Og Lom Radiology,Oncology & Blood Quiz

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Quizzes Created: 12 | Total Attempts: 12,773
Questions: 50 | Attempts: 329

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Radiology Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The blood cells responsible for clotting are-

    • A.

      Thrombocytes

    • B.

      Erythrocytes

    • C.

      Fibrinogen

    • D.

      Leukocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Thrombocytes
    Explanation
    Thrombocytes, also known as platelets, are the blood cells responsible for clotting. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, thrombocytes gather at the site and form a plug to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that activate other clotting factors and help in the formation of a fibrin clot, which further strengthens the plug. Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, carry oxygen and do not play a direct role in clotting. Fibrinogen is a protein that is converted into fibrin during clot formation. Leukocytes, or white blood cells, are primarily involved in the immune response and fighting infections, and do not have a major role in clotting.

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  • 2. 

    The combining form for "Nucleus" is-

    • A.

      Mon/o

    • B.

      Kary/o

    • C.

      Poikil/o

    • D.

      Granul/o

    Correct Answer
    B. Kary/o
    Explanation
    The combining form for "Nucleus" is "Kary/o" because "Kary/o" refers to the nucleus of a cell. This combining form is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate structures or processes related to the nucleus. For example, words like "karyotype" (the number and appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus) and "karyolysis" (the dissolution of the nucleus) are derived from this combining form.

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  • 3. 

    The final products of hemoglobin breakdown are-

    • A.

      Heme and Iron

    • B.

      Heme and Bilirubin

    • C.

      Bilirubin and Globin

    • D.

      Bilirubin, Iron and Globin

    Correct Answer
    D. Bilirubin, Iron and Globin
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin breakdown results in the formation of bilirubin, iron, and globin. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced from the breakdown of heme, a component of hemoglobin. Iron is released from the heme molecule and can be recycled for the production of new red blood cells. Globin refers to the protein component of hemoglobin, which is also broken down during the process. Therefore, the correct answer is bilirubin, iron, and globin.

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  • 4. 

    The process of separating plasma from the formed elements in the blood is called-

    • A.

      Electrophoresis

    • B.

      Plasmolysis

    • C.

      Plasmapheresis

    • D.

      Agglutination

    Correct Answer
    C. Plasmapheresis
    Explanation
    Plasmapheresis is the correct answer because it refers to the process of separating plasma from the formed elements in the blood. This procedure involves removing the plasma from the blood and returning the formed elements back to the patient. Plasmapheresis is commonly used in medical treatments to remove harmful substances from the blood, such as toxins or antibodies, and can also be used to collect plasma for donation.

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  • 5. 

    The universal donors and the universal recipients respectively are people with blood groups-

    • A.

      O and A

    • B.

      O and AB

    • C.

      AB and O

    • D.

      AB and B

    Correct Answer
    B. O and AB
    Explanation
    People with blood group O are considered universal donors because their blood does not contain A or B antigens on the red blood cells. This means that their blood can be transfused to individuals with any blood type without causing an immune reaction. On the other hand, people with blood group AB are considered universal recipients because their blood does not contain antibodies against A or B antigens. This allows them to receive blood from individuals with any blood type without their immune system attacking the transfused blood cells.

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  • 6. 

    Plasma minus clotting proteins and cells is -

    • A.

      Serum

    • B.

      Globin

    • C.

      Fibrin

    • D.

      Thrombin

    Correct Answer
    A. Serum
    Explanation
    Plasma is the liquid component of blood that contains clotting proteins and cells. When plasma is separated from these components, what remains is called serum. Therefore, the correct answer is serum.

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  • 7. 

    The combining form sider/o refers to-

    • A.

      Side

    • B.

      Single

    • C.

      Same

    • D.

      Iron

    Correct Answer
    D. Iron
    Explanation
    The combining form sider/o refers to iron. This is because the root word "sider" is derived from the Latin word "siderum" which means iron. When used as a combining form, it indicates a relationship or association with iron.

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  • 8. 

    A disorder characterized by excessive bleeding and occurring predominantly in males-

    • A.

      Iron deficiency anemia

    • B.

      Hemophilia

    • C.

      Neutropenia

    • D.

      Thrombocytopenia

    Correct Answer
    B. Hemophilia
    Explanation
    Hemophilia is a disorder characterized by excessive bleeding that occurs predominantly in males. It is caused by a deficiency or absence of certain clotting factors in the blood, which impairs the blood's ability to clot normally. This can result in prolonged bleeding after injuries or spontaneous bleeding into joints, muscles, or other internal organs. Iron deficiency anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia are not associated with excessive bleeding and do not predominantly affect males, making them incorrect answers.

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  • 9. 

    Sasha's blood report showed the number of certain blood cells to be 250,000 per cubic millimeter. They are-

    • A.

      WBC

    • B.

      RBC

    • C.

      Lymphocytes

    • D.

      Platelets

    Correct Answer
    D. Platelets
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Platelets. Platelets are one of the types of blood cells that are responsible for blood clotting. A normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per cubic millimeter of blood. In Sasha's blood report, the number of platelets is stated to be 250,000 per cubic millimeter, which falls within the normal range. Therefore, the correct answer is Platelets.

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  • 10. 

    A 22-year-old caucasian male visits his physician complaining of fatigue and shortness of breath (predominantly in the mediterranean region. Her lab tests reveal that she is severely anemic. The CT scan of the abdomen shows evidence of splenomegaly. A peripheral blood smear done shows abnormally shaped RBCs. What is the likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Thalassemia

    • B.

      Sickle cell anemia

    • C.

      Hemochromatosis

    • D.

      Purpura

    Correct Answer
    A. Thalassemia
    Explanation
    The likely diagnosis in this case is Thalassemia. Thalassemia is a genetic disorder that affects the production of hemoglobin, leading to anemia. It is more common in individuals of Mediterranean descent. The symptoms of fatigue and shortness of breath, along with the presence of abnormally shaped RBCs and splenomegaly, are consistent with Thalassemia. Sickle cell anemia is another genetic disorder that affects hemoglobin, but it typically presents with different symptoms and findings. Hemochromatosis is a condition characterized by excessive iron absorption, which would not explain the anemia or abnormal RBC shape. Purpura refers to a group of bleeding disorders, which is not consistent with the findings in this case.

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  • 11. 

    There is a __________ connection between food and health.(casual/ causal)

    Correct Answer
    causal
    Explanation
    Causal is the correct answer because it indicates a cause-and-effect relationship between food and health. This suggests that the food we consume has an impact on our overall well-being and can directly influence our health outcomes.

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  • 12. 

    The doctor prescribed a _________ of medications. (course/ coarse)

    Correct Answer
    course
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "course". In this context, "course" refers to a prescribed sequence or duration of medications. It is the appropriate word choice to convey the doctor's instructions for taking medications in a specific order or for a specific period of time. On the other hand, "coarse" means rough or not smooth, and it does not make sense in the given sentence.

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  • 13. 

    The physician will ________ the patient on tobacco cessation. (council/ counsel)

    Correct Answer
    counsel
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "counsel". In this sentence, "counsel" is used as a verb, meaning to advise or guide someone. The physician will counsel the patient on tobacco cessation, meaning they will provide advice and guidance to help the patient quit smoking.

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  • 14. 

    The signs of psoriasis _________ -up during spring. (flair/ flare)

    Correct Answer
    flare
    Explanation
    Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition characterized by red, itchy, and scaly patches on the skin. The word "flare" means to become more intense or severe. Therefore, the correct answer is "flare" because it suggests that the signs of psoriasis worsen or become more pronounced during spring.

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  • 15. 

    He suffered from an _____________ condition of his lungs. (inflammatory/ inflammable)

    Correct Answer
    inflammatory
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "inflammatory" because it indicates that the condition of his lungs is characterized by inflammation. This suggests that there is some kind of inflammation or swelling present in his lungs, which could be indicative of an infection or other inflammatory process. The term "inflammatory" is often used to describe conditions or diseases that involve inflammation, such as asthma or bronchitis.

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  • 16. 

    The normal lab value of RBCs in males is 4.5- 6.0 million.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the normal lab value for red blood cells (RBCs) in males is indeed 4.5-6.0 million. This range represents the typical number of RBCs found in the blood of healthy adult males.

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  • 17. 

    If the blood group of the mother is A and the father B, there is no possibility that their child will be with blood group O.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because if the mother has blood group A and the father has blood group B, it is possible for their child to have blood group O. Blood group O is a recessive trait, so if both parents carry the O allele, there is a chance that their child will inherit it and have blood group O.

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  • 18. 

    The most common type of anemia is iron deficiency anemia.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Iron deficiency anemia is the most common type of anemia because iron is necessary for the production of hemoglobin, which carries oxygen to the body's tissues. When there is a lack of iron in the body, it can lead to a decrease in red blood cell production and a decrease in the amount of oxygen that can be carried. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Iron deficiency anemia is particularly common in women of childbearing age due to menstrual blood loss, and in individuals with poor dietary intake of iron.

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  • 19. 

    The normal time taken by the venous blood to clot in a test tube is less than 15 minutes.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Venous blood typically takes less than 15 minutes to clot in a test tube. This is because the clotting process, also known as coagulation, is initiated when blood comes into contact with the surface of the test tube. The clotting factors present in the blood interact with the surface, leading to the formation of fibrin strands that create a clot. This process usually takes a relatively short amount of time, resulting in the blood clotting within 15 minutes. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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  • 20. 

    Antibodies are foreign materials that stimulate antigen production.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Antibodies are not foreign materials that stimulate antigen production. Instead, antibodies are proteins produced by the immune system in response to the presence of antigens. Antigens are foreign substances that trigger an immune response, leading to the production of antibodies. Therefore, the statement that antibodies stimulate antigen production is incorrect.

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  • 21. 

    Platelet and tissue factors release ____________  which stimulates the conversion of prothrombin to _____________  which changes ___________  to fibrin clot.(Note: Please separate the answers with a space, do not use a comma.)

    Correct Answer
    thromboplastin thrombin fibrinogen
    Explanation
    Platelet and tissue factors release thromboplastin which stimulates the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin which changes fibrinogen to fibrin clot.

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  • 22. 

    CLL- _________________ (chronic leukocytic leukemia/ ​chronic lymphocytic leukemia)

    Correct Answer
    chronic lymphocytic leukemia
    Explanation
    The correct answer is chronic lymphocytic leukemia because CLL stands for chronic lymphocytic leukemia. This is a type of cancer that affects the white blood cells, specifically the lymphocytes. It is characterized by the slow growth of abnormal lymphocytes, which can accumulate in the blood and bone marrow. CLL is typically a chronic and slowly progressing disease, and it is the most common type of leukemia in adults.

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  • 23. 

    PTT- _____________________ (partial thromboplastin time/ ​partial thrombin time)

    Correct Answer
    partial thromboplastin time
    Explanation
    Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot. It evaluates the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which involves factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII. PTT is used to assess the overall functioning of the clotting system and to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. It is commonly used to diagnose and monitor disorders such as hemophilia and von Willebrand disease. Therefore, the correct answer for the given question is "partial thromboplastin time".

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  • 24. 

    ESR- ____________________ (​erythrocyte sedimentation rate/ elevated sedimentation rate)

    Correct Answer
    erythrocyte sedimentation rate
    Explanation
    The term "ESR" stands for erythrocyte sedimentation rate, which refers to the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a specific period of time. This test is used to measure inflammation in the body, as increased inflammation causes the red blood cells to clump together and settle faster. Therefore, an elevated sedimentation rate indicates the presence of inflammation or infection in the body.

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  • 25. 

    Tumors can be-

    • A.

      Benign

    • B.

      Malignant

    • C.

      Both benign & malignant

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Both benign & malignant
    Explanation
    Tumors can be both benign and malignant. Benign tumors are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. They can be removed and usually do not cause serious health problems. Malignant tumors, on the other hand, are cancerous and can invade nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body through the bloodstream or lymphatic system. They are more dangerous and require immediate medical attention and treatment. Therefore, tumors can exist in both benign and malignant forms, with different implications for a person's health.

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  • 26. 

    ___________ is not a characteristic of malignant tumors.

    • A.

      Metastasis

    • B.

      Anaplasia

    • C.

      Rapid multiplication

    • D.

      Slow growth

    Correct Answer
    D. Slow growth
    Explanation
    Malignant tumors are characterized by rapid multiplication and anaplasia, which refers to the loss of normal cellular characteristics. Metastasis is also a characteristic of malignant tumors, as it involves the spread of cancer cells to other parts of the body. However, slow growth is not a characteristic of malignant tumors. Malignant tumors tend to grow rapidly and invade surrounding tissues.

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  • 27. 

    Time required for blood to stop flowing from a small puncture wound is called 

    • A.

      Coagulation time

    • B.

      Partial thromboplastin time

    • C.

      Coagulation factor

    • D.

      Clotting time

    Correct Answer
    A. Coagulation time
    Explanation
    Coagulation time refers to the duration it takes for blood to stop flowing from a small puncture wound. This process involves the formation of a blood clot, which is essential for preventing excessive bleeding. Coagulation time can vary depending on various factors such as the individual's overall health, any underlying medical conditions, or the presence of certain medications. It is an important measure to assess the body's ability to form clots and maintain hemostasis.

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  • 28. 

    Cancerous tumours are classified as 

    • A.

      Carcinomas

    • B.

      Sarcomas

    • C.

      Mixed tissue tumours

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All the above." Cancerous tumors can be classified into different types based on the type of cells they originate from. Carcinomas are tumors that develop from epithelial cells, which are found in the lining of organs and tissues. Sarcomas, on the other hand, originate from connective tissues like bones, muscles, and blood vessels. Mixed tissue tumors are a combination of different types of cells. Therefore, all of these classifications are correct for cancerous tumors.

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  • 29. 

    Destruction of tissue by electric sparks generated by high frequency current.

    • A.

      Electrocauterization

    • B.

      Cryosurgery

    • C.

      Exenteration

    • D.

      Fulguration

    Correct Answer
    D. Fulguration
    Explanation
    Fulguration is the correct answer because it refers to the destruction of tissue using electric sparks generated by high frequency current. This technique is commonly used in medical procedures to remove or destroy abnormal tissue, such as tumors or polyps. By delivering controlled electrical sparks, fulguration effectively cauterizes and destroys the targeted tissue.

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  • 30. 

    Chondrosarcoma is the cancer of the  ______________.

    Correct Answer
    cartilage
    Explanation
    Chondrosarcoma is a type of cancer that originates in the cartilage. Cartilage is a flexible connective tissue found in various parts of the body, such as the joints, ears, and nose. Chondrosarcoma specifically affects the cells within the cartilage, causing them to become cancerous and grow uncontrollably. This type of cancer is relatively rare and typically occurs in older individuals. It can develop in different areas of the body, including the bones and soft tissues. Treatment options for chondrosarcoma may include surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy, depending on the stage and location of the cancer.

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  • 31. 

    Sarcomas are derived from ___________ tissues.  (epithelial/connective).

    Correct Answer
    connective
    Explanation
    Sarcomas are a type of cancer that originate from connective tissues. Connective tissues include bones, cartilage, tendons, ligaments, and blood vessels. Sarcomas can develop in any part of the body and are characterized by the abnormal growth of cells in these connective tissues. Unlike sarcomas, carcinomas are derived from epithelial tissues, which line the surfaces and cavities of organs.

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  • 32. 

    Tumour that requires large doses of radiation to produce death of cells are called _________ tumours.

    Correct Answer
    radioresistant
    Explanation
    Radioresistant tumours are tumours that are resistant to the effects of radiation therapy and require large doses of radiation to produce cell death. This means that these tumours are not easily killed or destroyed by radiation treatment, making them more difficult to treat. The term "radioresistant" describes the characteristic of these tumours to withstand the damaging effects of radiation, highlighting the need for higher doses of radiation to effectively kill the cancer cells.

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  • 33. 

    An inheritable change in DNA is called _________ (inherited/mutation). 

    Correct Answer
    mutation
    Explanation
    An inheritable change in DNA is called a mutation. Mutations can occur spontaneously or be caused by external factors such as radiation or chemicals. These changes can alter the genetic information encoded in the DNA and can be passed on from one generation to the next. Mutations can have various effects, ranging from no noticeable impact to causing genetic disorders or diseases. Therefore, the term "mutation" accurately describes the inheritable changes in DNA.

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  • 34. 

    Well-differentiated and nonmetastatic tumors are __________ tumors.  (malignant/benign).

    Correct Answer
    benign
    Explanation
    Well-differentiated and nonmetastatic tumors are classified as benign tumors. This is because well-differentiated tumors resemble normal cells and are less likely to invade surrounding tissues or spread to other parts of the body. Nonmetastatic tumors also indicate that the tumor has not spread to distant sites, further supporting the classification as benign.

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  • 35. 

    Carcinomas are less common than sarcomas.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Carcinomas are actually more common than sarcomas. Carcinomas are a type of cancer that originates in the epithelial cells, which are the cells that line the organs and tissues of the body. They account for about 80-90% of all cancer cases. On the other hand, sarcomas are a type of cancer that originates in the connective tissues, such as bones, muscles, and blood vessels. They are less common, accounting for about 1% of all cancer cases. Therefore, the statement that carcinomas are less common than sarcomas is false.

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  • 36. 

    The most common site of cystic tumors is in ovaries.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cystic tumors are most commonly found in the ovaries. This means that the ovaries are the most frequent location for the development of these types of tumors.

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  • 37. 

    Cryosurgery is occasionally used to treat bladder and prostate tumors.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cryosurgery, which involves freezing and destroying abnormal tissue, is sometimes employed as a treatment for bladder and prostate tumors. This method can be effective in removing cancerous cells from these areas. Therefore, the statement "Cryosurgery is occasionally used to treat bladder and prostate tumors" is true.

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  • 38. 

    Identify the difference between Nuclear medicine (NM) and Radiation therapy (RT)-

    • A.

      Both are the same

    • B.

      NM is used for diagnosis and RT is used for therapy

    • C.

      NM is used for therapy and RT is used for diagnosis

    Correct Answer
    B. NM is used for diagnosis and RT is used for therapy
    Explanation
    Nuclear medicine (NM) and Radiation therapy (RT) are two different branches of medical science that use radiation, but for different purposes. NM is primarily used for diagnosis, where radioactive substances are introduced into the body to create images and study the functioning of organs and tissues. On the other hand, RT is used for therapy, where high-energy radiation is used to treat diseases like cancer by targeting and killing cancer cells. Therefore, the correct answer is that NM is used for diagnosis and RT is used for therapy.

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  • 39. 

    Treesa was diagnosed with a meningioma, which is usually _________ tumor.  The doctor told her that it was not malignant, but that is should be removed because of the pressure it was causing on the surrounding tissues.

    • A.

      Benign

    • B.

      Aplastic

    • C.

      Necrotic

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Necrotic
    Explanation
    A meningioma is usually a benign tumor, meaning it is non-cancerous and does not spread to other parts of the body. However, in this case, the tumor is described as necrotic. Necrosis refers to the death of cells or tissue, which suggests that the tumor may have undergone some form of cell death or degeneration. This could be a reason why the doctor recommended its removal, as the necrotic tumor may be causing pressure on the surrounding tissues.

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  • 40. 

    An X-ray image of a blood vessel is

    • A.

      Tomography

    • B.

      Angiography

    • C.

      Cardiography

    • D.

      Hysterosalpingography

    Correct Answer
    B. Angiography
    Explanation
    Angiography is the correct answer because it is a medical imaging technique used to visualize blood vessels in various parts of the body. X-ray imaging is commonly used in angiography to create detailed images of blood vessels, allowing doctors to diagnose and treat conditions such as blockages or abnormalities. Tomography, cardiography, and hysterosalpingography are not specifically related to imaging blood vessels, making them incorrect options.

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  • 41. 

    An X-ray of the spinal cord-

    • A.

      Spinography

    • B.

      Vertebrography

    • C.

      Pyelography

    • D.

      Myelography

    Correct Answer
    D. Myelography
    Explanation
    Myelography is the correct answer because it is a diagnostic imaging procedure that uses X-rays to visualize the spinal cord and the surrounding structures. It involves injecting a contrast dye into the spinal canal, which helps to highlight any abnormalities or problems in the spinal cord. This procedure is commonly used to diagnose conditions such as herniated discs, spinal tumors, and spinal stenosis. Spinography, vertebrography, and pyelography are not specific to imaging the spinal cord and therefore are not the correct answers.

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  • 42. 

    It is okay to use MRI for patients with pacemakers or metallic implants.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    MRI machines use strong magnetic fields that can interfere with the functioning of pacemakers or metallic implants. The magnetic fields can cause the pacemaker to malfunction or move the metallic implants, leading to potential harm for the patient. Therefore, it is not okay to use MRI for patients with pacemakers or metallic implants.

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  • 43. 

    Benign tumor of the bone

    • A.

      Chondroma

    • B.

      Chondrosarcoma

    • C.

      Osteoma

    • D.

      Osteosarcoma

    Correct Answer
    C. Osteoma
    Explanation
    Osteoma is a benign tumor of the bone. It is composed of mature bone tissue and usually occurs in the skull or facial bones. Unlike chondroma, which is a benign tumor of cartilage, osteoma arises from bone tissue. Chondrosarcoma and osteosarcoma, on the other hand, are malignant tumors of the bone. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is osteoma, as it is the only option that corresponds to a benign tumor of the bone.

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  • 44. 

    Neuroblastoma is a benign tumor.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Neuroblastoma is not a benign tumor, but rather a malignant tumor. It is a type of cancer that develops from immature nerve cells found in various parts of the body, most commonly in the adrenal glands. It is considered a high-risk cancer and can spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 45. 

    Alkylating agents used in chemotherapy interfere with the process of DNA synthesis.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Alkylating agents used in chemotherapy are known to interfere with the process of DNA synthesis. These agents work by adding alkyl groups to the DNA molecule, which can cause DNA strands to break or crosslink. This disruption in DNA synthesis can prevent cancer cells from dividing and growing, ultimately leading to their death. Therefore, the statement "Alkylating agents used in chemotherapy interfere with the process of DNA synthesis" is true.

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  • 46. 

    Lymphomas and Hodgkin disease are examples of radiocurable tumors.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Lymphomas and Hodgkin disease are examples of radiocurable tumors because they are highly responsive to radiation therapy. Radiation therapy uses high-energy beams to target and kill cancer cells. Lymphomas and Hodgkin disease are known to have a high cure rate when treated with radiation therapy, making them radiocurable tumors.

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  • 47. 

    A __________ (foul, fowl) smell came from the infected blisters. 

    Correct Answer
    foul
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "foul." In this sentence, "foul" is used to describe the smell that came from the infected blisters. "Foul" means unpleasant or offensive in odor, which fits the context of the sentence. "Fowl," on the other hand, refers to a type of bird, and it does not make sense in the given sentence.

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  • 48. 

    ___________ is a carcinogen. (Tomato/Tobacco)

    Correct Answer
    Tobacco
    Explanation
    Tobacco is considered a carcinogen, meaning it has the potential to cause cancer. Numerous studies have shown a strong link between tobacco use and various types of cancer, including lung, throat, and mouth cancer. The harmful chemicals present in tobacco, such as nicotine and tar, can damage DNA and lead to the development of cancerous cells. Therefore, it is widely recognized that tobacco use poses a significant risk to human health and is classified as a carcinogen.

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