precipitates in the cytoplasm of neutrophils

    • C.

      Dark red precipitates in the cytoplasm of histiocytes

    • D.

      Dark red precipitates in the cytoplasm of monocytes

    • E.

      C and D

    Correct Answer
    E. C and D
    Explanation
    In the alpha-naphthyl butyrate esterase method, enzyme activity is noted by the presence of dark red precipitates in the cytoplasm of histiocytes and monocytes. This indicates that these cells are producing the esterase enzyme, which can be used as a marker for their identification and differentiation. The other options, lymphocytes and neutrophils, do not show this enzyme activity and therefore do not produce the dark red precipitates.

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  • 36. 

    What isoenyme/s of acid phosphatase give a positive result to lymphocytes and plateltets

    • A.

      0

    • B.

      1 and 4

    • C.

      3a

    • D.

      3b

    • E.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 3a
    Explanation
    Isoenzyme 3a of acid phosphatase gives a positive result to lymphocytes and platelets.

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  • 37. 

    Buffered formalin acetone has a pH of

    • A.

      5.4

    • B.

      6.6

    • C.

      7.4

    • D.

      7.73

    • E.

      9.1

    Correct Answer
    B. 6.6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6.6. Buffered formalin acetone is a solution that has been adjusted to a specific pH level to maintain its stability and effectiveness. A pH of 6.6 indicates that the solution is slightly acidic, which is often desirable for certain applications.

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  • 38. 

    What is used as the postive control in the naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase method?

    • A.

      Normal neutrophils

    • B.

      Normal monocytes

    • C.

      Normal lymphocytes

    • D.

      Normal eosinophils

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal neutropHils
    Explanation
    In the naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase method, normal neutrophils are used as the positive control. This means that they are used as a reference to compare the results of the test. By including normal neutrophils in the experiment, any color change or reaction can be attributed to the presence of esterase activity in the sample being tested. This helps to ensure the accuracy and reliability of the test results.

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  • 39. 

    Used the the control in the cyanide-resistant peroxidase stain

    • A.

      Normal blood film

    • B.

      Normal buffy coat

    • C.

      Histiocytes from bone marrow

    • D.

      Slides from pregnant women in their 3rd trimester

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Normal buffy coat
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "normal buffy coat" because the cyanide-resistant peroxidase stain is commonly used to identify certain types of cells, such as myeloid precursors, in the buffy coat. The buffy coat is the layer of white blood cells and platelets that forms between the plasma and red blood cells after centrifuging a blood sample. Therefore, using this stain on a normal buffy coat would be appropriate for identifying and studying these specific cells.

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  • 40. 

    Fixative for ferric iron-prussian blue reaction

    • A.

      Absolute methyl alcohol

    • B.

      Buffered formalin acetone

    • C.

      Methanol acetone

    • D.

      MOTA

    • E.

      Absolute ethyl alcohol

    Correct Answer
    A. Absolute methyl alcohol
    Explanation
    Absolute methyl alcohol is the correct fixative for the ferric iron-prussian blue reaction. This fixative is commonly used in histology and pathology laboratories to preserve tissue samples. It helps to fix the tissue and prevent degradation, allowing for accurate staining and analysis. Absolute methyl alcohol is preferred over other fixatives in this specific reaction because it provides optimal results and does not interfere with the reaction between ferric iron and prussian blue.

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  • 41. 

    Used to idenify systemic mast cell disease

    • A.

      Diaminobenzidine method

    • B.

      Cyanide resistant peroxidase

    • C.

      Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase

    • D.

      Alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase

    • E.

      Alpha naphyl butyrate esterase

    Correct Answer
    C. NapHthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase
    Explanation
    Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase is used to identify systemic mast cell disease. This method specifically detects the presence of mast cells, which are involved in allergic reactions and inflammatory responses. The enzyme esterase is found in high levels in mast cells, and the naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase staining technique allows for the visualization and identification of these cells. This method is commonly used in histopathology to diagnose mast cell disorders and differentiate them from other conditions.

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  • 42. 

    Identifies isoenzymes 2 and 4

    • A.

      Diaminobenzidine method

    • B.

      Cyanide resistant peroxidase

    • C.

      Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase

    • D.

      Alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase

    • E.

      Alpha naphthyl butyrate esterase

    Correct Answer
    E. AlpHa napHthyl butyrate esterase
    Explanation
    The correct answer, alpha naphthyl butyrate esterase, is the enzyme that is identified using the mentioned methods. The other enzymes listed, such as isoenzymes 2 and 4, diaminobenzidine method, cyanide resistant peroxidase, naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase, and alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase, are not specifically mentioned in relation to the identification process. Therefore, alpha naphthyl butyrate esterase is the most appropriate answer based on the given information.

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  • 43. 

    Strongly positive for tartrate resistant acid phosphatase

    • A.

      Histiocytes

    • B.

      Monocytes

    • C.

      Neoplastic cells of hairy cell leukemia

    • D.

      T-lymphoblasts of acute leukemia

    • E.

      Non-T-cell acute leukemia

    Correct Answer
    C. Neoplastic cells of hairy cell leukemia
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "neoplastic cells of hairy cell leukemia." Hairy cell leukemia is a rare type of blood cancer characterized by abnormal B-lymphocytes, which are a type of white blood cell. These neoplastic cells are strongly positive for tartrate resistant acid phosphatase, an enzyme that is typically found in high levels in hairy cell leukemia cells. This test is commonly used to diagnose and differentiate hairy cell leukemia from other types of leukemia or lymphoma.

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  • 44. 

    TRUE in alpha-napthyl acetate esterase (ANAE),

    • A.

      Monocytes stain red-brown

    • B.

      Lymphocytes have a focal dot-like staining

    • C.

      Neutrophils stain dark red

    • D.

      A and B

    • E.

      A and C

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B
    Explanation
    In alpha-napthyl acetate esterase (ANAE), monocytes stain red-brown and lymphocytes have a focal dot-like staining. The correct answer is A and B because both statements are true.

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  • 45. 

    What procedure stains with dark brown granules in the cytoplasm of granulocytes and monocytes?

    • A.

      DAB

    • B.

      ANAE

    • C.

      TRAP

    • D.

      Alpha naphthyl BE

    • E.

      Toluidine blue

    Correct Answer
    A. DAB
    Explanation
    DAB stands for 3,3'-diaminobenzidine, which is a commonly used chromogen in immunohistochemistry staining. It produces a dark brown color when it reacts with the enzyme horseradish peroxidase (HRP). In this context, DAB stains with dark brown granules in the cytoplasm of granulocytes and monocytes, indicating the presence of HRP activity in these cells.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 12, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Outsider_matthew

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