Hematology Quiz: Questions And Answers!

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1. The cell that functions as a plug at the site of bleeding is the:

Explanation

Platelets are small, irregularly shaped cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood clotting. When there is a site of bleeding, platelets are activated and form a plug to stop the bleeding. They adhere to the damaged blood vessel walls and aggregate together, forming a clot. This clot acts as a temporary seal, preventing further blood loss and allowing the process of wound healing to begin. Therefore, platelets are the cells that function as a plug at the site of bleeding.

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About This Quiz
Hematology Quiz: Questions And Answers! - Quiz

Test your knowledge of blood and its components with this engaging hematology quiz! Designed to be both challenging and informative, this quiz covers a wide range of topics,... see morefrom basic blood cell types to complex disorders. If you're a student, a healthcare professional, or simply curious about the fascinating world of hematology, this quiz offers a fun and effective way to learn.

Engage with a series of hematology questions and answers that explore the intricacies of blood disorders, cell morphology, and laboratory techniques. Each question is designed to test your understanding and provide valuable insights into the field of hematology. Think you know your red cells from your white cells? Put your knowledge to the test and see how you score! see less

2. RBC production is initiated by the hormone:

Explanation

Erythropoietin is the hormone responsible for initiating the production of red blood cells (RBCs). It is produced and released by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels in the body. Erythropoietin stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs, which helps to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of RBC production and is essential for the body's overall oxygenation.

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3. The chief function of the platelet is to:

Explanation

Platelets play a crucial role in the process of coagulation, which is the formation of blood clots to prevent excessive bleeding. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets are activated and aggregate at the site of injury, forming a plug to stop the bleeding. They also release various substances that promote the formation of fibrin, a protein that strengthens the clot. Therefore, the correct answer is "aid in coagulation."

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4. Most lymphocytes in the circulating blood are:

Explanation

T cells and B cells are the two main types of lymphocytes found in the circulating blood. T cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity, which involves directly attacking infected cells. B cells, on the other hand, are responsible for humoral immunity, which involves producing antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Both T cells and B cells play crucial roles in the immune response and work together to provide a coordinated defense against infections and diseases.

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5. The five types of leukocytes found in normal peripheral blood are:

Explanation

The answer "lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils" is correct because these are the five types of leukocytes commonly found in normal peripheral blood. Lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses, neutrophils are the most abundant type and are involved in fighting bacterial infections, monocytes are involved in immune responses and can differentiate into macrophages, eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions and fighting parasitic infections, and basophils are involved in allergic reactions and releasing histamine.

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6. The cell that functions in the defensive mechanism of the body during infection is:

Explanation

Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the body's immune response against infection. They are the first cells to arrive at the site of infection and are responsible for engulfing and destroying bacteria and other pathogens. Neutrophils release enzymes and chemicals that help to kill the invading microorganisms. They also play a role in inflammation by releasing cytokines that attract other immune cells to the site of infection. Therefore, neutrophils are the primary cell that functions in the defensive mechanism of the body during infection.

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7. In allergic conditions, we commonly find an increase of:

Explanation

In allergic conditions, eosinophils are commonly increased. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that play a role in the immune response to parasites and allergic reactions. They are especially involved in the response to allergies such as asthma, hay fever, and eczema. Eosinophils release chemicals that help to control and limit the inflammatory response. Therefore, an increase in eosinophils is often seen in allergic conditions as they are recruited to the affected tissues to help combat the allergic reaction.

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8. Red blood cells which are larger than 8.1 microns are called:

Explanation

Red blood cells that are larger than 8.1 microns are called macrocytes. This term is used to describe abnormally large red blood cells. Anisocytes refers to red blood cells that vary in size, microcytes refers to red blood cells that are smaller than normal, and normocytes refers to red blood cells that are of normal size. However, in this case, the correct term to describe red blood cells larger than 8.1 microns is macrocytes.

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9. The solutions used as diluents in red cell counting are:

Explanation

Isotonic solutions are used as diluents in red cell counting because they have the same osmotic pressure as red blood cells. This means that the concentration of solutes inside the red blood cells and in the isotonic solution is balanced, allowing the cells to maintain their normal shape and size. Using an isotonic solution as a diluent ensures accurate counting and prevents any distortion or damage to the red blood cells.

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10. The spun hematocrit procedure can be affected by the:

Explanation

The spun hematocrit procedure measures the volume of red blood cells in relation to the total volume of blood. The speed of the centrifuge affects the separation of the blood components, with higher speeds leading to better separation. The length of time of centrifugation determines the extent of separation and can affect the accuracy of the hematocrit measurement. The ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood is important for preventing clotting during the procedure. Therefore, all of these factors can impact the spun hematocrit procedure.

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11. Poor blood smears can be caused by:

Explanation

All of the mentioned factors can contribute to poor blood smears. Prolonged storage of specimens in EDTA can cause cell clumping and distortion, leading to poor smear quality. Dirty slides can introduce debris and contaminants, affecting the clarity of the smear. If there is a delay in preparing the smear after placing the drop of blood on the slide, it can result in drying and alteration of the blood cells. Using a drop of blood that is either too large or too small can lead to uneven distribution and difficulty in obtaining a well-spread smear. Holding the pusher slide at the wrong angle and poor drying conditions can also affect the quality of the smear. Therefore, all of the mentioned factors can contribute to poor blood smears.

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12. The term thrombocytopenia indicates a/an:

Explanation

Thrombocytopenia refers to a condition characterized by an abnormally low number of thrombocytes, which are also known as platelets. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a decrease in their count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and difficulty in clotting. Therefore, the correct answer is "abnormally low number of thrombocytes."

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13. Identify the characteristic or characteristics of a good peripheral blood smear:

Explanation

A good peripheral blood smear should progress from thick at the point of origin to thin, meaning that the blood cells should be evenly distributed across the slide. It should also have a blunt feathered termination, indicating that the smear ends abruptly without any trailing cells. Additionally, the smear should be smooth without any waves or streaks, ensuring that the blood cells are evenly spread and not clumped together. Therefore, all of the characteristics mentioned above contribute to a good peripheral blood smear.

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14. The polypeptide chains of hemoglobin A are composed of:

Explanation

The polypeptide chains of hemoglobin A are composed of 2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains. This composition is specific to hemoglobin A, which is the most common type of hemoglobin found in adults. The alpha and beta chains come together to form the quaternary structure of hemoglobin, allowing it to efficiently carry oxygen throughout the body.

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15. An increase of total leukocytes over the normal is called:

Explanation

Leukocytosis is the correct answer because it refers to an increase in the total number of leukocytes (white blood cells) in the body. This can be a normal response to infection, inflammation, or other conditions. Leukemia, on the other hand, is a type of cancer that causes an abnormal increase in white blood cells. Leukopenia is a decrease in white blood cells, and pancytopenia is a decrease in all types of blood cells.

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16. The sedimentation rate can be affected by the

Explanation

The sedimentation rate is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a tube of blood. It can be affected by various factors, including the ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood, the level of fibrinogen (a protein involved in blood clotting), the position of the tube (vertical or horizontal), and the temperature of the specimen or laboratory. All of these factors can influence the sedimentation rate and should be considered when interpreting the results.

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17. EDTA inhibits blood from clotting by

Explanation

EDTA, or ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid, is a chelating agent that binds to calcium ions in the blood. Calcium is a crucial component in the blood clotting process, as it is required for the activation of various clotting factors. By binding to calcium, EDTA prevents it from participating in the clotting cascade, effectively inhibiting blood clotting. This property makes EDTA useful in medical procedures where preventing blood clotting is necessary, such as in blood transfusions or during certain laboratory tests.

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18. The precursor of the platelet is:

Explanation

A megakaryocyte is the precursor of platelets. Megakaryocytes are large cells found in the bone marrow that undergo fragmentation to produce platelets. Platelets are small, disc-shaped cells that play a crucial role in blood clotting. They help to stop bleeding by forming clots at the site of injury. Therefore, the correct answer is megakaryocyte.

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19. The normal number of thrombocytes per ul is:

Explanation

The normal number of thrombocytes per ul is between 150,000 and 450,000. Thrombocytes, also known as platelets, are important for blood clotting. This range is considered normal because it allows for adequate clotting ability without an increased risk of bleeding or clotting disorders. A lower count may indicate a condition called thrombocytopenia, which can lead to excessive bleeding, while a higher count may indicate a condition called thrombocytosis, which can increase the risk of blood clots.

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20. Microsampling on a newborn infant is usually taken from:

Explanation

Microsampling on a newborn infant is usually taken from the heel. This is because the heel is easily accessible and has a good blood supply. The heel is also less sensitive compared to other parts of the body, making it a suitable site for sampling. Additionally, the heel is often used for newborn screening tests, such as the Guthrie test, which involves collecting a small amount of blood for early detection of certain diseases.

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21. Clots present in blood samples will give you a/an:

Explanation

When there are clots present in blood samples, they can interfere with the accurate counting of cells. The clots can trap cells within them, preventing them from being counted. This leads to a decrease in the cell count obtained from the sample. Therefore, the presence of clots in blood samples will result in a decreased cell count.

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22. The nucleus of a cell consists primarily of

Explanation

The nucleus of a cell consists primarily of DNA because DNA is the genetic material that carries the instructions for the development, functioning, and reproduction of all living organisms. It is located within the nucleus, which is the control center of the cell. DNA is organized into structures called chromosomes, which contain the genes that determine an organism's traits. RNA, Golgi bodies, and ribosomes are also important components of the cell, but they are not the primary component of the nucleus.

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23. The period of useful function of the red cell in the peripheral blood is:

Explanation

The period of useful function of the red cell in the peripheral blood is 100-120 days. Red blood cells, or erythrocytes, have a lifespan of approximately 120 days. During this time, they transport oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues and remove carbon dioxide. After their lifespan, they are removed from circulation by the spleen and liver and new red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow to replace them. This continuous cycle ensures the body maintains a sufficient supply of functional red blood cells.

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24. Venipuncture is usually performed on the

Explanation

Venipuncture is a medical procedure that involves puncturing a vein to collect blood samples or administer intravenous medications. The median cubital vein is the preferred site for venipuncture because it is larger, more stable, and less likely to move during the procedure. It is located in the middle of the antecubital fossa, which is the area on the front of the elbow. The cephalic and jugular veins are also commonly used for venipuncture, but the median cubital vein is considered the best option due to its accessibility and stability. The median antibrachial vein is not a commonly used site for venipuncture.

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25. The type of staining we use to stain reticulocytes is called: 

Explanation

The correct answer is supra-vital. Supra-vital staining refers to staining techniques that are performed on living cells. In the case of reticulocytes, which are immature red blood cells, supra-vital staining is used to visualize the presence of residual RNA in the cytoplasm. This staining method allows for the identification and quantification of reticulocytes, providing valuable information about the production and maturation of red blood cells in the body.

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26. In high altitudes, the hemoglobin value is:

Explanation

At high altitudes, the hemoglobin value is higher. This is because at higher altitudes, there is a decrease in the availability of oxygen in the atmosphere. In response to this, the body compensates by increasing the production of red blood cells and hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the tissues, so an increase in its value helps to ensure that an adequate amount of oxygen reaches the body's cells despite the lower oxygen levels at high altitudes.

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27. The cell that synthesizes immunoglobins is a/an:

Explanation

Plasma cells are the correct answer because they are specialized cells that produce and secrete large amounts of immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies. These antibodies are an essential part of the immune response and play a crucial role in fighting off infections and other foreign substances in the body. Mast cells and basophils are involved in allergic reactions and inflammation, while turk cells do not exist, making them incorrect options.

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28. Which red cell is not a biconcave disc?

Explanation

A spherocyte is not a biconcave disc because it lacks the typical concave shape of a red blood cell. Instead, it appears more spherical or round in shape. This abnormal shape can be caused by various factors such as a genetic disorder or an immune response. Spherocytes are often associated with conditions like hereditary spherocytosis or autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

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29. The hematocrit is the

Explanation

The hematocrit is a measure of the volume of packed red cells in a given volume of blood. It represents the percentage of blood that is made up of red blood cells. A higher hematocrit indicates a higher concentration of red blood cells, which can be an indication of conditions such as dehydration or polycythemia. Conversely, a lower hematocrit may suggest anemia or blood loss. Therefore, the correct answer is "volume of packed red cells."

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30. The smallest % of normal cells in a differential count is:

Explanation

Basophils are the least common type of white blood cells found in the body, making up only a small percentage of the total white blood cell count. They are responsible for releasing chemicals such as histamine during allergic reactions and play a role in the body's immune response. Metamyelocytes, eosinophils, and monocytes are all more common than basophils in a differential count of white blood cells. Therefore, basophils have the smallest percentage among these options.

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31. Which of the following becomes a tissue macrophage after a brief stay in the blood?

Explanation

Monocytes are white blood cells that circulate in the blood for a short period before migrating to the tissues, where they differentiate into tissue macrophages. These macrophages play a crucial role in the immune response by engulfing and digesting pathogens and cellular debris. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in specific immune responses, while neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cell and are primarily responsible for fighting bacterial infections. Plasma cells are differentiated B cells that produce antibodies.

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32. The hemoglobin types found in a normal adult are:

Explanation

The correct answer is A, A2, F. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. In a normal adult, the most common types of hemoglobin are A, A2, and F. Hemoglobin A is the most abundant type, making up about 95-98% of total hemoglobin. Hemoglobin A2 is the second most common type, making up about 2-3% of total hemoglobin. Hemoglobin F is the least common type, making up less than 1% of total hemoglobin. These different types of hemoglobin play important roles in oxygen transport and maintaining the health of red blood cells.

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33. The special stain for observing siderocytes, sideroblast, iron stores and granules is:

Explanation

Prussian-Blue is the correct answer because it is a special stain commonly used in histology and hematology to detect the presence of iron in tissues and cells. It specifically stains siderocytes, sideroblasts, and iron stores, allowing for the observation and identification of these structures. The stain works by forming a blue complex with iron, making it easily visible under a microscope. PAS, Nitroblue-Tetrazolium, and LAP are not specific stains for iron and do not provide the same level of detail in observing siderocytes, sideroblasts, and iron stores.

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34. Formation of granulocytic cells takes place in the:

Explanation

Granulocytic cells, also known as granulocytes, are a type of white blood cell that are responsible for fighting off infections. The formation of these cells occurs in the bone marrow. The bone marrow is a soft, spongy tissue found inside the bones, where blood cells are produced. It contains stem cells that can differentiate into different types of blood cells, including granulocytes. Therefore, the correct answer is bone marrow.

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35. With the following information, what is the MCH? Hemoglobin 13.4 g/dl Hematocrit 42% RBC 4.20 x 10 to the 9th/L

Explanation

The mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) is a measure of the average amount of hemoglobin in each red blood cell. To calculate MCH, we divide the total amount of hemoglobin by the total number of red blood cells. In this case, the hemoglobin level is given as 13.4 g/dl and the red blood cell count is 4.20 x 10^9/L. Since the MCH is measured in picograms, we need to convert the hemoglobin level from grams to picograms. 1 gram is equal to 1,000,000 picograms, so 13.4 g/dl is equal to 13,400,000 picograms/dl. Dividing this by the red blood cell count of 4.20 x 10^9/L gives us an MCH of approximately 32 picograms.

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36. The white cell that contains digestive enzymes most effective at destroying bacteria is the:

Explanation

Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that are highly effective at destroying bacteria. They contain digestive enzymes, such as lysozyme and proteases, which can break down the bacterial cell wall and proteins, leading to the destruction of bacteria. Neutrophils are the first responders to infection and play a crucial role in the immune response against bacterial pathogens. They are able to migrate to the site of infection, engulf bacteria through a process called phagocytosis, and release their enzymes to destroy the bacteria.

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37. The red blood cell values for indices done on a patient were: MCV 70 femtoliters MCH 22 picograms MCHC 25% What would be the most likely description of the red cells appearance in the stained blood film?

Explanation

The red blood cell values indicate a low MCV (mean corpuscular volume) and a low MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration), which suggests that the red cells are smaller than normal (microcytic) and have a reduced amount of hemoglobin (hypochromic). Therefore, the most likely description of the red cells appearance in the stained blood film would be microcytic, hypochromic.

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38. Which of the following is not a characteristic of platelets?

Explanation

Platelets are small, irregularly shaped cell fragments that are involved in blood clotting. They are derived from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow and do not possess a nucleus. This lack of a nucleus allows platelets to be more flexible and adaptable in their function. They also have a size of 2 to 4 um, cytoplasm that is light blue with red-purple granules, and a discoid shape when inactive. Therefore, the presence of a nucleus is not a characteristic of platelets.

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39. Hemolytic anemias are caused by:

Explanation

Hemolytic anemias are caused by excessive destruction of blood cells. This means that the body is breaking down red blood cells at a faster rate than it can produce them. This can occur due to various reasons such as autoimmune disorders, infections, certain medications, or genetic conditions. The excessive destruction of red blood cells leads to a decrease in the number of healthy red blood cells in the bloodstream, resulting in anemia.

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40. The simplest method for detecting increased RBC production is:

Explanation

Reticulocyte enumeration is the simplest method for detecting increased RBC production. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that are released into the bloodstream before fully maturing into mature red blood cells. By counting the number of reticulocytes in a blood sample, it is possible to determine the rate of red blood cell production. An increased number of reticulocytes indicates an increase in RBC production, which can be a response to conditions such as anemia or blood loss. This method is simple and non-invasive compared to other options like measuring RBC survival or performing a bone marrow biopsy.

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41. Using an ocular of 10X, when using hte low power objective, the object is magnified a total of:

Explanation

When using the low power objective with an ocular of 10X, the object is magnified by the magnification of the ocular (10X) multiplied by the magnification of the objective lens (10X). Therefore, the object is magnified a total of 100X.

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42. In quality control, accuracy refers to:

Explanation

Accuracy in quality control refers to how close a measured value is to the true value. It is a measure of how well a measurement reflects the actual value being measured, without any systematic or random errors. It is different from reproducibility, which refers to the consistency of measurements, validity, which refers to the extent to which a measurement measures what it is intended to measure, and duplicate values, which are simply repeated measurements.

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43. White cells woods granules contain heparin, histamine and 5-hydroxytryptamine are a/an:

Explanation

Basophils are a type of white blood cell that contain heparin, histamine, and 5-hydroxytryptamine (also known as serotonin). These granules are released by basophils during an immune response and play a role in inflammation and allergic reactions. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and band neutrophils are other types of white blood cells, but they do not contain these specific granules. Therefore, the correct answer is basophil.

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44. The reticuloendothelial system is composed of:

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of these". The reticuloendothelial system is composed of Kupffer cells of the liver, reticulum cells of the spleen, and reticulum cells of the liver. These cells are part of the immune system and are responsible for filtering and removing foreign particles, such as bacteria and dead cells, from the bloodstream.

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45. The dark blue staining of reticulum in the reticulocyte, with new methylene blue N stain, is due to:

Explanation

The dark blue staining of reticulum in the reticulocyte with new methylene blue N stain is due to RNA. RNA is a molecule involved in protein synthesis and is abundant in the reticulocyte, which is a young red blood cell. The staining technique used specifically targets RNA, resulting in the dark blue coloration. Organelles, ribosomes, and DNA are not directly responsible for this staining.

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46. The only anemia that is hypochromic, microcytic, but is not iron deficiency anemia is:

Explanation

Thalassemia is the correct answer because it is a type of anemia that presents with hypochromic and microcytic red blood cells. Unlike iron deficiency anemia, which is also hypochromic and microcytic, thalassemia is not caused by a lack of iron in the body. Thalassemia is a genetic disorder that affects the production of hemoglobin, leading to abnormal red blood cell formation.

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47. Cells with oval or slit-like central pallor are called:

Explanation

Stomatocytes are cells with an oval or slit-like central pallor. This central pallor gives the cell a mouth-like appearance, hence the name "stomatocyte" which means "mouth cell". Stomatocytes can be seen in certain conditions such as hereditary stomatocytosis or after exposure to certain drugs or toxins. These cells have an altered shape and can affect the cell's ability to carry out its normal functions.

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48. Pernicious anemia and folic acid deficiencies are example of:

Explanation

Pernicious anemia and folic acid deficiencies are examples of megaloblastic anemias. Megaloblastic anemias are characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells (megaloblasts) in the bone marrow. This is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folic acid, which are essential for the production of DNA and red blood cell formation. The deficiency leads to impaired DNA synthesis and abnormal maturation of red blood cells, resulting in anemia.

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49. Compared with adults, a one-year-old child should show a relatively increased proportion of the following in the peripheral blood.

Explanation

In a one-year-old child, the proportion of lymphocytes in the peripheral blood should be relatively increased compared to adults. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system, particularly in the response to infections and diseases. As children are still developing their immune system, they tend to have a higher proportion of lymphocytes in their blood compared to adults. This increased proportion helps to provide adequate immune defense and protection against various pathogens.

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50. An increased total leukocyte count in a cerebrospinal fluid specimen can be due to:

Explanation

An increased total leukocyte count in a cerebrospinal fluid specimen can be due to bacterial meningitis, the first few days of viral meningoencephalitis, a reaction in the first 3 to 4 days following central nervous system (CNS) hemorrhage, or leukemic infiltration. All of these conditions can cause inflammation or infection in the central nervous system, leading to an increase in leukocytes in the cerebrospinal fluid.

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51. With the following information, what is the MCV? Hemoglobin 13.4 g/dl Hematocrit 42% RBC 4.20 x 10 to the 9th/L

Explanation

The MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume) is a measure of the average size of red blood cells. It is calculated by dividing the hematocrit (the percentage of blood volume occupied by red blood cells) by the red blood cell count. In this case, the hematocrit is 42% and the red blood cell count is 4.20 x 10^9/L. Dividing 42 by 4.20 x 10^9 gives a result of 100 femtoliters, which is the MCV.

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52. The normal cell count from a lumbar spine puncture is:

Explanation

The normal cell count from a lumbar spine puncture is 0-8 white blood cells (WBCs) and 0-10 red blood cells (RBCs). This means that a healthy individual would typically have no more than 8 WBCs and 10 RBCs in their cerebrospinal fluid obtained from a lumbar puncture. Any count above these ranges may indicate an infection or other abnormalities in the central nervous system.

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53. The body of a blood smear is located:

Explanation

The body of a blood smear is located between the feathered edge and the overlapping area of red cells. This is because when preparing a blood smear, a drop of blood is spread across a slide using another slide at an angle, creating an area of concentrated cells in the middle (body) of the smear. The feathered edge is the thin end where the blood thins out, and the overlapping area of red cells is where the cells overlap each other. Therefore, the body of the blood smear is found between these two regions.

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54. An iron protein complex that combines with oxygen and carbon dioxide is:

Explanation

Hemoglobin is an iron protein complex that combines with oxygen and carbon dioxide. It is found in red blood cells and is responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and carrying carbon dioxide back to the lungs for exhalation. Hematin is a derivative of hemoglobin and is not directly involved in oxygen and carbon dioxide transport. Hemosiderin is an iron storage protein, and oxyhemoglobin is a form of hemoglobin that is bound to oxygen.

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55. Primary polycythemia is also called:

Explanation

Polycythemia vera is a type of primary polycythemia, which is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells in the bone marrow. It is a rare blood disorder that leads to an increase in the total number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the bloodstream. This condition is not caused by dehydration or stress, but rather by a mutation in the bone marrow cells. Therefore, the correct answer for the given question is polycythemia vera.

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56. With the following information, what is the MCHC? Hemoglobin 13.4 g/dl Hematocrit 42% RBC 4.20 x 10 to the 9th/L

Explanation

The MCHC stands for mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration, which is a measure of the average concentration of hemoglobin in a red blood cell. It is calculated by dividing the hemoglobin concentration by the hematocrit and multiplying by 100. In this case, the given answer of 32% is correct because it represents the percentage of hemoglobin concentration relative to the total volume of red blood cells.

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57. Platelets are direct fragments of the:

Explanation

Platelets are small, disc-shaped cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood clotting. They are derived from megakaryocytes, which are large cells found in the bone marrow. During the process of platelet formation, the cytoplasm of the megakaryocyte undergoes fragmentation, resulting in the release of platelets into the bloodstream. Therefore, the correct answer is "cytoplasm of the megakaryocyte."

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58. Clotting may be observed in cerebrospinal fluid due to:

Explanation

Clotting in cerebrospinal fluid can occur due to increased protein and fibrinogen concentrations. Proteins and fibrinogen play a role in the clotting process, and when their levels are elevated, it can lead to the formation of clots. This can be a result of various conditions or diseases affecting the central nervous system. The presence of bacteria can also contribute to clotting, but it is not the sole cause in this case. Therefore, the correct answer is both a and b, indicating that increased protein and fibrinogen concentrations can lead to clotting in cerebrospinal fluid.

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59. The angle used for preparing blood smears on normal patient blood is:

Explanation

A blood smear is prepared by spreading a drop of blood on a glass slide and then using another slide to create a thin, even layer. The angle at which the second slide is held while spreading the blood affects the thickness and quality of the smear. A 45-degree angle is commonly used for preparing blood smears on normal patient blood because it allows for an optimal distribution of cells and provides a good balance between cell density and smear thickness.

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60. The heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule consists of:

Explanation

The correct answer is four porphyrin rings, each containing a molecule of Fe in the center. Heme is a complex molecule that is responsible for binding oxygen in hemoglobin. It consists of four porphyrin rings, which are flat, cyclic structures, with a molecule of iron (Fe) at the center of each ring. The iron atom is what allows heme to bind to oxygen and transport it throughout the body. Therefore, the correct answer accurately describes the composition of the heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule.

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61. The diluent commonly used in cell counting analyzers is:

Explanation

Isotonic saline is commonly used as a diluent in cell counting analyzers because it has the same osmotic pressure as human blood cells, making it compatible for use in counting and analyzing cells. ACD solution, Drabkin's reagent, and EDTA are not commonly used as diluents in cell counting analyzers.

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62. Bone marrow aspirations, in an adult, can be obtained from which bone?

Explanation

Bone marrow aspirations in adults are commonly obtained from the sternum. The sternum, or breastbone, is a flat bone located in the center of the chest. It is easily accessible and provides a suitable site for bone marrow aspiration procedures. Aspirating bone marrow from the sternum allows for the collection of a sufficient amount of bone marrow cells for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes. The tibia, femur, and cranial bones are not typically used for bone marrow aspirations in adults.

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63. The methodology commonly used to read a cyanmethemoglobin test is:

Explanation

Spectrophotometry is the commonly used methodology to read a cyanmethemoglobin test. This technique involves measuring the amount of light absorbed by a sample at different wavelengths. In the case of a cyanmethemoglobin test, spectrophotometry is used to measure the absorbance of light by the cyanmethemoglobin complex, which is formed when hemoglobin reacts with potassium ferricyanide and potassium cyanide. By measuring the absorbance, the concentration of hemoglobin in the sample can be determined, providing valuable information about blood oxygen levels and related conditions.

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64. The buffy coat is composed of:

Explanation

The buffy coat is a layer of blood that is composed of white blood cells and platelets. These components are separated from the rest of the blood during the process of centrifugation. White blood cells are an essential part of the immune system and are responsible for fighting off infections. Platelets, on the other hand, play a crucial role in blood clotting and preventing excessive bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is white cells and platelets.

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65. Platelet counts are always taken in duplicate and should be checked by a

Explanation

Platelet counts are always taken in duplicate to ensure accuracy and reliability of the results. The duplicate counts are compared to check for any discrepancies or errors. However, simply comparing the duplicate counts may not provide a complete understanding of the platelet count. Therefore, a differential smear is performed to further analyze the platelets and identify any abnormalities or changes in their morphology. This allows for a more comprehensive evaluation of the platelet count and helps in diagnosing various blood disorders.

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66. The stains used in nasal smears for eosinophils are:

Explanation

Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that can be found in nasal smears. To identify these cells, specific stains are used. Eosin Y and methylene blue are the stains used for eosinophils in nasal smears. These stains help to differentiate eosinophils from other types of cells and provide a clearer visualization of their presence.

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67. The cell count on a cerebrospinal fluid specimen should be performed as soon as possible after collection because cells begin to deteriorate within ______ of collection.

Explanation

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear fluid that surrounds and protects the brain and spinal cord. It contains various cells, including white blood cells, red blood cells, and other cells that can provide important diagnostic information. However, these cells can begin to deteriorate and break down over time after collection. Therefore, it is crucial to perform the cell count on a CSF specimen as soon as possible after collection to obtain accurate and reliable results. Waiting longer than 30 minutes may lead to inaccurate cell counts due to cell deterioration.

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68. Inclusions made up of aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RNA) that are similar to inclusions seen in May Hegglin anomaly are:

Explanation

Dohle bodies are inclusions made up of aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RNA) that are similar to the inclusions seen in May Hegglin anomaly. These bodies are often observed in the cytoplasm of neutrophils and are characterized by their pale blue color and irregular shape. They are commonly associated with various infections, inflammatory conditions, and myeloproliferative disorders. Dohle bodies can be indicative of an underlying pathology and are often used as a diagnostic marker in the evaluation of patients with suspected hematological disorders.

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69. Fragments of red blood cells are called:

Explanation

Schistocytes are fragments of red blood cells that are formed when the cells are damaged or destroyed. They often have an irregular shape and can be seen in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation, hemolytic anemia, or mechanical heart valve damage. The presence of schistocytes in the blood can indicate a problem with the body's ability to maintain healthy red blood cells, leading to potential complications such as anemia or clotting disorders.

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70. The first cell affected by an increase in % in a "shift to the left" is:

Explanation

When there is a "shift to the left" in the context of cell differentiation, it means that there is an increase in the number of immature cells in the blood. In this case, the correct answer is "band neutrophil" because it is the earliest stage of neutrophil development. An increase in the percentage of band neutrophils indicates that there is an increased production of immature neutrophils, which can be a sign of infection or inflammation. The other cell types listed (metamyelocyte, myelocyte, promyelocyte) are more mature stages of neutrophil development and would not be the first cells affected in a "shift to the left".

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71. An anemia that has decreased synthesis of the beta and sometimes alpha and delta polypeptide chains is called:

Explanation

Thalassemia is an anemia characterized by decreased synthesis of the beta and sometimes alpha and delta polypeptide chains. This results in abnormal hemoglobin production and impaired red blood cell function. Pernicious anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, folic acid deficiency anemia is caused by inadequate folate intake, sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene, and hereditary spherocytosis is a disorder of red blood cell membrane proteins. Thalassemia is the most appropriate answer as it specifically refers to the decreased synthesis of the beta and sometimes alpha and delta polypeptide chains.

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72. The acid-serum and sugar-water tests are used to detect:

Explanation

The acid-serum and sugar-water tests are used to detect paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is a rare disorder characterized by the destruction of red blood cells, leading to hemolytic anemia. The acid-serum test involves adding acid to a blood sample, which causes the red blood cells affected by paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria to become more sensitive to complement-mediated lysis. The sugar-water test involves adding sugar to a blood sample, which causes the red blood cells affected by paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria to become more sensitive to osmotic lysis. These tests help in diagnosing this specific disorder.

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73. A test used for the detection of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is:

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of these". Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is a rare acquired disorder characterized by the destruction of red blood cells. The sugar-water test, acid-serum test, and Ham method are all different laboratory tests that can be used to detect PNH. The sugar-water test involves mixing the patient's red blood cells with a sugar solution, and if PNH is present, the cells become more fragile and break apart. The acid-serum test measures the sensitivity of red blood cells to acid, and if PNH is present, the cells become more sensitive and hemolyze. The Ham method is a flow cytometry test that detects the absence of certain proteins on the surface of red blood cells, which is indicative of PNH.

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74. In charging the couting chamber, allow the first few drops from the pipette to:

Explanation

In charging the counting chamber, it is important to allow the first few drops from the pipette to be expelled. This is because these initial drops may contain air bubbles or impurities that can affect the accuracy of the cell count. By expelling these drops, we ensure that only the pure and accurate sample is used for the hemoglobin result.

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75. Hemoglobin values are commonly expressed in:

Explanation

Hemoglobin values are commonly expressed in g/dl, which stands for grams per deciliter. This unit of measurement is used to quantify the concentration of hemoglobin in the blood. It represents the amount of hemoglobin present in every deciliter of blood. Other units, such as mg/dl, are not commonly used for measuring hemoglobin levels. Therefore, the correct answer is g/dl.

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76. Polychromatopohilic erythrocytes are also called:

Explanation

Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that still contain remnants of their nucleus. They are called polychromatophilic erythrocytes because they have a bluish tint due to the presence of ribosomes in their cytoplasm. Reticulocytes are released into the bloodstream from the bone marrow and eventually mature into fully functional red blood cells.

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77. As red cells mature, the nucleus becomes:

Explanation

As red cells mature, the nucleus becomes more condensed. This means that the genetic material inside the nucleus becomes tightly packed and organized. This condensation allows for more efficient storage of genetic material and also helps the red cells to function properly. The more condensed nucleus is a characteristic of mature red cells and is necessary for their proper functioning in carrying oxygen throughout the body.

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78. Statistical methods are used to:

Explanation

Statistical methods are used to define normal values by analyzing a large sample of data and determining the range within which most data points fall. By calculating measures such as mean, median, and standard deviation, statistical methods help establish a baseline or reference range that represents what is considered normal or typical. This allows for the identification of outliers or abnormal values that may indicate a deviation from the norm. Therefore, statistical methods play a crucial role in defining normal values and detecting abnormalities in various fields such as healthcare, quality control, and scientific research.

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79. Plasmodium species are confirmed by observing with:

Explanation

Plasmodium species are confirmed by observing both thin and thick smears with Giemsa stain. Giemsa stain is commonly used in the diagnosis of malaria as it helps to visualize the parasites and their characteristic features. Thin smears are used to identify the species of Plasmodium and to determine the parasite density, while thick smears are used to detect the presence of parasites even at low densities. By using Giemsa stain on both thin and thick smears, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and identify the Plasmodium species causing the infection.

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80. The following values were obtained on 2 reticulocyte slides, counting 500 RBCs and noting retic numbers on each slide. Retics = 10 on one slide and 15 on the other slide What is the result?

Explanation

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81. The characteristic cell of ALL is:

Explanation

The characteristic cell of ALL (Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia) is a lymphoblast. In ALL, there is an abnormal proliferation of lymphoblasts, which are immature lymphocytes. These lymphoblasts replace normal cells in the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in the production of normal blood cells. Identification of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow or blood is crucial for the diagnosis of ALL.

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82. The failure of a neutrophil to segment beyond 2 lobes is called

Explanation

Pelger-Huet anomaly is the correct answer because it is a condition characterized by the failure of neutrophils, a type of white blood cell, to segment beyond two lobes. Normally, neutrophils have segmented nuclei with multiple lobes, but in individuals with Pelger-Huet anomaly, the nuclei appear bilobed or dumbbell-shaped. This anomaly is usually inherited and can be detected through a blood smear examination. It is important to note that Pelger-Huet anomaly is a benign condition and does not typically cause any health problems or symptoms.

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83. Darker granules found in the neutrophil are called

Explanation

Toxic granules are darker granules found in neutrophils. These granules contain enzymes and proteins that help the neutrophils in their role of fighting off infections. When the neutrophils encounter bacteria or other foreign substances, they release these toxic granules to destroy the invaders. Therefore, the correct answer is "toxic."

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84. In the breakdown of RBCs, bilirubin is:

Explanation

Bilirubin, a yellow pigment, is a byproduct of the breakdown of red blood cells (RBCs). It is released from the RBCs and transported to the liver, where it is conjugated and converted into a water-soluble form. This conjugated bilirubin is then excreted from the body through bile, which is ultimately eliminated in the feces. Therefore, bilirubin is excreted from the body as a waste product.

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85. The periodic acid-Schiff stain (PAS) is positive due to the presence of:

Explanation

The periodic acid-Schiff stain (PAS) is positive due to the presence of mucoproteins and polysaccharides. This staining method is commonly used to detect carbohydrates and carbohydrate-rich substances in tissues. Mucoproteins are proteins that have attached polysaccharide chains, making them PAS positive. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugar molecules, which also react with the PAS stain. Therefore, the presence of mucoproteins and polysaccharides in a sample would result in a positive PAS stain.

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86. Xanthochromia in a spinal fluid usually indicates

Explanation

Xanthochromia in spinal fluid refers to the presence of yellowish discoloration, which is typically caused by the breakdown of red blood cells (RBCs). This breakdown, known as hemolysis, occurs when RBCs rupture and release their contents into the fluid. Therefore, the correct answer is hemolysis of RBCs. This can be caused by various factors such as subarachnoid hemorrhage, which leads to blood mixing with the cerebrospinal fluid and subsequent RBC breakdown.

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87. A basket cell is also called a:

Explanation

A basket cell is not referred to as a pyknotic cell, turk cell, or mott cell. Instead, it is commonly known as a smudge cell.

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88. Which of the following conditions would introduce a source of error into a hemocytometer cell count?

Explanation

Uneven distribution of cells in the counting chamber would introduce a source of error into a hemocytometer cell count because it would result in an inaccurate representation of the actual cell count. If the cells are not evenly distributed, some areas of the counting chamber may have a higher concentration of cells while other areas may have a lower concentration. This would lead to an overestimation or underestimation of the total cell count, depending on the distribution pattern. To obtain accurate results, it is important to ensure that the cells are evenly distributed in the counting chamber before counting.

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89. The immediate precursor of the metamyelocyte is a:

Explanation

The immediate precursor of the metamyelocyte is a myelocyte. This is because myelocytes are the stage of development that comes before the metamyelocyte in the maturation process of neutrophils. The myelocyte is characterized by having a round nucleus and a more condensed chromatin compared to earlier stages. As the neutrophil matures further, it progresses from the myelocyte stage to the metamyelocyte stage, where the nucleus becomes indented or kidney-shaped. Therefore, the myelocyte is the correct answer as it is the direct precursor of the metamyelocyte.

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90. A white cell with non-specific granules is a

Explanation

A white cell with non-specific granules is a lymphocyte. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances in the body, such as bacteria or viruses. Unlike other white blood cells, lymphocytes do not contain specific granules that are involved in the digestion of pathogens. Instead, they rely on their ability to produce antibodies and coordinate immune responses to protect the body against infections and diseases.

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91. The largest blood cell found in the bone marrow is a

Explanation

A megakaryocyte is the correct answer because it is the largest blood cell found in the bone marrow. Megakaryocytes are responsible for producing platelets, which are essential for blood clotting. They have a unique multi-lobed nucleus and are much larger in size compared to other blood cells. Megakaryocytes undergo fragmentation to release platelets into the bloodstream. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell, while pormonocytes and megakaryoblasts are not commonly recognized terms in the context of blood cells.

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92. If screening tests are positive for Hemoglobin S, the confirmatory test to be performed is:

Explanation

The confirmatory test for Hemoglobin S is electrophoresis. Electrophoresis is a laboratory technique used to separate and analyze proteins based on their size and charge. In the case of Hemoglobin S, electrophoresis can be used to identify the abnormal hemoglobin variant and confirm the diagnosis. This test is reliable and specific for detecting Hemoglobin S and can differentiate it from other hemoglobin variants. The other options, such as the dithionite tube test, morphology studies of the blood smear, and osmotic fragility, may provide additional information but are not specific or reliable enough to confirm the presence of Hemoglobin S.

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93. An inclusion found in the white blood cells is:

Explanation

An Auer rod is an inclusion that can be found in white blood cells. It is a rod-shaped structure that is commonly seen in certain types of leukemia, specifically acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Auer rods are formed due to abnormal granules in the cytoplasm of the white blood cells. Their presence is indicative of the presence of AML and can be identified through microscopic examination of blood or bone marrow samples.

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94. A hemoglobinopathy which sometimes shows crystals in the red cells is:

Explanation

Hgb C is a type of hemoglobinopathy that can sometimes cause crystals to form in red blood cells. This condition is caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene, resulting in the production of an abnormal form of hemoglobin. The abnormal hemoglobin can form crystals within the red blood cells, leading to various symptoms and complications. These crystals can cause the red blood cells to become rigid and distorted, leading to their destruction and potentially causing anemia.

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95. The presence of inclusions resembling Dohle bodies is noted in this anomaly:

Explanation

The presence of inclusions resembling Dohle bodies is noted in the May-Hegglin anomaly.

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96. Increased osmotic fragility is found in:

Explanation

Hereditary spherocytosis is a genetic disorder characterized by the presence of spherical-shaped red blood cells instead of the normal biconcave shape. These abnormal cells are more fragile and prone to rupture when exposed to changes in osmotic pressure. This increased osmotic fragility leads to the destruction of red blood cells and results in anemia. Therefore, hereditary spherocytosis is associated with increased osmotic fragility.

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97. The characteristic cell present in Hodgkin's disease is:

Explanation

Reed-Sternberg cells are the characteristic cells present in Hodgkin's disease. These large, abnormal cells are derived from B lymphocytes and can be identified by their distinctive appearance under a microscope. They have a bilobed or multinucleated structure, with prominent nucleoli and abundant cytoplasm. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsies is a key diagnostic feature of Hodgkin's disease. These cells play a role in the pathogenesis of the disease and are associated with the immune response and inflammation seen in Hodgkin's lymphoma.

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98. Absolute lymphocytosis is observed in:

Explanation

Infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), which leads to an increase in the number of lymphocytes in the blood. This condition is known as absolute lymphocytosis. Brucellosis and tuberculosis (t.b.) are bacterial infections and may not typically cause a significant increase in lymphocytes. While bacterial infections can cause a mild increase in lymphocytes, it is not typically as pronounced as in infectious mononucleosis. Therefore, infectious mononucleosis is the most likely cause of absolute lymphocytosis among the given options.

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99. Atypical lymphocytes were first classified by:

Explanation

Dr. Downey is credited with first classifying atypical lymphocytes.

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100. Heparin inhibits the clotting of fresh whole blood by inhibiting the production of:

Explanation

Heparin inhibits the clotting of fresh whole blood by inhibiting the production of thrombin. Thrombin is a crucial enzyme in the coagulation cascade that converts fibrinogen into fibrin, which forms the mesh-like structure of a blood clot. By inhibiting thrombin production, heparin prevents the formation of fibrin and thus inhibits blood clotting.

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101. If a patient has Hemoglobin C present, follow-up work should include:

Explanation

If a patient has Hemoglobin C present, follow-up work should include genetic counseling. This is because Hemoglobin C is a genetic disorder that affects the structure of hemoglobin in red blood cells. Genetic counseling can provide information and guidance to individuals and families affected by this condition, including understanding the inheritance pattern, potential health risks, and available treatment options. It can also help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing. Blood transfusions, daily hemoglobins, and capillary studies may be relevant in managing the symptoms of Hemoglobin C, but genetic counseling is essential for comprehensive care.

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102. The factor which increases the sedimentation rate the most is:

Explanation

Fibrinogen is a protein that plays a crucial role in blood clotting. When there is an injury or damage to blood vessels, fibrinogen is converted into fibrin, which forms a mesh-like structure to stop bleeding and promote clot formation. This process is known as the coagulation cascade. As fibrinogen levels increase in the blood, it can lead to an increased sedimentation rate, which is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a tube. Therefore, fibrinogen is the factor that most significantly increases the sedimentation rate.

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103. Which of the following contain or are erythrocytic inclusions of RNA and can be observed by staining with new methylene blue?

Explanation

Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that still contain RNA. When stained with new methylene blue, these cells can be observed due to the presence of erythrocytic inclusions of RNA. Howell-Jolly bodies are nuclear remnants, Heinz bodies are denatured hemoglobin, Pappenheimer bodies are iron granules, and basophilic stippling is the presence of aggregates of RNA and ribosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is reticulocytes, as they contain erythrocytic inclusions of RNA and can be observed with new methylene blue staining.

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104. Using the brilliant cresyl blue preparation for reticulocytes, they may be confused with:

Explanation

Heinz bodies are small round inclusions within red blood cells that are composed of denatured hemoglobin. When using the brilliant cresyl blue preparation for reticulocytes, Heinz bodies may be confused with reticulocytes due to their similar appearance. This confusion can occur because both reticulocytes and Heinz bodies can appear as small, blue-staining structures within red blood cells. Therefore, it is important to carefully differentiate between reticulocytes and Heinz bodies when using this staining method.

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105. A leukemia that involves the red cell and granulocytic percursors is:

Explanation

Erythroleukemia is a type of leukemia that involves the red cell and granulocytic precursors. This means that it affects the development and function of both red blood cells and certain types of white blood cells. It is characterized by the abnormal proliferation of these cells in the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in normal blood cell production and an increase in immature cells. Erythroleukemia can present with symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and increased susceptibility to infections. Treatment options may include chemotherapy, stem cell transplantation, and supportive care measures.

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106. In quality control, "trends" refers to:

Explanation

In quality control, "trends" refer to gradual shifts. This means that over a period of time, there is a consistent and gradual change in the data being analyzed. It is different from rapid shifts, which indicate sudden and significant changes, and occasional "out of limit" results, which are sporadic occurrences. Trends within plus or minus 2 SD (standard deviations) may also be considered, but the focus here is on the gradual nature of the shifts.

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107. In glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, an ovservable feature of the red cells is:

Explanation

In glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, Heinz bodies are observed in the red cells. Heinz bodies are abnormal clumps of denatured hemoglobin that form within the red blood cells. This occurs due to the accumulation of oxidized substances in the cells, which causes damage to the hemoglobin molecule. The presence of Heinz bodies can lead to premature destruction of the red blood cells, resulting in hemolytic anemia.

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108. In the improved Neubauer ruling, the 400 small squares are composed of:

Explanation

In the improved Neubauer ruling, the 400 small squares are composed of 25 groups of 16 squares. This means that there are 25 sets of 16 squares arranged in a specific pattern. The total number of squares in these groups adds up to 400, which matches the total number of small squares mentioned in the question.

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109. A white cell with lysosomes containing histamine, peroxidase, and acid hydrolases is a/an:

Explanation

An eosinophil is a type of white blood cell that contains lysosomes with histamine, peroxidase, and acid hydrolases. These components play a role in the immune response, particularly in allergic reactions and defense against parasitic infections. Eosinophils are characterized by their bilobed nucleus and cytoplasmic granules that stain red-orange with eosin dye. They are typically involved in the regulation of inflammation and the destruction of foreign substances in the body.

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110. The Philadelphia chromosome is most commonly associated with this leukemia:

Explanation

The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality that is most commonly associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). This chromosome results from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, leading to the formation of a fusion gene called BCR-ABL1. This fusion gene produces a protein that drives the uncontrolled growth of white blood cells, leading to the development of CML. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic myelogenous leukemia.

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111. A 1:20 dilution was prepared for a manual WBC count. The cells counted in 4 sq. mm. total 349 cells. What is the total white count?

Explanation

The correct answer is 17,450/uL. This is because the given information states that a 1:20 dilution was prepared for the manual WBC count. This means that the actual number of white blood cells in the original sample is 20 times the number counted in the diluted sample. Since 349 cells were counted in 4 sq. mm., the total number of cells in the original sample is 349 x 20 = 6,980 cells in 4 sq. mm. To convert this to the total white count, we need to calculate the number of cells per microliter (uL). Since 1 sq. mm. is equal to 1 uL, the total white count is 6,980 cells/uL. However, this is not one of the answer choices. To find the correct answer, we need to multiply this value by 2.5, which is the conversion factor for WBC count. Therefore, the total white count is 6,980 x 2.5 = 17,450/uL.

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112. In an automated analyzer, a high background count in a parameter measured by electrical impedance can be due to:

Explanation

A high background count in a parameter measured by electrical impedance in an automated analyzer can be due to a combination of factors such as a partial obstruction of the aperture, electrical line interference, contaminated diluent, and bubbles in the diluent. These factors can contribute to an inaccurate measurement and result in a high background count.

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113. In acute lymphoblastic leukemia:

Explanation

Both answer choices a and d are correct. The t(12:21) marker in acute lymphoblastic leukemia indicates a positive prognosis because it is associated with a better response to treatment and a higher chance of survival. On the other hand, the t(9:22) marker indicates a negative prognosis as it is associated with a more aggressive form of the disease and a lower chance of survival. Therefore, both markers have prognostic significance in acute lymphoblastic leukemia, with t(12:21) indicating a positive prognosis and t(9:22) indicating a negative prognosis.

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114. In the erythrocyte series, a committed stem cell will differentiate into a

Explanation

A committed stem cell in the erythrocyte series will differentiate into a rubriblast. This is the first stage of erythrocyte development, where the cell is large with a round nucleus and contains basophilic cytoplasm. It is the precursor to the prorubricyte, which then differentiates into a rubricyte, and finally into a metarubricyte. Therefore, the correct answer is rubriblast.

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115. A reticulocyte, when properly stained, exhibits:

Explanation

When a reticulocyte is properly stained, it shows a network of granular filaments. This refers to the appearance of granules arranged in a network-like pattern within the cell. This characteristic is important in identifying reticulocytes, as it indicates their immature state. Reticulocytes are young red blood cells that still contain remnants of ribosomal RNA, which appear as these granular filaments. As the reticulocytes mature, these granules disappear, and the cells become fully functional red blood cells without a nucleus.

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116. The predominant cell observed in Hemoglobin C disease is:

Explanation

In Hemoglobin C disease, the predominant cell observed is the target cell. Target cells have a central round area of hemoglobin surrounded by a clear ring, giving them a target-like appearance. This is due to the abnormal shape and function of hemoglobin in this disease. Target cells are commonly seen in conditions such as liver disease, thalassemia, and hemoglobinopathies.

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117. Hemoglobin A migrates faster than

Explanation

Hemoglobin A migrates faster than two or more of these variants (Hgb C, Hgb S, Hgb H) because it has a different molecular structure or size that allows it to move more quickly during migration. It is possible that Hgb C, Hgb S, or Hgb H have larger or more complex structures which hinder their migration speed.

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118. Which cell is not easily distinguishable from a lymphoblast?

Explanation

A myeloblast is a type of precursor cell in the bone marrow that gives rise to granulocytes, which are a type of white blood cell. It closely resembles a lymphoblast, which is a precursor cell of lymphocytes. Both cells are immature and have similar characteristics, making them difficult to distinguish from each other. However, a mature lymphocyte is a fully developed white blood cell that has undergone maturation and differentiation, making it easily distinguishable from a lymphoblast. Similarly, a monocyte is a type of white blood cell that has a distinct appearance and function, further differentiating it from a lymphoblast.

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119. If you made an appropriate WBC dilution and subsequently counted a total of 250 cells in the four leukocyte counting areas on an appropriate hemocytometer, what is the patient's total leukocyte count?

Explanation

The total leukocyte count can be calculated by multiplying the number of cells counted in the four leukocyte counting areas by the dilution factor. Since the question states that an appropriate WBC dilution was made and a total of 250 cells were counted, we can assume that the dilution factor is 1. Therefore, the patient's total leukocyte count is 250 x 1 = 250 cells/L. Since the answer choices are given in 10^9/L, we need to convert the count to this unit. 250 cells/L is equivalent to 0.25 x 10^9/L. None of the answer choices match this value, so the correct answer is not provided in the options.

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120. Auer rods are found only in:

Explanation

Auer rods are needle-like cytoplasmic inclusions that are found in the cells of certain types of leukemia. They are most commonly seen in monoblasts and myeloblasts, which are immature cells of the myeloid lineage. Monoblasts give rise to monocytes, while myeloblasts give rise to granulocytes. Therefore, the presence of Auer rods in these cells can be indicative of acute myeloid leukemia (AML), a type of cancer that affects the myeloid cells. Auer rods are not typically seen in lymphocytes or lymphoblasts, which are cells of the lymphoid lineage.

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121. In hemoglobin electrophoresis, with alkaline buffer (pH 8.4), the amino acids:

Explanation

In hemoglobin electrophoresis with alkaline buffer (pH 8.4), the amino acids migrate toward the anode. This is because the anode is positively charged and attracts the negatively charged amino acids. The movement of the amino acids towards the anode allows for the separation and identification of different hemoglobin variants based on their migration patterns.

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122. The x axis on a histrgram represents

Explanation

The x-axis on a histogram represents both the volume in femtoliters and the cell pulse area. The volume in femtoliters refers to the size or volume of cells being measured, while the cell pulse area represents the intensity or amplitude of the pulse generated by the cells. Both of these factors are important in analyzing and interpreting the data displayed on a histogram.

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123. Round, purple staining nuclear fragments in the red cell are called:

Explanation

Howell-Jolly bodies are round, purple staining nuclear fragments that can be seen in red blood cells. They are remnants of the nucleus that should have been removed during the maturation process of red blood cells in the bone marrow. Their presence in circulating red blood cells can indicate various conditions such as asplenia, splenectomy, or other disorders affecting the bone marrow.

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124. In a bone marrow sample, the myeloid-erythroid (M-E) ratio range is:

Explanation

The myeloid-erythroid (M-E) ratio in a bone marrow sample refers to the ratio of myeloid cells (which give rise to various types of blood cells) to erythroid cells (which give rise to red blood cells). The correct answer range of 2:1-5:1 suggests that there should be 2 to 5 times more myeloid cells than erythroid cells in the sample. This ratio is considered normal and indicates a balanced production of blood cells in the bone marrow.

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125. The normal value for men on a sedimentation rate is:

Explanation

The normal value for men on a sedimentation rate is 0 - 10 mm/hr. This means that a sedimentation rate between 0 and 10 mm/hr is considered normal for men. Sedimentation rate is a blood test that measures how quickly red blood cells settle in a tube in one hour. A higher sedimentation rate may indicate inflammation or infection in the body, while a lower rate is typically not a cause for concern.

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126. Multiple myeloma will never exhibit:

Explanation

Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell neoplasm characterized by the excessive production of monoclonal immunoglobulins (IgG, IgA, IgM, or IgD). Therefore, it will not exhibit decreased levels of any of these immunoglobulins. Instead, multiple myeloma will typically present with increased levels of one specific type of immunoglobulin. The other options listed, such as myeloma cells, mott cells, and Russell bodies, are all characteristic features seen in multiple myeloma.

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127. A 1:20 dilution was prepared for a manual WBC count. The 4 corner sq. mm. and the center square mm were counted, giving a total of 150 cells. The count was:

Explanation

A 1:20 dilution means that the original sample was diluted 20 times. The count of cells in the 4 corner square mm and the center square mm of the diluted sample was 150 cells. To calculate the concentration of cells in the original sample, we need to multiply the count by the dilution factor. In this case, the dilution factor is 20. Therefore, the concentration of cells in the original sample is 150 x 20 = 3000 cells/uL. However, since the question asks for the count in uL, the answer would be 6000/uL.

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128. What is the corrected total leukocyte count, if 10 nucleated erythrocytes were noted per 100 leukocytes on the leukocyte differential count? The initial total leukocyte count was 20 x 10 to the 9th/L.

Explanation

The initial total leukocyte count was 20 x 10 to the 9th/L. If 10 nucleated erythrocytes were noted per 100 leukocytes, it means that 10% of the total leukocytes are nucleated erythrocytes. To find the corrected total leukocyte count, we need to subtract this 10% from the initial count. 10% of 20 x 10 to the 9th/L is 2 x 10 to the 9th/L. Subtracting this from the initial count gives us 18 x 10 to the 9th/L, which is equivalent to 18.2 x 10 to the 9th/L. Therefore, the corrected total leukocyte count is 18.2 x 10 to the 9th/L.

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129. Hypersegmented, macrocytic neutrophils are often noted in the following condition:

Explanation

Hypersegmented, macrocytic neutrophils are often noted in pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is a type of anemia caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12, which is necessary for the production of red blood cells. The macrocytic red blood cells and hypersegmented neutrophils are characteristic findings in this condition. Hypersegmented neutrophils have more than five lobes in their nucleus, instead of the usual three or four lobes. This abnormality is seen in pernicious anemia due to impaired DNA synthesis, leading to abnormal maturation of neutrophils.

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130. Which of the following best defines the principle of the cyanmethemoglobin method?

Explanation

The correct answer explains that the principle of the cyanmethemoglobin method involves the conversion of hemoglobin iron from the ferrous to the ferric state using potassium ferricyanide. This converted hemoglobin then combines with potassium cyanide to form cyanmethemoglobin. This explanation accurately describes the process involved in the cyanmethemoglobin method.

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131. Low scores on a leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain indicate:

Explanation

Low scores on a leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain indicate chronic myelogenous leukemia. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) is an enzyme found in the cytoplasmic granules of neutrophils. In chronic myelogenous leukemia, there is a proliferation of myeloid cells, including neutrophils, in the bone marrow. However, these neutrophils have low LAP activity, which can be detected by the stain. This is in contrast to polycythemia vera, hemolytic anemia, and acute lymphocytic leukemia, which do not typically show low LAP scores.

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132. The MCV is the:

Explanation



MCV stands for Mean Corpuscular Volume, which represents the average volume of a red blood cell. It is calculated by dividing the total volume of packed red blood cells by the total number of red blood cells in a blood sample.
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133. Red cells which exhibit punctuate iron are called:

Explanation

A siderocyte is a red blood cell that contains iron granules. These iron granules appear as punctuate or dot-like structures within the red blood cell. The other options mentioned in the question, such as howell-jolly bodies, pappenheimer bodies, and basophilic stippling, refer to different types of abnormalities or inclusions in red blood cells, but they do not specifically involve iron granules. Therefore, the correct answer is siderocyte.

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134. The y axis on a histogram represents:

Explanation

The y axis on a histogram represents the frequency of cells. A histogram is a graphical representation of the distribution of a dataset. In this case, the dataset consists of cells, and the y axis shows how many cells fall into each category or bin. Therefore, the y axis represents the frequency or count of cells in each bin, indicating the number of cells that have a particular characteristic or fall within a specific range.

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135. A synonym for metarubricyte is

Explanation

An orthochromatic normoblast is a synonym for metarubricyte. This term refers to a stage in the development of red blood cells where the nucleus is condensed and pushed to one side of the cell. It is the last stage before the cell becomes a mature red blood cell. The other options, pronormoblast, basophilic normoblast, and polychromatophilic normoblast, refer to earlier stages in the development of red blood cells.

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136. Absolute neutrophilia is observed in:

Explanation

Absolute neutrophilia refers to an increase in the absolute number of neutrophils in the blood. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the body's immune response to infection. Appendicitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the appendix, typically due to a blockage or infection. In response to the infection, the body releases more neutrophils into the blood, leading to absolute neutrophilia. Therefore, appendicitis is associated with absolute neutrophilia.

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137. To insure an accurate count of reticulocytes, it is necessary to examine at least:

Explanation

To ensure an accurate count of reticulocytes, it is necessary to examine at least 1000 - 2000 erythrocytes. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that are still in the process of maturing. By examining a sufficient number of erythrocytes, which are mature red blood cells, we can get a more representative count of reticulocytes in the sample. This range allows for a more accurate assessment of the proportion of reticulocytes in the blood, which can be useful in diagnosing certain conditions such as anemia or evaluating bone marrow function.

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138. As red blood cells mature, the cytoplasm becomes more:

Explanation

As red blood cells mature, the cytoplasm becomes more polychromatophilic. This means that the cytoplasm of the red blood cells takes on a bluish-gray color due to the presence of both acidophilic (pink/red) and basophilic (blue/purple) components. This change in cytoplasmic coloration is a characteristic feature of maturing red blood cells.

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139. The characteristic cell present in infectious mononucleosis is:

Explanation

In infectious mononucleosis, the characteristic cell present is a reactive lymphocyte. Reactive lymphocytes are immune cells that have been activated in response to an infection or other immune stimulus. They are larger than normal lymphocytes and have abundant cytoplasm. These cells are typically seen in the peripheral blood during the acute phase of infectious mononucleosis and are often referred to as "atypical lymphocytes" due to their abnormal appearance. They are important for the immune response against the Epstein-Barr virus, which is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis.

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140. In the osmotic fragility test, the reagent used is:

Explanation

The correct answer is hypotonic NaCl solution. In the osmotic fragility test, red blood cells are exposed to different concentrations of salt solution to determine their ability to withstand osmotic stress. A hypotonic solution has a lower concentration of salt compared to the cells, causing water to enter the cells and potentially causing them to burst. This test helps in diagnosing conditions such as hereditary spherocytosis, where red blood cells are more fragile than normal.

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141. Acceptable limits of a control value must fall:

Explanation

Acceptable limits of a control value must fall within plus or minus 2 standard deviations of the mean. This range is commonly used in statistical analysis to determine if a data point is within a reasonable range of variation. It allows for some variability while still maintaining control over the process. Values falling within this range are considered acceptable and do not indicate any significant deviations from the mean.

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142. If the sedimentation rate pipette is standing at an angle from the veritcal, the result will be:

Explanation

If the sedimentation rate pipette is standing at an angle from the vertical, it can lead to increased sedimentation rate. This is because when the pipette is not in a vertical position, the blood sample may not settle evenly, causing the red blood cells to sediment faster than normal. This can result in an increased sedimentation rate measurement.

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143. A cell histogram is a graphic representation of:

Explanation

A cell histogram is a graphic representation of cell frequencies versus size. It shows the distribution of cell sizes within a sample, with the x-axis representing the size of the cells and the y-axis representing the frequency or number of cells of each size. This type of histogram is commonly used in flow cytometry to analyze and compare the size distribution of different cell populations.

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144. As a rough estimation, how should hemoglobin and hematocrit value compare?

Explanation

As a rough estimation in typical clinical scenarios, the hematocrit (Hct) value is approximately three times the hemoglobin (Hb) value. This relationship may vary slightly depending on factors like age, gender, and other individual variations, but a common rule of thumb is that the hematocrit is roughly three times the hemoglobin concentration in whole blood. This relationship helps provide an estimate of the blood's viscosity and red blood cell count.

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145. Mast cells found in the tissues resemble:

Explanation

Mast cells found in the tissues resemble basophils because both cell types are involved in allergic reactions and release histamine. They have similar granules in their cytoplasm and play a role in the immune response.

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146. Which test is not used for detecting Hemoglobin S?

Explanation

Cyanmethemoglobin is not used for detecting Hemoglobin S because it is a method used to measure the total amount of hemoglobin in the blood, rather than specifically detecting Hemoglobin S. The insolubility tube test, alkaline electrophoresis, and bone marrow exam are commonly used tests to detect Hemoglobin S.

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147. The predominant cell in the peripheral blood of stem cell leukemia is:

Explanation

The correct answer is primitive undifferentiated blast. In stem cell leukemia, the predominant cell in the peripheral blood is a primitive undifferentiated blast. This type of blast is characterized by its lack of differentiation into specific cell lineages, such as lymphoblasts, myeloblasts, monoblasts, or megakaryoblasts. The presence of primitive undifferentiated blasts in the peripheral blood is indicative of an abnormal proliferation of stem cells, which can lead to leukemia.

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148. The four layers observed, after centrifuging on bone marrow, from top to bottom are:

Explanation

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149. If a blood smear is too long, the problem can be resolved by:

Explanation

Increasing the angle of the pusher slide will help resolve the problem of a blood smear that is too long. By increasing the angle, the blood will spread out more quickly and evenly on the slide, resulting in a shorter smear. This allows for better visualization and examination of the blood cells under a microscope.

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150. The microscope of choice for counting platelets is:

Explanation

Phase microscopy is the preferred choice for counting platelets because it allows for clear visualization and differentiation of platelets from other blood cells. Phase contrast microscopy enhances the contrast between the transparent platelets and the surrounding medium, making it easier to identify and count them accurately. This technique is particularly useful for studying live cells or samples without the need for staining or fixing, making it a valuable tool in platelet research and clinical diagnostics.

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151. Red cells produced by patients with megaloblastic anemia have a defect in the

Explanation

The correct answer is nucleus because megaloblastic anemia is characterized by the production of red blood cells that are larger than normal and have an abnormal shape. This is due to a defect in the nucleus of the red blood cells, which affects their maturation and leads to the abnormal size and shape. The defect in the nucleus can be caused by a deficiency in certain vitamins, such as vitamin B12 or folate, which are necessary for proper DNA synthesis and cell division in the bone marrow.

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152. The most important factor determining an ESR is:

Explanation

The most important factor determining an ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is plasma concentration. ESR is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle at the bottom of a test tube. It is used as an indicator of inflammation or infection in the body. The plasma concentration of proteins, particularly fibrinogen, plays a crucial role in determining the rate of red blood cell sedimentation. Higher plasma concentrations of proteins lead to increased aggregation of red blood cells, resulting in a faster sedimentation rate. Therefore, plasma concentration is the key factor influencing ESR.

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153. Increased reticulocyte counts are noted in:

Explanation

Increased reticulocyte counts are noted in hemolytic anemia. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that are released into the bloodstream in response to increased demand for red blood cells. In hemolytic anemia, there is increased destruction of red blood cells, leading to a higher production of reticulocytes as the body tries to compensate for the loss. This is in contrast to aplastic anemia, where there is decreased production of red blood cells, and pernicious anemia, which is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency and affects the maturation of red blood cells.

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154. The osmotic fragility test will show a greater increase of hemolysis than normal in:

Explanation

Pyruvate kinase deficiency is a genetic disorder that affects the red blood cells' ability to produce ATP, leading to decreased energy and increased fragility. The osmotic fragility test measures the ability of red blood cells to withstand changes in osmotic pressure. In pyruvate kinase deficiency, the red blood cells are more fragile and prone to hemolysis, resulting in a greater increase in hemolysis compared to normal. Sickle cell anemia, diabetes insipidus, and iron deficiency anemia do not directly affect the red blood cells' fragility, making them less likely to show a significant increase in hemolysis in the osmotic fragility test.

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155. The most mature white cell to undergo mitosis is:

Explanation

A myelocyte is the most mature white blood cell that undergoes mitosis. It is formed from a promyelocyte, which is an immature cell. As the cell matures, it goes through several stages, including myelocyte, metamyelocyte, and band neutrophil. Among these stages, the myelocyte is the most mature and is capable of undergoing mitosis.

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156. A predominant red cell seen in patients with pulmonary embolism is:

Explanation

A predominant red cell seen in patients with pulmonary embolism is "blister." This suggests that in patients with pulmonary embolism, the red blood cells may appear swollen or have a blister-like appearance. This could be due to various factors such as changes in cell membrane integrity or alterations in osmotic balance. However, without further information, it is difficult to provide a more specific explanation for why blister cells are predominant in pulmonary embolism.

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157. In a Wright's stain, essentially mature red cells with RNA are called:

Explanation

Polychromatophilic cells are essentially mature red cells that still contain RNA. These cells have a bluish tint when stained with Wright's stain due to the presence of both hemoglobin and RNA. Hypochromic cells, on the other hand, have a decreased amount of hemoglobin and appear pale in color. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that still contain remnants of RNA and appear blue when stained. Nucleated red blood cells are immature cells that still have a nucleus and are not normally present in the peripheral blood of healthy individuals.

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158. An increase in the number of lymphocytes in a cerebrospinal fluid specimen can be caused by:

Explanation

An increase in the number of lymphocytes in a cerebrospinal fluid specimen can be caused by viral meningoencephalitis. This is because viral infections can lead to an immune response in the central nervous system, resulting in the recruitment of lymphocytes to the cerebrospinal fluid. Bacterial meningitis can also cause an increase in lymphocytes, but it is not the only cause. Additionally, a reaction in the first few days following CNS hemorrhage can also lead to an increase in lymphocytes, but again, it is not the only cause. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as all the options listed can cause an increase in lymphocytes in the cerebrospinal fluid.

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159. An ESR performed 24 hours after venipuncture will be

Explanation

An ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a test tube over a specific period of time. This rate is influenced by the presence of certain proteins in the blood that can cause the red blood cells to clump together and settle faster. However, these proteins take time to accumulate in the blood sample, so the ESR result will not change significantly within 24 hours. Therefore, the ESR performed 24 hours after venipuncture will be the same as a freshly drawn sample.

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160. The cyanmethemoglobin procedure measures all hemoglobin except:

Explanation

Sulfhemoglobin is a form of hemoglobin that cannot be measured by the cyanmethemoglobin method. This procedure is effective for measuring oxyhemoglobin, deoxyhemoglobin, carboxyhemoglobin, and methemoglobin, but sulfhemoglobin, which forms when sulfur binds to hemoglobin, is not detected by this method.

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161. Which leukemia does not have thrombocytopenia?

Explanation

CML (Chronic Myeloid Leukemia) does not typically cause thrombocytopenia, which is a condition characterized by low platelet count. Thrombocytopenia is commonly seen in ALL (Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia), AML (Acute Myeloid Leukemia), and CLL (Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia). Therefore, the correct answer is CML.

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162. If a blood smear stains too red upon microscopic examination of a Wright's stained preparation, possible causes include:

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the blood smear stains too red because the buffer used in the staining process was too acidic and the exposure time was too short. This means that the acidic buffer caused an excessive red staining, and the short exposure time did not allow for proper staining.

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163. The leukemia that often shows polycythemia in the early stages of the disease is:

Explanation

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is the correct answer because it is a type of leukemia that can cause an increase in red blood cells, leading to polycythemia. ALL, AML, and CLL are different types of leukemia that do not typically present with polycythemia.

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164. A normal blood smear should have an average of ____ platelets per oil immersion field in an area where the erythrocytes are just touching each other

Explanation



A normal blood smear should have an average of approximately 15 platelets per oil immersion field in an area where the erythrocytes (red blood cells) are just touching each other.
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165. In pernicious anemia, as a rule, there is:

Explanation

In pernicious anemia, leukopenia is commonly observed. Leukopenia refers to a decrease in the number of white blood cells in the body. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body is unable to absorb enough vitamin B12, leading to a deficiency. This deficiency affects the production of red blood cells and can also impact the white blood cell count. Therefore, leukopenia is a characteristic feature of pernicious anemia.

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166. The % of nucleated red cells in the bone marrow is:

Explanation

The percentage of nucleated red cells in the bone marrow is typically between 20-35%. This means that out of all the cells present in the bone marrow, 20-35% of them are nucleated red cells. Nucleated red cells are immature red blood cells that still have their nucleus, and they are produced in the bone marrow before being released into the bloodstream. This range is considered normal and indicates a healthy production of red blood cells in the bone marrow.

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Amanda Nwachukwu |Pharm(D) |
Clinical Pharmacist
Amanda Nwachukwu, holding a Doctorate in Pharmacy from Texas Tech University Health Sciences Center, adeptly simplifies complex medical concepts into accessible content. With clinical proficiency, she ensures optimal patient care, while her adept medical writing skills facilitate comprehension and accessibility of healthcare information.

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The cell that functions as a plug at the site of bleeding is the:
RBC production is initiated by the hormone:
The chief function of the platelet is to:
Most lymphocytes in the circulating blood are:
The five types of leukocytes found in normal peripheral blood are:
The cell that functions in the defensive mechanism of the body during...
In allergic conditions, we commonly find an increase of:
Red blood cells which are larger than 8.1 microns are called:
The solutions used as diluents in red cell counting are:
The spun hematocrit procedure can be affected by the:
Poor blood smears can be caused by:
The term thrombocytopenia indicates a/an:
Identify the characteristic or characteristics of a good peripheral...
The polypeptide chains of hemoglobin A are composed of:
An increase of total leukocytes over the normal is called:
The sedimentation rate can be affected by the
EDTA inhibits blood from clotting by
The precursor of the platelet is:
The normal number of thrombocytes per ul is:
Microsampling on a newborn infant is usually taken from:
Clots present in blood samples will give you a/an:
The nucleus of a cell consists primarily of
The period of useful function of the red cell in the peripheral blood...
Venipuncture is usually performed on the
The type of staining we use to stain reticulocytes is called: 
In high altitudes, the hemoglobin value is:
The cell that synthesizes immunoglobins is a/an:
Which red cell is not a biconcave disc?
The hematocrit is the
The smallest % of normal cells in a differential count is:
Which of the following becomes a tissue macrophage after a brief stay...
The hemoglobin types found in a normal adult are:
The special stain for observing siderocytes, sideroblast, iron stores...
Formation of granulocytic cells takes place in the:
With the following information, what is the MCH?...
The white cell that contains digestive enzymes most effective at...
The red blood cell values for indices done on a patient were:...
Which of the following is not a characteristic of platelets?
Hemolytic anemias are caused by:
The simplest method for detecting increased RBC production is:
Using an ocular of 10X, when using hte low power objective, the object...
In quality control, accuracy refers to:
White cells woods granules contain heparin, histamine and...
The reticuloendothelial system is composed of:
The dark blue staining of reticulum in the reticulocyte, with new...
The only anemia that is hypochromic, microcytic, but is not iron...
Cells with oval or slit-like central pallor are called:
Pernicious anemia and folic acid deficiencies are example of:
Compared with adults, a one-year-old child should show a relatively...
An increased total leukocyte count in a cerebrospinal fluid specimen...
With the following information, what is the MCV?...
The normal cell count from a lumbar spine puncture is:
The body of a blood smear is located:
An iron protein complex that combines with oxygen and carbon dioxide...
Primary polycythemia is also called:
With the following information, what is the MCHC?...
Platelets are direct fragments of the:
Clotting may be observed in cerebrospinal fluid due to:
The angle used for preparing blood smears on normal patient blood is:
The heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule consists of:
The diluent commonly used in cell counting analyzers is:
Bone marrow aspirations, in an adult, can be obtained from which bone?
The methodology commonly used to read a cyanmethemoglobin test is:
The buffy coat is composed of:
Platelet counts are always taken in duplicate and should be checked by...
The stains used in nasal smears for eosinophils are:
The cell count on a cerebrospinal fluid specimen should be performed...
Inclusions made up of aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RNA)...
Fragments of red blood cells are called:
The first cell affected by an increase in % in a "shift to the...
An anemia that has decreased synthesis of the beta and sometimes alpha...
The acid-serum and sugar-water tests are used to detect:
A test used for the detection of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria...
In charging the couting chamber, allow the first few drops from the...
Hemoglobin values are commonly expressed in:
Polychromatopohilic erythrocytes are also called:
As red cells mature, the nucleus becomes:
Statistical methods are used to:
Plasmodium species are confirmed by observing with:
The following values were obtained on 2 reticulocyte slides, counting...
The characteristic cell of ALL is:
The failure of a neutrophil to segment beyond 2 lobes is called
Darker granules found in the neutrophil are called
In the breakdown of RBCs, bilirubin is:
The periodic acid-Schiff stain (PAS) is positive due to the presence...
Xanthochromia in a spinal fluid usually indicates
A basket cell is also called a:
Which of the following conditions would introduce a source of error...
The immediate precursor of the metamyelocyte is a:
A white cell with non-specific granules is a
The largest blood cell found in the bone marrow is a
If screening tests are positive for Hemoglobin S, the confirmatory...
An inclusion found in the white blood cells is:
A hemoglobinopathy which sometimes shows crystals in the red cells is:
The presence of inclusions resembling Dohle bodies is noted in this...
Increased osmotic fragility is found in:
The characteristic cell present in Hodgkin's disease is:
Absolute lymphocytosis is observed in:
Atypical lymphocytes were first classified by:
Heparin inhibits the clotting of fresh whole blood by inhibiting the...
If a patient has Hemoglobin C present, follow-up work should include:
The factor which increases the sedimentation rate the most is:
Which of the following contain or are erythrocytic inclusions of RNA...
Using the brilliant cresyl blue preparation for reticulocytes, they...
A leukemia that involves the red cell and granulocytic percursors is:
In quality control, "trends" refers to:
In glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, an ovservable feature...
In the improved Neubauer ruling, the 400 small squares are composed...
A white cell with lysosomes containing histamine, peroxidase, and acid...
The Philadelphia chromosome is most commonly associated with this...
A 1:20 dilution was prepared for a manual WBC count. The cells counted...
In an automated analyzer, a high background count in a parameter...
In acute lymphoblastic leukemia:
In the erythrocyte series, a committed stem cell will differentiate...
A reticulocyte, when properly stained, exhibits:
The predominant cell observed in Hemoglobin C disease is:
Hemoglobin A migrates faster than
Which cell is not easily distinguishable from a lymphoblast?
If you made an appropriate WBC dilution and subsequently counted a...
Auer rods are found only in:
In hemoglobin electrophoresis, with alkaline buffer (pH 8.4), the...
The x axis on a histrgram represents
Round, purple staining nuclear fragments in the red cell are called:
In a bone marrow sample, the myeloid-erythroid (M-E) ratio range is:
The normal value for men on a sedimentation rate is:
Multiple myeloma will never exhibit:
A 1:20 dilution was prepared for a manual WBC count. The 4 corner sq....
What is the corrected total leukocyte count, if 10 nucleated...
Hypersegmented, macrocytic neutrophils are often noted in the...
Which of the following best defines the principle of the...
Low scores on a leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain indicate:
The MCV is the:
Red cells which exhibit punctuate iron are called:
The y axis on a histogram represents:
A synonym for metarubricyte is
Absolute neutrophilia is observed in:
To insure an accurate count of reticulocytes, it is necessary to...
As red blood cells mature, the cytoplasm becomes more:
The characteristic cell present in infectious mononucleosis is:
In the osmotic fragility test, the reagent used is:
Acceptable limits of a control value must fall:
If the sedimentation rate pipette is standing at an angle from the...
A cell histogram is a graphic representation of:
As a rough estimation, how should hemoglobin and hematocrit value...
Mast cells found in the tissues resemble:
Which test is not used for detecting Hemoglobin S?
The predominant cell in the peripheral blood of stem cell leukemia is:
The four layers observed, after centrifuging on bone marrow, from top...
If a blood smear is too long, the problem can be resolved by:
The microscope of choice for counting platelets is:
Red cells produced by patients with megaloblastic anemia have a defect...
The most important factor determining an ESR is:
Increased reticulocyte counts are noted in:
The osmotic fragility test will show a greater increase of hemolysis...
The most mature white cell to undergo mitosis is:
A predominant red cell seen in patients with pulmonary embolism is:
In a Wright's stain, essentially mature red cells with RNA are called:
An increase in the number of lymphocytes in a cerebrospinal fluid...
An ESR performed 24 hours after venipuncture will be
The cyanmethemoglobin procedure measures all hemoglobin except:
Which leukemia does not have thrombocytopenia?
If a blood smear stains too red upon microscopic examination of a...
The leukemia that often shows polycythemia in the early stages of the...
A normal blood smear should have an average of ____ platelets per oil...
In pernicious anemia, as a rule, there is:
The % of nucleated red cells in the bone marrow is:
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