CT Registry Review Test: Hardest Trivia Quiz!

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1. Which of the following units is used to express the total patient dose from a helically acquired CT examination?

Explanation

The Dose Length Product (DLP) is expressed in units of milligrays per centimeter (mGy-cm).

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About This Quiz
CT Registry Review Test: Hardest Trivia Quiz! - Quiz

A CT scan(computed tomography) is a scanning process through which you get computer-processed X-ray. Medical imaging is the standard application of X-ray CT used for diagnostic... see moreand therapeutic purposes. Take this quiz to test your knowledge of different methods and system used in the CT Scan. Attempt all the questions, and try your best. Let's take the exam. All the best!
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2. Where is the high-frequency generator often located in a modern CT scanner?

Explanation

The high-frequency generator in a modern CT scanner is often located inside the gantry. The gantry is the large ring-shaped structure that houses the X-ray tube and detector array. Placing the generator inside the gantry allows for a more compact design and reduces the length of the high-voltage cables that connect the generator to the X-ray tube. This helps to minimize electrical interference and improve the overall performance of the CT scanner. Additionally, having the generator inside the gantry allows for faster and more precise control of the X-ray output during the scanning process.

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3. Which of the following would be best suited for intravenous injection of contrast material with a power injector?

Explanation

The angiocatheter would be best suited for intravenous injection of contrast material with a power injector because it is specifically designed for this purpose. It is a catheter that can be easily inserted into a vein and has a larger gauge size, allowing for the rapid injection of contrast material. The other options, such as the butterfly needle, central venous line, and 23-gauge spinal needle, are not designed for this specific purpose and may not be suitable for the high-pressure injection required for contrast material administration.

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4. Voxels with equal dimensions along the x,y, and z axes are referred to as:

Explanation

Voxels with equal dimensions along the x, y, and z axes are referred to as isotropic. Isotropic means that the voxel has uniform dimensions in all directions, resulting in equal resolution along each axis. This is important in medical imaging, as it allows for accurate and consistent measurements and comparisons of structures in three-dimensional space. Anisotropic voxels, on the other hand, have unequal dimensions along the axes, which can lead to variations in resolution and distortions in the image.

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5. Which of the following methods may be employed to reduce the radiation dose to the pediatric patient undergoing CT? 1. reduce mA. 2.limit phases of acquisition. 3.increase pitch.

Explanation

To reduce the radiation dose to a pediatric patient undergoing CT, three methods can be employed. First, reducing mA (milliamperage) helps to lower the radiation dose. Second, limiting phases of acquisition means reducing the number of scans or images taken, which also decreases the overall radiation exposure. Third, increasing pitch refers to the speed at which the patient table moves through the CT scanner. A higher pitch means the patient spends less time in the scanner, resulting in a lower radiation dose. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are all valid methods to reduce the radiation dose in pediatric CT scans.

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6. Components of a comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically include: 1.pre-contrast sequence of the brain. 2.CTA of the brain and carotids. 3.CT perfusion (CTP) of the brain.

Explanation

A comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically includes a pre-contrast sequence of the brain, CTA of the brain and carotids, and CT perfusion (CTP) of the brain. These components are important for a thorough evaluation of the stroke, as they provide information about the location and extent of the stroke, as well as the blood flow in the brain. By combining these different imaging techniques, healthcare professionals can make more accurate diagnoses and determine the most appropriate treatment options for the patient.

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7. The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the:

Explanation

The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the ischemic penumbra. This refers to the area of the brain that is at risk of further damage due to inadequate blood supply but is still potentially salvageable if blood flow is restored in a timely manner. The term "ischemic penumbra" is used to describe this region of reversible ischemic injury in stroke patients.

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8. Which of the following is a parenteral route of medication administration?

Explanation

Parenteral administration involves the injection of medication into the body. Common routes of parental medication administration include intramuscular, intravenous, intradermal, and subcutaneous.

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9. The pituitary gland is best demonstrated during CT in which of the following imaging planes?

Explanation

The pituitary gland is best demonstrated during CT in the coronal imaging plane. This is because the coronal plane allows for a clear visualization of the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain. The coronal plane provides a view from the front to the back of the body, making it ideal for assessing the pituitary gland's position and any abnormalities. The axial plane would provide a view from top to bottom, the sagittal plane would provide a view from side to side, and transaxial is not a recognized imaging plane.

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10. Which of the following is NOT a component of the "triple rule-out" MDCT protocol for patients complaining of chest pain?

Explanation

The "triple rule-out" MDCT protocol is used to evaluate patients complaining of chest pain for three potential conditions: pulmonary embolism, aortic dissection, and coronary artery disease. This protocol involves performing a CTA of the pulmonary arteries to assess for pulmonary embolism, a CTA of the aorta to evaluate for aortic dissection, and a coronary CTA to assess for coronary artery disease. The only component that is NOT a part of this protocol is prone HRCT of the lungs, which is not typically included in the evaluation for these specific conditions.

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11. The acquisition of a series of CT images at a single anatomic location over a set period is referred to as:

Explanation

Cine CT refers to the acquisition of a series of CT images at a single anatomic location over a set period. This technique allows for the visualization of dynamic processes, such as the movement of organs or blood flow, by capturing multiple images in rapid succession. Unlike conventional CT, which captures a single image at a specific moment, cine CT provides a temporal sequence of images, similar to a movie or "cine" loop. Ultrafast CT, on the other hand, refers to a specific type of CT scanner that can capture images very quickly, but it does not necessarily involve the acquisition of a series of images over time. Temporal CT is not a recognized term in the context of CT imaging.

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12. During a complete CT scan of the pelvis, sections should be obtained from the:

Explanation

During a complete CT scan of the pelvis, sections should be obtained from the iliac crests to the pubic symphysis. This is because the iliac crests are the highest point of the hip bones and the pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones. By including these landmarks in the scan, it ensures that the entire pelvis is captured in the imaging, providing a comprehensive view of the pelvic region.

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13. The specialized CT examinations of the bladder in which an iodinated contrast agent is directly administrated under gravity into the bladder via Foley catheter is termed:

Explanation

CT cystography is the correct answer because it involves the administration of an iodinated contrast agent directly into the bladder via a Foley catheter. This procedure is used to visualize the bladder and detect any abnormalities or injuries. CT IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram) involves the injection of contrast dye into a vein to visualize the urinary system, CT urogram is a CT scan of the urinary tract, and CT enteroclysis is a CT scan of the small intestine.

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14. The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified by which of the following?

Explanation

SOLU-CORTEF is classified as a corticosteroid. Corticosteroids are a class of drugs that mimic the effects of hormones produced by the adrenal glands. They have anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties, making them useful in treating a variety of conditions such as allergies, asthma, and autoimmune disorders. SOLU-CORTEF, specifically, is a brand name for hydrocortisone sodium succinate, which is commonly used as an injectable corticosteroid for emergency situations such as anaphylaxis or adrenal crisis.

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15. Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?

Explanation

usually gown and gloves which is enteric precautions.

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16. Which of the following technical maneuvers may be used to remove unwanted pulsation artifacts from cardiac motion during a CTA of the chest for pulmonary embolism?

Explanation

Retrospective ECG gating is a technical maneuver that can be used to remove unwanted pulsation artifacts from cardiac motion during a CTA of the chest for pulmonary embolism. This technique involves acquiring images of the heart at different phases of the cardiac cycle and then reconstructing a motion-free image by selecting the best data from each phase. By synchronizing the image acquisition with the ECG signal, retrospective ECG gating ensures that the images are acquired at the same point in the cardiac cycle, minimizing motion artifacts caused by pulsation. This technique improves the diagnostic accuracy of the CTA by providing clearer images of the pulmonary arteries.

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17. Which of the following medications may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination?

Explanation

Sublingual nitroglycerine may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination. Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator that works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, including the coronary arteries. This helps to improve blood flow to the heart and can be beneficial before a cardiac CT examination to enhance the visualization of the coronary arteries.

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18. The type of MSCT detector array that contains multiple rows of detector elements,each of the same length, is called a(n):

Explanation

A uniform matrix array is a type of MSCT detector array that consists of multiple rows of detector elements, all of which have the same length. This means that each row of detectors is identical in size and shape. This uniformity allows for consistent and accurate detection of X-ray signals across the entire array. It also enables the array to capture a larger volume of data in a single scan, improving the efficiency and speed of the imaging process.

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19. Which of the following pelvic bones combine(s) to form the acetabulum? 1.ilium. 2.ischium. 3.pubis.

Explanation

The acetabulum is a cup-shaped socket in the hip bone where the head of the femur (thigh bone) articulates. It is formed by the fusion of three pelvic bones: the ilium, ischium, and pubis. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3, as all three bones combine to form the acetabulum.

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20. Because of its inherent iodine concentration, the thyroid gland appears________on CT images.

Explanation

The correct answer is hyperdense. The thyroid gland appears hyperdense on CT images due to its inherent iodine concentration. This means that it appears brighter or denser compared to the surrounding tissues.

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21. The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of:

Explanation

The correct answer is L4. The abdominal aorta is the largest artery in the abdominal cavity and it bifurcates, or splits into two branches, at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4). This split forms the two common iliac arteries, which further divide into the internal and external iliac arteries. The bifurcation at L4 is an important landmark in the abdominal anatomy and is commonly used as a reference point for various medical procedures and assessments.

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22. An average range for activated PTT is:

Explanation

The average range for activated PTT is 25-35 seconds. This means that when the PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) test is performed, the normal range for the time it takes for blood to clot is between 25 and 35 seconds. If the result falls within this range, it indicates that the clotting process is functioning properly.

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23. The kidneys are located in the retroperitoneum and are bound by a band of fibrous connective tissue called:

Explanation

Gerota's fascia is the correct answer because it is a band of fibrous connective tissue that surrounds and supports the kidneys. It helps to hold the kidneys in place within the retroperitoneum, which is the area behind the abdominal cavity. Cooper's ligament is not related to the kidneys, Camper's fascia is a layer of fatty tissue in the abdominal wall, and linea alba is a fibrous structure in the midline of the abdomen.

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24. The third ventricle of the brain communicates with the fourth ventricle through the:

Explanation

The cerebral aqueduct is a narrow channel that connects the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle in the brain. It allows for the flow of cerebrospinal fluid, which helps to protect and nourish the brain and spinal cord. The other options listed, such as the anterior commissure, septum pellucidum, and fornix, are not directly involved in the communication between the third and fourth ventricles. Therefore, the correct answer is the cerebral aqueduct.

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25. This HRCT image of the chest was most likely acquired with a section width of:

Explanation

The HRCT image of the chest was most likely acquired with a section width of 1mm because a thinner section width allows for higher resolution and better visualization of small structures in the chest. This is particularly important in HRCT imaging, which is used to evaluate lung diseases such as interstitial lung disease, lung nodules, and pulmonary embolism. A section width of 1mm provides more detailed and accurate images, helping in the detection and characterization of these conditions.

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26. CTA of the renal arteries should be performed using a section width of:

Explanation

The correct answer is 1.25 mm or less. When performing a computed tomography angiography (CTA) of the renal arteries, a section width of 1.25 mm or less is recommended. This narrow section width allows for better visualization and detailed imaging of the renal arteries, which are small blood vessels supplying the kidneys. A narrower section width helps to capture more precise images, enabling the detection of any abnormalities or blockages in the renal arteries.

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27. During the use of CT fluoroscopy for guided interventional procedures, which of the following technical considerations may be used to reduce occupational radiation exposure? 1.increased kVp. 2.lead shielding. 3.use of a needle holder.

Explanation

Lead shielding and the use of a needle holder can both be used to reduce occupational radiation exposure during the use of CT fluoroscopy for guided interventional procedures. Lead shielding can be used to block or attenuate radiation, reducing the amount of radiation that reaches the operator. Using a needle holder can help to minimize the operator's exposure by allowing for more precise and controlled needle placement, reducing the need for repeated exposures. Increased kVp, on the other hand, is not a technical consideration that can reduce occupational radiation exposure in this context.

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28. Areas of a CT image that contain abrupt changes in tissue density are electronically represented by which of the following?

Explanation

High spatial frequencies in a CT image represent areas that contain abrupt changes in tissue density. Spatial frequency refers to the rate at which the intensity of the image changes as a function of position. In CT imaging, high spatial frequencies indicate rapid changes in tissue density, such as the boundaries between different tissues or structures. These abrupt changes in density are electronically represented in the CT image using high spatial frequencies.

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29. The full width at half maximum (FWHM) of a CT scanner is used to describe:

Explanation

The full width at half maximum (FWHM) of a CT scanner refers to the width of the peak of a spatial resolution curve where the intensity is at half of its maximum value. It is a measure of how well the scanner can distinguish between two closely spaced objects or details in an image. Therefore, the FWHM is used to describe the spatial resolution of a CT scanner, which is its ability to accurately represent the spatial details of an object or structure in the image.

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30. The liver has a dual blood supply and receives 75% of its blood from the:

Explanation

The liver has a dual blood supply, meaning it receives blood from two different sources. The portal vein is responsible for supplying 75% of the liver's blood. The portal vein carries nutrient-rich blood from the digestive system, including the stomach, intestines, and spleen, to the liver. This blood contains absorbed nutrients and substances that need to be processed by the liver. The remaining 25% of the liver's blood supply comes from the hepatic artery, which carries oxygen-rich blood from the heart.

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31. In order to uniformly expose the entire detector array in an MDCT system, the primary beam must be expanded beyond the physical extent of the array i a process known as:

Explanation

Overbeaming refers to the process of expanding the primary beam beyond the physical extent of the detector array in order to uniformly expose the entire array in an MDCT system. This technique ensures that all parts of the detector receive an equal amount of radiation, resulting in accurate and consistent image reconstruction.

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32. Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media (RCM)?

Explanation

Ionic contrast media are salts consisting of sodium and/or meglumine.

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33. The mathematical technique allowing the reconstruction of motion-free images from helically acquired CT data is called:

Explanation

Interpolation is the mathematical technique used to reconstruct motion-free images from helically acquired CT data. It involves estimating the values of data points within a given range based on the values of known data points. In the context of CT imaging, interpolation helps in filling in the missing data points caused by the helical acquisition process, resulting in a complete and accurate image reconstruction. Convolution, radon transformation, and Fourier reconstruction are not specifically related to the reconstruction of motion-free images from helically acquired CT data.

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34. Advantages of a saline flush immediately following IV administration of iodinated contrast material include: 1.reduction in required contrast agent dose. 2.reduction in the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN). 3.recuction of streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature.

Explanation

A saline flush immediately following IV administration of iodinated contrast material has several advantages. Firstly, it can help reduce the required contrast agent dose, which can be beneficial in patients who may be at risk for adverse reactions or have limited renal function. Secondly, it can reduce the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN), a potential complication of contrast administration that can cause kidney damage. Lastly, it can help reduce streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature, which can improve the quality of imaging studies. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

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35. Which of the following image artifacts is unique to multslice CT (MSCT) systems?

Explanation

The cone beam artifact is unique to multislice CT (MSCT) systems. This artifact occurs when the x-ray beam used in CT scanning is not collimated properly, resulting in a cone-shaped beam that diverges as it passes through the patient. This can lead to streaking or blurring of the image, particularly in areas where the patient's body is thicker or denser. Other image artifacts mentioned in the options, such as step artifact, aliasing artifact, and out-of-field artifact, can occur in both single-slice and multislice CT systems.

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36. At what percentage of overlap should CT sections be reconstructed to improve the quality of multiplanar reformation (MPR) images?

Explanation

To improve the quality of multiplanar reformation (MPR) images, CT sections should be reconstructed with a 50% overlap. This means that each section will have 50% of its content repeated in the adjacent sections. By having this overlap, it allows for a smoother and more accurate reconstruction of the images in multiple planes, enhancing the overall quality of the MPR images.

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37. For single-slice CT (SSCT) systems, which of the following statements regarding retrospective image reconstruction is FALSE?

Explanation

Retrospective image reconstruction refers to the process of reconstructing images from previously acquired scan data. In single-slice CT systems, it is possible to change the algorithm, matrix size, and DFOV during retrospective image reconstruction. This allows for adjustments in image quality, resolution, and field of view. However, the slice thickness and SFOV cannot be changed retrospectively. These parameters are determined during the initial scan and cannot be altered during image reconstruction. Therefore, the statement that the slice thickness and SFOV may be changed is false.

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38. A 16-slice MSCT system utilizes an adaptive array of 24 detectors, each ranging in size from 0.625 to 1.25mm. What is the maximum number of sections the system can acquire with each rotation of the gantry?

Explanation

The maximum number of sections the system can acquire with each rotation of the gantry is 16. This is because the MSCT system has a 16-slice configuration, meaning it has 16 detectors that can simultaneously acquire images. Each detector ranges in size from 0.625 to 1.25mm. Therefore, with each rotation of the gantry, the system can acquire images for all 16 detectors, resulting in a maximum of 16 sections.

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39. The amount of x-ray energy absorbed in a quantity of air is termed:

Explanation

Kerma stands for Kinetic Energy Released in Matter. It is the amount of x-ray energy that is transferred to a material, in this case, air. Kerma is used to measure the amount of energy absorbed by a substance when exposed to x-rays. It is an important parameter in radiation protection and is used to assess the potential biological effects of radiation exposure.

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40. The degenerative pathologic process involving the forward slipping of an upper vertebral body over a lower vertebral body is called:

Explanation

Spondylolisthesis is a degenerative condition where an upper vertebral body slips forward over a lower vertebral body. This can occur due to various factors such as aging, trauma, or genetic predisposition. Spondylolysis refers to a stress fracture in the vertebrae, herniated nucleus pulposus is a condition where the soft center of a spinal disc pushes through a crack in the outer layer, and spinal stenosis is the narrowing of the spinal canal. However, only spondylolisthesis involves the forward slipping of a vertebral body, making it the correct answer.

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41. On an ECG of the complete cardiac cycle, at which portion of the R-R interval is the heart muscle in diastole?

Explanation

During the cardiac cycle, the heart goes through systole (contraction) and diastole (relaxation) phases. The R-R interval represents the time between two consecutive ventricular contractions. In this case, the heart muscle is in diastole (relaxation) during the 55-75% portion of the R-R interval. This means that the heart is not actively contracting during this time and is instead filling with blood in preparation for the next contraction.

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42. Accurate demonstration of___________would most likely require the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast agent during a CT study of the chest.

Explanation

To accurately demonstrate mediastinal lymphadenopathy during a CT study of the chest, an iodinated contrast agent needs to be injected intravenously. This is because the contrast agent helps highlight the lymph nodes in the mediastinum, which is the area between the lungs. By injecting the contrast agent, it becomes easier to identify and evaluate any abnormalities or enlargement of the lymph nodes in this region. This technique is commonly used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as lymphoma, tuberculosis, or metastatic cancer that may affect the lymph nodes in the chest.

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43. The contrast resolution of a CT scanner is NOT related to which of the following?

Explanation

The contrast resolution of a CT scanner refers to its ability to distinguish between different shades of gray in an image. It is influenced by factors such as section width, reconstruction algorithm, and signal-to-noise ratio. However, the focal spot size of a CT scanner does not directly affect the contrast resolution. The focal spot size primarily affects the spatial resolution, which refers to the ability to distinguish between small details in an image. Therefore, the correct answer is focal spot size.

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44. Which of the following would serve to increase spatial resolution of a CT exam using a large focal spot size, 5mm sections, and a 512(2) matrix? 1.change to small focal spot size. 2.acquire 2.5mm sections. 3.reconstruct images in a 320(2) matrix.

Explanation

Changing to a small focal spot size and acquiring 2.5mm sections would both serve to increase the spatial resolution of a CT exam. A smaller focal spot size allows for more precise imaging, resulting in higher resolution. Acquiring thinner sections (2.5mm instead of 5mm) also improves resolution by capturing more detailed information. Reconstructing images in a 320(2) matrix would not directly increase spatial resolution, as the matrix size refers to the number of pixels in the image and not the actual resolution.

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45. Which of the following contrast media may be utilized during the CT evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract? 1.diatrizoate meglumine (Gastrografin). 2.effervescent agents. 3.iopamidol (Isovue).

Explanation

Diatrizoate meglumine (Gastrografin), effervescent agents, and iopamidol (Isovue) can all be used as contrast media during CT evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract. Diatrizoate meglumine is commonly used to visualize the gastrointestinal tract and detect abnormalities. Effervescent agents, such as carbon dioxide tablets, can be used to distend the gastrointestinal tract and improve visualization. Iopamidol is another contrast agent that can be used to enhance the visibility of the gastrointestinal tract during CT scans. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.

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46. Axial CT images of the knee may be acquired in four separate series with gantry angulations of 0, 30, 45, and 60 degrees in order to demonstrate the:

Explanation

Axial CT images of the knee may be acquired in four separate series with gantry angulations of 0, 30, 45, and 60 degrees in order to demonstrate the patellofemoral joint. These different angles allow for a comprehensive evaluation of the patellofemoral joint, which is the joint between the patella (kneecap) and the femur (thigh bone). By acquiring images from different angles, the radiologist can assess the alignment, position, and any abnormalities or pathology in the patellofemoral joint. This helps in diagnosing conditions such as patellar instability, patellofemoral arthritis, and patellar maltracking.

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47. The prone position may be used for a post myelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine in an effort to:

Explanation

The prone position may be used for a post myelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine in an effort to reduce metrizamide pooling. When the patient is in the prone position, gravity helps to prevent the contrast agent (metrizamide) from pooling in the lower lumbar region. This allows for a more even distribution of the contrast agent throughout the spinal canal, resulting in better visualization of the spinal structures during the CT examination.

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48. Which of the following is considered an analytic form of image reconstruction? 1.iterative technique. 2.Fourier reconstruction. 3.filtered back-projection.

Explanation

An analytic form of image reconstruction refers to a method that directly calculates the reconstructed image from the acquired data without the need for iterative calculations. Fourier reconstruction and filtered back-projection are both examples of analytic techniques. Fourier reconstruction involves transforming the acquired data into the frequency domain using Fourier transform and then applying an inverse Fourier transform to obtain the reconstructed image. Filtered back-projection, on the other hand, involves filtering the acquired data and then back-projecting it to obtain the reconstructed image. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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49. Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?

Explanation

A fibroid tumor of the uterus is commonly referred to as a leiomyoma. Leiomyoma is a benign tumor that arises from the smooth muscle cells of the uterus. It is the most common type of tumor found in the female reproductive system. Fibroids can vary in size and may cause symptoms such as heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic pain, and pressure on nearby organs. Treatment options for leiomyoma include medication, minimally invasive procedures, and surgery, depending on the severity of symptoms and desire for fertility preservation.

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50. During contrast enhanced CT examinations of the chest, streaking artifact may obscure portions of the superior mediastinum because of dense concentrations of iodine in the:

Explanation

During contrast-enhanced CT examinations of the chest, streaking artifact may obscure portions of the superior mediastinum because of dense concentrations of iodine in the superior vena cava. This is because the superior vena cava is the major vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the heart. When iodine, which is used as a contrast agent, is injected into the bloodstream, it can accumulate in the superior vena cava and cause streaking artifacts on the CT images. These artifacts can make it difficult to visualize certain structures in the superior mediastinum.

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51. The 3D CT technique that includes all of the acquired voxel information in the reconstructed model with adjustments to its opacity is termed:

Explanation

Volume rendering is the correct answer because it refers to the 3D CT technique that includes all of the acquired voxel information in the reconstructed model with adjustments to its opacity. Volume rendering allows for a more detailed and comprehensive visualization of the scanned object or body part by displaying the full volume of data. It is commonly used in medical imaging to provide a more realistic representation of structures and their relationships within the body.

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52. When one is viewing a multiplanar reformation (MPR) image, each pixel represents:

Explanation

When viewing a multiplanar reformation (MPR) image, each pixel represents the average attenuation occurring within the voxel. This means that the pixel value represents the average intensity or density of the tissues or structures within that voxel. This can be useful in determining the overall characteristics of the tissues or structures being imaged, as it provides an average value of the attenuation occurring within that voxel.

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53. Use Fig 5-12 The artifact present on the lateral borders of the image in the figure most likely represents which of the following?

Explanation

The artifact present on the lateral borders of the image most likely represents an out-of-field artifact. Out-of-field artifacts occur when objects or structures outside the primary field of view are included in the image. In this case, the artifact is seen on the edges of the image, suggesting that something outside the intended imaging area is causing the distortion or abnormality.

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54. Which of the following infection control techniques is required at the site of an intravenous injection of iodinated contrast media?

Explanation

Surgical asepsis is required at the site of an intravenous injection of iodinated contrast media to prevent any contamination or infection. This technique involves creating and maintaining a sterile field, using sterile equipment and supplies, and following strict sterile procedures to minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the injection site. It is necessary to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient and prevent any complications that may arise from contaminated injections.

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55. The rate at which a quantity of x-radiation emitted from a CT tube passes through a unit area over a unit of time is called the:

Explanation

The rate at which x-radiation passes through a unit area over a unit of time is called photon flux. This term refers to the measurement of the number of photons that pass through a specific area in a given time period. It is a measure of the intensity or strength of the x-radiation being emitted from the CT tube. Effective mAs, constant mAs, and photon fluence are not the correct terms to describe this concept.

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56. Use Fig 6-3 Number 6 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Number 6 on Fig 6-3 corresponds to the azygos vein.

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57. An acquisition is made on a 64-slice MSCT system in which each detector element has a z-axis dimension of 0.625mm. With a selected beam width of 40mm and the beam pitch set at 1.50, how much will the table move with each rotation of the gantry?

Explanation

The table will move 60mm with each rotation of the gantry. This can be calculated by multiplying the z-axis dimension of each detector element (0.625mm) by the selected beam width (40mm) and the beam pitch (1.50). Therefore, the formula is 0.625mm x 40mm x 1.50 = 60mm.

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58. The adult spinal cord ends at what vertebral level?

Explanation

The adult spinal cord ends at the vertebral level of L1-L2. This is because the spinal cord extends from the base of the skull to the upper part of the lumbar spine. The spinal cord itself terminates around the level of the first lumbar vertebra (L1) or the second lumbar vertebra (L2). Below this level, the spinal canal continues as the cauda equina, a bundle of nerves that extends down to the lower back.

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59. Which of the following may be considered one of the high-osmolar contrast media (HOCM)? 1.iothalamate meglumine. 2.diatrizoate sodium. 3.iohexol.

Explanation

High osmolar contrast media are ionic agents that dissociate into charged particles (ions) in solution. Ionic contrast media are salts consisting of sodium and/or meglumine.

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60. Diffuse fatty infiltration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:

Explanation

Steatosis refers to the diffuse fatty infiltration of the liver parenchyma. This condition is characterized by the accumulation of fat within the liver cells, which can lead to liver dysfunction and inflammation. Steatosis is commonly associated with obesity, diabetes, alcohol abuse, and certain medications. It can be reversible if the underlying cause is addressed, but if left untreated, it can progress to more severe liver diseases such as cirrhosis. Lipomatosis refers to the presence of multiple lipomas, while chromatosis is not a recognized medical term for liver conditions.

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61. Collimation of the CT x-ray beam occurs: 1.at the x-ray tube, regulating slice thickness. 2.just beyond the patient, focusing off-axis transmitted radiation. 3.before the detectors, limiting the amount of scatter radiation absorbed.

Explanation

Collimation of the CT x-ray beam occurs at the x-ray tube, regulating slice thickness. This means that the x-ray beam is narrowed down to a specific size, controlling the thickness of each slice that is captured during the CT scan. Additionally, collimation occurs before the detectors, limiting the amount of scatter radiation absorbed. This helps to improve the image quality by reducing the amount of unwanted scattered radiation that can interfere with the clarity of the image. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

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62. The radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening is termed:

Explanation

CTDIvol is the correct answer because it stands for Computed Tomography Dose Index Volume. It is a radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening. This index is used to estimate the radiation dose delivered to the patient during a CT scan, considering the volume of tissue being exposed. CTDIvol provides a more accurate representation of the radiation dose compared to other dose index calculations like CTDIw or CTDI100, which do not consider the variations in absorption. MSAD is not related to beam hardening or dose index calculations.

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63. Segmenting the data acquisition process into separate components of smaller rotation angles may improve which of the following components of CT image quality?

Explanation

Segmenting the data acquisition process into smaller rotation angles allows for more frequent sampling of the patient's anatomy over time. This results in improved temporal resolution, which refers to the ability of the CT scanner to accurately capture and display dynamic changes in the patient's anatomy. By improving temporal resolution, the CT images can better capture and visualize rapid physiological processes, such as blood flow or organ motion, leading to higher quality temporal information.

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64. Use Fig 6-5 Number 2 in the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

In Figure 6-5, the number 2 corresponds to the acromion.

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65. Use Fig 5-2 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to the epiglottis. The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage located at the base of the tongue, and its main function is to prevent food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing. It covers the opening of the larynx, ensuring that food and liquid go down the esophagus and into the stomach instead of the airway.

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66. Use Fig 5-4 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Figure 5-4 shows a diagram or image that is not provided in the given context. Without the figure, it is not possible to determine the specific location or number 2 on the figure. Therefore, an explanation cannot be provided.

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67. Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?

Explanation

The liver is located within the peritoneal cavity. The peritoneal cavity is a space in the abdomen that is lined by the peritoneum, a thin membrane. The liver is the largest solid organ in the body and is situated in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. It is surrounded by the peritoneum, which helps to protect and support the liver. The liver plays a vital role in various metabolic processes, including detoxification, protein synthesis, and bile production.

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68. Use Fig 6-1 The abdominal space indicated by number 7 i the figure is commonly referred to as:

Explanation

Morison's pouch is the correct answer because it refers to the anatomical space indicated by number 7 in Fig 6-1. This space is located between the liver and right kidney, and it is commonly used for diagnostic imaging and surgical procedures. The other options, cul-de-sac, splenorenal recess, and subphrenic space, refer to different anatomical spaces and are not specifically related to the area indicated in the figure.

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69. The average density of a mass within the kidney measures -75 Hounsfield units (HU). The mass is most likely a:

Explanation

A lipoma is a benign tumor made up of fat cells. It typically appears as a soft, movable lump under the skin. In medical imaging, lipomas usually have a low density and appear as a well-circumscribed mass with a Hounsfield unit measurement close to or around -75 HU. Therefore, based on the given average density of -75 HU, the mass is most likely a lipoma.

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70. Use Fig 5-12 The image in the figure was produced using the following parameters: large (full) SFOV; maximum DFOV (48cm); 200mA, 120kVp; soft tissue algorithm. Which of the following technical adjustments would serve to reduce the artifact present?

Explanation

Centering the patient within the SFOV would serve to reduce the artifact present. This is because when the patient is not centered within the SFOV, there can be incomplete image acquisition and the artifact may occur due to the incomplete data. By centering the patient within the SFOV, the entire area of interest will be captured during the image acquisition, reducing the chances of artifact occurrence.

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71. Air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree may be optimally demonstrated with multiplanar volume reconstructions (MPVR's) of the thorax known as:

Explanation

Minimum intensity projections (min-IPs) are a type of multiplanar volume reconstruction (MPVR) technique used to demonstrate air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree. In min-IPs, the minimum intensity value along each ray path is projected onto the image, resulting in a visualization of the areas with the lowest intensity, which in this case represents the trapped air. This technique allows for optimal visualization and identification of air trapping in the thorax.

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72. Which of the following is used to archive a hard copy of a CT image:

Explanation

Laser film is used to archive a hard copy of a CT image. This is because laser film provides a high-quality, permanent record of the image, ensuring that it can be stored and accessed for future reference. Unlike other options such as PACS (Picture Archiving and Communication System), CD-ROM, or LAN (Local Area Network), laser film is specifically designed for long-term storage of medical images and is commonly used in healthcare facilities.

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73. Which of the following is considered on of the isomolar contrast media (IOCM)?

Explanation

Iodixanol (Visipaque) is an example of a non-ionic isomolar contrast agent. Iohexol (omnipaque), iopamidol
(Isovue), and ioversol (Optiray) are all non-ionic low-osmolar contrast media (LOCM)

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74. Which of the following is considered in the calculation of the MSAD for an axial (step-in-shoot) CT examination?

Explanation

The bed index is considered in the calculation of the MSAD for an axial (step-in-shoot) CT examination. The bed index refers to the position of the patient table during the scan. It is important to consider the bed index because it determines the location of the anatomy being imaged and helps in calculating the Multiple Scan Average Dose (MSAD), which is a measure of the radiation dose delivered to the patient during the CT scan.

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75. Use Fig 6-3 Which of the following window settings was used to display the image in the figure?

Explanation

The correct answer is WL +50, WW 400. This means that a window level (WL) of +50 and a window width (WW) of 400 were used to display the image in the figure. The window level determines the brightness of the image, with a positive value making it brighter. The window width controls the contrast of the image, with a larger value increasing the range of gray levels displayed. Therefore, a window level of +50 and a window width of 400 would result in a moderately bright image with a moderate contrast.

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76. Use Fig 6-9 The intrathecal administration of an iodinated contrast agent in the patient in the figure would allow for greater visualization of the: 1.spinal cord. 2.nerve roots. 3.anulus fibrosis.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. By administering an iodinated contrast agent intrathecally (into the spinal canal), the spinal cord and nerve roots can be visualized more clearly. The contrast agent enhances the visibility of these structures on imaging studies such as CT scans or myelograms. The anulus fibrosis, which is part of the intervertebral discs, is not directly visualized with intrathecal administration of a contrast agent.

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77. Use Fig 5-8 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Based on the given information, number 1 on Fig 5-8 corresponds to the ethmoid sinus.

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78. Use Fig 6-1 Number 6 in the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the correct answer is the superior mesenteric artery. This is because number 6 in the figure corresponds to the superior mesenteric artery.

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79. Use Fig 5-6 The pathologic process indicated by number 3 on the figure most likely corresponds to:

Explanation

The pathologic process indicated by number 3 on the figure most likely corresponds to ground-glass opacity.

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80. Use Fig 6-3 Number 4 on the figure corresponds to which of the following muscles?

Explanation

Looking at Figure 6-3, we can see that Number 4 corresponds to the pectoralis minor muscle.

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81. Use Fig 5-1 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Figure 5-1 is being referenced to answer this question. Number 1 on the figure corresponds to the left pulmonary artery.

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82. Use Fig 5-2 Number 5 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Based on the given information, number 5 on Fig 5-2 corresponds to the right internal jugular vein.

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83. Use Fig 6-2 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to the inferior oblique muscle.

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84. Use Fig 5-1 Which number on the figure corresponds to the superior vena cava?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the superior vena cava can be identified as number 4 on the figure.

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85. Use Fig 6-7 Which of the following reformation techniques best describes the image in the figure?

Explanation

The correct answer is Multiplanar reformation (MPR). MPR is a technique used in medical imaging to create new images in different planes from the original dataset. It allows for visualization of structures from different angles and perspectives, enhancing the understanding of complex anatomical structures. In this case, the figure likely shows a series of images that have been reformatted in multiple planes, providing a comprehensive view of the object or structure being imaged.

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86. Use Fig 5-5 Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Number 3 on Fig 5-5 corresponds to the vestibule.

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87. The average photon energy of the CT x-ray beam can increased by:

Explanation

Increasing filtration can increase the average photon energy of the CT x-ray beam. Filtration is the process of removing low-energy photons from the x-ray beam, resulting in a higher average energy. This is achieved by placing a material with high atomic number in the path of the beam, which absorbs the low-energy photons. By increasing the amount of filtration, more low-energy photons are absorbed, leading to an increase in the average photon energy of the beam. Increasing mAs (milliamperes per second) and increasing collimation (limiting the size of the x-ray beam) do not directly affect the average photon energy.

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88. Use Fig 6-3 Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Based on the information provided in Fig 6-3, number 1 corresponds to the superior vena cava.

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89. For a single-slice CT (SSCT) system, which of the following statements regarding pre-patient collimation is TRUE? 1.An increase in pre-patient collimation increases patient radiation dose. 2.Pre-patient collimation is used to focus radiation through the section of interest. 3.Pre-patient collimation directly controls slice thickness.

Explanation

Pre-patient collimation refers to the process of limiting the X-ray beam before it reaches the patient. The correct statement is that pre-patient collimation directly controls slice thickness. This means that by adjusting the pre-patient collimation, the thickness of the slice being imaged can be controlled. The other two statements are incorrect. An increase in pre-patient collimation does not increase patient radiation dose, and pre-patient collimation is not used to focus radiation through the section of interest.

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90. Use Fig 5-6 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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91. Use Fig 5-11 The differences in Hounsfield value exhibited in the ROIs measured on this CT image of a water filled phantom are most likely due to the phenomenon referred to as:

Explanation

The differences in Hounsfield value exhibited in the ROIs measured on this CT image of a water-filled phantom are most likely due to beam hardening. Beam hardening is a phenomenon that occurs when the X-ray beam passes through an object, causing lower energy X-rays to be absorbed more than higher energy X-rays. This leads to an increase in the average energy of the X-ray beam, resulting in an underestimation of the Hounsfield values in the image.

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92. Use Fig 6-1 Number 2 in the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

In Fig 6-1, number 2 corresponds to the portal vein. The portal vein is responsible for carrying nutrient-rich blood from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen to the liver. It is an important vessel in the hepatic portal system, which allows the liver to process and metabolize nutrients before they enter the systemic circulation.

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93. Use Fig 5-6 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Number 2 on the figure corresponds to the ascending aorta.

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94. Use Fig 6-7 Number 5 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Based on the given figure, number 5 corresponds to the descending colon.

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95. Use Fig 5-4 Which of the following corresponds to the low-attenuation area indicated by Number 3 on the figure?

Explanation

The low-attenuation area indicated by Number 3 on the figure corresponds to the renal pyramid.

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96. Use Fig 5-2 Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Based on Fig 5-2, number 2 corresponds to the left internal carotid.

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97. Use Fig 6-5 Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

In Figure 6-5, Number 3 corresponds to the glenoid process.

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98. The enhancement washout technique for CT characterization of adrenal masses includes: 1.thin-section pre-contrast acquisition through adrenals. 2.arterial phase post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals. 3.10 to 15 minute delayed post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals.

Explanation

The enhancement washout technique for CT characterization of adrenal masses includes thin-section pre-contrast acquisition through adrenals (option 1) and 10 to 15 minute delayed post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals (option 3). These two steps are necessary for evaluating the enhancement pattern of the adrenal mass. The arterial phase post-contrast acquisition (option 2) is not required for the enhancement washout technique. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

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99. Use Fig 5-7 Number 8 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

Based on the given information, it can be inferred that number 8 on Fig 5-7 corresponds to the ascending colon.

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100. Use Fig 5-5 Number 4 corresponds to which of the following?

Explanation

The correct answer is carotid canal because in Figure 5-5, number 4 is labeled as the carotid canal.

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101. CTDIw is a weighted index that approximates radiation dose on the basis of the variations that occur across the field of view because of: 1.beam hardening. 2.detector configuration. 3.pitch.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 only. CTDIw is a weighted index that approximates radiation dose. Beam hardening, detector configuration, and pitch are factors that can cause variations in radiation dose across the field of view. Therefore, only option 1, which includes beam hardening, is a valid explanation for the variations in CTDIw.

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102. Use Fig 6-1 Number 4 in the figure corresponds to which of the following:

Explanation

Based on the information provided, number 4 in Figure 6-1 corresponds to the large colon.

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Use Fig 5-12...
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Use Fig 6-3...
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Use Fig 6-5...
Use Fig 5-2...
Use Fig 5-4...
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Use Fig 6-1...
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Use Fig 5-12...
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Use Fig 6-3...
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