CT Registry Review Test: Hardest Trivia Quiz!

102 Questions | Total Attempts: 715

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CT Registry Review Test: Hardest Trivia Quiz!

A CT scan(computed tomography) is a scanning process through which you get computer-processed X-ray. Medical imaging is the standard application of X-ray CT used for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. Take this quiz to test your knowledge of different methods and system used in the CT Scan. Attempt all the questions, and try your best. Let's take the exam. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    An average range for activated PTT is:
    • A. 

      10-12 seconds

    • B. 

      17-21 seconds

    • C. 

      25-35 seconds

    • D. 

      43-55 seconds

  • 2. 
    The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified by which of the following?
    • A. 

      Anticholinergic

    • B. 

      Bronchodilator

    • C. 

      Antihistamine

    • D. 

      Corticosteroid

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is considered on of the isomolar contrast media (IOCM)?
    • A. 

      Iodixanol

    • B. 

      Iopamidol

    • C. 

      Iohexol

    • D. 

      Ioversol

  • 4. 
    Advantages of a saline flush immediately following IV administration of iodinated contrast material include: 1.reduction in required contrast agent dose. 2.reduction in the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN). 3.recuction of streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      3 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 5. 
    Which of the following medications may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination?
    • A. 

      Sublingual nitroglycerine

    • B. 

      A B-adrenergic receptor blocking agent (B-Blocker)

    • C. 

      Atropine

    • D. 

      Albuterol

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is a parenteral route of medication administration?
    • A. 

      Sublingual

    • B. 

      Intramuscular

    • C. 

      Transdermal

    • D. 

      Oral

  • 7. 
    Which of the following methods may be employed to reduce the radiation dose to the pediatric patient undergoing CT? 1. reduce mA. 2.limit phases of acquisition. 3.increase pitch.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 8. 
    Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?
    • A. 

      Acid-fast bacillus isolation

    • B. 

      Contact isolation

    • C. 

      Enteric precautions

    • D. 

      Drainage-secretion precautions

  • 9. 
    Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media (RCM)?
    • A. 

      Iohexol

    • B. 

      Iothalamate meglumine

    • C. 

      Iopamidol

    • D. 

      Ioversol

  • 10. 
    The radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening is termed:
    • A. 

      CTDIw

    • B. 

      CTDI100

    • C. 

      CTDIvol

    • D. 

      MSAD

  • 11. 
    Which of the following units is used to express the total patient dose from a helically acquired CT examination?
    • A. 

      Roentgens (R)

    • B. 

      Curies (Ci)

    • C. 

      R-cm (roentgens per centimeter)

    • D. 

      MGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter)

  • 12. 
    Components of a comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically include: 1.pre-contrast sequence of the brain. 2.CTA of the brain and carotids. 3.CT perfusion (CTP) of the brain.
    • A. 

      2 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 13. 
    Use Fig 5-1 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Left pulmonary artery

    • B. 

      Ascending aorta

    • C. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • D. 

      Descending aorta

  • 14. 
    Use Fig 5-1 Which number on the figure corresponds to the superior vena cava?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 15. 
    Use Fig 5-2 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Left internal jugular vein

    • B. 

      Left external carotid artery

    • C. 

      Left internal carotid

    • D. 

      Left external jugular vein

  • 16. 
    Use Fig 5-2 Number 5 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Right internal jugular vein

    • B. 

      Right external carotid artery

    • C. 

      Right internal carotid artery

    • D. 

      Right external jugular vein

  • 17. 
    Use Fig 5-2 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Vocal cords

    • B. 

      Uvula

    • C. 

      Aryepiglottic fold

    • D. 

      Epiglottis

  • 18. 
    The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of:
    • A. 

      T10

    • B. 

      T12

    • C. 

      L2

    • D. 

      L4

  • 19. 
    On an ECG of the complete cardiac cycle, at which portion of the R-R interval is the heart muscle in diastole?
    • A. 

      10-20%

    • B. 

      35-50%

    • C. 

      55-75%

    • D. 

      85-95%

  • 20. 
    The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the:
    • A. 

      Thrombolytic zone

    • B. 

      Hemorrhage focus

    • C. 

      Ischemic penumbra

    • D. 

      Stroke volume

  • 21. 
    Which of the following technical maneuvers may be used to remove unwanted pulsation artifacts from cardiac motion during a CTA of the chest for pulmonary embolism?
    • A. 

      Automated bolus tracking

    • B. 

      Automatic tube current modulation

    • C. 

      Retrospective ECG gating

    • D. 

      Saline flush

  • 22. 
    Diffuse fatty infiltration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:
    • A. 

      Chromatosis

    • B. 

      Steatosis

    • C. 

      Cirrhosis

    • D. 

      Lipomatosis

  • 23. 
    Use Fig 5-4 Which of the following corresponds to the low-attenuation area indicated by Number 3 on the figure?
    • A. 

      Renal cortex

    • B. 

      Renal pelvis

    • C. 

      Renal calyx

    • D. 

      Renal pyramid

  • 24. 
    Use Fig 5-4 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Hepatic vein

    • B. 

      Suprarenal lymph node

    • C. 

      Adrenal gland

    • D. 

      Common bile duct

  • 25. 
    Use Fig 5-5 Number 4 corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      External auditory meatus

    • B. 

      Internal auditory canal

    • C. 

      Vestibule

    • D. 

      Carotid canal

  • 26. 
    Use Fig 5-5 Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Vestibule

    • B. 

      Semicircular canal

    • C. 

      Cochlea

    • D. 

      Incus

  • 27. 
    Use Fig 5-6 The pathologic process indicated by number 3 on the figure most likely corresponds to:
    • A. 

      Atelectasis

    • B. 

      Lymphadenopathy

    • C. 

      Pleural effusion

    • D. 

      Ground-glass opacity

  • 28. 
    Use Fig 5-6 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Right atrium

    • B. 

      Pulmonary trunk

    • C. 

      Ascending aorta

    • D. 

      Right ventricle

  • 29. 
    This HRCT image of the chest was most likely acquired with a section width of:
    • A. 

      1mm

    • B. 

      5mm

    • C. 

      7mm

    • D. 

      10mm

  • 30. 
    Use Fig 5-6 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Left mainstem bronchus

    • B. 

      Anterior segment of left upper lobe bronchus

    • C. 

      Posterior segment of left upper lobe bronchus

    • D. 

      Anterior segment of left lower lobe bronchus

  • 31. 
    The pituitary gland is best demonstrated during CT in which of the following imaging planes?
    • A. 

      Axial

    • B. 

      Coronal

    • C. 

      Sagittal

    • D. 

      Transaxial

  • 32. 
    Use Fig 5-7 Number 8 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Duodenum

    • B. 

      Descending colon

    • C. 

      Jejunum

    • D. 

      Ascending colon

  • 33. 
    The adult spinal cord ends at what vertebral level?
    • A. 

      T11-T12

    • B. 

      L1-L2

    • C. 

      L3-L4

    • D. 

      Superior portion of the coccyx

  • 34. 
    Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?
    • A. 

      Leiomyoma

    • B. 

      Cystic teratoma

    • C. 

      Endometriosis

    • D. 

      Corpus luteum

  • 35. 
    Use Fig 5-8 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Sphenoid sinus

    • B. 

      Ethmoid sinus

    • C. 

      Frontal sinus

    • D. 

      Maxillary sinus

  • 36. 
    Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?
    • A. 

      Pancreas

    • B. 

      Kidneys

    • C. 

      Uterus

    • D. 

      Liver

  • 37. 
    During a complete CT scan of the pelvis, sections should be obtained from the:
    • A. 

      Iliac crests to the pubic symphysis

    • B. 

      Kidneys through the bladder

    • C. 

      Bottom of the kidneys to the pubic symphysis

    • D. 

      Iliac crests to the lesser trochanter

  • 38. 
    Because of its inherent iodine concentration, the thyroid gland appears________on CT images.
    • A. 

      Hypodense

    • B. 

      Isodense

    • C. 

      Hyperdense

    • D. 

      Mottled

  • 39. 
    Air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree may be optimally demonstrated with multiplanar volume reconstructions (MPVR's) of the thorax known as:
    • A. 

      Maximum intensity projections (MIPs)

    • B. 

      3D volume renderings

    • C. 

      Shaded-surface displays (SSDs)

    • D. 

      Minimum intensity projections (min-IPs)

  • 40. 
    The specialized CT examinations of the bladder in which an iodinated contrast agent is directly administrated under gravity into the bladder via Foley catheter is termed:
    • A. 

      CT IVP

    • B. 

      CT urogram

    • C. 

      CT enteroclysis

    • D. 

      CT cystography

  • 41. 
    Collimation of the CT x-ray beam occurs: 1.at the x-ray tube, regulating slice thickness. 2.just beyond the patient, focusing off-axis transmitted radiation. 3.before the detectors, limiting the amount of scatter radiation absorbed.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 42. 
    The mathematical technique allowing the reconstruction of motion-free images from helically acquired CT data is called:
    • A. 

      Convolution

    • B. 

      Radon transformation

    • C. 

      Interpolation

    • D. 

      Fourier reconstruction

  • 43. 
    The full width at half maximum (FWHM) of a CT scanner is used to describe:
    • A. 

      Spatial resolution

    • B. 

      Contrast resolution

    • C. 

      Noise

    • D. 

      Calibration accuracy

  • 44. 
    Voxels with equal dimensions along the x,y, and z axes are referred to as:
    • A. 

      Prospective

    • B. 

      Isotropic

    • C. 

      Retrospective

    • D. 

      Anisotropic

  • 45. 
    When one is viewing a multiplanar reformation (MPR) image, each pixel represents:
    • A. 

      The maximum attenuation occurring within the voxel

    • B. 

      The average attenuation occurring within the voxel

    • C. 

      The minimum attenuation occurring within the voxel

    • D. 

      All attenuation occurring within the voxel above a set threshold value

  • 46. 
    An acquisition is made on a 64-slice MSCT system in which each detector element has a z-axis dimension of 0.625mm. With a selected beam width of 40mm and the beam pitch set at 1.50, how much will the table move with each rotation of the gantry?
    • A. 

      20mm

    • B. 

      40mm

    • C. 

      60mm

    • D. 

      80mm

  • 47. 
    For single-slice CT (SSCT) systems, which of the following statements regarding retrospective image reconstruction is FALSE?
    • A. 

      The algorithm, matrix size, and DFOV may all be changed

    • B. 

      The slice thickness and SFOV may be changed

    • C. 

      Scan (raw) data must be available

    • D. 

      Retrospective image reconstruction may be used to adjust the center of the image

  • 48. 
    Areas of a CT image that contain abrupt changes in tissue density are electronically represented by which of the following?
    • A. 

      Positive CT numbers

    • B. 

      High spatial frequencies

    • C. 

      Negative CT numbers

    • D. 

      Low spatial frequencies

  • 49. 
    Use Fig 5-11 The differences in Hounsfield value exhibited in the ROIs measured on this CT image of a water filled phantom are most likely due to the phenomenon referred to as:
    • A. 

      Partial volume averaging

    • B. 

      Noise

    • C. 

      Beam hardening

    • D. 

      Detector drift

  • 50. 
    The acquisition of a series of CT images at a single anatomic location over a set period is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Ultrafast CT

    • B. 

      Cine CT

    • C. 

      Conventional CT

    • D. 

      Temporal CT

  • 51. 
    The rate at which a quantity of x-radiation emitted from a CT tube passes through a unit area over a unit of time is called the:
    • A. 

      Effective mAs

    • B. 

      Photon flux

    • C. 

      Constant mAs

    • D. 

      Photon fluence

  • 52. 
    The 3D CT technique that includes all of the acquired voxel information in the reconstructed model with adjustments to its opacity is termed:
    • A. 

      Surface rendering

    • B. 

      Maximum intensity projection (MIP)

    • C. 

      Curved multiplanar reformation

    • D. 

      Volume rendering

  • 53. 
    Where is the high-frequency generator often located in a modern CT scanner?
    • A. 

      Inside the gantry

    • B. 

      Just outside the scan room

    • C. 

      Beneath the CT table

    • D. 

      Inside the operator's console

  • 54. 
    For a single-slice CT (SSCT) system, which of the following statements regarding pre-patient collimation is TRUE? 1.An increase in pre-patient collimation increases patient radiation dose. 2.Pre-patient collimation is used to focus radiation through the section of interest. 3.Pre-patient collimation directly controls slice thickness.
    • A. 

      2 only

    • B. 

      3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 2 only

    • D. 

      2 and 3 only

  • 55. 
    The contrast resolution of a CT scanner is NOT related to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Focal spot size

    • B. 

      Section width

    • C. 

      Reconstruction algorithm

    • D. 

      Signal-to-noise ratio

  • 56. 
    Use Fig 5-12 The artifact present on the lateral borders of the image in the figure most likely represents which of the following?
    • A. 

      Edge gradient

    • B. 

      Out-of-field artifact

    • C. 

      Tube arcing

    • D. 

      Beam hardening

  • 57. 
    Use Fig 5-12 The image in the figure was produced using the following parameters: large (full) SFOV; maximum DFOV (48cm); 200mA, 120kVp; soft tissue algorithm. Which of the following technical adjustments would serve to reduce the artifact present?
    • A. 

      Switching to a detail or bone algorithm

    • B. 

      Using a smaller SFOV

    • C. 

      Increasing the mA to 240 and the kVp to 140

    • D. 

      Centering the patient within the SFOV

  • 58. 
    The average photon energy of the CT x-ray beam can increased by:
    • A. 

      Increasing mAs

    • B. 

      Increasing filtration

    • C. 

      Increasing collimation

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 59. 
    The type of MSCT detector array that contains multiple rows of detector elements,each of the same length, is called a(n):
    • A. 

      Uniform matrix array

    • B. 

      Adaptive array

    • C. 

      Hybrid array

    • D. 

      Stationary array

  • 60. 
    Segmenting the data acquisition process into separate components of smaller rotation angles may improve which of the following components of CT image quality?
    • A. 

      Temporal resolution

    • B. 

      Longitudinal spatial resolution

    • C. 

      Contrast resolution

    • D. 

      In-plane spatial resolution

  • 61. 
    Which of the following image artifacts is unique to multslice CT (MSCT) systems?
    • A. 

      Step artifact

    • B. 

      Aliasing artifact

    • C. 

      Out-of-field artifact

    • D. 

      Cone beam artifact

  • 62. 
    Which of the following is considered an analytic form of image reconstruction? 1.iterative technique. 2.Fourier reconstruction. 3.filtered back-projection.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 63. 
    A 16-slice MSCT system utilizes an adaptive array of 24 detectors, each ranging in size from 0.625 to 1.25mm. What is the maximum number of sections the system can acquire with each rotation of the gantry?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      64

  • 64. 
    Which of the following may be considered one of the high-osmolar contrast media (HOCM)? 1.iothalamate meglumine. 2.diatrizoate sodium. 3.iohexol.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 2 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 65. 
    Which of the following is considered in the calculation of the MSAD for an axial (step-in-shoot) CT examination?
    • A. 

      Bed index

    • B. 

      Gantry rotation time

    • C. 

      MA setting

    • D. 

      Pitch

  • 66. 
    Which of the following would be best suited for intravenous injection of contrast material with a power injector?
    • A. 

      Butterfly needle

    • B. 

      Central venous line

    • C. 

      23-gauge spinal needle

    • D. 

      Angiocatheter

  • 67. 
    CTDIw is a weighted index that approximates radiation dose on the basis of the variations that occur across the field of view because of: 1.beam hardening. 2.detector configuration. 3.pitch.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 68. 
    Which of the following infection control techniques is required at the site of an intravenous injection of iodinated contrast media?
    • A. 

      Contact isolation

    • B. 

      Surgical asepsis

    • C. 

      Medical asepsis

    • D. 

      Enteric precautions

  • 69. 
    In order to uniformly expose the entire detector array in an MDCT system, the primary beam must be expanded beyond the physical extent of the array i a process known as:
    • A. 

      Interpolation

    • B. 

      Overbeaming

    • C. 

      Photon flux

    • D. 

      Back-projection

  • 70. 
    The amount of x-ray energy absorbed in a quantity of air is termed:
    • A. 

      Dose profile

    • B. 

      Kerma

    • C. 

      Becquerel

    • D. 

      MSAD

  • 71. 
    Use Fig 6-1 Number 4 in the figure corresponds to which of the following:
    • A. 

      Spleen

    • B. 

      Duodenum

    • C. 

      Left adrenal gland

    • D. 

      Large colon

  • 72. 
    Use Fig 6-1 Number 2 in the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • B. 

      Common bile duct

    • C. 

      Portal vein

    • D. 

      Superior mesenteric vein

  • 73. 
    Use Fig 6-1 The abdominal space indicated by number 7 i the figure is commonly referred to as:
    • A. 

      Morison's pouch

    • B. 

      Cul-de-sac

    • C. 

      Splenorenal recess

    • D. 

      Subphrenic space

  • 74. 
    Use Fig 6-1 Number 6 in the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Superior mesenteric vein

    • B. 

      Superior mesenteric artery

    • C. 

      Gastric artery

    • D. 

      Right renal vein

  • 75. 
    Which of the following contrast media may be utilized during the CT evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract? 1.diatrizoate meglumine (Gastrografin). 2.effervescent agents. 3.iopamidol (Isovue).
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 3 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 76. 
    The liver has a dual blood supply and receives 75% of its blood from the:
    • A. 

      Hepatic artery

    • B. 

      Superior mesenteric artery

    • C. 

      Portal vein

    • D. 

      Superior mesenteric vein

  • 77. 
    Use Fig 6-2 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Inferior rectus nuscle

    • B. 

      Optic chiasm

    • C. 

      Inferior oblique muscle

    • D. 

      Levator palpebrea superioris

  • 78. 
    Which of the following pelvic bones combine(s) to form the acetabulum? 1.ilium. 2.ischium. 3.pubis.
    • A. 

      2 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 79. 
    Use Fig 6-3 Number 6 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Descending aorta

    • B. 

      Azygos vein

    • C. 

      Inferior vena cave

    • D. 

      Brachiocephalic artery

  • 80. 
    Use Fig 6-3 Number 4 on the figure corresponds to which of the following muscles?
    • A. 

      Pectoralis major

    • B. 

      Pectoralis minor

    • C. 

      Intercostal

    • D. 

      Serratus posterior superior

  • 81. 
    Use Fig 6-3 Which of the following window settings was used to display the image in the figure?
    • A. 

      WL -400, WW 1500

    • B. 

      WL 0, WW 150

    • C. 

      WL +50, WW 400

    • D. 

      WL +275, WW 2500

  • 82. 
    Use Fig 6-3 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Superior vena cava

    • B. 

      Ascending aorta

    • C. 

      Right brachiocephalic vein

    • D. 

      Right brachiocephalic artery

  • 83. 
    At what percentage of overlap should CT sections be reconstructed to improve the quality of multiplanar reformation (MPR) images?
    • A. 

      10%

    • B. 

      25%

    • C. 

      50%

    • D. 

      100%

  • 84. 
    The degenerative pathologic process involving the forward slipping of an upper vertebral body over a lower vertebral body is called:
    • A. 

      Spondylolisthesis

    • B. 

      Spondylolysis

    • C. 

      Herniated nucleus pulposus

    • D. 

      Spinal stenosis

  • 85. 
    Accurate demonstration of___________would most likely require the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast agent during a CT study of the chest.
    • A. 

      Bronchiectasis

    • B. 

      Pneumonia

    • C. 

      Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

    • D. 

      Pulmonary nodule

  • 86. 
    Axial CT images of the knee may be acquired in four separate series with gantry angulations of 0, 30, 45, and 60 degrees in order to demonstrate the:
    • A. 

      Tibial plateau

    • B. 

      Patellofemoral joint

    • C. 

      Medial and lateral menisci

    • D. 

      Anterior cruciate ligament

  • 87. 
    Use Fig 6-5 Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Coracoid process

    • B. 

      Acromion

    • C. 

      Glenoid process

    • D. 

      Clavicle

  • 88. 
    Use Fig 6-5 Number 2 in the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Coracoid process

    • B. 

      Acromion

    • C. 

      Glenoid process

    • D. 

      Clavicle

  • 89. 
    The enhancement washout technique for CT characterization of adrenal masses includes: 1.thin-section pre-contrast acquisition through adrenals. 2.arterial phase post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals. 3.10 to 15 minute delayed post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals.
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      1 and 3 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 90. 
    Use Fig 6-7 Number 5 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Ascending colon

    • B. 

      Descending colon

    • C. 

      Sigmoid colon

    • D. 

      Cecum

  • 91. 
    Use Fig 6-7 Which of the following reformation techniques best describes the image in the figure?
    • A. 

      Multiplanar reformation (MPR)

    • B. 

      Volume rendered 3D

    • C. 

      Maximum intensity projection (MIP)

    • D. 

      Minimum intensity projection (min-IP)

  • 92. 
    CTA of the renal arteries should be performed using a section width of:
    • A. 

      1.25 mm or less

    • B. 

      2-3 mm

    • C. 

      3-5 mm

    • D. 

      5-7mm

  • 93. 
    The third ventricle of the brain communicates with the fourth ventricle through the:
    • A. 

      Anterior commissure

    • B. 

      Septum pellucidum

    • C. 

      Cerebral aqueduct

    • D. 

      Fornix

  • 94. 
    The kidneys are located in the retroperitoneum and are bound by a band of fibrous connective tissue called:
    • A. 

      Cooper's ligament

    • B. 

      Camper's fascia

    • C. 

      Linea alba

    • D. 

      Gerota's fascia

  • 95. 
    The prone position may be used for a post myelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine in an effort to:
    • A. 

      Reduce the lordotic curve

    • B. 

      Decrease patient gonadal radiation dose

    • C. 

      Reduce metrizamide pooling

    • D. 

      Increase the lordotic curve

  • 96. 
    During the use of CT fluoroscopy for guided interventional procedures, which of the following technical considerations may be used to reduce occupational radiation exposure? 1.increased kVp. 2.lead shielding. 3.use of a needle holder.
    • A. 

      2 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      2 and 3 only

  • 97. 
    Use Fig 6-9 The intrathecal administration of an iodinated contrast agent in the patient in the figure would allow for greater visualization of the: 1.spinal cord. 2.nerve roots. 3.anulus fibrosis.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3

  • 98. 
    Which of the following is NOT a component of the "triple rule-out" MDCT protocol for patients complaining of chest pain?
    • A. 

      CTA of the pulmonary arteries

    • B. 

      Prone HRCT of the lungs

    • C. 

      CTA of the aorta

    • D. 

      Coronary CTA

  • 99. 
    During contrast enhanced CT examinations of the chest, streaking artifact may obscure portions of the superior mediastinum because of dense concentrations of iodine in the:
    • A. 

      Descending aorta

    • B. 

      Superior vena cava

    • C. 

      Ascending aorta

    • D. 

      Pulmonary

  • 100. 
    The average density of a mass within the kidney measures -75 Hounsfield units (HU). The mass is most likely a:
    • A. 

      Cyst

    • B. 

      Lipoma

    • C. 

      Stone

    • D. 

      Hydrocele

  • 101. 
    Which of the following is used to archive a hard copy of a CT image:
    • A. 

      Laser film

    • B. 

      PACS

    • C. 

      CD-ROM

    • D. 

      LAN

  • 102. 
    Which of the following would serve to increase spatial resolution of a CT exam using a large focal spot size, 5mm sections, and a 512(2) matrix? 1.change to small focal spot size. 2.acquire 2.5mm sections. 3.reconstruct images in a 320(2) matrix.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2 and 3