CT Registry Imaging Procedure: Trivia Quiz!

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CT Registry Imaging Procedure: Trivia Quiz! - Quiz

Have you ever seen what's inside your body? Did you ever get a chance to view the autopsy procedure? If not, then take this quiz on CT scan. A computerized tomography scan ( CT scan) is an X-ray machine that creates cross-sectional pictures of the body parts giving detailed information. This quiz will evaluate your knowledge about CT scan imaging procedures.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of:

    • A.

      T10

    • B.

      T12

    • C.

      L2

    • D.

      L4

    Correct Answer
    D. L4
    Explanation
    The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of L4. This means that at the fourth lumbar vertebra, the abdominal aorta splits into two branches called the common iliac arteries. These arteries supply blood to the pelvis, lower limbs, and other structures in the lower abdomen. Knowing the level of bifurcation is important in surgical procedures or when evaluating conditions that affect the blood flow in this area.

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  • 2. 

    Quantitative CT is a specialized technique used most often for the diagnosis of:

    • A.

      Lymphoma

    • B.

      Osteoporosis

    • C.

      Renal cyst

    • D.

      Hemangioma

    Correct Answer
    B. Osteoporosis
    Explanation
    Quantitative is used for the mineral content of the bone

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  • 3. 

    The average density of a mass within the kidney measures 75 HU. The mass is most likely:

    • A.

      Cyst

    • B.

      Lipoma

    • C.

      Stone

    • D.

      Hydrocele

    Correct Answer
    B. Lipoma
    Explanation
    Lipoma has the consistency of fat and fat is 50 to 100 HU

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is a common complication during a CT guided biopsy of the lung?

    • A.

      Pulmonary embolism

    • B.

      Aspiration

    • C.

      Pneumoconiosis

    • D.

      Pnuemothorax

    Correct Answer
    D. Pnuemothorax
    Explanation
    During a CT guided biopsy of the lung, a common complication is the development of a pneumothorax. This occurs when air leaks into the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse partially or completely. The insertion of the needle during the biopsy procedure can accidentally puncture the lung, leading to the development of a pneumothorax. This complication can cause symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and decreased oxygen levels. Prompt medical intervention, such as the insertion of a chest tube, may be necessary to remove the air and reinflate the lung.

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  • 5. 

    CT image of the abdomen should be acquired with the PT.

    • A.

      At full inspiration

    • B.

      Breathing quietly

    • C.

      At full expiration

    • D.

      Breathing normally

    Correct Answer
    C. At full expiration
    Explanation
    The CT image of the abdomen should be acquired at full expiration because this allows for better visualization of the abdominal organs and structures. When a person exhales fully, the diaphragm moves upward, reducing the volume of the thoracic cavity and pushing the abdominal organs closer to the chest. This results in better contrast and resolution of the abdominal structures, making it easier to identify any abnormalities or pathologies. Additionally, acquiring the image at full expiration helps to minimize motion artifacts, ensuring a clearer and more accurate image.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following types of contrast material may be used during CT evaluation of the pelvis 1. IV contrast 2. low-density barium sulfate solution 3. oil-based contrast

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 only

    • C.

      1 and 2

    • D.

      1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 and 2
    Explanation
    During CT evaluation of the pelvis, both IV contrast and low-density barium sulfate solution may be used as types of contrast material. IV contrast is administered intravenously to enhance the visibility of blood vessels and certain structures in the pelvis. Low-density barium sulfate solution is ingested orally or rectally to provide contrast for the gastrointestinal tract. Oil-based contrast, on the other hand, is not typically used for CT evaluation of the pelvis.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following would be a suitable range for contrast volume for an intrathecal injection during a post-myelogram CT exam of the L-spine in adult PT?

    • A.

      5-9 ml

    • B.

      12-14 ml

    • C.

      18-22 ml

    • D.

      1-3 ml

    Correct Answer
    B. 12-14 ml
    Explanation
    The suitable range for contrast volume for an intrathecal injection during a post-myelogram CT exam of the L-spine in adult PT would be 12-14 ml. This range is appropriate because it allows for enough contrast to be injected to clearly visualize the spinal canal and any abnormalities, while also minimizing the risk of complications or adverse reactions from excessive contrast volume.

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  • 8. 

    Of the following ranges, which would be most suited for a scout image of the abdomen?

    • A.

      Below the diaphragm to the bottom of the kidney

    • B.

      To of the kidney to the level of the mid sacrum

    • C.

      Top of the kidney to the umbilicus

    • D.

      Above the diaphragm to the illiac crest

    Correct Answer
    D. Above the diaphragm to the illiac crest
    Explanation
    The range "above the diaphragm to the iliac crest" would be most suited for a scout image of the abdomen because it includes the entire abdomen region, from the top of the diaphragm to the iliac crest. This range allows for a comprehensive view of the abdominal organs and structures, ensuring that no important information is missed. The other options either do not cover the entire abdomen or include areas that are not relevant for a scout image of the abdomen.

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  • 9. 

    During the CT exam of a knee. The PT is mostly to be in the __________ position.

    • A.

      Ventral recumbent

    • B.

      Right lateral

    • C.

      Supine

    • D.

      Left lateral

    Correct Answer
    C. Supine
    Explanation
    During a CT exam of the knee, the patient is mostly positioned in the supine position. This position allows for optimal visualization of the knee joint and surrounding structures. The supine position involves lying flat on the back with the legs extended and the arms resting comfortably at the sides. This position provides easy access to the knee and allows for proper alignment of the joint during the imaging procedure.

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  • 10. 

    To reduce peristalsis and distend the colon, __________ may be administered before a CT scan of the abdomen or pelvis.

    • A.

      Diazepam

    • B.

      Glucagon

    • C.

      Prochlorperazine maleate

    • D.

      Bisacody

    Correct Answer
    B. Glucagon
    Explanation
    Glucagon may be administered before a CT scan of the abdomen or pelvis to reduce peristalsis and distend the colon. This is because glucagon acts as a smooth muscle relaxant, inhibiting the contractions of the gastrointestinal tract. By reducing peristalsis and distending the colon, the quality of the CT scan images can be improved, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal and pelvic structures.

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  • 11. 

    A common nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland is typically referred to as

    • A.

      Prostatic carcinoma

    • B.

      Prostatic abscess

    • C.

      Prostatic hypertrophy

    • D.

      Extrapostatic extension

    Correct Answer
    C. Prostatic hypertrophy
    Explanation
    Prostatic hypertrophy is the correct answer because it refers to the common nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland. Prostatic carcinoma is incorrect because it refers to a malignant (cancerous) condition of the prostate gland. Prostatic abscess is also incorrect because it refers to an infection and collection of pus within the prostate gland. Extrapostatic extension is not a term that is commonly used in relation to the prostate gland.

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  • 12. 

    After the IV administration of contrast, a hepatic hemangioma my become __________ and no longer appear on the CT image.

    • A.

      Hypodense

    • B.

      Radiolucent

    • C.

      Isodense

    • D.

      Hyperdense

    Correct Answer
    C. Isodense
    Explanation
    After the IV administration of contrast, a hepatic hemangioma may become isodense and no longer appear on the CT image. This means that the contrast agent has filled the blood vessels within the hemangioma, making it have the same density as the surrounding liver tissue. As a result, it becomes indistinguishable from the rest of the liver on the CT image.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following areas of the head commonly become calcified 1 Thalamus 2 pineal gland 3 choroid plexus

    • A.

      2 only

    • B.

      1 and 3

    • C.

      2 and 3

    • D.

      1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer
    C. 2 and 3
    Explanation
    The pineal gland and choroid plexus commonly become calcified in the head. Calcification refers to the accumulation of calcium deposits in tissues, and it can occur in various parts of the body. In the head, the pineal gland and choroid plexus are known to have a higher likelihood of calcification. The calcification of these structures can sometimes be observed on imaging studies such as CT scans or MRI scans.

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  • 14. 

    Owing to its excessive density, barium sulfate may be used in CT exams only suspensions with concentrations of:

    • A.

      1-3% barium sulfate

    • B.

      5-7% barium sulfate

    • C.

      10-13% barium sulfate

    • D.

      25-30% barium sulfate

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-3% barium sulfate
    Explanation
    Barium sulfate is commonly used as a contrast agent in CT exams to enhance the visibility of certain tissues or organs. However, using a high concentration of barium sulfate can lead to adverse effects such as allergic reactions or gastrointestinal complications. Therefore, it is recommended to use a low concentration of 1-3% barium sulfate in suspensions for CT exams, which provides sufficient contrast without causing harm to the patient.

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  • 15. 

    Accurate demonstration of ____________ would most likely require the IV injection of contrast during CT study of the ABD.

    • A.

      Appendicitis

    • B.

      Renal stone

    • C.

      Diverticullitis

    • D.

      Renal cyst

    Correct Answer
    D. Renal cyst
    Explanation
    The Kidney will flash during IV contrast injection.

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  • 16. 

    During CT of the head, the gantry should be angled

    • A.

      15 degrees above the OML

    • B.

      10 degrees below the IML

    • C.

      0 degrees

    • D.

      20 degrees above the skull base

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 degrees above the OML
    Explanation
    During CT of the head, angling the gantry 15 degrees above the OML (Orbitomeatal Line) is the correct answer. The OML is an anatomical reference line that connects the external auditory meatus to the infraorbital rim. Angling the gantry in this manner helps to visualize the brain structures and minimize artifacts. It provides a better view of the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses, as well as the orbits. This angulation is commonly used in CT imaging of the head to obtain accurate and detailed images.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following types of CT scanners is the best suited for the evaluation of the coronary artery disease?

    • A.

      Spiral

    • B.

      Fourth generation

    • C.

      Ultrafast

    • D.

      Third generation

    Correct Answer
    C. Ultrafast
    Explanation
    Ultrafast CT scanners are the best suited for the evaluation of coronary artery disease because they provide high-speed imaging, allowing for detailed and accurate visualization of the coronary arteries. This type of CT scanner is specifically designed to capture images of the heart and its blood vessels, providing valuable information about the presence and severity of blockages or narrowing in the coronary arteries. Ultrafast CT scanners can produce images with high spatial resolution and temporal resolution, enabling the detection of even small plaques or lesions in the coronary arteries. This makes them an ideal choice for diagnosing and monitoring coronary artery disease.

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  • 18. 

    High-resolution CT of the chest incorporates which of the following protocols?

    • A.

      10mm sections standard algorithm

    • B.

      10mm sections, bone algorithm

    • C.

      3mm sections, standard algorithm

    • D.

      1mm sections, bone algorithm

    Correct Answer
    D. 1mm sections, bone algorithm
    Explanation
    High-resolution CT of the chest incorporates 1mm sections and the bone algorithm. This means that the CT scan of the chest is done with a slice thickness of 1mm, allowing for a detailed and high-resolution image of the chest. The bone algorithm is used to enhance the visualization of bony structures in the chest, such as the ribs and sternum. This protocol is commonly used to evaluate lung diseases, lung nodules, and other chest abnormalities with a high level of detail.

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  • 19. 

    Dynamic CT scanning involves which of the following technical considerations? 1 Data acquisition with PT continuously moving through the gantry 2 Bolus administration of iodinated IV contrast 3 Rapid scanning with minimal interscan delays

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      1 and 3

    • C.

      2 and 3

    • D.

      1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer
    C. 2 and 3
    Explanation
    Dynamic CT scanning involves the technical considerations of rapid scanning with minimal interscan delays and bolus administration of iodinated IV contrast. Rapid scanning with minimal interscan delays ensures that multiple images can be captured in quick succession, allowing for the visualization of dynamic processes such as blood flow. Bolus administration of iodinated IV contrast involves injecting a contrast agent into the patient's bloodstream, which enhances the visibility of blood vessels and certain tissues during the scan. These technical considerations are important in dynamic CT scanning to obtain accurate and detailed images of the patient's anatomy and physiological processes.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following terms describes the appearance of an acute subdural hematoma on a CT image?

    • A.

      Radiolucent

    • B.

      Hyperdense

    • C.

      Hypodense

    • D.

      Isodense

    Correct Answer
    B. Hyperdense
    Explanation
    Hyperdense is the correct answer because an acute subdural hematoma appears as a hyperdense lesion on a CT image. Hyperdensity refers to an area of increased density or brightness on a CT scan, indicating the presence of blood or other dense material. In the case of an acute subdural hematoma, the collection of blood in the space between the brain and the dura mater appears brighter or denser compared to the surrounding brain tissue.

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  • 21. 

    Positioning PT with the knees flexed over a foam cushion during the CT scan of the lumbar spine assists in 1 Decreasing the kyphotic curvature of the lumbar spine 2 making the PT more comfortable during the exam 3 decreasing the lordotic curvature of the L-SP

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 only

    • C.

      3 only

    • D.

      2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    D. 2 and 3
    Explanation
    Positioning the patient with the knees flexed over a foam cushion during the CT scan of the lumbar spine helps in making the patient more comfortable during the exam. This position reduces the strain on the lower back and allows for better relaxation of the muscles. Additionally, it also helps in decreasing the lordotic curvature of the lumbar spine, which can improve the quality of the images obtained during the scan. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3.

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  • 22. 

    Which on the following would not be considered an absolute contradiction to IV contrast during a CT exam of the kidneys?

    • A.

      Pheochromocytoma

    • B.

      Acute sickle cell anemia

    • C.

      Allergies to shell fish

    • D.

      Prior major reaction to contrast

    Correct Answer
    C. Allergies to shell fish
    Explanation
    Allergies to shellfish would not be considered an absolute contradiction to IV contrast during a CT exam of the kidneys. While allergies to shellfish can cause an allergic reaction, it does not directly contradict the use of IV contrast during the exam. However, pheochromocytoma, acute sickle cell anemia, and prior major reaction to contrast can all be contraindications for IV contrast due to potential complications or interactions with the condition.

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  • 23. 

    A solitary pulmonary nodule can be assumed to be benign when its average density is within the following ranges.

    • A.

      10-30 HU

    • B.

      45-80 HU

    • C.

      100-140 HU

    • D.

      165-200 HU

    Correct Answer
    D. 165-200 HU
    Explanation
    A solitary pulmonary nodule can be assumed to be benign when its average density falls within the range of 165-200 HU. This range indicates a higher density compared to the other provided ranges, suggesting a higher likelihood of calcification or fibrosis, which are common characteristics of benign nodules. This range is important for distinguishing between benign and potentially malignant nodules, as nodules with densities outside of this range may require further investigation and monitoring for potential malignancy.

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  • 24. 

    After the injection of IV contrast during a CT exam of the brain, which of the following anatomic areas does not enhance?

    • A.

      Anterior communicating artery

    • B.

      Choroid plexus

    • C.

      Posterior horn of lateral ventricle

    • D.

      Dura mater

    Correct Answer
    C. Posterior horn of lateral ventricle
    Explanation
    After the injection of IV contrast during a CT exam of the brain, the blood vessels and areas with increased vascularity typically enhance due to the increased blood flow. The anterior communicating artery, choroid plexus, and dura mater are all highly vascular structures and would therefore enhance on the CT scan. However, the posterior horn of the lateral ventricle is not a highly vascular area and would not show enhancement on the scan.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following techniques assists in visualizing the vagina during the CT of the pelvis?

    • A.

      Tampon insertion

    • B.

      Precontrast and postcontrast scanning

    • C.

      Oral contrast

    • D.

      Enema contrast

    Correct Answer
    A. Tampon insertion
    Explanation
    Tampon insertion is a technique that can assist in visualizing the vagina during a CT scan of the pelvis. By inserting a tampon, the vaginal walls are expanded, allowing for better visualization of the vaginal structures. This technique is particularly useful when trying to assess the extent of gynecological abnormalities or tumors in the pelvis. It helps to provide a clearer and more detailed image of the vaginal area during the CT scan.

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  • 26. 

    Which on the following is reasons for IV contrast to be administered during CT evaluation of the pelvis? 1 Distension and contrast enhancement of the bladder 2 Visualization of the rectosigmoid junction 3 Differentiation of blood vessels and pelvic lymph nodes

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      1 and 2

    • C.

      1 and 3

    • D.

      1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 and 3
    Explanation
    The administration of IV contrast during CT evaluation of the pelvis is necessary for two main reasons. Firstly, it helps in the distension and contrast enhancement of the bladder, which allows for better visualization and evaluation of the bladder and any abnormalities present. Secondly, it aids in the differentiation of blood vessels and pelvic lymph nodes, which is crucial for detecting any vascular abnormalities or lymph node involvement. Therefore, options 1 and 3 are the correct answers as they accurately represent the reasons for IV contrast administration during CT evaluation of the pelvis.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following DFOV should be chosen for a CT exam of the T-spine of a PT whose thorax measures 40cm?

    • A.

      15cm

    • B.

      25cm

    • C.

      32cm

    • D.

      42cm

    Correct Answer
    A. 15cm
    Explanation
    You want to target the T-spine by reducing your DFOV.

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  • 28. 

    The presence of out pocketing in the wall of the colon is referred to as:

    • A.

      Intussusception

    • B.

      Diverticulitis

    • C.

      Polyps

    • D.

      Diverticulosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Diverticulosis
    Explanation
    Diverticulosis refers to the presence of out pocketing in the wall of the colon. These pouches, called diverticula, can form when weak spots in the colon's muscular wall allow the inner lining to protrude outward. Diverticulosis is a common condition, especially in older adults, and is often asymptomatic. However, it can lead to complications such as diverticulitis if the diverticula become inflamed or infected. Polyps are abnormal growths in the colon, while intussusception is a condition where a part of the intestine slides into an adjacent part, causing a blockage.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 11, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Leclark
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