CT Registry Review Test: Hardest Trivia Quiz!

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    An average range for activated PTT is:

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    • 25-35 seconds
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About This Quiz

A CT scan(computed tomography) is a scanning process through which you get computer-processed X-ray. Medical imaging is the standard application of X-ray CT used for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. Take this quiz to test your knowledge of different methods and system used in the CT Scan. Attempt all the questions, and try your best. Let's take the exam. See moreAll the best!

CT Registry Review Test: Hardest Trivia Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified by which of the following?

    • Anticholinergic

    • Bronchodilator

    • Antihistamine

    • Corticosteroid

    Correct Answer
    A. Corticosteroid
    Explanation
    SOLU-CORTEF is classified as a corticosteroid. Corticosteroids are a class of drugs that mimic the effects of hormones produced by the adrenal glands. They have anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties, making them useful in treating a variety of conditions such as allergies, asthma, and autoimmune disorders. SOLU-CORTEF, specifically, is a brand name for hydrocortisone sodium succinate, which is commonly used as an injectable corticosteroid for emergency situations such as anaphylaxis or adrenal crisis.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is considered on of the isomolar contrast media (IOCM)?

    • Iodixanol

    • Iopamidol

    • Iohexol

    • Ioversol

    Correct Answer
    A. Iodixanol
    Explanation
    Iodixanol (Visipaque) is an example of a non-ionic isomolar contrast agent. Iohexol (omnipaque), iopamidol
    (Isovue), and ioversol (Optiray) are all non-ionic low-osmolar contrast media (LOCM)

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  • 4. 

    Advantages of a saline flush immediately following IV administration of iodinated contrast material include: 1.reduction in required contrast agent dose. 2.reduction in the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN). 3.recuction of streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature.

    • 1 only

    • 3 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 1,2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,2 and 3
    Explanation
    A saline flush immediately following IV administration of iodinated contrast material has several advantages. Firstly, it can help reduce the required contrast agent dose, which can be beneficial in patients who may be at risk for adverse reactions or have limited renal function. Secondly, it can reduce the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN), a potential complication of contrast administration that can cause kidney damage. Lastly, it can help reduce streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature, which can improve the quality of imaging studies. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following medications may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination?

    • Sublingual nitroglycerine

    • A B-adrenergic receptor blocking agent (B-Blocker)

    • Atropine

    • Albuterol

    Correct Answer
    A. Sublingual nitroglycerine
    Explanation
    Sublingual nitroglycerine may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination. Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator that works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, including the coronary arteries. This helps to improve blood flow to the heart and can be beneficial before a cardiac CT examination to enhance the visualization of the coronary arteries.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is a parenteral route of medication administration?

    • Sublingual

    • Intramuscular

    • Transdermal

    • Oral

    Correct Answer
    A. Intramuscular
    Explanation
    Parenteral administration involves the injection of medication into the body. Common routes of parental medication administration include intramuscular, intravenous, intradermal, and subcutaneous.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following methods may be employed to reduce the radiation dose to the pediatric patient undergoing CT? 1. reduce mA. 2.limit phases of acquisition. 3.increase pitch.

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 1 and 3 only

    • 1,2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,2 and 3
    Explanation
    To reduce the radiation dose to a pediatric patient undergoing CT, three methods can be employed. First, reducing mA (milliamperage) helps to lower the radiation dose. Second, limiting phases of acquisition means reducing the number of scans or images taken, which also decreases the overall radiation exposure. Third, increasing pitch refers to the speed at which the patient table moves through the CT scanner. A higher pitch means the patient spends less time in the scanner, resulting in a lower radiation dose. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are all valid methods to reduce the radiation dose in pediatric CT scans.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?

    • Acid-fast bacillus isolation

    • Contact isolation

    • Enteric precautions

    • Drainage-secretion precautions

    Correct Answer
    A. Enteric precautions
    Explanation
    usually gown and gloves which is enteric precautions.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media (RCM)?

    • Iohexol

    • Iothalamate meglumine

    • Iopamidol

    • Ioversol

    Correct Answer
    A. Iothalamate meglumine
    Explanation
    Ionic contrast media are salts consisting of sodium and/or meglumine.

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  • 10. 

    The radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening is termed:

    • CTDIw

    • CTDI100

    • CTDIvol

    • MSAD

    Correct Answer
    A. CTDIvol
    Explanation
    CTDIvol is the correct answer because it stands for Computed Tomography Dose Index Volume. It is a radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening. This index is used to estimate the radiation dose delivered to the patient during a CT scan, considering the volume of tissue being exposed. CTDIvol provides a more accurate representation of the radiation dose compared to other dose index calculations like CTDIw or CTDI100, which do not consider the variations in absorption. MSAD is not related to beam hardening or dose index calculations.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following units is used to express the total patient dose from a helically acquired CT examination?

    • Roentgens (R)

    • Curies (Ci)

    • R-cm (roentgens per centimeter)

    • MGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter)

    Correct Answer
    A. MGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter)
    Explanation
    The Dose Length Product (DLP) is expressed in units of milligrays per centimeter (mGy-cm).

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  • 12. 

    Components of a comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically include: 1.pre-contrast sequence of the brain. 2.CTA of the brain and carotids. 3.CT perfusion (CTP) of the brain.

    • 2 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 1,2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,2 and 3
    Explanation
    A comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically includes a pre-contrast sequence of the brain, CTA of the brain and carotids, and CT perfusion (CTP) of the brain. These components are important for a thorough evaluation of the stroke, as they provide information about the location and extent of the stroke, as well as the blood flow in the brain. By combining these different imaging techniques, healthcare professionals can make more accurate diagnoses and determine the most appropriate treatment options for the patient.

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  • 13. 

    Use Fig 5-1 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

    • Left pulmonary artery

    • Ascending aorta

    • Inferior vena cava

    • Descending aorta

    Correct Answer
    A. Left pulmonary artery
    Explanation
    Figure 5-1 is being referenced to answer this question. Number 1 on the figure corresponds to the left pulmonary artery.

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  • 14. 

    Use Fig 5-1 Which number on the figure corresponds to the superior vena cava?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the superior vena cava can be identified as number 4 on the figure.

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  • 15. 

    Use Fig 5-2 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

    • Left internal jugular vein

    • Left external carotid artery

    • Left internal carotid

    • Left external jugular vein

    Correct Answer
    A. Left internal carotid
    Explanation
    Based on Fig 5-2, number 2 corresponds to the left internal carotid.

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  • 16. 

    Use Fig 5-2 Number 5 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

    • Right internal jugular vein

    • Right external carotid artery

    • Right internal carotid artery

    • Right external jugular vein

    Correct Answer
    A. Right internal jugular vein
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, number 5 on Fig 5-2 corresponds to the right internal jugular vein.

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  • 17. 

    Use Fig 5-2 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

    • Vocal cords

    • Uvula

    • Aryepiglottic fold

    • Epiglottis

    Correct Answer
    A. Epiglottis
    Explanation
    Number 1 on the figure corresponds to the epiglottis. The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage located at the base of the tongue, and its main function is to prevent food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing. It covers the opening of the larynx, ensuring that food and liquid go down the esophagus and into the stomach instead of the airway.

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  • 18. 

    The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of:

    • T10

    • T12

    • L2

    • L4

    Correct Answer
    A. L4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is L4. The abdominal aorta is the largest artery in the abdominal cavity and it bifurcates, or splits into two branches, at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4). This split forms the two common iliac arteries, which further divide into the internal and external iliac arteries. The bifurcation at L4 is an important landmark in the abdominal anatomy and is commonly used as a reference point for various medical procedures and assessments.

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  • 19. 

    On an ECG of the complete cardiac cycle, at which portion of the R-R interval is the heart muscle in diastole?

    • 10-20%

    • 35-50%

    • 55-75%

    • 85-95%

    Correct Answer
    A. 55-75%
    Explanation
    During the cardiac cycle, the heart goes through systole (contraction) and diastole (relaxation) phases. The R-R interval represents the time between two consecutive ventricular contractions. In this case, the heart muscle is in diastole (relaxation) during the 55-75% portion of the R-R interval. This means that the heart is not actively contracting during this time and is instead filling with blood in preparation for the next contraction.

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  • 20. 

    The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the:

    • Thrombolytic zone

    • Hemorrhage focus

    • Ischemic penumbra

    • Stroke volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Ischemic penumbra
    Explanation
    The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the ischemic penumbra. This refers to the area of the brain that is at risk of further damage due to inadequate blood supply but is still potentially salvageable if blood flow is restored in a timely manner. The term "ischemic penumbra" is used to describe this region of reversible ischemic injury in stroke patients.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following technical maneuvers may be used to remove unwanted pulsation artifacts from cardiac motion during a CTA of the chest for pulmonary embolism?

    • Automated bolus tracking

    • Automatic tube current modulation

    • Retrospective ECG gating

    • Saline flush

    Correct Answer
    A. Retrospective ECG gating
    Explanation
    Retrospective ECG gating is a technical maneuver that can be used to remove unwanted pulsation artifacts from cardiac motion during a CTA of the chest for pulmonary embolism. This technique involves acquiring images of the heart at different phases of the cardiac cycle and then reconstructing a motion-free image by selecting the best data from each phase. By synchronizing the image acquisition with the ECG signal, retrospective ECG gating ensures that the images are acquired at the same point in the cardiac cycle, minimizing motion artifacts caused by pulsation. This technique improves the diagnostic accuracy of the CTA by providing clearer images of the pulmonary arteries.

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  • 22. 

    Diffuse fatty infiltration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:

    • Chromatosis

    • Steatosis

    • Cirrhosis

    • Lipomatosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Steatosis
    Explanation
    Steatosis refers to the diffuse fatty infiltration of the liver parenchyma. This condition is characterized by the accumulation of fat within the liver cells, which can lead to liver dysfunction and inflammation. Steatosis is commonly associated with obesity, diabetes, alcohol abuse, and certain medications. It can be reversible if the underlying cause is addressed, but if left untreated, it can progress to more severe liver diseases such as cirrhosis. Lipomatosis refers to the presence of multiple lipomas, while chromatosis is not a recognized medical term for liver conditions.

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  • 23. 

    Use Fig 5-4 Which of the following corresponds to the low-attenuation area indicated by Number 3 on the figure?

    • Renal cortex

    • Renal pelvis

    • Renal calyx

    • Renal pyramid

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal pyramid
    Explanation
    The low-attenuation area indicated by Number 3 on the figure corresponds to the renal pyramid.

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  • 24. 

    Use Fig 5-4 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

    • Hepatic vein

    • Suprarenal lymph node

    • Adrenal gland

    • Common bile duct

    Correct Answer
    A. Adrenal gland
    Explanation
    Figure 5-4 shows a diagram or image that is not provided in the given context. Without the figure, it is not possible to determine the specific location or number 2 on the figure. Therefore, an explanation cannot be provided.

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  • 25. 

    Use Fig 5-5 Number 4 corresponds to which of the following?

    • External auditory meatus

    • Internal auditory canal

    • Vestibule

    • Carotid canal

    Correct Answer
    A. Carotid canal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is carotid canal because in Figure 5-5, number 4 is labeled as the carotid canal.

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  • 26. 

    Use Fig 5-5 Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

    • Vestibule

    • Semicircular canal

    • Cochlea

    • Incus

    Correct Answer
    A. Vestibule
    Explanation
    Number 3 on Fig 5-5 corresponds to the vestibule.

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  • 27. 

    Use Fig 5-6 The pathologic process indicated by number 3 on the figure most likely corresponds to:

    • Atelectasis

    • Lymphadenopathy

    • Pleural effusion

    • Ground-glass opacity

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground-glass opacity
    Explanation
    The pathologic process indicated by number 3 on the figure most likely corresponds to ground-glass opacity.

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  • 28. 

    Use Fig 5-6 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

    • Right atrium

    • Pulmonary trunk

    • Ascending aorta

    • Right ventricle

    Correct Answer
    A. Ascending aorta
    Explanation
    Number 2 on the figure corresponds to the ascending aorta.

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  • 29. 

    This HRCT image of the chest was most likely acquired with a section width of:

    • 1mm

    • 5mm

    • 7mm

    • 10mm

    Correct Answer
    A. 1mm
    Explanation
    The HRCT image of the chest was most likely acquired with a section width of 1mm because a thinner section width allows for higher resolution and better visualization of small structures in the chest. This is particularly important in HRCT imaging, which is used to evaluate lung diseases such as interstitial lung disease, lung nodules, and pulmonary embolism. A section width of 1mm provides more detailed and accurate images, helping in the detection and characterization of these conditions.

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  • 30. 

    Use Fig 5-6 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

    • Left mainstem bronchus

    • Anterior segment of left upper lobe bronchus

    • Posterior segment of left upper lobe bronchus

    • Anterior segment of left lower lobe bronchus

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior segment of left upper lobe bronchus
  • 31. 

    The pituitary gland is best demonstrated during CT in which of the following imaging planes?

    • Axial

    • Coronal

    • Sagittal

    • Transaxial

    Correct Answer
    A. Coronal
    Explanation
    The pituitary gland is best demonstrated during CT in the coronal imaging plane. This is because the coronal plane allows for a clear visualization of the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain. The coronal plane provides a view from the front to the back of the body, making it ideal for assessing the pituitary gland's position and any abnormalities. The axial plane would provide a view from top to bottom, the sagittal plane would provide a view from side to side, and transaxial is not a recognized imaging plane.

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  • 32. 

    Use Fig 5-7 Number 8 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

    • Duodenum

    • Descending colon

    • Jejunum

    • Ascending colon

    Correct Answer
    A. Ascending colon
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, it can be inferred that number 8 on Fig 5-7 corresponds to the ascending colon.

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  • 33. 

    The adult spinal cord ends at what vertebral level?

    • T11-T12

    • L1-L2

    • L3-L4

    • Superior portion of the coccyx

    Correct Answer
    A. L1-L2
    Explanation
    The adult spinal cord ends at the vertebral level of L1-L2. This is because the spinal cord extends from the base of the skull to the upper part of the lumbar spine. The spinal cord itself terminates around the level of the first lumbar vertebra (L1) or the second lumbar vertebra (L2). Below this level, the spinal canal continues as the cauda equina, a bundle of nerves that extends down to the lower back.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?

    • Leiomyoma

    • Cystic teratoma

    • Endometriosis

    • Corpus luteum

    Correct Answer
    A. Leiomyoma
    Explanation
    A fibroid tumor of the uterus is commonly referred to as a leiomyoma. Leiomyoma is a benign tumor that arises from the smooth muscle cells of the uterus. It is the most common type of tumor found in the female reproductive system. Fibroids can vary in size and may cause symptoms such as heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic pain, and pressure on nearby organs. Treatment options for leiomyoma include medication, minimally invasive procedures, and surgery, depending on the severity of symptoms and desire for fertility preservation.

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  • 35. 

    Use Fig 5-8 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

    • Sphenoid sinus

    • Ethmoid sinus

    • Frontal sinus

    • Maxillary sinus

    Correct Answer
    A. Ethmoid sinus
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, number 1 on Fig 5-8 corresponds to the ethmoid sinus.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?

    • Pancreas

    • Kidneys

    • Uterus

    • Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Liver
    Explanation
    The liver is located within the peritoneal cavity. The peritoneal cavity is a space in the abdomen that is lined by the peritoneum, a thin membrane. The liver is the largest solid organ in the body and is situated in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. It is surrounded by the peritoneum, which helps to protect and support the liver. The liver plays a vital role in various metabolic processes, including detoxification, protein synthesis, and bile production.

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  • 37. 

    During a complete CT scan of the pelvis, sections should be obtained from the:

    • Iliac crests to the pubic symphysis

    • Kidneys through the bladder

    • Bottom of the kidneys to the pubic symphysis

    • Iliac crests to the lesser trochanter

    Correct Answer
    A. Iliac crests to the pubic symphysis
    Explanation
    During a complete CT scan of the pelvis, sections should be obtained from the iliac crests to the pubic symphysis. This is because the iliac crests are the highest point of the hip bones and the pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones. By including these landmarks in the scan, it ensures that the entire pelvis is captured in the imaging, providing a comprehensive view of the pelvic region.

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  • 38. 

    Because of its inherent iodine concentration, the thyroid gland appears________on CT images.

    • Hypodense

    • Isodense

    • Hyperdense

    • Mottled

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperdense
    Explanation
    The correct answer is hyperdense. The thyroid gland appears hyperdense on CT images due to its inherent iodine concentration. This means that it appears brighter or denser compared to the surrounding tissues.

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  • 39. 

    Air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree may be optimally demonstrated with multiplanar volume reconstructions (MPVR's) of the thorax known as:

    • Maximum intensity projections (MIPs)

    • 3D volume renderings

    • Shaded-surface displays (SSDs)

    • Minimum intensity projections (min-IPs)

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimum intensity projections (min-IPs)
    Explanation
    Minimum intensity projections (min-IPs) are a type of multiplanar volume reconstruction (MPVR) technique used to demonstrate air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree. In min-IPs, the minimum intensity value along each ray path is projected onto the image, resulting in a visualization of the areas with the lowest intensity, which in this case represents the trapped air. This technique allows for optimal visualization and identification of air trapping in the thorax.

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  • 40. 

    The specialized CT examinations of the bladder in which an iodinated contrast agent is directly administrated under gravity into the bladder via Foley catheter is termed:

    • CT IVP

    • CT urogram

    • CT enteroclysis

    • CT cystography

    Correct Answer
    A. CT cystography
    Explanation
    CT cystography is the correct answer because it involves the administration of an iodinated contrast agent directly into the bladder via a Foley catheter. This procedure is used to visualize the bladder and detect any abnormalities or injuries. CT IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram) involves the injection of contrast dye into a vein to visualize the urinary system, CT urogram is a CT scan of the urinary tract, and CT enteroclysis is a CT scan of the small intestine.

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  • 41. 

    Collimation of the CT x-ray beam occurs: 1.at the x-ray tube, regulating slice thickness. 2.just beyond the patient, focusing off-axis transmitted radiation. 3.before the detectors, limiting the amount of scatter radiation absorbed.

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 1 and 3 only

    • 1,2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 3 only
    Explanation
    Collimation of the CT x-ray beam occurs at the x-ray tube, regulating slice thickness. This means that the x-ray beam is narrowed down to a specific size, controlling the thickness of each slice that is captured during the CT scan. Additionally, collimation occurs before the detectors, limiting the amount of scatter radiation absorbed. This helps to improve the image quality by reducing the amount of unwanted scattered radiation that can interfere with the clarity of the image. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

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  • 42. 

    The mathematical technique allowing the reconstruction of motion-free images from helically acquired CT data is called:

    • Convolution

    • Radon transformation

    • Interpolation

    • Fourier reconstruction

    Correct Answer
    A. Interpolation
    Explanation
    Interpolation is the mathematical technique used to reconstruct motion-free images from helically acquired CT data. It involves estimating the values of data points within a given range based on the values of known data points. In the context of CT imaging, interpolation helps in filling in the missing data points caused by the helical acquisition process, resulting in a complete and accurate image reconstruction. Convolution, radon transformation, and Fourier reconstruction are not specifically related to the reconstruction of motion-free images from helically acquired CT data.

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  • 43. 

    The full width at half maximum (FWHM) of a CT scanner is used to describe:

    • Spatial resolution

    • Contrast resolution

    • Noise

    • Calibration accuracy

    Correct Answer
    A. Spatial resolution
    Explanation
    The full width at half maximum (FWHM) of a CT scanner refers to the width of the peak of a spatial resolution curve where the intensity is at half of its maximum value. It is a measure of how well the scanner can distinguish between two closely spaced objects or details in an image. Therefore, the FWHM is used to describe the spatial resolution of a CT scanner, which is its ability to accurately represent the spatial details of an object or structure in the image.

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  • 44. 

    Voxels with equal dimensions along the x,y, and z axes are referred to as:

    • Prospective

    • Isotropic

    • Retrospective

    • Anisotropic

    Correct Answer
    A. Isotropic
    Explanation
    Voxels with equal dimensions along the x, y, and z axes are referred to as isotropic. Isotropic means that the voxel has uniform dimensions in all directions, resulting in equal resolution along each axis. This is important in medical imaging, as it allows for accurate and consistent measurements and comparisons of structures in three-dimensional space. Anisotropic voxels, on the other hand, have unequal dimensions along the axes, which can lead to variations in resolution and distortions in the image.

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  • 45. 

    When one is viewing a multiplanar reformation (MPR) image, each pixel represents:

    • The maximum attenuation occurring within the voxel

    • The average attenuation occurring within the voxel

    • The minimum attenuation occurring within the voxel

    • All attenuation occurring within the voxel above a set threshold value

    Correct Answer
    A. The average attenuation occurring within the voxel
    Explanation
    When viewing a multiplanar reformation (MPR) image, each pixel represents the average attenuation occurring within the voxel. This means that the pixel value represents the average intensity or density of the tissues or structures within that voxel. This can be useful in determining the overall characteristics of the tissues or structures being imaged, as it provides an average value of the attenuation occurring within that voxel.

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  • 46. 

    An acquisition is made on a 64-slice MSCT system in which each detector element has a z-axis dimension of 0.625mm. With a selected beam width of 40mm and the beam pitch set at 1.50, how much will the table move with each rotation of the gantry?

    • 20mm

    • 40mm

    • 60mm

    • 80mm

    Correct Answer
    A. 60mm
    Explanation
    The table will move 60mm with each rotation of the gantry. This can be calculated by multiplying the z-axis dimension of each detector element (0.625mm) by the selected beam width (40mm) and the beam pitch (1.50). Therefore, the formula is 0.625mm x 40mm x 1.50 = 60mm.

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  • 47. 

    For single-slice CT (SSCT) systems, which of the following statements regarding retrospective image reconstruction is FALSE?

    • The algorithm, matrix size, and DFOV may all be changed

    • The slice thickness and SFOV may be changed

    • Scan (raw) data must be available

    • Retrospective image reconstruction may be used to adjust the center of the image

    Correct Answer
    A. The slice thickness and SFOV may be changed
    Explanation
    Retrospective image reconstruction refers to the process of reconstructing images from previously acquired scan data. In single-slice CT systems, it is possible to change the algorithm, matrix size, and DFOV during retrospective image reconstruction. This allows for adjustments in image quality, resolution, and field of view. However, the slice thickness and SFOV cannot be changed retrospectively. These parameters are determined during the initial scan and cannot be altered during image reconstruction. Therefore, the statement that the slice thickness and SFOV may be changed is false.

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  • 48. 

    Areas of a CT image that contain abrupt changes in tissue density are electronically represented by which of the following?

    • Positive CT numbers

    • High spatial frequencies

    • Negative CT numbers

    • Low spatial frequencies

    Correct Answer
    A. High spatial frequencies
    Explanation
    High spatial frequencies in a CT image represent areas that contain abrupt changes in tissue density. Spatial frequency refers to the rate at which the intensity of the image changes as a function of position. In CT imaging, high spatial frequencies indicate rapid changes in tissue density, such as the boundaries between different tissues or structures. These abrupt changes in density are electronically represented in the CT image using high spatial frequencies.

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  • 49. 

    Use Fig 5-11 The differences in Hounsfield value exhibited in the ROIs measured on this CT image of a water filled phantom are most likely due to the phenomenon referred to as:

    • Partial volume averaging

    • Noise

    • Beam hardening

    • Detector drift

    Correct Answer
    A. Beam hardening
    Explanation
    The differences in Hounsfield value exhibited in the ROIs measured on this CT image of a water-filled phantom are most likely due to beam hardening. Beam hardening is a phenomenon that occurs when the X-ray beam passes through an object, causing lower energy X-rays to be absorbed more than higher energy X-rays. This leads to an increase in the average energy of the X-ray beam, resulting in an underestimation of the Hounsfield values in the image.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 26, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Jawkorn23

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