Pathologist Assistant Certification Test! Trivia Quiz

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1. Which of the following, probably an autoimmune inflammatory disease, affects the thyroid?

Explanation

Hashimoto's disease is an autoimmune inflammatory disease that affects the thyroid. In this condition, the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, leading to inflammation and damage. This results in an underactive thyroid or hypothyroidism. Symptoms of Hashimoto's disease include fatigue, weight gain, depression, and sensitivity to cold. It is more common in women and often runs in families. Treatment usually involves taking thyroid hormone replacement medication to restore normal thyroid function.

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About This Quiz
Pathologist Assistant Certification Test! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

The Pathologist assistant certification test is just around the corner and what this means is that you get your chance to prove just how skilled you are to... see morego to the field. A pathology assistant is tasked with examining specimens. Take up the test below and get to see just how ready you are for the final exam in the fall semester. see less

2. The sequence of events in the development of a disease from the  beginning including the factors that influence its development is the:

Explanation

Pathogenesis refers to the sequence of events that occur in the development of a disease from its beginning, including the factors that influence its development. It involves understanding the mechanisms by which a disease develops and progresses in the body. Natural history, on the other hand, refers to the course of a disease over time, including the outcomes and prognosis. Clinical manifestation refers to the signs and symptoms that are present in a patient with a particular disease. Therefore, pathogenesis is the correct answer as it specifically describes the sequence of events and factors involved in the development of a disease.

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3. Which of the following is a true diverticulum arising in the ileum about 1 meter proximal to the cecum which represents a remnant of fetal omphalomesenteric duct?

Explanation

Meckel's diverticulum is a true diverticulum that arises in the ileum, approximately 1 meter proximal to the cecum. It is formed due to the incomplete closure of the omphalomesenteric duct during fetal development. Meckel's diverticulum is the correct answer as it accurately describes the diverticulum in question.

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4. An epithelial neoplasm that has not invaded the underlying basal lamina is said to be?

Explanation

An epithelial neoplasm that has not invaded the underlying basal lamina is said to be "In Situ". This term refers to the localized growth of abnormal cells that remain confined to their original site without spreading to surrounding tissues or organs. In situ neoplasms are considered to be in the early stages and have not yet developed the ability to invade or metastasize. Therefore, they are not considered malignant or benign at this stage.

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5. Blood vessel injury, stasis of blood flow and increased coagulability may all lead to?

Explanation

Blood vessel injury, stasis of blood flow, and increased coagulability are all factors that can contribute to the formation of a blood clot, known as thrombosis. When a blood vessel is damaged, it triggers a series of events that promote clotting. Stasis of blood flow, which can occur due to immobility or obstruction, slows down the blood circulation, increasing the risk of clot formation. Additionally, increased coagulability, often caused by certain medical conditions or medications, makes the blood more prone to clotting. Therefore, all these factors combined can lead to the development of thrombosis.

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6. The most common tumor of the head and neck, in particular the larynx is  the: 

Explanation

Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is the most common tumor of the head and neck, particularly in the larynx. SCC refers to cancer that develops in the squamous cells, which are the thin, flat cells lining the surface of the larynx. This type of cancer can occur due to various factors such as tobacco and alcohol use, exposure to certain chemicals, and human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. SCC can lead to symptoms like hoarseness, difficulty swallowing, and a persistent sore throat. Early detection and treatment are crucial for better outcomes in SCC cases.

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7. Pinpoint hemorrhage due to leakage from capillary or venule are:

Explanation

Petechiae are pinpoint hemorrhages that occur due to the leakage of blood from capillaries or venules. They appear as small, flat, red or purple spots on the skin or mucous membranes. Petechiae can be caused by various factors such as trauma, infections, certain medical conditions, or medications that affect blood clotting. They are different from purpura, which are larger areas of bleeding, and bruises, which result from damage to deeper tissues. Stigma is not related to hemorrhage and therefore not the correct answer.

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8. Functional adenomas of the outer adrenal cortex may directly lead to increased production of?

Explanation

Functional adenomas of the outer adrenal cortex are tumors that develop in the adrenal glands and can lead to excessive production of hormones. In this case, the correct answer is aldosterone. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that helps regulate blood pressure and electrolyte balance. Increased production of aldosterone can cause fluid retention, high blood pressure, and imbalances in sodium and potassium levels. Therefore, functional adenomas of the outer adrenal cortex can directly lead to increased production of aldosterone.

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9. A diffuse or nodular enlargement of the thyroid is referred to as

Explanation

A diffuse or nodular enlargement of the thyroid is referred to as a goiter. A goiter can occur due to various reasons such as iodine deficiency, inflammation, or certain thyroid disorders. It is characterized by the enlargement of the thyroid gland, which can cause symptoms like swelling in the neck, difficulty swallowing or breathing, and changes in voice. Treatment for goiter depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, iodine supplements, or surgery in severe cases.

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10. The commonest site of origin for pulmonary embolus is the?

Explanation

The correct answer is leg vein. Pulmonary embolus refers to a blood clot that travels to the lungs and blocks the blood flow. It commonly originates from deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the leg veins. DVT occurs when a blood clot forms in the deep veins of the leg, usually due to prolonged immobility, surgery, or certain medical conditions. If the clot breaks off and travels to the lungs, it can cause a pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the leg veins are the most common site of origin for pulmonary embolus.

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11. Which disease may lead to hepatic cirrhosis that is also associated with a defect in copper metabolism?

Explanation

Wilson's disease is a genetic disorder that leads to excessive accumulation of copper in the body, primarily affecting the liver. Over time, this can cause hepatic cirrhosis, a condition characterized by scarring and damage to the liver. The defect in copper metabolism in Wilson's disease is due to a mutation in the ATP7B gene, which impairs the liver's ability to excrete excess copper into bile. As a result, copper builds up in the liver and other organs, leading to various symptoms and complications.

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12. Tumor that occurs at the appendiceal tip?

Explanation

A tumor that occurs at the appendiceal tip is called a carcinoid. Carcinoid tumors are a type of neuroendocrine tumor that can develop in various parts of the body, including the appendix. They are usually slow-growing and may not cause any symptoms initially. However, as they grow, they can cause abdominal pain, changes in bowel movements, and other digestive issues. Carcinoid tumors can be diagnosed through imaging tests and a biopsy. Treatment options may include surgery to remove the tumor, as well as other therapies such as chemotherapy or targeted drug therapy.

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13. Alternative regions of platelets and fibrin with red and white cells in a thrombus as seen macroscopically are?

Explanation

Lines of Zahn are seen macroscopically in a thrombus and are characterized by alternating layers of platelets and fibrin with red and white blood cells. These layers are formed during the formation of a thrombus when blood flow is disrupted and platelets start to aggregate. The layers of platelets and fibrin are formed in a laminar pattern, giving the appearance of lines. This distinct pattern helps differentiate a thrombus from a postmortem clot, where the layers are not present. Therefore, the presence of lines of Zahn is indicative of a thrombus rather than other options such as striae, lines of Conn, propagating thrombus, or agonal thrombus.

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14. Which clinical criterion is based on the extent of spread of the disease?

Explanation

Stage is a clinical criterion that is based on the extent of spread of the disease. It helps in determining the severity and progression of the disease by considering factors such as tumor size, lymph node involvement, and presence of metastasis. The stage of the disease provides important information for planning the appropriate treatment and assessing the prognosis of the patient. On the other hand, grade refers to the aggressiveness or differentiation of the tumor cells, which is a different criterion used to classify the disease.

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15. Seven days post-MI?

Explanation

Cardiac tamponade is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, compressing the heart and interfering with its ability to pump blood effectively. This can occur as a complication of a myocardial infarction (MI), commonly known as a heart attack. Seven days post-MI, the risk of cardiac tamponade may be higher due to inflammation and healing processes taking place in the heart. If left untreated, cardiac tamponade can lead to severe cardiovascular compromise and even death.

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16. The commonest malignant lesion of the female breast is?

Explanation

Ductal CA refers to ductal carcinoma, which is the most common malignant lesion of the female breast. It arises from the cells lining the milk ducts in the breast. This type of breast cancer accounts for about 80% of all breast cancer cases. Ductal carcinoma can be invasive, meaning it has spread beyond the ducts into the surrounding breast tissue, or non-invasive, also known as ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS). Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with ductal carcinoma.

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17. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) characteristically results in which type of necrosis?

Explanation

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) infection typically leads to caseation necrosis. Caseation necrosis is a form of necrosis characterized by the formation of a granuloma, which consists of a central area of necrotic tissue surrounded by a rim of inflammatory cells. In the case of TB, the central necrotic area is often cheese-like in appearance, hence the term "caseation." This type of necrosis is commonly seen in chronic granulomatous infections, such as TB, and is a result of the body's attempt to contain and eliminate the infectious agent.

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18. A collection of epithelioid cells (macrophages) is a?

Explanation

A granuloma is a collection of epithelioid cells, which are macrophages that have transformed into a specific cell type resembling epithelial cells. Granulomas are typically formed in response to chronic inflammation or certain infections, such as tuberculosis or sarcoidosis. They are characterized by a central core of immune cells surrounded by a rim of fibrotic tissue. Epithelioma refers to a tumor arising from epithelial cells, while epidermoid carcinoma specifically refers to a type of skin cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is granuloma.

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19. Grave's disease is a type of:

Explanation

Grave's disease is a type of hyperthyroidism. It is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, causing it to produce excessive amounts of thyroid hormones. This leads to symptoms such as weight loss, rapid heartbeat, tremors, and anxiety. Treatment options for Grave's disease include medication, radioactive iodine therapy, and surgery to remove the thyroid gland.

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20. The most common adult malignancy arising in the adrenal medulla is the: 

Explanation

Pheochromocytoma is the most common adult malignancy arising in the adrenal medulla. It is a tumor that develops from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal gland. These tumors produce excess catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension, palpitations, and sweating. Neuroblastoma, on the other hand, is a malignancy that arises from neural crest cells and is more commonly seen in children. Paraganglioma is a tumor that arises from extra-adrenal chromaffin cells, while neurilemmoma is a benign tumor of the peripheral nerve sheath.

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21. An acute abdomen, oftentimes requiring emergency surgery (50-75% mortality), may produce a dusky to purple-red bowel rendering a diagnosis of?

Explanation

Ischemic bowel disease is the correct answer because it is a condition that can cause an acute abdomen and may lead to emergency surgery. Ischemic bowel disease occurs when there is a decrease in blood flow to the intestines, resulting in tissue damage and potentially leading to a dusky to purple-red appearance of the bowel. This condition is associated with a high mortality rate of 50-75%. Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis are chronic inflammatory bowel diseases and are not typically associated with the acute presentation described. Angiodysplasia refers to abnormal blood vessels in the gastrointestinal tract and is not directly related to the dusky appearance of the bowel.

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22. Which of the following is a metastatic tumor to the ovary with the stomach being the probable primary?

Explanation

A Krukenburg tumor is a metastatic tumor to the ovary, with the stomach being the most common primary site. It is characterized by the presence of signet ring cells in the ovarian stroma. This type of tumor is more common in women over the age of 40 and often presents with bilateral ovarian involvement. The primary tumor in the stomach can be either a gastric adenocarcinoma or a signet ring cell carcinoma.

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23. Edema of the dependant portions is likely to occur with:

Explanation

Edema of the dependent portions refers to the accumulation of fluid in the lower parts of the body, such as the legs and ankles. Right heart failure is characterized by the inability of the right side of the heart to effectively pump blood, leading to fluid backup in the body's venous system. This increased pressure causes fluid to leak into the surrounding tissues, resulting in edema. Therefore, right heart failure is likely to cause edema of the dependent portions.

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24. Fatty change, polys, and Mallory bodies are found with?

Explanation

Fatty change, polys, and Mallory bodies are commonly associated with alcoholic hepatitis. Alcoholic hepatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and damage to the liver due to excessive alcohol consumption. Fatty change refers to the accumulation of fat within liver cells, polys refers to polymorphonuclear leukocytes which are a type of white blood cell often seen in inflammatory conditions, and Mallory bodies are abnormal protein aggregates found in liver cells during alcoholic hepatitis. These findings are not typically seen in viral hepatitis, measles pneumonia, or cardiac cirrhosis.

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25. Epidermoid carcinomas are associated with intercellular bridges and?

Explanation

Epidermoid carcinomas are a type of skin cancer that originate from the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. These carcinomas are characterized by the presence of intercellular bridges, which are connections between adjacent cells. Additionally, epidermoid carcinomas are known to produce keratin, a protein that is a major component of the epidermis. Therefore, the correct answer is keratin.

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26. Islet cell tumors of the pancreas (non-beta cell neoplasms) associated w/ recurring intractable peptic ulceration usually of the jejunum but may also be of the duodenum or stomach are found in which syndrome? 

Explanation

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome is the correct answer because it is a rare condition characterized by the presence of islet cell tumors in the pancreas. These tumors produce excessive amounts of gastrin, a hormone that stimulates the production of gastric acid. The increased acid secretion leads to recurring intractable peptic ulceration, which primarily affects the jejunum but can also occur in the duodenum or stomach. This syndrome is often associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) and can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and gastrointestinal bleeding.

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27. The valve most commonly affected by rheumatic heart disease, which usually manifests itself later in life is the?

Explanation

Rheumatic heart disease is a condition that occurs as a result of untreated or inadequately treated strep throat or scarlet fever. It causes inflammation and damage to the heart valves. The mitral valve is the valve most commonly affected by rheumatic heart disease. This is because the left side of the heart, where the mitral valve is located, is under more pressure and strain compared to the right side. Additionally, the mitral valve is more susceptible to damage due to its structure and function. Therefore, it is not surprising that rheumatic heart disease usually manifests itself later in life with symptoms related to the mitral valve dysfunction.

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28. All of the following are bronchogenic carcinomas except?

Explanation

Bronchogenic carcinomas are a type of lung cancer that originate from the cells lining the bronchi (the main airways of the lungs). Adenocarcinoma, oat cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all types of bronchogenic carcinomas. However, pheochromocytoma is not a type of lung cancer. Instead, it is a rare tumor that develops in the adrenal glands, which are located on top of the kidneys. Therefore, pheochromocytoma is not considered a bronchogenic carcinoma.

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29. The cell type that is most commonly associated with allergic reaction and parasitic infestations is?

Explanation

Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that are commonly associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infestations. These cells play a crucial role in the immune response against parasites and are also involved in allergic responses. Eosinophils release toxic substances that help to kill parasites and they also release inflammatory mediators that contribute to allergic reactions. Therefore, eosinophils are the cell type that is most commonly associated with these conditions.

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30. Liquefaction necrosis is associated with?

Explanation

Liquefaction necrosis is a type of cell death characterized by the liquefaction of affected tissues. It occurs when there is an enzymatic digestion of cells, resulting in the formation of an abscess. Abscesses are localized collections of pus, which contain dead cells, bacteria, and tissue debris. The presence of abscesses indicates an inflammatory response to infection or tissue damage. Therefore, liquefaction necrosis is commonly associated with abscesses rather than tuberculosis (tb), cardiac ischemia, or viruses.

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31. The majority of adenocarcinomas of the pancreas occur in the:

Explanation

The majority of adenocarcinomas of the pancreas occur in the head. This is because the head of the pancreas is the most common location for the development of tumors. Adenocarcinomas are a type of cancer that originates in the glandular cells of the pancreas. The head of the pancreas is located near the duodenum, which is the first part of the small intestine. Tumors in the head of the pancreas can cause blockages in the bile duct and the pancreatic duct, leading to symptoms such as jaundice and abdominal pain.

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32. Adrenal hyperplasia often clinically characterized by truncal obesity,  moon facies, buffalo hump and poor wound healing is known as:

Explanation

Adrenal hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an overgrowth or enlargement of the adrenal glands. This condition often presents with symptoms such as truncal obesity, moon facies (rounding and swelling of the face), buffalo hump (excessive fat deposits on the upper back and neck), and poor wound healing. These symptoms are commonly associated with Cushing's disease/syndrome, which is caused by excessive production of cortisol hormone by the adrenal glands. Therefore, Cushing's disease/syndrome is the correct answer in this case.

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33. What is responsible for almost 90% of osmotic pressure at the capillary level mainly due to its small molecules and high concentration?

Explanation

Albumin is responsible for almost 90% of osmotic pressure at the capillary level mainly due to its small molecules and high concentration. Osmotic pressure is the force that helps to maintain the balance of fluids between the blood vessels and the surrounding tissues. Albumin, a protein found in the blood, has small molecules that can easily pass through capillary walls and its high concentration creates a strong osmotic force that draws fluid back into the blood vessels, preventing excessive fluid loss from the tissues.

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34. Increase in volume as a result of an enlargement of existing cells is?

Explanation

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35. Which of the following is a histologic criterion used to estimate the degree of malignancy?

Explanation

Grade is a histologic criterion used to estimate the degree of malignancy in a tumor. It refers to the differentiation or level of abnormality of the tumor cells compared to their normal counterparts. A higher grade indicates a higher degree of malignancy, as the tumor cells are more undifferentiated and exhibit more aggressive behavior. Therefore, grade is an important factor in determining the prognosis and treatment options for cancer patients.

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36. Which organism is the leading cause of acute pyelonephritis?

Explanation

E. coli is the leading cause of acute pyelonephritis. This is because E. coli is a common bacterium found in the intestines and is responsible for most urinary tract infections. It can travel from the urethra to the bladder and then up to the kidneys, causing inflammation and infection in the kidneys. E. coli is particularly adept at adhering to the urinary tract and has virulence factors that allow it to cause infection. Hence, it is the most common organism associated with acute pyelonephritis.

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37. In chronic cholecystitis, deep invaginations of the epithelium may be present along with muscular hypertrophy and chronic inflammatory cells.  These evaginations are called?

Explanation

In chronic cholecystitis, deep invaginations of the epithelium may be present along with muscular hypertrophy and chronic inflammatory cells. These evaginations are called Rokitansky-Aschoff Sinuses.

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38. In cholesterolosis of the gallbladder, the so-called strawberry gallbladder, which of the following cells play the most important role?

Explanation

In cholesterolosis of the gallbladder, macrophages play the most important role. Cholesterolosis is characterized by the accumulation of cholesterol-laden macrophages within the gallbladder wall, resulting in the appearance of small yellowish spots resembling strawberries. These macrophages phagocytose cholesterol crystals and form foam cells, leading to the development of cholesterol polyps. Therefore, macrophages are crucial in the pathogenesis of cholesterolosis by contributing to the accumulation of cholesterol in the gallbladder.

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39. The commonest tumor of the salivary glands?

Explanation

Pleomorphic adenoma is the correct answer because it is the most common tumor of the salivary glands. It is a benign tumor that typically arises from the parotid gland and is characterized by a mixture of different cell types. Warthin's tumor, SCC (squamous cell carcinoma), and adenoid cystic carcinoma are also tumors of the salivary glands, but they are less common compared to pleomorphic adenoma.

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40. The failure of an organ to achieve its full adult size because of incomplete development is:

Explanation

Hypoplasia refers to the failure of an organ to achieve its full adult size due to incomplete development. This can occur due to various factors such as genetic abnormalities, inadequate blood supply, or damage during embryonic development. Unlike hyperplasia, which involves an increase in the number of cells, hypoplasia is characterized by a decrease in the size and number of cells. Agenesis refers to the complete absence or failure of an organ to develop, while dysplasia refers to abnormal cell growth and organization. Therefore, hypoplasia is the most appropriate term to describe the given scenario.

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41. Sudden or complete blockage of blood in the brain or spinal cord results in?

Explanation

When there is a sudden or complete blockage of blood in the brain or spinal cord, it can lead to liquefaction. This refers to the process where the affected tissue becomes liquefied due to the lack of blood flow and oxygen. This can cause the tissue to break down and result in the formation of a fluid-filled cavity. Liquefaction is a serious condition that can lead to severe damage and impair the normal functioning of the brain or spinal cord.

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42. Choledocholithiasis is a presence of calculi in the:

Explanation

Choledocholithiasis refers to the presence of calculi or stones in the common bile duct. The common bile duct is a tube that carries bile from the liver and gallbladder to the small intestine. When stones form in the gallbladder, they can sometimes migrate into the common bile duct, causing a blockage. This can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, jaundice, and digestive issues. Treatment for choledocholithiasis often involves removing the stones from the common bile duct to relieve the blockage and prevent further complications.

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43. The acute inflammatory cell associated with coagulation necrosis (MIs) and liquefaction necrosis (abscesses) is the?

Explanation

The correct answer is poly (PMN). Poly (PMN), also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes or neutrophils, are the acute inflammatory cells associated with coagulation necrosis (MIs) and liquefaction necrosis (abscesses). These cells are the first responders to infection or tissue damage and play a crucial role in the immune response by phagocytosing pathogens and releasing inflammatory mediators. Their presence in these types of necrosis indicates an active inflammatory process.

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44. Primary adrenal lesions (adenomas, carcinomas, hyperplasias, ectopic ACTH production and basophilic pituitary adenomas) may lead to?

Explanation

Primary adrenal lesions such as adenomas, carcinomas, hyperplasias, ectopic ACTH production, and basophilic pituitary adenomas can lead to Cushing's disease. Cushing's disease is a condition characterized by excessive production of cortisol hormone by the adrenal glands. This results in various symptoms including weight gain, high blood pressure, diabetes, muscle weakness, and mood changes.

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45. What is it called when a cell is less like it's embryonic form?

Explanation

Differentiation refers to the process in which a cell becomes specialized and takes on a more specific structure and function. As cells develop, they undergo various changes in gene expression and morphology, becoming less like their embryonic form. This process allows cells to perform specific functions in the body and is crucial for the growth and development of multicellular organisms. Anaplastic, on the other hand, refers to cells that have lost their specialized characteristics and reverted to a more primitive form, often associated with cancerous growth.

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46. Whole body edema is referred to as:

Explanation

Anasarca refers to the condition of generalized edema or swelling throughout the entire body. It is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces, leading to swelling in various parts of the body such as the legs, arms, face, and abdomen. Anasarca can be caused by various underlying medical conditions, including heart failure, liver disease, kidney disease, and severe malnutrition. This term is commonly used in medical settings to describe a severe form of edema that affects the entire body.

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47. A malformation indigenous to an area resembling and having some features of a tumor with usually only one element predominating is?

Explanation

A hamartoma is a malformation that is indigenous to an area and resembles a tumor. However, unlike a tumor, a hamartoma usually only has one element predominating. This means that it is not a true tumor, but rather a disorganized overgrowth of normal tissues in the area.

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48. The most common benign tumor of the liver is the?

Explanation

A hemangioma is the most common benign tumor of the liver. It is a non-cancerous growth that is made up of blood vessels. Hemangiomas are usually small and do not cause any symptoms. They are often discovered incidentally during imaging tests for other conditions. Treatment is generally not necessary unless the hemangioma is causing symptoms or growing in size. Hepatocellular carcinoma, fibroma, hepatoma, and leiomyoma are not the most common benign tumors of the liver.

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49. Disease present at birth which may be hereditary are referred to as?

Explanation

The correct answer is congenital. Congenital refers to diseases or conditions that are present at birth. These conditions may be caused by genetic factors or by environmental factors during fetal development. It is important to note that not all congenital conditions are hereditary, as some may be caused by other factors such as infections or exposure to toxins during pregnancy.

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50. The most common malignant lesion of the esophagus is the SCC.  What is the commonest benign tumor?

Explanation

The commonest benign tumor of the esophagus is leiomyoma. Leiomyomas are smooth muscle tumors that arise from the muscular layer of the esophagus. They are usually small and asymptomatic, but can cause symptoms such as dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) or chest pain if they grow larger. Leiomyomas are typically benign and do not have the potential to become cancerous.

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51. Which carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with the protein complex  amyloid?

Explanation

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with the protein complex amyloid. This type of carcinoma arises from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland, which produce calcitonin. The presence of amyloid deposits in the tumor is a characteristic feature of medullary carcinoma. Amyloid is an abnormal protein that can accumulate in various tissues and organs, and its presence in medullary carcinoma helps to distinguish it from other types of thyroid carcinoma.

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52. Epistaxis is a synonym for:

Explanation

Epistaxis is a medical term used to describe the condition of bleeding from the nose, commonly known as a nosebleed. Therefore, the correct answer is nosebleed, nose bleed, and bloody nose, as all three terms are synonyms for epistaxis.

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53. Which of the following is an inflammatory bowel disease usually affecting  only the mucosa without fistulization or granuloma formation:

Explanation

Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease that primarily affects the mucosa, the innermost lining of the colon and rectum. It is characterized by chronic inflammation and ulcers in the colon, causing symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. Unlike Crohn's disease, which can affect any part of the digestive tract and can lead to complications like fistulas and granulomas, ulcerative colitis is typically limited to the colon and does not involve fistulization or granuloma formation. Therefore, the correct answer is Ulcerative colitis.

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54. The most common site for a primary carcinoma of the GI tract is the:

Explanation

The rectosigmoid colon is the most common site for a primary carcinoma of the GI tract. This is because the rectosigmoid colon is the area where the sigmoid colon (the S-shaped part of the colon) transitions into the rectum. It is a common site for tumors to develop due to the prolonged exposure of the colon to fecal material, which can lead to the development of cancerous cells. Additionally, the rectosigmoid colon is also subject to increased pressure during bowel movements, which can contribute to the development of tumors.

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55. Another term for valvular thrombus is?

Explanation

Valvular thrombus refers to a blood clot that forms on the valves of the heart. The term "vegetation" is often used to describe this condition. This is because the clot appears as a mass of fibrin, platelets, and other cellular debris, resembling a vegetative growth. The term "excrescence" refers to an abnormal growth or projection, but it is not specifically associated with valvular thrombus. "Ball thrombus" and "saddle" do not accurately describe valvular thrombus.

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56. Serum sickness or immune complex disease has a latent period of approximately?

Explanation

Serum sickness or immune complex disease typically has a latent period of approximately 2 weeks. This refers to the time between the initial exposure to a foreign substance (such as a medication or infection) and the onset of symptoms. During this latent period, the immune system produces antibodies that form immune complexes, which can then cause inflammation and tissue damage. This delayed response is characteristic of immune complex diseases like serum sickness.

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57. Commonest cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

Explanation

Chronic renal failure is the commonest cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism. In this condition, the kidneys are unable to adequately filter and eliminate waste products from the body, leading to an imbalance of minerals and hormones, including parathyroid hormone. As a result, the parathyroid glands become overactive and produce excessive amounts of parathyroid hormone, causing secondary hyperparathyroidism. This condition is characterized by elevated levels of parathyroid hormone, low levels of calcium, and high levels of phosphorus in the blood. Adenoma, adenocarcinoma, and bone marrow carcinoma are not commonly associated with secondary hyperparathyroidism.

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58. Which of the following lesions of the thyroid is most likely to spread to lymph nodes?

Explanation

Papillary carcinoma is the most likely lesion of the thyroid to spread to lymph nodes. This is because papillary carcinoma is a type of thyroid cancer that commonly metastasizes to regional lymph nodes. The cancer cells can invade and spread to the nearby lymph nodes, leading to the potential for further spread throughout the body. Unlike other lesions mentioned, such as Riedel's struma, follicular adenoma, embryonal adenoma, and medullary carcinoma, papillary carcinoma has a higher propensity for lymph node involvement.

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59. The commonest malignancy to be found in the lymph nodes is?

Explanation

Metastatic tumors are the most common malignancy found in lymph nodes. When cancer cells break away from the primary tumor and spread to other parts of the body through the lymphatic system, they can settle and grow in the lymph nodes. This process is known as metastasis. Lymphoma and leukemia are types of blood cancers that can also involve the lymph nodes, but metastatic tumors are more frequently observed in lymph nodes. Adenoma, on the other hand, is a benign tumor and does not typically spread to lymph nodes.

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60. Acute occlusion of renal arteries causes which type of necrosis?

Explanation

Acute occlusion of renal arteries causes coagulation necrosis. This type of necrosis occurs when there is a lack of blood supply to the affected tissue, leading to the death of cells. In coagulation necrosis, the affected tissue becomes firm and pale due to the denaturation of proteins and the formation of blood clots. This is commonly seen in organs such as the kidneys, heart, and spleen.

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61. The bronchogenic carcinoma that cavitates most commonly is the?

Explanation

Bronchogenic carcinoma refers to a type of lung cancer that originates from the cells lining the bronchi. Cavitating refers to the formation of cavities or hollow spaces within the tumor. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is the most common type of bronchogenic carcinoma that cavitates. This type of carcinoma arises from the squamous cells lining the bronchi and is often associated with smoking. Adenoma, on the other hand, is a benign tumor that does not typically cavitate, and oat cell carcinoma (small cell carcinoma) is known for its aggressive nature but does not commonly form cavities.

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62. Pulmonary hypertension or mitral stenosis is most likely to lead to?

Explanation

Pulmonary hypertension or mitral stenosis can lead to right cardiac failure because both conditions increase the pressure in the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary hypertension causes elevated pressure in the blood vessels of the lungs, while mitral stenosis is a narrowing of the mitral valve that restricts blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. The increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation can cause the right side of the heart to work harder to pump blood into the lungs, eventually leading to right cardiac failure.

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63. An episode of sever liver necrosis as may be seen in viral hepatitis could lead to:

Explanation

An episode of severe liver necrosis, such as that seen in viral hepatitis, can lead to postnecrotic cirrhosis. This type of cirrhosis occurs as a result of extensive liver cell death followed by regeneration. The necrotic liver tissue is replaced with fibrous scar tissue, which disrupts the normal structure and function of the liver. Postnecrotic cirrhosis can lead to liver failure and other complications.

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64. Multiple small superficial ulcers with ragged irregular margins without evidence of scarring?

Explanation

Acute gastric ulcers are characterized by multiple small superficial ulcers with ragged irregular margins without evidence of scarring. This means that the ulcers are shallow and have uneven edges, indicating an acute or recent onset. Peptic ulcers, chronic gastric ulcers, and duodenal ulcers may also cause ulcers in the stomach, but they would present with different characteristics such as scarring or a different pattern of distribution. Therefore, acute gastric ulcers are the most appropriate answer based on the given description.

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65. Bleeding, perforation & obstruction are common complications of:

Explanation

Peptic ulcers can lead to bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus. When the ulcer erodes a blood vessel, it can cause bleeding. If the ulcer penetrates through the wall of the stomach or intestine, it can cause perforation, which is a hole in the organ. Obstruction can occur when the ulcer causes swelling and inflammation, blocking the passage of food through the digestive system. Therefore, bleeding, perforation, and obstruction are common complications of peptic ulcers.

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66. Proliferating fibroblasts, endothelial cell proliferation, and chronic  inflammatory cells (macrophages) characterize:

Explanation

Granulation tissue is characterized by the proliferation of fibroblasts, endothelial cells, and chronic inflammatory cells such as macrophages. This tissue forms during the healing process of a wound or injury and is composed of new blood vessels, collagen, and other extracellular matrix components. The presence of these cellular and inflammatory components distinguishes granulation tissue from other types of inflammation, such as acute or chronic inflammation, and granulomas.

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67. Transitional cell carcinomas most common malignant neoplasm of bladder, worse prognosis?

Explanation

The answer d2 suggests that the worse prognosis for transitional cell carcinomas, the most common malignant neoplasm of the bladder, is due to a specific factor or characteristic. However, without further information or context, it is not possible to provide a more specific explanation for this answer choice.

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68. The most common cause of cancer-related death in males is cancer of the?

Explanation

The most common cause of cancer-related death in males is lung cancer. This is because smoking is a major risk factor for developing lung cancer, and historically, a higher percentage of males have been smokers compared to females. Lung cancer is often diagnosed at an advanced stage, making it difficult to treat and resulting in a higher mortality rate. Prostate cancer and colon cancer are also prevalent in males, but lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related death in this population.

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69. Fibrinoid necrosis is most likely seen in?

Explanation

Fibrinoid necrosis is most likely seen in malignant hypertension. Malignant hypertension is a severe form of high blood pressure that can cause damage to the small blood vessels in various organs, including the kidneys, heart, brain, and eyes. Fibrinoid necrosis refers to the deposition of fibrin and other proteins in the walls of blood vessels, leading to their destruction. In malignant hypertension, the high pressure within the blood vessels can cause damage to the endothelial lining, leading to the formation of fibrinoid material and subsequent necrosis.

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70. Rugae generally radiate toward the center of which type of ulcer?

Explanation

Rugae generally radiate toward the center of a chronic gastric ulcer. Chronic gastric ulcers are long-lasting ulcers that develop in the lining of the stomach. Rugae are the folds in the stomach lining that expand and contract to accommodate food. In the case of a chronic gastric ulcer, the rugae tend to radiate towards the center of the ulcer, indicating the location and direction of the ulcer. This is in contrast to acute gastric ulcers or malignant ulcers, where the rugae may not show the same pattern of radiating towards the center.

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71. A yellow zone at the periphery of an MI due to leukocytic infiltration and phagocytosis of lipids is often seen by day?

Explanation

A yellow zone at the periphery of an MI due to leukocytic infiltration and phagocytosis of lipids is often seen by day four.

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72. The liver has cells with few intermitotic forms when upon stimulation can overproduce/ regenerate:

Explanation

Stable cells are able to regenerate and overproduce when stimulated. Unlike permanent cells, which are unable to divide, and labile cells, which continuously divide, stable cells have a low rate of division but can still regenerate under certain conditions. The liver contains stable cells that can undergo cell division and regenerate the tissue in response to injury or stimulation.

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73. Atherosclerotic aneurysms below the renal arteries are most likely to be?

Explanation

Atherosclerotic aneurysms below the renal arteries are most likely to be fusiform. This is because fusiform aneurysms typically occur in larger arteries and are characterized by a dilation of the entire circumference of the vessel. In the case of atherosclerotic aneurysms, the weakening of the arterial wall due to plaque buildup makes it more susceptible to dilation, leading to a fusiform shape. Saccular aneurysms are characterized by a sac-like outpouching on one side of the vessel, while berry aneurysms are small and rounded. Dissecting aneurysms involve a tear in the arterial wall, which is less likely in the context of atherosclerosis.

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74. All of the following are probably derived from b-cells except?

Explanation

Hodgkin's lymphoma is a type of lymphoma that originates from abnormal B-cells or Reed-Sternberg cells. Therefore, it is not correct to say that Hodgkin's is derived from B-cells. On the other hand, fcc lymphomas, plasmacytomas, and immunoblastic sarcomas are all types of lymphomas that can be derived from B-cells.

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75. Which of the following is least likely to metastasize?

Explanation

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76. Which of the following is a small lesion of the pituitary that may be associated with Cushing's syndrome?

Explanation

A small lesion of the pituitary that may be associated with Cushing's syndrome is a basophilic adenoma. Basophilic adenomas are tumors of the pituitary gland that produce excess adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), leading to increased cortisol production by the adrenal glands. This excessive cortisol production can result in Cushing's syndrome, which is characterized by weight gain, high blood pressure, diabetes, and other symptoms. Adenocarcinoma, oat cell ca, and chromophobe adenoma are not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome.

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77. A myocardial infarction that exhibits a yellow tan surface surrounded by red-purple depressed bands of granulation tissue is how old?

Explanation

The given description of a myocardial infarction with a yellow tan surface surrounded by red-purple depressed bands of granulation tissue indicates that the infarction is in the healing stage. This healing process typically occurs around 2 weeks after the initial event, as the body forms granulation tissue to repair the damaged area. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 weeks.

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78. Osler nodes, Roth spots, and flea-bitten kidneys are most likely to be seen in?

Explanation

Osler nodes, Roth spots, and flea-bitten kidneys are commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE). Osler nodes are painful nodules found on the fingers and toes, Roth spots are retinal hemorrhages with a white center, and flea-bitten kidneys refer to small petechial hemorrhages on the surface of the kidneys. These findings are indicative of the systemic effects of the infection, specifically the immune complex deposition and embolic phenomena associated with SBE.

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79. In an acute MI, polys are usually absent by day?

Explanation

In an acute MI (myocardial infarction), the presence of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (polys) is usually absent by day 16. This indicates that the acute inflammatory response has resolved by this time, and the healing process of the myocardial tissue has begun. The absence of polys suggests that the body has already cleared the initial inflammatory cells and is progressing towards recovery.

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Which of the following, probably an autoimmune inflammatory...
The sequence of events in the development of a disease from the ...
Which of the following is a true diverticulum arising in the ileum...
An epithelial neoplasm that has not invaded the underlying basal...
Blood vessel injury, stasis of blood flow and increased coagulability...
The most common tumor of the head and neck, in particular the larynx...
Pinpoint hemorrhage due to leakage from capillary or venule are:
Functional adenomas of the outer adrenal cortex may directly lead to...
A diffuse or nodular enlargement of the thyroid is referred to as
The commonest site of origin for pulmonary embolus is the?
Which disease may lead to hepatic cirrhosis that is also associated...
Tumor that occurs at the appendiceal tip?
Alternative regions of platelets and fibrin with red and white cells...
Which clinical criterion is based on the extent of spread of the...
Seven days post-MI?
The commonest malignant lesion of the female breast is?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) characteristically results in which...
A collection of epithelioid cells (macrophages) is a?
Grave's disease is a type of:
The most common adult malignancy arising in the adrenal medulla is...
An acute abdomen, oftentimes requiring emergency surgery (50-75%...
Which of the following is a metastatic tumor to the ovary with the...
Edema of the dependant portions is likely to occur with:
Fatty change, polys, and Mallory bodies are found with?
Epidermoid carcinomas are associated with intercellular bridges and?
Islet cell tumors of the pancreas (non-beta cell neoplasms) associated...
The valve most commonly affected by rheumatic heart disease, which...
All of the following are bronchogenic carcinomas except?
The cell type that is most commonly associated with allergic reaction...
Liquefaction necrosis is associated with?
The majority of adenocarcinomas of the pancreas occur in the:
Adrenal hyperplasia often clinically characterized by truncal...
What is responsible for almost 90% of osmotic pressure at the...
Increase in volume as a result of an enlargement of existing cells is?
Which of the following is a histologic criterion used to estimate the...
Which organism is the leading cause of acute pyelonephritis?
In chronic cholecystitis, deep invaginations of the epithelium may be...
In cholesterolosis of the gallbladder, the so-called strawberry...
The commonest tumor of the salivary glands?
The failure of an organ to achieve its full adult size because of...
Sudden or complete blockage of blood in the brain or spinal cord...
Choledocholithiasis is a presence of calculi in the:
The acute inflammatory cell associated with coagulation necrosis (MIs)...
Primary adrenal lesions (adenomas, carcinomas, hyperplasias, ectopic...
What is it called when a cell is less like it's embryonic form?
Whole body edema is referred to as:
A malformation indigenous to an area resembling and having some...
The most common benign tumor of the liver is the?
Disease present at birth which may be hereditary are referred to as?
The most common malignant lesion of the esophagus is the SCC....
Which carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with the protein...
Epistaxis is a synonym for:
Which of the following is an inflammatory bowel disease usually...
The most common site for a primary carcinoma of the GI tract is the:
Another term for valvular thrombus is?
Serum sickness or immune complex disease has a latent period of...
Commonest cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?
Which of the following lesions of the thyroid is most likely to spread...
The commonest malignancy to be found in the lymph nodes is?
Acute occlusion of renal arteries causes which type of necrosis?
The bronchogenic carcinoma that cavitates most commonly is the?
Pulmonary hypertension or mitral stenosis is most likely to lead to?
An episode of sever liver necrosis as may be seen in viral hepatitis...
Multiple small superficial ulcers with ragged irregular margins...
Bleeding, perforation & obstruction are common complications of:
Proliferating fibroblasts, endothelial cell proliferation, and...
Transitional cell carcinomas most common malignant neoplasm of...
The most common cause of cancer-related death in males is cancer of...
Fibrinoid necrosis is most likely seen in?
Rugae generally radiate toward the center of which type of ulcer?
A yellow zone at the periphery of an MI due to leukocytic infiltration...
The liver has cells with few intermitotic forms when upon stimulation...
Atherosclerotic aneurysms below the renal arteries are most likely to...
All of the following are probably derived from b-cells except?
Which of the following is least likely to metastasize?
Which of the following is a small lesion of the pituitary that may be...
A myocardial infarction that exhibits a yellow tan surface surrounded...
Osler nodes, Roth spots, and flea-bitten kidneys are most likely to be...
In an acute MI, polys are usually absent by day?
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