CT Registry Review March 2010

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  • 1/276 Questions

    Renal function refers to which of the following organs?

    • Gall bladder
    • Kidney
    • Liver
    • Spleen
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About This Quiz

The 'CT Registry Review March 2010' quiz assesses knowledge on computed tomography (CT), focusing on technical components like tungsten use in anodes, image noise reduction, and HIPAA compliance. It's designed for professionals updating or testing their understanding of CT imaging principles and patient care regulations.

CT Registry Review March 2010 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The operator's console may include:1. graphic input device2. keyboard3. monitor

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The operator's console may include all of the mentioned devices: a graphic input device, a keyboard, and a monitor. A graphic input device allows the operator to interact with the system using graphical elements such as buttons or touchscreens. A keyboard is used for inputting text or commands. A monitor displays the system's interface and output. Therefore, all three devices can be part of the operator's console.

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  • 3. 

    During a CT scan, the patient must be monitored:

    • By a nurse

    • By a pulse oximeter

    • Occasionally

    • Visually and verbally

    Correct Answer
    A. Visually and verbally
    Explanation
    During a CT scan, it is important to monitor the patient visually and verbally. This is because the CT scan involves the use of radiation, and the patient's condition and comfort need to be constantly assessed. Visual monitoring allows the healthcare provider to observe the patient's physical appearance and any signs of distress, while verbal monitoring enables communication with the patient to address any concerns or symptoms they may be experiencing. This ensures the safety and well-being of the patient throughout the procedure.

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  • 4. 

    A patient about to get a scan of her sinuses may wear:

    • A nose ring

    • Earrings

    • Eyeglasses

    • A belt

    Correct Answer
    A. A belt
  • 5. 

    The viscosity of IV contrast media can be reduced by:

    • Aerating

    • Heating

    • Shaking

    • Stirring

    Correct Answer
    A. Heating
    Explanation
    Heating can reduce the viscosity of IV contrast media. When the contrast media is heated, the molecules gain kinetic energy and move more rapidly, which leads to a decrease in the intermolecular forces holding the molecules together. This results in a decrease in viscosity, making the contrast media flow more easily.

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  • 6. 

    Following the HIPAA guidelines, you may give a patient's medical information to another employee:

    • If it is in plain sight on the CT console and the employee has already seen it

    • Only if it is needed to do their job

    • If the employee is related to the patient

    • To joke about the patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Only if it is needed to do their job
    Explanation
    According to HIPAA guidelines, a patient's medical information can be shared with another employee only if it is necessary for them to perform their job duties. This ensures that patient confidentiality is maintained and information is only disclosed on a need-to-know basis. Sharing medical information for any other reasons, such as joking about the patient, would be a violation of HIPAA regulations.

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  • 7. 

    For a routine CT exam of the pelvis, what gantry tilt is used?

    • 20 degree

    • 10 degree

    • -20 degree

    • No tilt is used

    Correct Answer
    A. No tilt is used
    Explanation
    In a routine CT exam of the pelvis, no tilt is used. This means that the gantry remains in a horizontal position, perpendicular to the patient's body. Tilting the gantry is not necessary for imaging the pelvis as it can be adequately visualized without any tilt.

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  • 8. 

    The most common catheter size used in CT _____ gauge.

    • 12 to 14

    • 15 to 17

    • 18 to 22

    • 23 to 25

    Correct Answer
    A. 18 to 22
    Explanation
    The most common catheter size used in CT is 18 to 22 gauge. This size range is commonly used because it allows for adequate flow rates while still being small enough to minimize patient discomfort. Catheters of this size are also compatible with most CT injection systems, making them a practical choice for CT procedures.

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  • 9. 

    CT is commonly referred to as all of the following names EXCEPT:

    • Computerized axial tomography

    • Digital subtraction angiography

    • CAT-scan

    • Computed tomography

    Correct Answer
    A. Digital subtraction angiography
  • 10. 

    Which of the following is the correct action to take if a patient arrives with obvious head trauma, expecting a CT of the brain, but the paperwork requests a pelvic CT?

    • Perform both exams

    • Perform only a scan of the brain

    • Perform only a scan of the pelvis

    • Request clarification from the ordering physician

    Correct Answer
    A. Request clarification from the ordering physician
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct action to take is to request clarification from the ordering physician. This is because the patient arrived with obvious head trauma and is expecting a CT of the brain, but the paperwork requests a pelvic CT. It is important to clarify the discrepancy with the ordering physician to ensure that the appropriate scan is performed and the patient receives the necessary medical attention.

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  • 11. 

    The most important consideration in the care of an unconscious patient is to ensure that:

    • Air passages are clear

    • Fluids are maintained

    • No medications are administered

    • The body temperature is decreased

    Correct Answer
    A. Air passages are clear
    Explanation
    In the care of an unconscious patient, the most important consideration is to ensure that the air passages are clear. This is crucial because an unconscious patient may have difficulty breathing or may be at risk of airway obstruction. By ensuring that the air passages are clear, healthcare providers can maintain proper oxygenation and prevent any further complications. This may involve techniques such as positioning the patient's head to open the airway, suctioning any secretions, or providing artificial ventilation if necessary.

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  • 12. 

    The human embryo/fetus is most sensitive to radiation:

    • In the first trimester

    • In the second trimester

    • In the third trimester

    • Equally in all trimesters

    Correct Answer
    A. In the first trimester
    Explanation
    During the first trimester of pregnancy, the human embryo/fetus is most sensitive to radiation. This is because during this period, the major organs and systems of the body are developing rapidly. Any exposure to radiation during this critical stage can potentially cause severe damage to the developing cells, leading to birth defects or other health issues. As the pregnancy progresses into the second and third trimesters, the organs and systems have already formed, making them less susceptible to the harmful effects of radiation.

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  • 13. 

    Platelets are small:

    • Catheters used for administering contrast media

    • Cell fragments necessary for blood coagulation

    • Detector elements responsible for capturing attenuated photons

    • Implants

    Correct Answer
    A. Cell fragments necessary for blood coagulation
    Explanation
    Platelets are small cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood coagulation. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets are activated and form a plug at the site of injury to stop bleeding. They also release chemicals that help in the formation of a fibrin clot, which further reinforces the plug. Without platelets, blood would not be able to clot properly, leading to excessive bleeding. Therefore, platelets are necessary for the process of blood coagulation.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following are typical start and end locations for CT scans of the pelvis?

    • From the iliac crest through the symphysis pubis

    • From the sternal notch through the iliac crest

    • From the sternal notch through the symphysis pubis

    • From the xyphoid process through the iliac crest

    Correct Answer
    A. From the iliac crest through the symphysis pubis
    Explanation
    CT scans of the pelvis typically start from the iliac crest, which is the top edge of the hip bone, and end at the symphysis pubis, which is the joint between the two pubic bones. This range allows for a comprehensive view of the pelvic area, including the hip joints, pelvic bones, and surrounding structures. The other options either do not cover the entire pelvis or include incorrect anatomical landmarks.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is a reason for inserting a tampon in the vagina for CT exams of the female pelvis?

    • Eliminates the need for IV contrast injection

    • Eliminates the need for oral contrast media

    • Helps visualize the vaginal canal

    • Provides a high intensity on the image

    Correct Answer
    A. Helps visualize the vaginal canal
    Explanation
    Inserting a tampon in the vagina for CT exams of the female pelvis helps visualize the vaginal canal. This is because the tampon expands the vaginal canal, allowing for better visualization of any abnormalities or structures within the canal. It helps the radiologist to accurately assess the condition of the vaginal canal and identify any potential issues or abnormalities.

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  • 16. 

    If there is doubt regarding the sterility of the contrast media, the contrast media must be:

    • Diluted

    • Discarded

    • Heated

    • Shaken

    Correct Answer
    A. Discarded
    Explanation
    If there is doubt regarding the sterility of the contrast media, it must be discarded. This is because using a potentially contaminated contrast media can lead to infections or other complications in patients. It is important to prioritize patient safety and avoid any risks associated with using a contaminated substance. Therefore, the correct course of action is to discard the contrast media in order to prevent any potential harm to the patient.

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  • 17. 

    What control does the operator have over the x-rays in a CT exam?

    • The energy level and the quantity of x-rays can be selected

    • The phase and frequency of the x-rays can be adjusted

    • The temperature and color of the x-rays can be tuned

    • The volume and tone of the x-rays can be selected

    Correct Answer
    A. The energy level and the quantity of x-rays can be selected
    Explanation
    The operator has control over the energy level and the quantity of x-rays in a CT exam. This means that they can adjust the strength and amount of x-rays used during the exam, which is important for optimizing the image quality and minimizing radiation exposure to the patient. By selecting the appropriate energy level and quantity of x-rays, the operator can ensure accurate diagnostic information while keeping the radiation dose as low as reasonably achievable.

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  • 18. 

    The distance that the table travels between slices is called:

    • Collimation

    • Reconstruction interval

    • Rotation

    • Table increment

    Correct Answer
    A. Table increment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "table increment" because it refers to the distance that the table moves between each slice during a medical imaging procedure. This movement is necessary for capturing multiple images of the body and creating a three-dimensional reconstruction. The table increment determines the spacing between each image and affects the overall quality and accuracy of the reconstructed images.

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  • 19. 

    A 25 year old female is scheduled for a CT scan of the sinuses.  She is not absolutely certain that she is not pregnant and it has been three weeks since her last menstrual period.  Which of the following is the best course of action?

    • Cancel the procedure indefinitely

    • Perform the exam immediately while she is experiencing the sinus problems

    • Postpone the procedure until she is more certain of her condition

    • Suggest she get an MRI instead

    Correct Answer
    A. Postpone the procedure until she is more certain of her condition
    Explanation
    The best course of action in this situation is to postpone the procedure until the patient is more certain of her pregnancy status. Since she is not absolutely certain that she is not pregnant and it has been three weeks since her last menstrual period, there is a possibility that she could be pregnant. It is important to prioritize the safety of the patient and avoid any potential harm to the fetus. Therefore, it is necessary to delay the CT scan until the patient can confirm her pregnancy status.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is a possible long-term effect of repeated exposure to radiation?1. cancer2. cataracts3. decrease in life expectancy

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1 & 3

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Repeated exposure to radiation can have several long-term effects on the body. One possible effect is the development of cancer, as radiation can damage DNA and lead to the formation of cancerous cells. Another possible effect is the development of cataracts, which can cause vision problems. Additionally, repeated exposure to radiation can decrease life expectancy, as it can increase the risk of various health complications and diseases. Therefore, all of the options listed - cancer, cataracts, and a decrease in life expectancy - can be possible long-term effects of repeated exposure to radiation.

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  • 21. 

    IV contrast agents used in CT increase the attenuation of the x-ray beam due to the concentration of _____ in the agent.

    • Barium

    • Glucose

    • Iodine

    • Meglumine

    Correct Answer
    A. Iodine
    Explanation
    IV contrast agents used in CT increase the attenuation of the x-ray beam due to the concentration of iodine in the agent. Iodine is a commonly used contrast agent in CT scans because it has a high atomic number, which means it is effective in absorbing x-rays. When injected into the bloodstream, the iodine contrast agent enhances the visibility of blood vessels, organs, and tissues, allowing for better visualization and detection of abnormalities during the CT scan.

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  • 22. 

    How long does it take to inject 150 ml of contrast media with an injection rate of 2 ml/sec.?

    • 50 seconds

    • 60 seconds

    • 75 seconds

    • 150 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 75 seconds
    Explanation
    To calculate the time it takes to inject 150 ml of contrast media with an injection rate of 2 ml/sec, we divide the total volume (150 ml) by the injection rate (2 ml/sec). This gives us 75 seconds, which is the correct answer.

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  • 23. 

    The heating unit on a power injector is for _____ of the contrast agent.

    • Decreasing the osmolality

    • Decreasing the viscosity

    • Increasing the density

    • Increasing the iodine concentration

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreasing the viscosity
    Explanation
    The heating unit on a power injector is used to decrease the viscosity of the contrast agent. By heating the contrast agent, its viscosity is reduced, making it easier to inject into the patient's bloodstream. This allows for a smoother and more efficient administration of the contrast agent during medical imaging procedures.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is a technique used to minimize artifacts from patient motion in exams of the chest?1. patient immobilization devices2. suspended respiration3. shortened scan time

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1,2 & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,2 & 3
    Explanation
    Patient motion during exams of the chest can cause artifacts in the resulting images, making it difficult to interpret the findings accurately. To minimize these artifacts, several techniques can be used. Patient immobilization devices, such as straps or foam pads, can help restrict movement and keep the patient still during the exam. Suspended respiration involves instructing the patient to hold their breath at a specific point during the scan, reducing motion caused by breathing. Shortened scan time is another technique that can be employed, as a shorter scan duration reduces the likelihood of motion artifacts. Therefore, all three options - patient immobilization devices, suspended respiration, and shortened scan time - are valid techniques to minimize artifacts from patient motion in chest exams.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following affects beam hardening?1. the energies of the photons in the beam2. the thickness of the tissues traversed by the beam3. the types of tissues the beam passes through

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1,2 & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,2 & 3
    Explanation
    Beam hardening is a phenomenon that occurs in computed tomography (CT) imaging, where the X-ray beam passing through the patient's body becomes harder (higher energy) as it passes through different tissues. This is caused by the preferential absorption of lower-energy photons by the tissues, resulting in an increase in the average energy of the beam. Therefore, all three factors mentioned in the question - the energies of the photons in the beam, the thickness of the tissues traversed by the beam, and the types of tissues the beam passes through - can affect beam hardening.

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  • 26. 

    A CT artifact is:

    • A parameter used to control the brightness of the image

    • Always a reason to call for repair of the CT scanner

    • An anomaly in the CT image

    • Used to time the injection of contrast media

    Correct Answer
    A. An anomaly in the CT image
    Explanation
    An anomaly in the CT image refers to any abnormality or irregularity that is observed in the CT scan. This could include artifacts such as streaks, blurring, or distortions in the image that are not representative of the actual anatomy or pathology being imaged. These artifacts can be caused by a variety of factors including patient motion, equipment malfunctions, or technical errors during image acquisition or processing. Identifying and understanding these anomalies is important for accurate diagnosis and interpretation of CT scans.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following structures is NOT part of the GI tract?

    • Stomach

    • Spleen

    • Esophagus

    • Duodenum

    Correct Answer
    A. Spleen
    Explanation
    The spleen is not part of the GI tract. The GI tract consists of a series of organs that are involved in the digestion and absorption of food, including the stomach, esophagus, and duodenum. The spleen, on the other hand, is part of the lymphatic system and is involved in filtering and removing old or damaged red blood cells from the bloodstream.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following may help to reduce adverse reactions resulting from the administration of IV contrast media?1. administer an antihistamine prior to the IV contrast injection2. increase the rate of injection3. use high osmolar contrast media

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 only
    Explanation
    Administering an antihistamine prior to the IV contrast injection may help to reduce adverse reactions resulting from the administration of IV contrast media. Antihistamines can help to prevent or reduce allergic reactions by blocking the release of histamine, which is responsible for many allergic symptoms. By administering an antihistamine before the injection, it can help to prevent or minimize any adverse reactions that may occur. Increasing the rate of injection or using high osmolar contrast media are not effective methods for reducing adverse reactions.

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  • 29. 

    A CT Number Calibration Test should be performed:

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    A CT Number Calibration Test should be performed daily to ensure the accuracy and reliability of the CT scanner. Daily testing helps to identify any potential issues or deviations in the CT numbers, which are essential for accurate image interpretation and diagnosis. Regular calibration ensures that the CT scanner is functioning properly and producing consistent results, leading to improved patient care and accurate treatment planning.

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  • 30. 

    What type(s) of storage media may hold CT image data?1. internal hard disk2. re-writable optical disk3. CD

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    CT image data can be stored on various types of storage media. The internal hard disk of a computer can be used to store CT image data. Additionally, re-writable optical disks, which include options such as DVDs or Blu-ray discs, can also be used for this purpose. Furthermore, CT image data can be stored on CDs, making them another suitable storage medium. Therefore, all of the options listed, including 1, 2, and 3, are correct and can hold CT image data.

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  • 31. 

    The slip ring on continuous rotation CT scanners:1. allows the exam to commence more rapidly2. eliminates the need for the reversal of gantry frame rotation3. prevents the high voltage cable from winding up

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The slip ring on continuous rotation CT scanners allows the exam to commence more rapidly because it provides a continuous electrical connection between the rotating gantry and the stationary components of the scanner. This eliminates the need for the reversal of gantry frame rotation, as the slip ring ensures a constant supply of power and data transmission during the scan. Additionally, the slip ring prevents the high voltage cable from winding up, ensuring a smooth and uninterrupted rotation of the gantry. Therefore, all of the given statements are correct.

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  • 32. 

    Scatter radiation is caused by:

    • Deflections from the original trajectory or an x-ray photon through the patient

    • Improper patient positioning

    • Miscalibrated detector

    • X-rays generated spontaneously in the ambient atmosphere

    Correct Answer
    A. Deflections from the original trajectory or an x-ray photon through the patient
    Explanation
    Scatter radiation occurs when an x-ray photon interacts with the patient's body and changes direction from its original trajectory. This can happen due to the presence of tissues or organs in the path of the x-ray beam. Improper patient positioning can also contribute to scatter radiation as it may result in the x-ray beam interacting with unintended areas of the body. A miscalibrated detector, on the other hand, would not directly cause scatter radiation. X-rays generated spontaneously in the ambient atmosphere are unrelated to scatter radiation.

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  • 33. 

    The main purpose of the detector is to:

    • Amplify the measured signal

    • Capture x-ray photons and convert them to a measurable signal

    • Limit the x-ray dose to the patient

    • Provide additional collimation in order t o reduce scatter

    Correct Answer
    A. Capture x-ray photons and convert them to a measurable signal
    Explanation
    The main purpose of the detector is to capture x-ray photons and convert them to a measurable signal. This is important because it allows for the detection and measurement of x-rays, which are used in various medical imaging procedures. By capturing the x-ray photons and converting them to a measurable signal, the detector enables the creation of clear and accurate images that can be used for diagnosis and treatment planning. Without this capability, it would be impossible to effectively use x-rays for medical imaging purposes.

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  • 34. 

    The _____ determines how penetrating the x-ray beam will be.

    • KVp

    • MA

    • Pitch

    • Rotation time

    Correct Answer
    A. KVp
    Explanation
    The kVp (kilovolt peak) determines how penetrating the x-ray beam will be. Increasing the kVp increases the energy of the x-ray photons, allowing them to penetrate deeper into the body. Conversely, decreasing the kVp decreases the energy of the x-ray photons, resulting in less penetration. Therefore, the kVp setting directly affects the quality and depth of the x-ray image.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following conditions may be an indication NOT to use IV contrast media?1. allergy to iodine2. previous serious reaction to contrast media used during another diagnostic procedure3. renal impairment

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the given conditions may be indications NOT to use IV contrast media. An allergy to iodine can cause an allergic reaction when contrast media containing iodine is administered. A previous serious reaction to contrast media used during another diagnostic procedure suggests a high risk of another adverse reaction if contrast media is used again. Renal impairment can impair the body's ability to excrete the contrast media, leading to potential complications. Therefore, all three conditions are contraindications for the use of IV contrast media.

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  • 36. 

    Which is NOT a standard infection control precaution to use with all patients?

    • Disposal of needle in sharps container

    • Use of an N95 respirator

    • Wash hands after touching a patient

    • Wear gloves when starting an IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of an N95 respirator
    Explanation
    The use of an N95 respirator is not a standard infection control precaution to use with all patients. N95 respirators are typically used in healthcare settings when there is a risk of airborne transmission of infectious diseases, such as tuberculosis or COVID-19. However, for routine infection control precautions, such as disposal of needles in sharps containers, handwashing after touching a patient, and wearing gloves when starting an IV, are standard practices to prevent the spread of infection.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following may result from exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation?1. deformities2. mental retardation3. miscarriage

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1 & 3

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation can result in deformities, mental retardation, and miscarriage. X-ray radiation has the potential to damage the developing cells and tissues of the embryo, leading to physical deformities. It can also affect the development of the brain, causing mental retardation. Additionally, the radiation can disrupt the normal development of the embryo, increasing the risk of miscarriage. Therefore, all of the given options, 1, 2, and 3, may result from exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation.

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  • 38. 

    What should be done if extravasationis noticed at the injection site?

    • Apply heat during the injection

    • Apply ice during the injection

    • Slap the area

    • Stop the injection immediately

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the injection immediately
    Explanation
    If extravasation is noticed at the injection site, it is important to stop the injection immediately. Extravasation refers to the leakage of a medication from a vein into the surrounding tissues, which can cause damage and complications. By stopping the injection, further leakage and potential harm can be prevented. Applying heat or ice or slapping the area may not be effective in addressing the issue and could potentially worsen the situation. Therefore, the immediate cessation of the injection is the appropriate course of action.

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  • 39. 

    For which of the following studies in the chest is IV contrast typically used?1. cardiac masses2. chest masses3. hilar masses

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1 & 2

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    IV contrast is typically used in studies of the chest for the evaluation of cardiac masses, chest masses, and hilar masses. The use of IV contrast allows for better visualization and differentiation of these masses from surrounding structures, aiding in the diagnosis and characterization of these abnormalities. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.

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  • 40. 

    When positioning for a CT exam of the wrist, the patient should be positioned:

    • Prone with the hand resting by the side

    • Prone with the arm raised above the head

    • Supine with the hand resting by the side

    • Supine with the hand resting on the abdomen

    Correct Answer
    A. Prone with the arm raised above the head
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "prone with the arm raised above the head." This position allows for better visualization of the wrist joint and surrounding structures. By raising the arm above the head, the wrist is extended, which helps to separate the bones and reduce overlap. Additionally, being in the prone position allows the forearm to be parallel to the detector, minimizing distortion and improving image quality.

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  • 41. 

    X-rays are used in CT because:

    • They are easily produced by the high frequency generator

    • They are less harmful than the heating effects of microwave radiation

    • They penetrate the body according to specific attenuation characteristics of each tissue

    • The FDA imposes no limit on the dose to the patient

    Correct Answer
    A. They penetrate the body according to specific attenuation characteristics of each tissue
    Explanation
    X-rays are used in CT scans because they have the ability to penetrate the body and are able to differentiate between different tissues based on their specific attenuation characteristics. This means that different tissues in the body absorb and scatter X-rays to varying degrees, allowing for the creation of detailed images. This property of X-rays makes them ideal for producing clear and accurate images of the internal structures of the body during CT scans.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is NOT a function of a PACS system?

    • Digital distribution of images

    • Image display for the radiologists

    • Long term data storage

    • Reconstruction of the image from the raw data

    Correct Answer
    A. Reconstruction of the image from the raw data
    Explanation
    A PACS system, or Picture Archiving and Communication System, is primarily used for the digital distribution of medical images, image display for radiologists, and long-term data storage. However, reconstruction of the image from the raw data is not a function of a PACS system. This process typically involves specialized software or algorithms that are separate from the PACS system itself.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following tests is NOT an indication of renal function?1. BUN2. creatinine3. PTT

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1 & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 only
    Explanation
    PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) is a test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot. It is not an indication of renal function because it measures the coagulation pathway, specifically the intrinsic pathway, which is involved in the formation of blood clots. BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) and creatinine, on the other hand, are commonly used tests to assess renal function. BUN measures the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from the waste product urea, while creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is filtered out by the kidneys.

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  • 44. 

    When reviewing the images from a helical CT scan, a subtle, suspicious area of possible pathology is noticed. What could be done to better visualize the suspicious area WITHOUT increasing the dose to the patient?1. re-scan the region using a lower pitch2. re-scan the region using thinner slices3. retrospectively reconstruct the slices so that they overlap

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 only
    Explanation
    To better visualize the suspicious area without increasing the dose to the patient, the option of retrospectively reconstructing the slices so that they overlap can be employed. This technique allows for a more comprehensive view of the area of interest without the need for additional scans or thinner slices. By reconstructing the slices in a way that they overlap, any subtle abnormalities or pathology can be better visualized and analyzed. This approach is a non-invasive and efficient way to enhance the visualization of the suspicious area without subjecting the patient to increased radiation dose.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following positions may reduce the lordotic curve, when performing a CT scan on the lumbosacral spine?

    • Prone with knees bent over a wedge

    • Prone with knees straight

    • Right decubitus position

    • Supine with knees bent over a wedge

    Correct Answer
    A. Supine with knees bent over a wedge
    Explanation
    The supine position with knees bent over a wedge may reduce the lordotic curve when performing a CT scan on the lumbosacral spine. This position helps to flatten the natural curve of the lower back, allowing for better visualization of the spine and surrounding structures. By bending the knees over a wedge, it helps to flex the hips and reduce the lordotic curve, providing a clearer image for diagnostic purposes.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is the typical orientation for a localizer in a chest exam?

    • AP

    • Lateral

    • Oblique

    • Transverse

    Correct Answer
    A. AP
    Explanation
    The typical orientation for a localizer in a chest exam is AP, which stands for Anterior-Posterior. This means that the X-ray beam is directed from the front of the patient towards the back, capturing an image of the chest from the front to the back. This orientation allows for a clear visualization of the lungs, heart, and other structures in the chest.

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  • 47. 

    The mA determines the:

    • Coefficient of attenuation

    • Energy level of the x-ray photons

    • Quantity of x-ray photons

    • Slice thickness

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantity of x-ray photons
    Explanation
    The mA (milliamperage) setting on an X-ray machine determines the quantity of X-ray photons produced. Increasing the mA setting increases the number of X-ray photons generated, while reducing the mA setting decreases the number of X-ray photons. This is because the mA setting controls the electric current flowing through the X-ray tube, which in turn affects the production of X-ray photons. Therefore, the correct answer is that the mA determines the quantity of X-ray photons.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following CT scanner designs does NOT use an x-ray tube?

    • Electron beam CT

    • First-generation CT

    • MDCT

    • PET/CT

    Correct Answer
    A. Electron beam CT
    Explanation
    The electron beam CT design does not use an x-ray tube because it uses an electron gun instead. The electron gun generates a beam of electrons which is then directed towards a target material, creating x-rays through a process called bremsstrahlung. This design allows for faster scanning times and higher resolution images compared to traditional x-ray tube-based CT scanners.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is the conversion equation from CT number to Hounsfield unit?

    • CT number = 0.5 x Hounsfield unit

    • CT number = 2 x Hounsfiedl unit

    • CT number = Hounsfield unit

    • CT number = Hounsfield unit/2

    Correct Answer
    A. CT number = Hounsfield unit
    Explanation
    The conversion equation from CT number to Hounsfield unit is CT number = Hounsfield unit. This means that the CT number is equal to the Hounsfield unit value.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Oct 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Oct 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 22, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Dennette1122
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