CT Registry Review Test: Hardest Trivia Quiz!

102 Questions | Total Attempts: 867

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CT Registry Review Test: Hardest Trivia Quiz!

A CT scan(computed tomography) is a scanning process through which you get computer-processed X-ray. Medical imaging is the standard application of X-ray CT used for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. Take this quiz to test your knowledge of different methods and system used in the CT Scan. Attempt all the questions, and try your best. Let's take the exam. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    An average range for activated PTT is:
    • A. 

      10-12 seconds

    • B. 

      17-21 seconds

    • C. 

      25-35 seconds

    • D. 

      43-55 seconds

  • 2. 
    The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified by which of the following?
    • A. 

      Anticholinergic

    • B. 

      Bronchodilator

    • C. 

      Antihistamine

    • D. 

      Corticosteroid

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is considered on of the isomolar contrast media (IOCM)?
    • A. 

      Iodixanol

    • B. 

      Iopamidol

    • C. 

      Iohexol

    • D. 

      Ioversol

  • 4. 
    Advantages of a saline flush immediately following IV administration of iodinated contrast material include: 1.reduction in required contrast agent dose. 2.reduction in the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN). 3.recuction of streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      3 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 5. 
    Which of the following medications may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination?
    • A. 

      Sublingual nitroglycerine

    • B. 

      A B-adrenergic receptor blocking agent (B-Blocker)

    • C. 

      Atropine

    • D. 

      Albuterol

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is a parenteral route of medication administration?
    • A. 

      Sublingual

    • B. 

      Intramuscular

    • C. 

      Transdermal

    • D. 

      Oral

  • 7. 
    Which of the following methods may be employed to reduce the radiation dose to the pediatric patient undergoing CT? 1. reduce mA. 2.limit phases of acquisition. 3.increase pitch.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 8. 
    Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?
    • A. 

      Acid-fast bacillus isolation

    • B. 

      Contact isolation

    • C. 

      Enteric precautions

    • D. 

      Drainage-secretion precautions

  • 9. 
    Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media (RCM)?
    • A. 

      Iohexol

    • B. 

      Iothalamate meglumine

    • C. 

      Iopamidol

    • D. 

      Ioversol

  • 10. 
    The radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening is termed:
    • A. 

      CTDIw

    • B. 

      CTDI100

    • C. 

      CTDIvol

    • D. 

      MSAD

  • 11. 
    Which of the following units is used to express the total patient dose from a helically acquired CT examination?
    • A. 

      Roentgens (R)

    • B. 

      Curies (Ci)

    • C. 

      R-cm (roentgens per centimeter)

    • D. 

      MGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter)

  • 12. 
    Components of a comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically include: 1.pre-contrast sequence of the brain. 2.CTA of the brain and carotids. 3.CT perfusion (CTP) of the brain.
    • A. 

      2 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 13. 
    Use Fig 5-1 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Left pulmonary artery

    • B. 

      Ascending aorta

    • C. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • D. 

      Descending aorta

  • 14. 
    Use Fig 5-1 Which number on the figure corresponds to the superior vena cava?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 15. 
    Use Fig 5-2 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Left internal jugular vein

    • B. 

      Left external carotid artery

    • C. 

      Left internal carotid

    • D. 

      Left external jugular vein

  • 16. 
    Use Fig 5-2 Number 5 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Right internal jugular vein

    • B. 

      Right external carotid artery

    • C. 

      Right internal carotid artery

    • D. 

      Right external jugular vein

  • 17. 
    Use Fig 5-2 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Vocal cords

    • B. 

      Uvula

    • C. 

      Aryepiglottic fold

    • D. 

      Epiglottis

  • 18. 
    The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of:
    • A. 

      T10

    • B. 

      T12

    • C. 

      L2

    • D. 

      L4

  • 19. 
    On an ECG of the complete cardiac cycle, at which portion of the R-R interval is the heart muscle in diastole?
    • A. 

      10-20%

    • B. 

      35-50%

    • C. 

      55-75%

    • D. 

      85-95%

  • 20. 
    The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the:
    • A. 

      Thrombolytic zone

    • B. 

      Hemorrhage focus

    • C. 

      Ischemic penumbra

    • D. 

      Stroke volume

  • 21. 
    Which of the following technical maneuvers may be used to remove unwanted pulsation artifacts from cardiac motion during a CTA of the chest for pulmonary embolism?
    • A. 

      Automated bolus tracking

    • B. 

      Automatic tube current modulation

    • C. 

      Retrospective ECG gating

    • D. 

      Saline flush

  • 22. 
    Diffuse fatty infiltration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:
    • A. 

      Chromatosis

    • B. 

      Steatosis

    • C. 

      Cirrhosis

    • D. 

      Lipomatosis

  • 23. 
    Use Fig 5-4 Which of the following corresponds to the low-attenuation area indicated by Number 3 on the figure?
    • A. 

      Renal cortex

    • B. 

      Renal pelvis

    • C. 

      Renal calyx

    • D. 

      Renal pyramid

  • 24. 
    Use Fig 5-4 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Hepatic vein

    • B. 

      Suprarenal lymph node

    • C. 

      Adrenal gland

    • D. 

      Common bile duct

  • 25. 
    Use Fig 5-5 Number 4 corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      External auditory meatus

    • B. 

      Internal auditory canal

    • C. 

      Vestibule

    • D. 

      Carotid canal

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