Immunohematology MCQ Quiz And Answers

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1/160 Questions

Which blood group system is primarily associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
- Kell
- Duffy
- ABO
- Rh

About This Quiz

Do you know everything about Immunohematology? If you think you have got all the knowledge, take this Immunohematology quiz and test your knowledge. The quiz is basically related to human blood and its components and everything else related to blood. Take the quiz, and check on your knowledge. You will also get to learn new things here. Try to get See moremore answers correct, and get the best score as per all your knowledge. If you wish to challenge someone, share the quiz and check for the scores.

Immunohematology MCQ Quiz And Answers - Quiz

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2.

Which of the following correctly identifies the antigens that would be found on an RBC in an individual who has the H, Le and Se genes?
- H, Lea
- H, Leb
- Lea only
- Leb only
Correct Answer

A. H, Leb

Explanation

The H, Leb antigens would be found on an RBC in an individual who has the H, Le and Se genes.

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4
3.

If a child is group B, and the mother is group A, which of the following may be excluded as possible groups of the father?
- O
- B
- AB
- All of the above
- None of the above
Correct Answer

A. O

Explanation

If a child is group B and the mother is group A, the father cannot have blood type O. This is because blood type O is recessive and can only be passed on if both parents have blood type O. Since the mother has blood type A, she must have at least one allele for blood type A, which means the father cannot have blood type O. Therefore, blood type O may be excluded as a possible group of the father.

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7
4.

Individuals with the following blood group have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in hte serum
- Group A
- Group B
- Group O
- Group AB
Correct Answer

A. Group O

Explanation

Individuals with blood group O have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their serum. This means that their immune system produces antibodies against both A and B antigens. As a result, if they receive a blood transfusion with blood from groups A, B, or AB, their antibodies will recognize and attack the foreign antigens, leading to a potentially life-threatening reaction. Therefore, it is crucial to match blood types carefully during transfusions to avoid such complications.

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4
5.

Bombay blood
- Has anti-A, anti-B and anti-H
- Lacks antigens A, B and H
- Is grouped as O in routine typing
- All
- None
Correct Answer

A. All

Explanation

The Bombay blood type is characterized by the absence of antigens A, B, and H. It also contains antibodies against antigens A, B, and H. Due to the lack of these antigens, Bombay blood is grouped as O in routine typing. Therefore, all of the statements given in the options are correct.

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3
6.

The ABO blood group system was discovered by
- Landsteiner
- Levine
- Weiner
- Coombs
Correct Answer

A. Landsteiner

Explanation

The ABO blood group system, which classifies human blood into different types (A, B, AB, and O), was discovered by Landsteiner. He conducted experiments in the early 20th century that led to the identification of these blood groups and the understanding of blood transfusion compatibility. His discovery was a significant breakthrough in the field of blood transfusion and laid the foundation for further advancements in blood typing and compatibility testing.

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4
7.

Agglutination with both anti-A and anti-B typing serums indicates the blood is group
- AB
- A
- B
- O
Correct Answer

A. AB

Explanation

Agglutination with both anti-A and anti-B typing serums indicates that the blood contains both A and B antigens on its red blood cells. This is characteristic of blood group AB, which is the only blood group that possesses both A and B antigens. Blood group A would only agglutinate with anti-A serum, blood group B would only agglutinate with anti-B serum, and blood group O would not agglutinate with either serum.

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1
8.

Blood containing neither antigens A nor B is which of the following groups?
- AB
- O
- B
- A
Correct Answer

A. O

Explanation

Blood group O is the correct answer because individuals with blood group O have neither antigen A nor antigen B on the surface of their red blood cells. They have antibodies against both antigens A and B in their plasma. This means that if they receive blood from a donor with antigens A or B, their antibodies will attack and destroy the donor's red blood cells. Therefore, individuals with blood group O are considered universal donors as their blood can be transfused to individuals with any other blood group.

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1
9.

Which of the following is NOT a technique used to enhance ABO agglutination reactions?
- Refrigerate the reactions
- Increase incubation time
- Warm the reactions
Correct Answer

A. Warm the reactions

Explanation

Warming the reactions is not a technique used to enhance ABO agglutination reactions. Refrigerating the reactions can slow down the reaction rate and enhance agglutination. Increasing incubation time allows more time for the antibodies to bind to the antigens, increasing the sensitivity of the reaction. However, warming the reactions can actually decrease agglutination by denaturing the antibodies and antigens, leading to false-negative results. Therefore, warming the reactions is not recommended to enhance ABO agglutination reactions.

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5
10.

A group AB parent mated with a group O parent. Which of the following are possible in the offspring?
- Group A
- Group B
- Group A and B
- Group O
Correct Answer

A. Group A and B

Explanation

When a group AB parent mates with a group O parent, the possible blood types in the offspring can be either group A or group B. This is because the AB parent can pass on either an A or B allele to the offspring, while the O parent can only pass on an O allele. Therefore, the offspring can inherit either an A allele from the AB parent and an O allele from the O parent, resulting in group A blood type, or they can inherit a B allele from the AB parent and an O allele from the O parent, resulting in group B blood type.

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2
11.

Both parents are group AB. Which of the following are possible in the offspring?
- Group AB
- Group A
- Group B
- All
Correct Answer

A. All

Explanation

Since both parents are group AB, they can pass on either an A or a B allele to their offspring. This means that all blood groups (AB, A, B) are possible in the offspring. Therefore, the correct answer is "all".

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12.

A1 lectin prepared from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus will react with
- Oh cells
- A1 cells
- A1 and A2 cells if not diluted
- Adult O cells
Correct Answer

A. A1 cells

Explanation

The lectin prepared from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus will react with A1 cells. This indicates that the lectin has a specific binding affinity for A1 cells and can recognize and bind to the antigens present on these cells. It is not mentioned whether the lectin will react with Oh cells, adult O cells, or A2 cells if not diluted, so we cannot determine if the lectin will react with these cells based on the given information.

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13.

Mrs. Jones' genotype is AA. Mr. Jones' genotype is BO. By use of a punnett square, determine the possible ABO genotypes of their children.
- AB or AO
- AB or AA
- AB or OO
- AO or BB
Correct Answer

A. AB or AO

Explanation

The possible ABO genotypes of their children can be AB or AO. This is because Mrs. Jones has genotype AA, which means she can only contribute an A allele to her children. Mr. Jones has genotype BO, which means he can contribute either a B or an O allele. When we use a punnett square to combine these genotypes, we can see that the children can inherit an A allele from Mrs. Jones and either a B or an O allele from Mr. Jones, resulting in the genotypes AB or AO.

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2
14.

A2 individuals
- Have fewer A antigen sites than A1 individuals
- Are non reactive with A1 lectin
- May produce anti-A1
- All
Correct Answer

A. All

Explanation

The statement "all" is the correct answer because it encompasses all the given statements about A2 individuals. A2 individuals have fewer A antigen sites than A1 individuals, meaning they have less of the A antigen on their red blood cells. They are also non-reactive with A1 lectin, which is a substance used to test for the presence of the A1 antigen. Additionally, A2 individuals may produce anti-A1 antibodies, which can react with the A1 antigen. Therefore, all of the given statements apply to A2 individuals.

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1
15.

The frequency of anti-A1 is highest in type
- A1
- A2
- B
- A1B
- A2B
Correct Answer

A. A2B

Explanation

The frequency of anti-A1 is highest in individuals with the A2B blood type. This means that individuals with the A2B blood type are more likely to produce antibodies against the A1 antigen compared to individuals with other blood types.

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2
16.

Which of the responses best interprets/explains these blood typing results? Anti-A 4+ Anti-B 4+ Anti-A1 0 a1 cells 2+ b cells 0
- Type A1
- Acuired B Phenotype
- A2B with anti-A1
- Weak subgroup of B
Correct Answer

A. A2B with anti-A1

Explanation

The given blood typing results indicate that the individual has the A2B blood type with the presence of anti-A1 antibodies. This means that the person's blood type is A2B, but they also have antibodies against the A1 antigen. This is a relatively weak subgroup of the B blood type.

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4
17.

When two allelic genes are alike, the individual is said to be
- Heterozygous
- Dominant
- Homozygous
- Co-dominant
Correct Answer

A. Homozygous

Explanation

When two allelic genes are alike, it means that they are identical or the same. In genetics, an individual is said to be homozygous when they have two identical alleles for a particular gene. This means that both copies of the gene are the same, either both dominant or both recessive. In this case, the individual does not have a different allele, so they are not heterozygous. Co-dominant refers to a situation where both alleles are expressed equally, which is not the case here. Therefore, the correct answer is homozygous.

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18.

The observable appearance of an object is known as the
- Allele
- Phenotype
- Recessive
- Genotype
Correct Answer

A. Phenotype

Explanation

The observable appearance of an object is known as the phenotype. This refers to the physical characteristics or traits that are expressed by an organism, influenced by both its genetic makeup (genotype) and environmental factors. The phenotype can include traits such as eye color, height, and hair type, which can be observed and measured. It is determined by the interaction between the individual's genotype and the environment, making it a crucial aspect in understanding and studying genetics and inheritance patterns.

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19.

Immunohematology tests utilize
- Precipitation
- Direct agglutination
- Immunodiffusion
- Passive agglutination
Correct Answer

A. Direct agglutination

Explanation

Direct agglutination is a type of immunohematology test that involves the clumping together of antibodies and antigens in a direct manner. This test is commonly used to detect blood group antigens and antibodies, as well as to determine compatibility for blood transfusions. It is a simple and rapid method that does not require additional reagents or complex procedures. By observing the agglutination reaction, healthcare professionals can accurately identify blood types and ensure safe transfusions.

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20.

How many ABO phenotypes exist? How many ABO genotypes exist?
- 6,4
- 4,6
- 6,6
- 4,4
Correct Answer

A. 4,6

Explanation

There are four ABO phenotypes: A, B, AB, and O. These phenotypes are determined by the presence or absence of antigens A and B on the surface of red blood cells. On the other hand, there are six possible ABO genotypes: AA, AO, BB, BO, AB, and OO. The genotypes are determined by the combination of alleles inherited from each parent.

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21.

The cell type Rh2 corresponds to
- CDE
- CDE
- CdE
- Cde
Correct Answer

A. CDE

Explanation

In the Rh blood group system, Rh2 refers to the cDE haplotype. The Rh system consists of antigens like C, D, E, c, e, and these letters represent different antigenic configurations on red blood cells. The Rh haplotypes are combinations of these antigens, and Rh2 (cDE) means the red blood cells express the c and E antigens but lack the C and e antigens, while also expressing the D antigen, which is the most immunogenic of the Rh antigens.
Thus, cDE is the correct answer for Rh2.

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4
22.

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CDe?
- R2
- R0
- R
- Rz
- R1
- Ry
Correct Answer

A. R1

Explanation

The Wiener allele that corresponds to CDe is R1.

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2
23.

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cDE?
- R2
- R0
- R
- Rz
- R1
- Ry
Correct Answer

A. R2

Explanation

The correct answer is R2 because the question is asking for the Wiener allele that corresponds to cDE. Among the given options, R2 is the only allele that corresponds to cDE.

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1
24.

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cDe?
- R2
- R0
- R
- Rz
- R1
- Ry
Correct Answer

A. R0

Explanation

The correct answer is R0. In the Wiener allele system, each allele is represented by a letter followed by a number. The letter represents the blood group system, and the number represents the specific allele within that system. In this case, "cDe" corresponds to the R0 allele.

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25.

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CDE?
- R2
- R0
- R
- Rz
- R1
- Ry
Correct Answer

A. Rz

Explanation

The Wiener allele that corresponds to CDE is Rz.

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26.

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cde?
- R2
- R0
- R
- Rz
- R1
- Ry
Correct Answer

A. R

Explanation

The correct answer is "r." In the Wiener allele system, the letter "r" corresponds to the cde phenotype.

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0
27.

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CdE?
- R2
- R0
- R
- Rz
- R1
- Ry
Correct Answer

A. Ry

Explanation

The correct answer is "ry". In the Wiener allele notation system, "ry" corresponds to the CdE allele.

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2
28.

Based on the following reactions, what is this person's most probable genotype? Antisera Anti-D + Anti-C 0 Anti-E + Anti-c + Anti-e 0
- R1r
- R2R2
- R2Rz
- R0r
- R1R1
Correct Answer

A. R2R2

Explanation

The person's most probable genotype is R2R2 because they have a positive reaction with Anti-D and Anti-E, indicating the presence of both D and E antigens. The person also has a negative reaction with Anti-C and Anti-e, indicating the absence of both C and e antigens. This pattern matches with the R2R2 genotype.

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29.

When an Rh gene on one chromosome affects the action of another Rh gene on the same chromosome, in terms of increased or decreased antigen production, it is referred to as
- Cis effect
- Trans effect
- Either a or b
Correct Answer

A. Cis effect

Explanation

When an Rh gene on one chromosome affects the action of another Rh gene on the same chromosome, it is referred to as a cis effect. In this case, the two genes are located close to each other on the same chromosome, and the effect is limited to that specific chromosome. This is different from a trans effect, where the genes are located on different chromosomes and can affect each other's action. Therefore, the correct answer is cis effect.

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1
30.

Which of the Rh system antigens in most antigenic, second only to D?
- C
- C
- E
- E
Correct Answer

A. E

Explanation

Among the Rh system antigens, E is the most antigenic, second only to the D antigen. This means that after the D antigen (commonly known as the Rh factor), the E antigen has the highest immunogenicity, leading to strong immune responses in individuals who lack it during blood transfusions or pregnancies.

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16
31.

According to the current theory of inheritance for the Rh system, how many genes are involved in the inheritance of Cc, D and Ee antigens?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 6
Correct Answer

A. 2

Explanation

According to the current theory of inheritance for the Rh system, the inheritance of Cc, D, and Ee antigens involves two genes. This suggests that there are two different genes responsible for the production of these antigens.

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3
32.

Which Rh antigen is most antigenic?
- D
- C
- C
- E
- E
Correct Answer

A. D

Explanation

Rh antigen D is the most antigenic among the options provided. This means that it is the most likely to stimulate an immune response in individuals who do not have the D antigen on their red blood cells. The presence or absence of the D antigen is used to determine the Rh blood type, with individuals who have the D antigen being Rh positive and those who do not have it being Rh negative.

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3
33.

A person of the genotype rr could potentially produce antibodies of the following specificity:
- Anti-D
- Anti-C
- Anti-E
- Anti-c
- All of the above except d
Correct Answer

A. All of the above except d

Explanation

A person with the genotype rr does not have the D antigen on their red blood cells, so they would not produce antibodies against the D antigen (anti-D). However, they could potentially produce antibodies against the C, E, and c antigens, so the correct answer is all of the above except d.

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34.

Which of the following is NOT true of the Rh control?
- Must be positive for Rh grouping to be valid
- Must be negative for Rh grouping to be valid
- Ensures agglutination is due to the presence of D antigen and not due to increased proteins in the reagent or in vivo sensitization
Correct Answer

A. Must be positive for Rh grouping to be valid

Explanation

The Rh control is a test that is performed during Rh grouping. It is used to ensure that any agglutination observed is specifically due to the presence of the D antigen, rather than other factors such as increased proteins in the reagent or in vivo sensitization. Therefore, the statement "must be positive for Rh grouping to be valid" is not true, as a negative result for the Rh control would actually indicate a valid Rh grouping.

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1
35.

In an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first anitbody MOST LIKELY to develop is
- Anti-c
- Anti-d
- Anti-e
- Anti-E
Correct Answer

A. Anti-c

Explanation

When Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh-positive person with the genotype CDe/CDe, the Rh-negative cells are recognized as foreign by the immune system. As a result, the person's immune system will start producing antibodies against the Rh antigens present on the transfused cells. In this case, the person is Rh-positive but lacks the c antigen due to the genotype CDe/CDe. Therefore, the most likely antibody to develop in response to the transfusion is anti-c, targeting the missing c antigen.

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2
36.

A patient's serum reacts 2+ at the immediate spin phase with 3 of 10 panel cells. The reactions disappeared following incubation at 37 degrees C and were negative at AHG. The antibody most likely responsible is
- Anti P1
- Anti-Lea
- Anti-C
- Anti-Fya
Correct Answer

A. Anti-Lea

Explanation

The patient's serum reacting 2+ at the immediate spin phase with 3 of 10 panel cells suggests the presence of an antibody. However, the fact that the reactions disappeared following incubation at 37 degrees C and were negative at AHG indicates that the antibody is likely an IgM antibody. Among the options provided, anti-Lea is the only IgM antibody, making it the most likely responsible antibody.

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37.

A high titer low avidity antibody (HTLA antibody) is
- A typical cold agglutinin
- An antibody that reacts weakly at lower rather than optimum temperatures
- Anti-D found in Rh immune globulin recipients
- Antibodies with low binding capacity and high titration values
Correct Answer

A. Antibodies with low binding capacity and high titration values

Explanation

A high titer low avidity antibody (HTLA antibody) refers to antibodies with low binding capacity and high titration values. This means that these antibodies have a high concentration (titer) in the blood but have a low ability to bind to their target antigens. This can result in decreased effectiveness of the immune response as the antibodies are not able to effectively neutralize or eliminate the antigens.

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1
38.

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-A?
- Room temperature or colder
- 37 degrees C or antiglobulin testing
Correct Answer

A. Room temperature or colder

Explanation

The optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-A is room temperature or colder. This means that the Anti-A antibody is most reactive and effective at room temperature or below. It may also be used for antiglobulin testing at 37 degrees C.

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39.

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-Leb?
- Room temp or colder
- 37 degrees C or antiglobulin testing
Correct Answer

A. Room temp or colder

Explanation

The optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-Leb is at room temperature or colder. This means that the antibody is most reactive and effective in detecting the Leb antigen when the temperature is at or below room temperature. Alternatively, the antibody can also be used in antiglobulin testing at 37 degrees Celsius.

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0
40.

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-K?
- Room temp or colder
- 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing
Correct Answer

A. 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing

Explanation

The optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-K is 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing. This means that the Anti-K antibody will show the highest level of reactivity or sensitivity at a temperature of 37 degrees Celsius or when antiglobulin testing is performed. Antiglobulin testing involves the use of antibodies that can detect the presence of the Anti-K antibody by binding to it and causing agglutination or clumping of blood cells. This indicates a positive reaction and helps in the identification and diagnosis of certain blood disorders or transfusion reactions.

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41.

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-S?
- Room temp or colder
- 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing
Correct Answer

A. 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing

Explanation

The optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-S is 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing. This means that the antibody Anti-S will show the highest level of reactivity or sensitivity when tested at a temperature of 37 degrees Celsius or when antiglobulin testing is performed. Antiglobulin testing, also known as Coombs testing, is a method used to detect antibodies that have attached to red blood cells. This test involves adding antiglobulin serum to the patient's blood sample and observing for agglutination or clumping of the red blood cells, indicating the presence of antibodies.

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42.

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-Fya?
- Room temp or colder
- 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing
Correct Answer

A. 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing

Explanation

The optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-Fya is 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing. This means that the Anti-Fya antibody is most reactive or shows the strongest response at a temperature of 37 degrees Celsius or when antiglobulin testing is performed. Antiglobulin testing is a laboratory technique used to detect the presence of antibodies on the surface of red blood cells. This information is important in blood typing and compatibility testing for blood transfusions.

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43.

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-M?
- Room temp or colder
- 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing
Correct Answer

A. Room temp or colder

Explanation

The optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-M is room temperature or colder. This means that the Anti-M antibody will show the highest reactivity or effectiveness at room temperature or lower temperatures. It is important to keep the temperature low to ensure accurate results when testing for the presence of Anti-M. The use of antiglobulin testing at 37 degrees is not the preferred method for detecting Anti-M.

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1
44.

The Ii antigen status of newborn cord blood erythrocytes is
- I positive
- I negative
- I positive
- I negative
- Both b and c
Correct Answer

A. Both b and c

Explanation

The Ii antigen status of newborn cord blood erythrocytes is both i positive and i negative. This means that some newborn cord blood erythrocytes will have the I antigen, while others will not. The I antigen is a carbohydrate antigen that is present on the surface of red blood cells. The presence or absence of this antigen is determined by the individual's genetic makeup. Therefore, some individuals will have the I antigen (i positive), while others will not (i negative).

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0
45.

Which of these is the most appropriate characteristic(s) of anti-K (anti-K1)?
- Usually IgM; rarely IgG
- Infrequently encountered in routine blood banking
- Stimulated by k antigen
- Second in immunogenicity to D antigen
- Usually not a cause of hemolytic transfusion reaction
Correct Answer

A. Second in immunogenicity to D antigen

Explanation

Anti-K (anti-K1) is a red blood cell antibody that is second in immunogenicity to the D antigen. This means that it is the second most likely antibody to cause an immune response in individuals who are exposed to the K antigen. The K antigen is a protein found on the surface of red blood cells. Anti-K antibodies are usually IgM, but can rarely be IgG. They are infrequently encountered in routine blood banking and are usually not a cause of hemolytic transfusion reactions.

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46.

What is the typical class of Anti-Lea?
- IgM
- IgG
Correct Answer

A. IgM

Explanation

Anti-Lea is typically a class of immunoglobulin M (IgM). IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an infection or antigen. They are large molecules and are effective in activating other components of the immune system to fight against pathogens. Therefore, IgM is the correct class of antibodies for Anti-Lea.

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1
47.

What is the typical class of Anti-Leb?
- IgM
- IgG
Correct Answer

A. IgM

Explanation

The typical class of Anti-Leb is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced by the immune system in response to an infection. It is a pentameric antibody that is effective in activating complement and promoting phagocytosis. IgM antibodies are usually found in the blood and lymph fluid and are responsible for the primary immune response. They are larger in size compared to IgG antibodies and are involved in the initial defense against pathogens. Therefore, IgM is the most appropriate class of antibody for Anti-Leb.

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48.

What is the typical class of Anti-M?
- IgM
- IgG
Correct Answer

A. IgM

Explanation

The typical class of Anti-M is IgM.

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49.

What is the typical class of Anti-I?
- IgM
- IgG
Correct Answer

A. IgM

Explanation

The typical class of Anti-I is IgM.

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2

Amanda Nwachukwu |Pharm(D) |

Clinical Pharmacist

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Immunohematology MCQ Quiz And Answers

Which blood group system is primarily associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

Quiz Preview

Which of the following correctly identifies the antigens that would be found on an RBC in an individual who has the H, Le and Se genes?

If a child is group B, and the mother is group A, which of the following may be excluded as possible groups of the father?

Individuals with the following blood group have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in hte serum

Bombay blood

The ABO blood group system was discovered by

Agglutination with both anti-A and anti-B typing serums indicates the blood is group

Blood containing neither antigens A nor B is which of the following groups?

Which of the following is NOT a technique used to enhance ABO agglutination reactions?

A group AB parent mated with a group O parent. Which of the following are possible in the offspring?

Both parents are group AB. Which of the following are possible in the offspring?

A1 lectin prepared from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus will react with

Mrs. Jones' genotype is AA. Mr. Jones' genotype is BO. By use of a punnett square, determine the possible ABO genotypes of their children.

A2 individuals

The frequency of anti-A1 is highest in type

Which of the responses best interprets/explains these blood typing results? Anti-A 4+ Anti-B 4+ Anti-A1 0 a1 cells 2+ b cells 0

When two allelic genes are alike, the individual is said to be

The observable appearance of an object is known as the

Immunohematology tests utilize

How many ABO phenotypes exist? How many ABO genotypes exist?

The cell type Rh2 corresponds to

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CDe?

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cDE?

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cDe?

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CDE?

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cde?

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CdE?

Based on the following reactions, what is this person's most probable genotype? Antisera Anti-D + Anti-C 0 Anti-E + Anti-c + Anti-e 0

When an Rh gene on one chromosome affects the action of another Rh gene on the same chromosome, in terms of increased or decreased antigen production, it is referred to as

Which of the Rh system antigens in most antigenic, second only to D?

According to the current theory of inheritance for the Rh system, how many genes are involved in the inheritance of Cc, D and Ee antigens?

Which Rh antigen is most antigenic?

A person of the genotype rr could potentially produce antibodies of the following specificity:

Which of the following is NOT true of the Rh control?

In an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first anitbody MOST LIKELY to develop is

A patient's serum reacts 2+ at the immediate spin phase with 3 of 10 panel cells. The reactions disappeared following incubation at 37 degrees C and were negative at AHG. The antibody most likely responsible is

A high titer low avidity antibody (HTLA antibody) is

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-A?

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-Leb?

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-K?

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-S?

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-Fya?

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-M?

The Ii antigen status of newborn cord blood erythrocytes is

Which of these is the most appropriate characteristic(s) of anti-K (anti-K1)?

What is the typical class of Anti-Lea?

What is the typical class of Anti-Leb?

What is the typical class of Anti-M?

What is the typical class of Anti-I?