Hematology Quiz: Questions And Answers!

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  • 1/166 Questions

    The cell that functions as a plug at the site of bleeding is the:

    • Eosinophil
    • Red cell
    • Platelet
    • Neutrophil
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About This Quiz

Test your knowledge of blood and its components with this engaging hematology quiz! Designed to be both challenging and informative, this quiz covers a wide range of topics, from basic blood cell types to complex disorders. If you're a student, a healthcare professional, or simply curious about the fascinating world of hematology, this quiz offers a fun and effective way See moreto learn.

Engage with a series of hematology questions and answers that explore the intricacies of blood disorders, cell morphology, and laboratory techniques. Each question is designed to test your understanding and provide valuable insights into the field of hematology. Think you know your red cells from your white cells? Put your knowledge to the test and see how you score!

Hematology Quiz: Questions And Answers! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    RBC production is initiated by the hormone:

    • Luteinizing (LH)

    • Interstitial cell stimulating (ICSH)

    • Parathyroid Hormone

    • Erythropoietin

    Correct Answer
    A. Erythropoietin
    Explanation
    Erythropoietin is the hormone responsible for initiating the production of red blood cells (RBCs). It is produced and released by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels in the body. Erythropoietin stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs, which helps to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of RBC production and is essential for the body's overall oxygenation.

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  • 3. 

    The chief function of the platelet is to:

    • Fight infection

    • Aid in coagulation

    • Antibody formation

    • Carry oxygen

    Correct Answer
    A. Aid in coagulation
    Explanation
    Platelets play a crucial role in the process of coagulation, which is the formation of blood clots to prevent excessive bleeding. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets are activated and aggregate at the site of injury, forming a plug to stop the bleeding. They also release various substances that promote the formation of fibrin, a protein that strengthens the clot. Therefore, the correct answer is "aid in coagulation."

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  • 4. 

    The five types of leukocytes found in normal peripheral blood are:

    • Lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils, basophils, and lymphoblast

    • Lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, myeloblasts, and eosinophils

    • Lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils
    Explanation
    The answer "lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils" is correct because these are the five types of leukocytes commonly found in normal peripheral blood. Lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses, neutrophils are the most abundant type and are involved in fighting bacterial infections, monocytes are involved in immune responses and can differentiate into macrophages, eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions and fighting parasitic infections, and basophils are involved in allergic reactions and releasing histamine.

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  • 5. 

    The cell that functions in the defensive mechanism of the body during infection is:

    • Neutrophil

    • Reticulocyte

    • Platelet

    • Eosinophil

    Correct Answer
    A. Neutrophil
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the body's immune response against infection. They are the first cells to arrive at the site of infection and are responsible for engulfing and destroying bacteria and other pathogens. Neutrophils release enzymes and chemicals that help to kill the invading microorganisms. They also play a role in inflammation by releasing cytokines that attract other immune cells to the site of infection. Therefore, neutrophils are the primary cell that functions in the defensive mechanism of the body during infection.

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  • 6. 

    Most lymphocytes in the circulating blood are:

    • A & B cells

    • A & O cells

    • A & T cells

    • T & B cells

    Correct Answer
    A. T & B cells
    Explanation
    T cells and B cells are the two main types of lymphocytes found in the circulating blood. T cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity, which involves directly attacking infected cells. B cells, on the other hand, are responsible for humoral immunity, which involves producing antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Both T cells and B cells play crucial roles in the immune response and work together to provide a coordinated defense against infections and diseases.

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  • 7. 

    In allergic conditions, we commonly find an increase of:

    • Red cells

    • Lymphocytes

    • Neutrophils

    • Bosinophils

    Correct Answer
    A. Bosinophils
    Explanation
    In allergic conditions, eosinophils are commonly increased. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that play a role in the immune response to parasites and allergic reactions. They are especially involved in the response to allergies such as asthma, hay fever, and eczema. Eosinophils release chemicals that help to control and limit the inflammatory response. Therefore, an increase in eosinophils is often seen in allergic conditions as they are recruited to the affected tissues to help combat the allergic reaction.

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  • 8. 

    The spun hematocrit procedure can be affected by the:

    • Speed of the centrifuge

    • Length of time of centrifugation

    • Ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The spun hematocrit procedure measures the volume of red blood cells in relation to the total volume of blood. The speed of the centrifuge affects the separation of the blood components, with higher speeds leading to better separation. The length of time of centrifugation determines the extent of separation and can affect the accuracy of the hematocrit measurement. The ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood is important for preventing clotting during the procedure. Therefore, all of these factors can impact the spun hematocrit procedure.

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  • 9. 

    Red blood cells which are larger than 8.1 microns are called:

    • Anisocytes

    • Macrocytes

    • Microcytes

    • Normocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Macrocytes
    Explanation
    Red blood cells that are larger than 8.1 microns are called macrocytes. This term is used to describe abnormally large red blood cells. Anisocytes refers to red blood cells that vary in size, microcytes refers to red blood cells that are smaller than normal, and normocytes refers to red blood cells that are of normal size. However, in this case, the correct term to describe red blood cells larger than 8.1 microns is macrocytes.

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  • 10. 

    The solutions used as diluents in red cell counting are:

    • Isotonic

    • Isometric

    • Isotropic

    • Isoelectric

    Correct Answer
    A. Isotonic
    Explanation
    Isotonic solutions are used as diluents in red cell counting because they have the same osmotic pressure as red blood cells. This means that the concentration of solutes inside the red blood cells and in the isotonic solution is balanced, allowing the cells to maintain their normal shape and size. Using an isotonic solution as a diluent ensures accurate counting and prevents any distortion or damage to the red blood cells.

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  • 11. 

    Poor blood smears can be caused by:

    • Prolonged storage of specimens in EDTA, and dirty slides

    • Delay in preparing the smear once the drop of blood has been placed on the slide

    • A drop of blood that is too large or too small

    • Holding the pusher slide at the wrong angle, and poor drying conditions

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the mentioned factors can contribute to poor blood smears. Prolonged storage of specimens in EDTA can cause cell clumping and distortion, leading to poor smear quality. Dirty slides can introduce debris and contaminants, affecting the clarity of the smear. If there is a delay in preparing the smear after placing the drop of blood on the slide, it can result in drying and alteration of the blood cells. Using a drop of blood that is either too large or too small can lead to uneven distribution and difficulty in obtaining a well-spread smear. Holding the pusher slide at the wrong angle and poor drying conditions can also affect the quality of the smear. Therefore, all of the mentioned factors can contribute to poor blood smears.

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  • 12. 

    The polypeptide chains of hemoglobin A are composed of:

    • 1 alpha, 3 beta

    • 2 alpha

    • 2 alpha, 2 beta

    • 1 alpha, 2 beta, 1 delta

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 alpha, 2 beta
    Explanation
    The polypeptide chains of hemoglobin A are composed of 2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains. This composition is specific to hemoglobin A, which is the most common type of hemoglobin found in adults. The alpha and beta chains come together to form the quaternary structure of hemoglobin, allowing it to efficiently carry oxygen throughout the body.

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  • 13. 

    The term thrombocytopenia indicates a/an:

    • Abnormally low number of thrombocytes.

    • Abnormally high number of thrombocytes.

    • Normal number of platelets.

    • Abnormally low total white blood count.

    Correct Answer
    A. Abnormally low number of thrombocytes.
    Explanation
    Thrombocytopenia refers to a condition characterized by an abnormally low number of thrombocytes, which are also known as platelets. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a decrease in their count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and difficulty in clotting. Therefore, the correct answer is "abnormally low number of thrombocytes."

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  • 14. 

    Identify the characteristic or characteristics of a good peripheral blood smear:

    • Progresses from thick at the point of origin to thin

    • Has a blunt feathered termination

    • It is smooth without waves or streaks

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    A good peripheral blood smear should progress from thick at the point of origin to thin, meaning that the blood cells should be evenly distributed across the slide. It should also have a blunt feathered termination, indicating that the smear ends abruptly without any trailing cells. Additionally, the smear should be smooth without any waves or streaks, ensuring that the blood cells are evenly spread and not clumped together. Therefore, all of the characteristics mentioned above contribute to a good peripheral blood smear.

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  • 15. 

    An increase of total leukocytes over the normal is called:

    • Leukemia

    • Leukopenia

    • Leukocytosis

    • Pancytopenia

    Correct Answer
    A. Leukocytosis
    Explanation
    Leukocytosis is the correct answer because it refers to an increase in the total number of leukocytes (white blood cells) in the body. This can be a normal response to infection, inflammation, or other conditions. Leukemia, on the other hand, is a type of cancer that causes an abnormal increase in white blood cells. Leukopenia is a decrease in white blood cells, and pancytopenia is a decrease in all types of blood cells.

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  • 16. 

    The sedimentation rate can be affected by the

    • Ratio of anticoagulant to the whole blood

    • Level of fibrinogen

    • Position of the tube

    • Temperature of the specimen or laboratory

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The sedimentation rate is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a tube of blood. It can be affected by various factors, including the ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood, the level of fibrinogen (a protein involved in blood clotting), the position of the tube (vertical or horizontal), and the temperature of the specimen or laboratory. All of these factors can influence the sedimentation rate and should be considered when interpreting the results.

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  • 17. 

    The precursor of the platelet is:

    • Myeloblast

    • Mega blast

    • Megakaryocyte

    • Plasmablast

    Correct Answer
    A. Megakaryocyte
    Explanation
    A megakaryocyte is the precursor of platelets. Megakaryocytes are large cells found in the bone marrow that undergo fragmentation to produce platelets. Platelets are small, disc-shaped cells that play a crucial role in blood clotting. They help to stop bleeding by forming clots at the site of injury. Therefore, the correct answer is megakaryocyte.

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  • 18. 

    The normal number of thrombocytes per ul is:

    • 5,000 - 10,000

    • 125,000 - 150,000

    • 150,000 - 450,000

    • 500,000 - 1,000,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 150,000 - 450,000
    Explanation
    The normal number of thrombocytes per ul is between 150,000 and 450,000. Thrombocytes, also known as platelets, are important for blood clotting. This range is considered normal because it allows for adequate clotting ability without an increased risk of bleeding or clotting disorders. A lower count may indicate a condition called thrombocytopenia, which can lead to excessive bleeding, while a higher count may indicate a condition called thrombocytosis, which can increase the risk of blood clots.

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  • 19. 

    The period of useful function of the red cell in the peripheral blood is:

    • 5-10 days

    • 10-20 days

    • 20-40 days

    • 60-80 days

    • 100-120 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 100-120 days
    Explanation
    The period of useful function of the red cell in the peripheral blood is 100-120 days. Red blood cells, or erythrocytes, have a lifespan of approximately 120 days. During this time, they transport oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues and remove carbon dioxide. After their lifespan, they are removed from circulation by the spleen and liver and new red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow to replace them. This continuous cycle ensures the body maintains a sufficient supply of functional red blood cells.

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  • 20. 

    EDTA inhibits blood from clotting by

    • Binding chloride

    • Binding calcium

    • Binding plasma

    • Binding red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Binding calcium
    Explanation
    EDTA, or ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid, is a chelating agent that binds to calcium ions in the blood. Calcium is a crucial component in the blood clotting process, as it is required for the activation of various clotting factors. By binding to calcium, EDTA prevents it from participating in the clotting cascade, effectively inhibiting blood clotting. This property makes EDTA useful in medical procedures where preventing blood clotting is necessary, such as in blood transfusions or during certain laboratory tests.

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  • 21. 

    The nucleus of a cell consists primarily of

    • DNA

    • RNA

    • Golgi bodies

    • Ribosomes

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA
    Explanation
    The nucleus of a cell consists primarily of DNA because DNA is the genetic material that carries the instructions for the development, functioning, and reproduction of all living organisms. It is located within the nucleus, which is the control center of the cell. DNA is organized into structures called chromosomes, which contain the genes that determine an organism's traits. RNA, Golgi bodies, and ribosomes are also important components of the cell, but they are not the primary component of the nucleus.

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  • 22. 

    Microsampling on a newborn infant is usually taken from:

    • Heel

    • Toe

    • Finger

    • Ear

    Correct Answer
    A. Heel
    Explanation
    Microsampling on a newborn infant is usually taken from the heel. This is because the heel is easily accessible and has a good blood supply. The heel is also less sensitive compared to other parts of the body, making it a suitable site for sampling. Additionally, the heel is often used for newborn screening tests, such as the Guthrie test, which involves collecting a small amount of blood for early detection of certain diseases.

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  • 23. 

    Clots present in blood samples will give you a/an:

    • Decreased cell count

    • Normal cell counts

    • Increased cell count

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased cell count
    Explanation
    When there are clots present in blood samples, they can interfere with the accurate counting of cells. The clots can trap cells within them, preventing them from being counted. This leads to a decrease in the cell count obtained from the sample. Therefore, the presence of clots in blood samples will result in a decreased cell count.

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  • 24. 

    Venipuncture is usually performed on the

    • Median cubital

    • Cephalic

    • Jugular

    • Median antibrachial

    Correct Answer
    A. Median cubital
    Explanation
    Venipuncture is a medical procedure that involves puncturing a vein to collect blood samples or administer intravenous medications. The median cubital vein is the preferred site for venipuncture because it is larger, more stable, and less likely to move during the procedure. It is located in the middle of the antecubital fossa, which is the area on the front of the elbow. The cephalic and jugular veins are also commonly used for venipuncture, but the median cubital vein is considered the best option due to its accessibility and stability. The median antibrachial vein is not a commonly used site for venipuncture.

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  • 25. 

    The type of staining we use to stain reticulocytes is called: 

    • Supra-vital

    • Ultra-vital

    • Non-vital

    • Counterstaining

    Correct Answer
    A. Supra-vital
    Explanation
    The correct answer is supra-vital. Supra-vital staining refers to staining techniques that are performed on living cells. In the case of reticulocytes, which are immature red blood cells, supra-vital staining is used to visualize the presence of residual RNA in the cytoplasm. This staining method allows for the identification and quantification of reticulocytes, providing valuable information about the production and maturation of red blood cells in the body.

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  • 26. 

    The cell that synthesizes immunoglobins is a/an:

    • Mast cells

    • Basophil

    • Plasma cells

    • Turk cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasma cells
    Explanation
    Plasma cells are the correct answer because they are specialized cells that produce and secrete large amounts of immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies. These antibodies are an essential part of the immune response and play a crucial role in fighting off infections and other foreign substances in the body. Mast cells and basophils are involved in allergic reactions and inflammation, while turk cells do not exist, making them incorrect options.

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  • 27. 

    In high altitudes, the hemoglobin value is:

    • Higher

    • Lower

    • The same

    • Not altered

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher
    Explanation
    At high altitudes, the hemoglobin value is higher. This is because at higher altitudes, there is a decrease in the availability of oxygen in the atmosphere. In response to this, the body compensates by increasing the production of red blood cells and hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the tissues, so an increase in its value helps to ensure that an adequate amount of oxygen reaches the body's cells despite the lower oxygen levels at high altitudes.

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  • 28. 

    Which red cell is not a biconcave disc?

    • Anisocyte

    • Microcyte

    • Hypochromic red cells

    • Spherocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Spherocyte
    Explanation
    A spherocyte is not a biconcave disc because it lacks the typical concave shape of a red blood cell. Instead, it appears more spherical or round in shape. This abnormal shape can be caused by various factors such as a genetic disorder or an immune response. Spherocytes are often associated with conditions like hereditary spherocytosis or autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

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  • 29. 

    The hematocrit is the

    • Volume of packed red cells

    • Volume of total red cells

    • Volume of average red cells

    • Weight of average red cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Volume of packed red cells
    Explanation
    The hematocrit is a measure of the volume of packed red cells in a given volume of blood. It represents the percentage of blood that is made up of red blood cells. A higher hematocrit indicates a higher concentration of red blood cells, which can be an indication of conditions such as dehydration or polycythemia. Conversely, a lower hematocrit may suggest anemia or blood loss. Therefore, the correct answer is "volume of packed red cells."

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  • 30. 

    The smallest % of normal cells in a differential count is:

    • Metamyelocytes

    • Basophils

    • Eosinophils

    • Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Basophils
    Explanation
    Basophils are the least common type of white blood cells found in the body, making up only a small percentage of the total white blood cell count. They are responsible for releasing chemicals such as histamine during allergic reactions and play a role in the body's immune response. Metamyelocytes, eosinophils, and monocytes are all more common than basophils in a differential count of white blood cells. Therefore, basophils have the smallest percentage among these options.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following becomes a tissue macrophage after a brief stay in the blood?

    • Monocyte

    • Lymphocyte

    • Neutrophil

    • Plasma cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Monocyte
    Explanation
    Monocytes are white blood cells that circulate in the blood for a short period before migrating to the tissues, where they differentiate into tissue macrophages. These macrophages play a crucial role in the immune response by engulfing and digesting pathogens and cellular debris. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in specific immune responses, while neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cell and are primarily responsible for fighting bacterial infections. Plasma cells are differentiated B cells that produce antibodies.

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  • 32. 

    The hemoglobin types found in a normal adult are:

    • S, A, F

    • A, A2, C

    • A2, F

    • A, A2, F

    Correct Answer
    A. A, A2, F
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A, A2, F. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. In a normal adult, the most common types of hemoglobin are A, A2, and F. Hemoglobin A is the most abundant type, making up about 95-98% of total hemoglobin. Hemoglobin A2 is the second most common type, making up about 2-3% of total hemoglobin. Hemoglobin F is the least common type, making up less than 1% of total hemoglobin. These different types of hemoglobin play important roles in oxygen transport and maintaining the health of red blood cells.

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  • 33. 

    The special stain for observing siderocytes, sideroblast, iron stores and granules is:

    • PAS

    • Prussian-Blue

    • Nitroblue-Tetrazolium

    • LAP

    Correct Answer
    A. Prussian-Blue
    Explanation
    Prussian-Blue is the correct answer because it is a special stain commonly used in histology and hematology to detect the presence of iron in tissues and cells. It specifically stains siderocytes, sideroblasts, and iron stores, allowing for the observation and identification of these structures. The stain works by forming a blue complex with iron, making it easily visible under a microscope. PAS, Nitroblue-Tetrazolium, and LAP are not specific stains for iron and do not provide the same level of detail in observing siderocytes, sideroblasts, and iron stores.

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  • 34. 

    Formation of granulocytic cells takes place in the:

    • Liver

    • Spleen

    • Thymus

    • Bone marrow

    Correct Answer
    A. Bone marrow
    Explanation
    Granulocytic cells, also known as granulocytes, are a type of white blood cell that are responsible for fighting off infections. The formation of these cells occurs in the bone marrow. The bone marrow is a soft, spongy tissue found inside the bones, where blood cells are produced. It contains stem cells that can differentiate into different types of blood cells, including granulocytes. Therefore, the correct answer is bone marrow.

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  • 35. 

    The simplest method for detecting increased RBC production is:

    • Measure of the RBC survival

    • Ferrokinetics studies

    • Reticulocyte enumeration

    • Bone marrow biopsy

    Correct Answer
    A. Reticulocyte enumeration
    Explanation
    Reticulocyte enumeration is the simplest method for detecting increased RBC production. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that are released into the bloodstream before fully maturing into mature red blood cells. By counting the number of reticulocytes in a blood sample, it is possible to determine the rate of red blood cell production. An increased number of reticulocytes indicates an increase in RBC production, which can be a response to conditions such as anemia or blood loss. This method is simple and non-invasive compared to other options like measuring RBC survival or performing a bone marrow biopsy.

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  • 36. 

    The white cell that contains digestive enzymes most effective at destroying bacteria is the:

    • Neutrophil

    • Lymphocyte

    • Eosinophil

    • Monocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Neutrophil
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that are highly effective at destroying bacteria. They contain digestive enzymes, such as lysozyme and proteases, which can break down the bacterial cell wall and proteins, leading to the destruction of bacteria. Neutrophils are the first responders to infection and play a crucial role in the immune response against bacterial pathogens. They are able to migrate to the site of infection, engulf bacteria through a process called phagocytosis, and release their enzymes to destroy the bacteria.

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  • 37. 

    With the following information, what is the MCH? Hemoglobin 13.4 g/dl Hematocrit 42% RBC 4.20 x 10 to the 9th/L

    • 32 picograms

    • 32%

    • 42%

    • 100 femtoliters

    Correct Answer
    A. 32 picograms
    Explanation
    The mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) is a measure of the average amount of hemoglobin in each red blood cell. To calculate MCH, we divide the total amount of hemoglobin by the total number of red blood cells. In this case, the hemoglobin level is given as 13.4 g/dl and the red blood cell count is 4.20 x 10^9/L. Since the MCH is measured in picograms, we need to convert the hemoglobin level from grams to picograms. 1 gram is equal to 1,000,000 picograms, so 13.4 g/dl is equal to 13,400,000 picograms/dl. Dividing this by the red blood cell count of 4.20 x 10^9/L gives us an MCH of approximately 32 picograms.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is not a characteristic of platelets?

    • The presence of a nucleus.

    • Size of 2 to 4 um.

    • Cytoplasm a light blue with red-purple granules.

    • A discoid shape as an inactive cell.

    Correct Answer
    A. The presence of a nucleus.
    Explanation
    Platelets are small, irregularly shaped cell fragments that are involved in blood clotting. They are derived from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow and do not possess a nucleus. This lack of a nucleus allows platelets to be more flexible and adaptable in their function. They also have a size of 2 to 4 um, cytoplasm that is light blue with red-purple granules, and a discoid shape when inactive. Therefore, the presence of a nucleus is not a characteristic of platelets.

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  • 39. 

    The red blood cell values for indices done on a patient were: MCV 70 femtoliters MCH 22 picograms MCHC 25% What would be the most likely description of the red cells appearance in the stained blood film?

    • Macrocytic, hypochromic

    • Macrocytic, normochromic

    • Microcytic, hypochromic

    • Microcytic, normochromic

    Correct Answer
    A. Microcytic, hypochromic
    Explanation
    The red blood cell values indicate a low MCV (mean corpuscular volume) and a low MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration), which suggests that the red cells are smaller than normal (microcytic) and have a reduced amount of hemoglobin (hypochromic). Therefore, the most likely description of the red cells appearance in the stained blood film would be microcytic, hypochromic.

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  • 40. 

    Hemolytic anemias are caused by:

    • Blood loss

    • Deficiency of vitamin B12

    • Faulty absorption

    • Deficient diet

    • Excessive destruction of blood cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive destruction of blood cells
    Explanation
    Hemolytic anemias are caused by excessive destruction of blood cells. This means that the body is breaking down red blood cells at a faster rate than it can produce them. This can occur due to various reasons such as autoimmune disorders, infections, certain medications, or genetic conditions. The excessive destruction of red blood cells leads to a decrease in the number of healthy red blood cells in the bloodstream, resulting in anemia.

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  • 41. 

    Using an ocular of 10X, when using hte low power objective, the object is magnified a total of:

    • 10X

    • 43X

    • 100X

    • 1000X

    Correct Answer
    A. 100X
    Explanation
    When using the low power objective with an ocular of 10X, the object is magnified by the magnification of the ocular (10X) multiplied by the magnification of the objective lens (10X). Therefore, the object is magnified a total of 100X.

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  • 42. 

    In quality control, accuracy refers to:

    • Reproducibility

    • True value

    • Validity

    • Duplicate values

    Correct Answer
    A. True value
    Explanation
    Accuracy in quality control refers to how close a measured value is to the true value. It is a measure of how well a measurement reflects the actual value being measured, without any systematic or random errors. It is different from reproducibility, which refers to the consistency of measurements, validity, which refers to the extent to which a measurement measures what it is intended to measure, and duplicate values, which are simply repeated measurements.

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  • 43. 

    White cells woods granules contain heparin, histamine and 5-hydroxytryptamine are a/an:

    • Neutrophil

    • Eosinophil

    • Basophil

    • Band neutrophil

    Correct Answer
    A. Basophil
    Explanation
    Basophils are a type of white blood cell that contain heparin, histamine, and 5-hydroxytryptamine (also known as serotonin). These granules are released by basophils during an immune response and play a role in inflammation and allergic reactions. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and band neutrophils are other types of white blood cells, but they do not contain these specific granules. Therefore, the correct answer is basophil.

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  • 44. 

    The reticuloendothelial system is composed of:

    • Kupffer cells of the liver

    • Reticulum cells of the spleen

    • Reticulum cells of the liver

    • All of these

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. All of these
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of these". The reticuloendothelial system is composed of Kupffer cells of the liver, reticulum cells of the spleen, and reticulum cells of the liver. These cells are part of the immune system and are responsible for filtering and removing foreign particles, such as bacteria and dead cells, from the bloodstream.

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  • 45. 

    The dark blue staining of reticulum in the reticulocyte, with new methylene blue N stain, is due to:

    • Organelles

    • Ribosomes

    • RNA

    • DNA

    Correct Answer
    A. RNA
    Explanation
    The dark blue staining of reticulum in the reticulocyte with new methylene blue N stain is due to RNA. RNA is a molecule involved in protein synthesis and is abundant in the reticulocyte, which is a young red blood cell. The staining technique used specifically targets RNA, resulting in the dark blue coloration. Organelles, ribosomes, and DNA are not directly responsible for this staining.

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  • 46. 

    Cells with oval or slit-like central pallor are called:

    • Spherocytes

    • Stomatocytes

    • Drapanocytes

    • Schistocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Stomatocytes
    Explanation
    Stomatocytes are cells with an oval or slit-like central pallor. This central pallor gives the cell a mouth-like appearance, hence the name "stomatocyte" which means "mouth cell". Stomatocytes can be seen in certain conditions such as hereditary stomatocytosis or after exposure to certain drugs or toxins. These cells have an altered shape and can affect the cell's ability to carry out its normal functions.

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  • 47. 

    The only anemia that is hypochromic, microcytic, but is not iron deficiency anemia is:

    • Thalassemia

    • Sickle cell

    • Megaloblastic

    • Spherocytic

    • Hemolytic

    Correct Answer
    A. Thalassemia
    Explanation
    Thalassemia is the correct answer because it is a type of anemia that presents with hypochromic and microcytic red blood cells. Unlike iron deficiency anemia, which is also hypochromic and microcytic, thalassemia is not caused by a lack of iron in the body. Thalassemia is a genetic disorder that affects the production of hemoglobin, leading to abnormal red blood cell formation.

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  • 48. 

    Pernicious anemia and folic acid deficiencies are example of:

    • Microcytic anemias

    • Megaloblastic anemias

    • Normochromic, normocytic anemias

    • Aplastic anemias

    Correct Answer
    A. Megaloblastic anemias
    Explanation
    Pernicious anemia and folic acid deficiencies are examples of megaloblastic anemias. Megaloblastic anemias are characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells (megaloblasts) in the bone marrow. This is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folic acid, which are essential for the production of DNA and red blood cell formation. The deficiency leads to impaired DNA synthesis and abnormal maturation of red blood cells, resulting in anemia.

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  • 49. 

    An increased total leukocyte count in a cerebrospinal fluid specimen can be due to:

    • Bacterial meningitis

    • The first few days of viral meningoencephalitis

    • A reaction, in the first 3 to 4 days following central nervous system (CNS) hemorrhage

    • Leukemic infiltration

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    An increased total leukocyte count in a cerebrospinal fluid specimen can be due to bacterial meningitis, the first few days of viral meningoencephalitis, a reaction in the first 3 to 4 days following central nervous system (CNS) hemorrhage, or leukemic infiltration. All of these conditions can cause inflammation or infection in the central nervous system, leading to an increase in leukocytes in the cerebrospinal fluid.

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Amanda Nwachukwu |Pharm(D) |
Clinical Pharmacist
Amanda Nwachukwu, holding a Doctorate in Pharmacy from Texas Tech University Health Sciences Center, adeptly simplifies complex medical concepts into accessible content. With clinical proficiency, she ensures optimal patient care, while her adept medical writing skills facilitate comprehension and accessibility of healthcare information.

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