Basic Hematology Concepts / Laboratory Procedures

35 Questions | Total Attempts: 6207

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MLT questions for ASCP examination


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  • 1. 
    Insufficient centrifugation will result in:
    • A. 

      A false increase in Hct value

    • B. 

      A false decrease in Hct value

    • C. 

      No effect on Hct value

    • D. 

      All of the above depending on the patient

  • 2. 
    Erythrocytes that vary in size from the normal 6-8 um are described as exhibiting:
    • A. 

      Anisocytosis

    • B. 

      Hypochromia

    • C. 

      Poikilocytosis

    • D. 

      Pleocytosis

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult?
    • A. 

      Iliac crest

    • B. 

      Sternum

    • C. 

      Tibia

    • D. 

      Spinous processes of the vertebra

  • 4. 
    Mean cell volume (MCV) is calculated using the following:
    • A. 

      (Hgb/RBC)x10

    • B. 

      (Hct/RBC)x10

    • C. 

      (Hct/Hgb)x100

    • D. 

      (Hgb/RBC)x100

  • 5. 
    What term describes the change in shape of erythrocytes seen on a Wright's-stained peripheral blood smear:
    • A. 

      Poikilocytosis

    • B. 

      Anisocytosis

    • C. 

      Hypochromia

    • D. 

      Polychromasia

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      9.5% (.095)

    • B. 

      10.4% (.104)

    • C. 

      31.9% (.319)

    • D. 

      33.3% (.333)

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      0.4x10^9/L

    • B. 

      2.5x10^9/L

    • C. 

      4.0x10^9/L

    • D. 

      8.0x10^9/L

  • 8. 
    When an erythrocyte containing iron granules is stained with Prussian blue, the cell is called a:
    • A. 

      Spherocyte

    • B. 

      Leptocyte

    • C. 

      Schistocyte

    • D. 

      Siderocyte

  • 9. 
    A 7.0 mL etheylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) tube is received in teh lab containing only 2.0 mL of blood. If the lab is using manual techniques, which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous?
    • A. 

      RBC count

    • B. 

      Hemoglobin

    • C. 

      Hct

    • D. 

      WBC count

  • 10. 
    A 1:200 dilution of a patient sample was made and 336 red cells were counted in an area of 0.2 mm^2. What is the RBC count?
    • A. 

      1.68 x 10^12/L

    • B. 

      3.36 x 10^12/L

    • C. 

      4.47 x 10^12/L

    • D. 

      6.66 x 10^12/L

  • 11. 
    What phagocytic cells produce lysozymes that are bacteriocidal?
    • A. 

      Eosinophils

    • B. 

      Lymphocytes

    • C. 

      Platelets

    • D. 

      Neutrophils

  • 12. 
    If a patient has a retic count of 7% and a Hct of 20% what is the corrected retic count?
    • A. 

      1.4%

    • B. 

      3.1%

    • C. 

      3.5%

    • D. 

      14%

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      Sickle cell anemia

    • B. 

      Hereditary spherocytosis

    • C. 

      Hemolytic disease of the newborn

    • D. 

      Acquired hemolytic anemia

  • 14. 
    What effect would using a buffer at pH 6.0 have on a Wright's-stained smear?
    • A. 

      Red cells would be stained too pink

    • B. 

      White cell cytoplasm would be stained too blue

    • C. 

      Red cells would be stained too blue

    • D. 

      Red cells would lyse on the slide

  • 15. 
    Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions can be visualized with supravital stain but cannot be detected on a Wright's stained blood smear?
    • A. 

      Basophilic stippling

    • B. 

      Heinz bodies

    • C. 

      Howell Jolly bodies

    • D. 

      Siderotic granules

  • 16. 
    A falsely elevated Hct is obtained. Which of the following calculated values will not be affected?
    • A. 

      MCV

    • B. 

      MCH

    • C. 

      MCHC

    • D. 

      Red cell distribution width (RDW)

  • 17. 
    A Miller disk is an ocular device used to facilitate counting of:
    • A. 

      Platelets

    • B. 

      Reticulocytes

    • C. 

      Sickle cells

    • D. 

      Nucleated red blood cells

  • 18. 
    RBC indices obtained on a patient are as follows: MCV: 88 um^3 MCH: 30 pg MCHC: 34% The RBC on the peripheral smear would appear:
    • A. 

      Microcytic, hypochromic

    • B. 

      Microcytic, normochromic

    • C. 

      Normocytic, normochromic

    • D. 

      Normocytic, hypochromic

  • 19. 
    All of the following factors may influence the ESR except:
    • A. 

      Blood drawn in a sodium citrate tube

    • B. 

      Anisocytosis, poikilocytosis

    • C. 

      Plasma proteins

    • D. 

      Caliber of the tube

  • 20. 
    What staining method is used most frequently to stain and count reticulocytes?
    • A. 

      Immunofluorescence

    • B. 

      Supravital staining

    • C. 

      Romanowsky staining

    • D. 

      Cytochemical staining

  • 21. 
    The Coulter principle for counting cells is based upon the fact that:
    • A. 

      Isotonic solutions conduct electricity better than cells do

    • B. 

      Conductivity varies proportionally to the number of cells

    • C. 

      Cells conduct electricity better than saline does

    • D. 

      Isotonic solutions cannot conduct electricity

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      The WBC count would be falsely lower

    • B. 

      The RBC count is too low

    • C. 

      Nucleated RBC's are counted as leukocytes

    • D. 

      Nucleated RBC's are confused with giant platelets

  • 23. 
    Using a Coulter counter analyzer, an increased RDW should correlate with:
    • A. 

      Spherocytosis

    • B. 

      Anisocytosis

    • C. 

      Leukocytosis

    • D. 

      Presence fo NRBCs

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      MCV 76 um^3 MCH 19.9 pg MCHC 28%

    • B. 

      MCV 90 um^3 MCH 30.5 pg MCHC 32.5%

    • C. 

      MCV 80 um^3 MCH 36.5 pg MCHC 39%

    • D. 

      MCV 81 um^3 MCH 29 pg MCHC 34%

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Mean

    • B. 

      Median

    • C. 

      Coefficient of variation

    • D. 

      Standard deviation

  • 26. 
    Which of the following is considered a normal hemoglobin?
    • A. 

      Carboxyhemoglobin

    • B. 

      Methemoglobin

    • C. 

      Sulfhemoglobin

    • D. 

      Deoxyhemoglobin

  • 27. 
    Which condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?
    • A. 

      Acidosis

    • B. 

      Alkalosis

    • C. 

      Multiple blood transfusions

    • D. 

      Increased quantities of hemoglobin S or C

  • 28. 
    Which is the major type of leukocyte seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with aplastic anemia?
    • A. 

      Segmented neutrophil

    • B. 

      Lymphocyte

    • C. 

      Monocyte

    • D. 

      Eosinophil

  • 29. 
    What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage (range) in the adult population?
    • A. 

      20-50%

    • B. 

      10-20%

    • C. 

      5-10%

    • D. 

      50-70%

  • 30. 
    In which age group would 60% lymphocytes be a normal finding?
    • A. 

      40-60 years

    • B. 

      11-15 years

    • C. 

      6 months - 2 years

    • D. 

      4-6 years

  • 31. 
    Which of the following results on an automated differential suggests that a peripheral smear should be review manually?
    • A. 

      Segs 70%

    • B. 

      Bands 6%

    • C. 

      Mono 15%

    • D. 

      Eos 2%

  • 32. 
    In which stage of erythrocytic maturation does Hgb formation begin?
    • A. 

      Reticulocyte

    • B. 

      Pronormoblast

    • C. 

      Basophilic normoblast

    • D. 

      Polychromatic normoblast

  • 33. 
    Which of the following can shift the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve to the right?
    • A. 

      Increases in 2,3 DPG

    • B. 

      Acidosis

    • C. 

      Hypoxia

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 34. 
    Which of the following Hbg configurations is characteristic of Hgb H?
    • A. 

      Y^4

    • B. 

      A2-y2

    • C. 

      B4

    • D. 

      A2-b2

  • 35. 
    Autoagglutination of red cells at room temp can result in which of the following?
    • A. 

      Low RBC count

    • B. 

      High MCV

    • C. 

      Low hematocrit

    • D. 

      All of the above