Pathologist Assistant Certification Test! Trivia Quiz

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Pathologist Assistant Certification Test! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

The Pathologist assistant certification test is just around the corner and what this means is that you get your chance to prove just how skilled you are to go to the field. A pathology assistant is tasked with examining specimens. Take up the test below and get to see just how ready you are for the final exam in the fall semester.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A diffuse or nodular enlargement of the thyroid is referred to as

    • A.

      Goiter

    • B.

      Hashimoto's disease

    • C.

      Grave's disease

    • D.

      Adenoma

    • E.

      Follicular carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Goiter
    Explanation
    A diffuse or nodular enlargement of the thyroid is referred to as a goiter. A goiter can occur due to various reasons such as iodine deficiency, inflammation, or certain thyroid disorders. It is characterized by the enlargement of the thyroid gland, which can cause symptoms like swelling in the neck, difficulty swallowing or breathing, and changes in voice. Treatment for goiter depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, iodine supplements, or surgery in severe cases.

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  • 2. 

    The most common malignant lesion of the esophagus is the SCC.  What is the commonest benign tumor?

    • A.

      Rhabdomyoma

    • B.

      Adenoma

    • C.

      Leiomyoma

    • D.

      Hemangioma

    Correct Answer
    C. Leiomyoma
    Explanation
    The commonest benign tumor of the esophagus is leiomyoma. Leiomyomas are smooth muscle tumors that arise from the muscular layer of the esophagus. They are usually small and asymptomatic, but can cause symptoms such as dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) or chest pain if they grow larger. Leiomyomas are typically benign and do not have the potential to become cancerous.

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  • 3. 

    Which organism is the leading cause of acute pyelonephritis?

    • A.

      Proteus

    • B.

      Streptococcus

    • C.

      E. coli

    • D.

      Klebsiella

    Correct Answer
    C. E. coli
    Explanation
    E. coli is the leading cause of acute pyelonephritis. This is because E. coli is a common bacterium found in the intestines and is responsible for most urinary tract infections. It can travel from the urethra to the bladder and then up to the kidneys, causing inflammation and infection in the kidneys. E. coli is particularly adept at adhering to the urinary tract and has virulence factors that allow it to cause infection. Hence, it is the most common organism associated with acute pyelonephritis.

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  • 4. 

    An episode of sever liver necrosis as may be seen in viral hepatitis could lead to:

    • A.

      Laennec's cirrhosis

    • B.

      Alcoholic cirrhosis

    • C.

      Postnecrotic cirrhosis

    • D.

      Portal cirrhosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Postnecrotic cirrhosis
    Explanation
    An episode of severe liver necrosis, such as that seen in viral hepatitis, can lead to postnecrotic cirrhosis. This type of cirrhosis occurs as a result of extensive liver cell death followed by regeneration. The necrotic liver tissue is replaced with fibrous scar tissue, which disrupts the normal structure and function of the liver. Postnecrotic cirrhosis can lead to liver failure and other complications.

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  • 5. 

    The failure of an organ to achieve its full adult size because of incomplete development is:

    • A.

      Hypoplasia

    • B.

      Hyperplasia

    • C.

      Agenesis

    • D.

      Dysplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoplasia
    Explanation
    Hypoplasia refers to the failure of an organ to achieve its full adult size due to incomplete development. This can occur due to various factors such as genetic abnormalities, inadequate blood supply, or damage during embryonic development. Unlike hyperplasia, which involves an increase in the number of cells, hypoplasia is characterized by a decrease in the size and number of cells. Agenesis refers to the complete absence or failure of an organ to develop, while dysplasia refers to abnormal cell growth and organization. Therefore, hypoplasia is the most appropriate term to describe the given scenario.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following, probably an autoimmune inflammatory disease, affects the thyroid?

    • A.

      Wilson's disease

    • B.

      Hodgkin's disease

    • C.

      Cushing's disease

    • D.

      Hashimoto's disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Hashimoto's disease
    Explanation
    Hashimoto's disease is an autoimmune inflammatory disease that affects the thyroid. In this condition, the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, leading to inflammation and damage. This results in an underactive thyroid or hypothyroidism. Symptoms of Hashimoto's disease include fatigue, weight gain, depression, and sensitivity to cold. It is more common in women and often runs in families. Treatment usually involves taking thyroid hormone replacement medication to restore normal thyroid function.

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  • 7. 

    The sequence of events in the development of a disease from the  beginning including the factors that influence its development is the:

    • A.

      Pathogenesis

    • B.

      Natural history

    • C.

      Clinical manifestation

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathogenesis
    Explanation
    Pathogenesis refers to the sequence of events that occur in the development of a disease from its beginning, including the factors that influence its development. It involves understanding the mechanisms by which a disease develops and progresses in the body. Natural history, on the other hand, refers to the course of a disease over time, including the outcomes and prognosis. Clinical manifestation refers to the signs and symptoms that are present in a patient with a particular disease. Therefore, pathogenesis is the correct answer as it specifically describes the sequence of events and factors involved in the development of a disease.

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  • 8. 

    Choledocholithiasis is a presence of calculi in the:

    • A.

      Gallbladder

    • B.

      Common bile duct

    • C.

      Kidney

    • D.

      Ureter

    • E.

      Hepatic duct

    Correct Answer
    B. Common bile duct
    Explanation
    Choledocholithiasis refers to the presence of calculi or stones in the common bile duct. The common bile duct is a tube that carries bile from the liver and gallbladder to the small intestine. When stones form in the gallbladder, they can sometimes migrate into the common bile duct, causing a blockage. This can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, jaundice, and digestive issues. Treatment for choledocholithiasis often involves removing the stones from the common bile duct to relieve the blockage and prevent further complications.

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  • 9. 

    Islet cell tumors of the pancreas (non-beta cell neoplasms) associated w/ recurring intractable peptic ulceration usually of the jejunum but may also be of the duodenum or stomach are found in which syndrome? 

    • A.

      Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

    • B.

      Alport's Syndrome

    • C.

      Goodpasture's syndrome

    • D.

      Waterhouse Fredrickson syndrome

    • E.

      Sjorgen's Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
    Explanation
    Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome is the correct answer because it is a rare condition characterized by the presence of islet cell tumors in the pancreas. These tumors produce excessive amounts of gastrin, a hormone that stimulates the production of gastric acid. The increased acid secretion leads to recurring intractable peptic ulceration, which primarily affects the jejunum but can also occur in the duodenum or stomach. This syndrome is often associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) and can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and gastrointestinal bleeding.

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  • 10. 

    Grave's disease is a type of:

    • A.

      Hyperparathyroidism

    • B.

      Hyperthyroidism

    • C.

      Hypothyroidism

    • D.

      Hypoparathyroidism

    • E.

      Adrenal insufficiency

    Correct Answer
    B. Hyperthyroidism
    Explanation
    Grave's disease is a type of hyperthyroidism. It is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, causing it to produce excessive amounts of thyroid hormones. This leads to symptoms such as weight loss, rapid heartbeat, tremors, and anxiety. Treatment options for Grave's disease include medication, radioactive iodine therapy, and surgery to remove the thyroid gland.

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  • 11. 

    Bleeding, perforation & obstruction are common complications of:

    • A.

      Peptic Ulcers

    • B.

      Acute Gastric ulcers

    • C.

      Malignant gastric ulcers

    • D.

      Acute duodenal ulcers

    Correct Answer
    A. Peptic Ulcers
    Explanation
    Peptic ulcers can lead to bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus. When the ulcer erodes a blood vessel, it can cause bleeding. If the ulcer penetrates through the wall of the stomach or intestine, it can cause perforation, which is a hole in the organ. Obstruction can occur when the ulcer causes swelling and inflammation, blocking the passage of food through the digestive system. Therefore, bleeding, perforation, and obstruction are common complications of peptic ulcers.

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  • 12. 

    Whole body edema is referred to as:

    Correct Answer
    anasarca
    Explanation
    Anasarca refers to the condition of generalized edema or swelling throughout the entire body. It is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces, leading to swelling in various parts of the body such as the legs, arms, face, and abdomen. Anasarca can be caused by various underlying medical conditions, including heart failure, liver disease, kidney disease, and severe malnutrition. This term is commonly used in medical settings to describe a severe form of edema that affects the entire body.

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  • 13. 

    Which carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with the protein complex  amyloid?

    • A.

      Papillary

    • B.

      Follicular

    • C.

      Medullary

    • D.

      Epidermoid

    Correct Answer
    C. Medullary
    Explanation
    Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with the protein complex amyloid. This type of carcinoma arises from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland, which produce calcitonin. The presence of amyloid deposits in the tumor is a characteristic feature of medullary carcinoma. Amyloid is an abnormal protein that can accumulate in various tissues and organs, and its presence in medullary carcinoma helps to distinguish it from other types of thyroid carcinoma.

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  • 14. 

    Proliferating fibroblasts, endothelial cell proliferation, and chronic  inflammatory cells (macrophages) characterize:

    • A.

      Granulation Tissue

    • B.

      Chronic Inflammation

    • C.

      Acute Inflammation

    • D.

      Granuloma

    Correct Answer
    A. Granulation Tissue
    Explanation
    Granulation tissue is characterized by the proliferation of fibroblasts, endothelial cells, and chronic inflammatory cells such as macrophages. This tissue forms during the healing process of a wound or injury and is composed of new blood vessels, collagen, and other extracellular matrix components. The presence of these cellular and inflammatory components distinguishes granulation tissue from other types of inflammation, such as acute or chronic inflammation, and granulomas.

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  • 15. 

    Adrenal hyperplasia often clinically characterized by truncal obesity,  moon facies, buffalo hump and poor wound healing is known as:

    • A.

      Addison's disease

    • B.

      Cushing's disease/syndrome

    • C.

      Grave's disease

    • D.

      Hashimotos' disease

    • E.

      Crohn's disease

    Correct Answer
    B. Cushing's disease/syndrome
    Explanation
    Adrenal hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an overgrowth or enlargement of the adrenal glands. This condition often presents with symptoms such as truncal obesity, moon facies (rounding and swelling of the face), buffalo hump (excessive fat deposits on the upper back and neck), and poor wound healing. These symptoms are commonly associated with Cushing's disease/syndrome, which is caused by excessive production of cortisol hormone by the adrenal glands. Therefore, Cushing's disease/syndrome is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 16. 

    Epistaxis is a synonym for:

    Correct Answer
    nosebleed
    nose bleed
    bloody nose
    Explanation
    Epistaxis is a medical term used to describe the condition of bleeding from the nose, commonly known as a nosebleed. Therefore, the correct answer is nosebleed, nose bleed, and bloody nose, as all three terms are synonyms for epistaxis.

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  • 17. 

    The most common adult malignancy arising in the adrenal medulla is the: 

    • A.

      Neuroblastoma

    • B.

      Pheochromocytoma

    • C.

      Paraganglioma

    • D.

      Neurilemmoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Pheochromocytoma
    Explanation
    Pheochromocytoma is the most common adult malignancy arising in the adrenal medulla. It is a tumor that develops from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal gland. These tumors produce excess catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension, palpitations, and sweating. Neuroblastoma, on the other hand, is a malignancy that arises from neural crest cells and is more commonly seen in children. Paraganglioma is a tumor that arises from extra-adrenal chromaffin cells, while neurilemmoma is a benign tumor of the peripheral nerve sheath.

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  • 18. 

    The most common site for a primary carcinoma of the GI tract is the:

    • A.

      Rectosigmoid colon

    • B.

      Ascending colon

    • C.

      Transverse colon

    • D.

      Descending colon

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectosigmoid colon
    Explanation
    The rectosigmoid colon is the most common site for a primary carcinoma of the GI tract. This is because the rectosigmoid colon is the area where the sigmoid colon (the S-shaped part of the colon) transitions into the rectum. It is a common site for tumors to develop due to the prolonged exposure of the colon to fecal material, which can lead to the development of cancerous cells. Additionally, the rectosigmoid colon is also subject to increased pressure during bowel movements, which can contribute to the development of tumors.

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  • 19. 

    The most common tumor of the head and neck, in particular the larynx is  the: 

    • A.

      SCC

    • B.

      Adenoma

    Correct Answer
    A. SCC
    Explanation
    Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is the most common tumor of the head and neck, particularly in the larynx. SCC refers to cancer that develops in the squamous cells, which are the thin, flat cells lining the surface of the larynx. This type of cancer can occur due to various factors such as tobacco and alcohol use, exposure to certain chemicals, and human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. SCC can lead to symptoms like hoarseness, difficulty swallowing, and a persistent sore throat. Early detection and treatment are crucial for better outcomes in SCC cases.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is an inflammatory bowel disease usually affecting  only the mucosa without fistulization or granuloma formation:

    • A.

      Ulcerative colitis

    • B.

      Crohn's

    • C.

      IBD

    Correct Answer
    A. Ulcerative colitis
    Explanation
    Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease that primarily affects the mucosa, the innermost lining of the colon and rectum. It is characterized by chronic inflammation and ulcers in the colon, causing symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. Unlike Crohn's disease, which can affect any part of the digestive tract and can lead to complications like fistulas and granulomas, ulcerative colitis is typically limited to the colon and does not involve fistulization or granuloma formation. Therefore, the correct answer is Ulcerative colitis.

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  • 21. 

    Pinpoint hemorrhage due to leakage from capillary or venule are:

    • A.

      Petechiae

    • B.

      Purpura

    • C.

      Stigma

    • D.

      Bruise

    Correct Answer
    A. Petechiae
    Explanation
    Petechiae are pinpoint hemorrhages that occur due to the leakage of blood from capillaries or venules. They appear as small, flat, red or purple spots on the skin or mucous membranes. Petechiae can be caused by various factors such as trauma, infections, certain medical conditions, or medications that affect blood clotting. They are different from purpura, which are larger areas of bleeding, and bruises, which result from damage to deeper tissues. Stigma is not related to hemorrhage and therefore not the correct answer.

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  • 22. 

    A malformation indigenous to an area resembling and having some features of a tumor with usually only one element predominating is?

    • A.

      Teratoma

    • B.

      Teratocarcinoma

    • C.

      Choristoma

    • D.

      Hamartoma

    Correct Answer
    D. Hamartoma
    Explanation
    A hamartoma is a malformation that is indigenous to an area and resembles a tumor. However, unlike a tumor, a hamartoma usually only has one element predominating. This means that it is not a true tumor, but rather a disorganized overgrowth of normal tissues in the area.

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  • 23. 

    Another term for valvular thrombus is?

    • A.

      Excrescence

    • B.

      Ball thrombus

    • C.

      Saddle

    • D.

      Vegetation

    Correct Answer
    D. Vegetation
    Explanation
    Valvular thrombus refers to a blood clot that forms on the valves of the heart. The term "vegetation" is often used to describe this condition. This is because the clot appears as a mass of fibrin, platelets, and other cellular debris, resembling a vegetative growth. The term "excrescence" refers to an abnormal growth or projection, but it is not specifically associated with valvular thrombus. "Ball thrombus" and "saddle" do not accurately describe valvular thrombus.

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  • 24. 

    Commonest cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

    • A.

      Adenoma

    • B.

      Adenocarcinoma

    • C.

      Chronic renal failure

    • D.

      Bone marrow carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    C. Chronic renal failure
    Explanation
    Chronic renal failure is the commonest cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism. In this condition, the kidneys are unable to adequately filter and eliminate waste products from the body, leading to an imbalance of minerals and hormones, including parathyroid hormone. As a result, the parathyroid glands become overactive and produce excessive amounts of parathyroid hormone, causing secondary hyperparathyroidism. This condition is characterized by elevated levels of parathyroid hormone, low levels of calcium, and high levels of phosphorus in the blood. Adenoma, adenocarcinoma, and bone marrow carcinoma are not commonly associated with secondary hyperparathyroidism.

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  • 25. 

    Edema of the dependant portions is likely to occur with:

    • A.

      Mitral stenosis

    • B.

      Aortic insufficiency

    • C.

      Right heart failure

    • D.

      Pericarditis

    Correct Answer
    C. Right heart failure
    Explanation
    Edema of the dependent portions refers to the accumulation of fluid in the lower parts of the body, such as the legs and ankles. Right heart failure is characterized by the inability of the right side of the heart to effectively pump blood, leading to fluid backup in the body's venous system. This increased pressure causes fluid to leak into the surrounding tissues, resulting in edema. Therefore, right heart failure is likely to cause edema of the dependent portions.

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  • 26. 

    Fatty change, polys, and Mallory bodies are found with?

    • A.

      Viral hepatitis

    • B.

      Alcoholic hepatitis

    • C.

      Measles pneumonia

    • D.

      Cardiac cirrhosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Alcoholic hepatitis
    Explanation
    Fatty change, polys, and Mallory bodies are commonly associated with alcoholic hepatitis. Alcoholic hepatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and damage to the liver due to excessive alcohol consumption. Fatty change refers to the accumulation of fat within liver cells, polys refers to polymorphonuclear leukocytes which are a type of white blood cell often seen in inflammatory conditions, and Mallory bodies are abnormal protein aggregates found in liver cells during alcoholic hepatitis. These findings are not typically seen in viral hepatitis, measles pneumonia, or cardiac cirrhosis.

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  • 27. 

    Sudden or complete blockage of blood in the brain or spinal cord results in?

    • A.

      Gangrene

    • B.

      Liquefaction

    • C.

      Thrombosis

    • D.

      Fatty metamorphosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Liquefaction
    Explanation
    When there is a sudden or complete blockage of blood in the brain or spinal cord, it can lead to liquefaction. This refers to the process where the affected tissue becomes liquefied due to the lack of blood flow and oxygen. This can cause the tissue to break down and result in the formation of a fluid-filled cavity. Liquefaction is a serious condition that can lead to severe damage and impair the normal functioning of the brain or spinal cord.

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  • 28. 

    Which disease may lead to hepatic cirrhosis that is also associated with a defect in copper metabolism?

    • A.

      Wilson's disease

    • B.

      Hemosiderosis

    • C.

      Gauchers

    Correct Answer
    A. Wilson's disease
    Explanation
    Wilson's disease is a genetic disorder that leads to excessive accumulation of copper in the body, primarily affecting the liver. Over time, this can cause hepatic cirrhosis, a condition characterized by scarring and damage to the liver. The defect in copper metabolism in Wilson's disease is due to a mutation in the ATP7B gene, which impairs the liver's ability to excrete excess copper into bile. As a result, copper builds up in the liver and other organs, leading to various symptoms and complications.

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  • 29. 

    In chronic cholecystitis, deep invaginations of the epithelium may be present along with muscular hypertrophy and chronic inflammatory cells.  These evaginations are called?

    • A.

      Diverticula

    • B.

      Rokitansky-Aschoff Sinuses

    Correct Answer
    B. Rokitansky-Aschoff Sinuses
    Explanation
    In chronic cholecystitis, deep invaginations of the epithelium may be present along with muscular hypertrophy and chronic inflammatory cells. These evaginations are called Rokitansky-Aschoff Sinuses.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is a small lesion of the pituitary that may be associated with Cushing's syndrome?

    • A.

      Adenocarcinoma

    • B.

      Oat cell ca

    • C.

      Chromophobe adenoma

    • D.

      Basophilic adenoma

    • E.

      Acidophilic adenoma

    Correct Answer
    D. Basophilic adenoma
    Explanation
    A small lesion of the pituitary that may be associated with Cushing's syndrome is a basophilic adenoma. Basophilic adenomas are tumors of the pituitary gland that produce excess adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), leading to increased cortisol production by the adrenal glands. This excessive cortisol production can result in Cushing's syndrome, which is characterized by weight gain, high blood pressure, diabetes, and other symptoms. Adenocarcinoma, oat cell ca, and chromophobe adenoma are not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following lesions of the thyroid is most likely to spread to lymph nodes?

    • A.

      Riedel's struma

    • B.

      Papillary carcinoma

    • C.

      Follicular adenoma

    • D.

      Embryonal adenoma

    • E.

      Medullary carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Papillary carcinoma
    Explanation
    Papillary carcinoma is the most likely lesion of the thyroid to spread to lymph nodes. This is because papillary carcinoma is a type of thyroid cancer that commonly metastasizes to regional lymph nodes. The cancer cells can invade and spread to the nearby lymph nodes, leading to the potential for further spread throughout the body. Unlike other lesions mentioned, such as Riedel's struma, follicular adenoma, embryonal adenoma, and medullary carcinoma, papillary carcinoma has a higher propensity for lymph node involvement.

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  • 32. 

    The valve most commonly affected by rheumatic heart disease, which usually manifests itself later in life is the?

    • A.

      Aortic

    • B.

      Tricuspid

    • C.

      Mitral

    • D.

      Ileocecal

    • E.

      Pulmonary

    Correct Answer
    C. Mitral
    Explanation
    Rheumatic heart disease is a condition that occurs as a result of untreated or inadequately treated strep throat or scarlet fever. It causes inflammation and damage to the heart valves. The mitral valve is the valve most commonly affected by rheumatic heart disease. This is because the left side of the heart, where the mitral valve is located, is under more pressure and strain compared to the right side. Additionally, the mitral valve is more susceptible to damage due to its structure and function. Therefore, it is not surprising that rheumatic heart disease usually manifests itself later in life with symptoms related to the mitral valve dysfunction.

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  • 33. 

    Alternative regions of platelets and fibrin with red and white cells in a thrombus as seen macroscopically are?

    • A.

      Lines of Zahn

    • B.

      Striae

    • C.

      Lines of Conn

    • D.

      Propagating thrombus

    • E.

      Agonal thrombus

    Correct Answer
    A. Lines of Zahn
    Explanation
    Lines of Zahn are seen macroscopically in a thrombus and are characterized by alternating layers of platelets and fibrin with red and white blood cells. These layers are formed during the formation of a thrombus when blood flow is disrupted and platelets start to aggregate. The layers of platelets and fibrin are formed in a laminar pattern, giving the appearance of lines. This distinct pattern helps differentiate a thrombus from a postmortem clot, where the layers are not present. Therefore, the presence of lines of Zahn is indicative of a thrombus rather than other options such as striae, lines of Conn, propagating thrombus, or agonal thrombus.

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  • 34. 

    A myocardial infarction that exhibits a yellow tan surface surrounded by red-purple depressed bands of granulation tissue is how old?

    • A.

      24 hours

    • B.

      1 week

    • C.

      3 months

    • D.

      2 weeks

    Correct Answer
    D. 2 weeks
    Explanation
    The given description of a myocardial infarction with a yellow tan surface surrounded by red-purple depressed bands of granulation tissue indicates that the infarction is in the healing stage. This healing process typically occurs around 2 weeks after the initial event, as the body forms granulation tissue to repair the damaged area. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 weeks.

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  • 35. 

    Primary adrenal lesions (adenomas, carcinomas, hyperplasias, ectopic ACTH production and basophilic pituitary adenomas) may lead to?

    • A.

      Simmonds disease

    • B.

      Grave's disease

    • C.

      Mallory-weiss lesions

    • D.

      Cushing's

    • E.

      Addisons

    Correct Answer
    D. Cushing's
    Explanation
    Primary adrenal lesions such as adenomas, carcinomas, hyperplasias, ectopic ACTH production, and basophilic pituitary adenomas can lead to Cushing's disease. Cushing's disease is a condition characterized by excessive production of cortisol hormone by the adrenal glands. This results in various symptoms including weight gain, high blood pressure, diabetes, muscle weakness, and mood changes.

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  • 36. 

    The most common benign tumor of the liver is the?

    • A.

      Hepatocellular carcinoma

    • B.

      Fibroma

    • C.

      Hepatoma

    • D.

      Hemangioma

    • E.

      Leiomyoma

    Correct Answer
    D. Hemangioma
    Explanation
    A hemangioma is the most common benign tumor of the liver. It is a non-cancerous growth that is made up of blood vessels. Hemangiomas are usually small and do not cause any symptoms. They are often discovered incidentally during imaging tests for other conditions. Treatment is generally not necessary unless the hemangioma is causing symptoms or growing in size. Hepatocellular carcinoma, fibroma, hepatoma, and leiomyoma are not the most common benign tumors of the liver.

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  • 37. 

    Functional adenomas of the outer adrenal cortex may directly lead to increased production of?

    • A.

      Aldosterone

    • B.

      Vitamin c

    • C.

      Magnesium

    • D.

      LDH

    • E.

      Spironolactone

    Correct Answer
    A. Aldosterone
    Explanation
    Functional adenomas of the outer adrenal cortex are tumors that develop in the adrenal glands and can lead to excessive production of hormones. In this case, the correct answer is aldosterone. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that helps regulate blood pressure and electrolyte balance. Increased production of aldosterone can cause fluid retention, high blood pressure, and imbalances in sodium and potassium levels. Therefore, functional adenomas of the outer adrenal cortex can directly lead to increased production of aldosterone.

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  • 38. 

    What is responsible for almost 90% of osmotic pressure at the capillary level mainly due to its small molecules and high concentration?

    • A.

      Gamma globulins

    • B.

      Beta globulins

    • C.

      Lipids

    • D.

      Albumin

    • E.

      Electrolytes

    Correct Answer
    D. Albumin
    Explanation
    Albumin is responsible for almost 90% of osmotic pressure at the capillary level mainly due to its small molecules and high concentration. Osmotic pressure is the force that helps to maintain the balance of fluids between the blood vessels and the surrounding tissues. Albumin, a protein found in the blood, has small molecules that can easily pass through capillary walls and its high concentration creates a strong osmotic force that draws fluid back into the blood vessels, preventing excessive fluid loss from the tissues.

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  • 39. 

    The commonest tumor of the salivary glands?

    • A.

      Warthin's tumor

    • B.

      Pleomorphic adenoma

    • C.

      SCC

    • D.

      Adenoid cystic carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Pleomorphic adenoma
    Explanation
    Pleomorphic adenoma is the correct answer because it is the most common tumor of the salivary glands. It is a benign tumor that typically arises from the parotid gland and is characterized by a mixture of different cell types. Warthin's tumor, SCC (squamous cell carcinoma), and adenoid cystic carcinoma are also tumors of the salivary glands, but they are less common compared to pleomorphic adenoma.

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  • 40. 

    The liver has cells with few intermitotic forms when upon stimulation can overproduce/ regenerate:

    • A.

      Stable cells

    • B.

      Permanent cells

    • C.

      labile cells

    • D.

      Fixed cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Stable cells
    Explanation
    Stable cells are able to regenerate and overproduce when stimulated. Unlike permanent cells, which are unable to divide, and labile cells, which continuously divide, stable cells have a low rate of division but can still regenerate under certain conditions. The liver contains stable cells that can undergo cell division and regenerate the tissue in response to injury or stimulation.

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  • 41. 

    The commonest malignant lesion of the female breast is?

    • A.

      SCC

    • B.

      Medullary CA

    • C.

      Lobular CA

    • D.

      Ductal CA

    Correct Answer
    D. Ductal CA
    Explanation
    Ductal CA refers to ductal carcinoma, which is the most common malignant lesion of the female breast. It arises from the cells lining the milk ducts in the breast. This type of breast cancer accounts for about 80% of all breast cancer cases. Ductal carcinoma can be invasive, meaning it has spread beyond the ducts into the surrounding breast tissue, or non-invasive, also known as ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS). Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with ductal carcinoma.

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  • 42. 

    A yellow zone at the periphery of an MI due to leukocytic infiltration and phagocytosis of lipids is often seen by day?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Four

    • D.

      Ten

    Correct Answer
    C. Four
    Explanation
    A yellow zone at the periphery of an MI due to leukocytic infiltration and phagocytosis of lipids is often seen by day four.

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  • 43. 

    The commonest site of origin for pulmonary embolus is the?

    • A.

      Prostatic veins

    • B.

      Heart

    • C.

      Portal vein

    • D.

      Leg vein

    Correct Answer
    D. Leg vein
    Explanation
    The correct answer is leg vein. Pulmonary embolus refers to a blood clot that travels to the lungs and blocks the blood flow. It commonly originates from deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the leg veins. DVT occurs when a blood clot forms in the deep veins of the leg, usually due to prolonged immobility, surgery, or certain medical conditions. If the clot breaks off and travels to the lungs, it can cause a pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the leg veins are the most common site of origin for pulmonary embolus.

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  • 44. 

    Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) characteristically results in which type of necrosis?

    • A.

      Caseation

    • B.

      Liquifaction

    • C.

      Coagulation

    • D.

      Fibrinoid

    • E.

      Fatty

    Correct Answer
    A. Caseation
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) infection typically leads to caseation necrosis. Caseation necrosis is a form of necrosis characterized by the formation of a granuloma, which consists of a central area of necrotic tissue surrounded by a rim of inflammatory cells. In the case of TB, the central necrotic area is often cheese-like in appearance, hence the term "caseation." This type of necrosis is commonly seen in chronic granulomatous infections, such as TB, and is a result of the body's attempt to contain and eliminate the infectious agent.

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  • 45. 

    All of the following are bronchogenic carcinomas except?

    • A.

      Adenocarcinoma

    • B.

      Oat cell carcinoma

    • C.

      Pheochromocytoma

    • D.

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    C. Pheochromocytoma
    Explanation
    Bronchogenic carcinomas are a type of lung cancer that originate from the cells lining the bronchi (the main airways of the lungs). Adenocarcinoma, oat cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all types of bronchogenic carcinomas. However, pheochromocytoma is not a type of lung cancer. Instead, it is a rare tumor that develops in the adrenal glands, which are located on top of the kidneys. Therefore, pheochromocytoma is not considered a bronchogenic carcinoma.

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  • 46. 

    Increase in volume as a result of an enlargement of existing cells is?

    Correct Answer
    hypertrophy
  • 47. 

    Which of the following is least likely to metastasize?

    • A.

      Glioblastoma

    • B.

      Pheochromocytoma

    • C.

      Rhabdomyosarcoma

    • D.

      Adenoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Glioblastoma
  • 48. 

    Which of the following is a true diverticulum arising in the ileum about 1 meter proximal to the cecum which represents a remnant of fetal omphalomesenteric duct?

    • A.

      Meckels

    • B.

      Mackels

    Correct Answer
    A. Meckels
    Explanation
    Meckel's diverticulum is a true diverticulum that arises in the ileum, approximately 1 meter proximal to the cecum. It is formed due to the incomplete closure of the omphalomesenteric duct during fetal development. Meckel's diverticulum is the correct answer as it accurately describes the diverticulum in question.

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  • 49. 

    A collection of epithelioid cells (macrophages) is a?

    • A.

      Epithelioma

    • B.

      Granuloma

    • C.

      Epidermoid carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Granuloma
    Explanation
    A granuloma is a collection of epithelioid cells, which are macrophages that have transformed into a specific cell type resembling epithelial cells. Granulomas are typically formed in response to chronic inflammation or certain infections, such as tuberculosis or sarcoidosis. They are characterized by a central core of immune cells surrounded by a rim of fibrotic tissue. Epithelioma refers to a tumor arising from epithelial cells, while epidermoid carcinoma specifically refers to a type of skin cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is granuloma.

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  • 50. 

    Epidermoid carcinomas are associated with intercellular bridges and?

    • A.

      Keratin

    • B.

      Acini

    • C.

      Mucin

    Correct Answer
    A. Keratin
    Explanation
    Epidermoid carcinomas are a type of skin cancer that originate from the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. These carcinomas are characterized by the presence of intercellular bridges, which are connections between adjacent cells. Additionally, epidermoid carcinomas are known to produce keratin, a protein that is a major component of the epidermis. Therefore, the correct answer is keratin.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 07, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Ajsellner
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