CT Registry Review March 2010

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1. Renal function refers to which of the following organs?

Explanation

Renal function refers to the functioning of the kidneys. The kidneys play a vital role in filtering waste products, excess water, and toxins from the blood to form urine. They also help regulate blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and acid-base balance in the body. Therefore, the correct answer is kidney.

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About This Quiz
CT Registry Review March 2010 - Quiz

The 'CT Registry Review March 2010' quiz assesses knowledge on computed tomography (CT), focusing on technical components like tungsten use in anodes, image noise reduction, and HIPAA compliance.... see moreIt's designed for professionals updating or testing their understanding of CT imaging principles and patient care regulations. see less

2. The operator's console may include:
1. graphic input device
2. keyboard
3. monitor

Explanation

The operator's console may include all of the mentioned devices: a graphic input device, a keyboard, and a monitor. A graphic input device allows the operator to interact with the system using graphical elements such as buttons or touchscreens. A keyboard is used for inputting text or commands. A monitor displays the system's interface and output. Therefore, all three devices can be part of the operator's console.

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3. During a CT scan, the patient must be monitored:

Explanation

During a CT scan, it is important to monitor the patient visually and verbally. This is because the CT scan involves the use of radiation, and the patient's condition and comfort need to be constantly assessed. Visual monitoring allows the healthcare provider to observe the patient's physical appearance and any signs of distress, while verbal monitoring enables communication with the patient to address any concerns or symptoms they may be experiencing. This ensures the safety and well-being of the patient throughout the procedure.

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4. A patient about to get a scan of her sinuses may wear:

Explanation

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5. The viscosity of IV contrast media can be reduced by:

Explanation

Heating can reduce the viscosity of IV contrast media. When the contrast media is heated, the molecules gain kinetic energy and move more rapidly, which leads to a decrease in the intermolecular forces holding the molecules together. This results in a decrease in viscosity, making the contrast media flow more easily.

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6. Following the HIPAA guidelines, you may give a patient's medical information to another employee:

Explanation

According to HIPAA guidelines, a patient's medical information can be shared with another employee only if it is necessary for them to perform their job duties. This ensures that patient confidentiality is maintained and information is only disclosed on a need-to-know basis. Sharing medical information for any other reasons, such as joking about the patient, would be a violation of HIPAA regulations.

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7. For a routine CT exam of the pelvis, what gantry tilt is used?

Explanation

In a routine CT exam of the pelvis, no tilt is used. This means that the gantry remains in a horizontal position, perpendicular to the patient's body. Tilting the gantry is not necessary for imaging the pelvis as it can be adequately visualized without any tilt.

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8. The most common catheter size used in CT _____ gauge.

Explanation

The most common catheter size used in CT is 18 to 22 gauge. This size range is commonly used because it allows for adequate flow rates while still being small enough to minimize patient discomfort. Catheters of this size are also compatible with most CT injection systems, making them a practical choice for CT procedures.

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9. CT is commonly referred to as all of the following names EXCEPT:

Explanation

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10. Which of the following is the correct action to take if a patient arrives with obvious head trauma, expecting a CT of the brain, but the paperwork requests a pelvic CT?

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct action to take is to request clarification from the ordering physician. This is because the patient arrived with obvious head trauma and is expecting a CT of the brain, but the paperwork requests a pelvic CT. It is important to clarify the discrepancy with the ordering physician to ensure that the appropriate scan is performed and the patient receives the necessary medical attention.

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11. The most important consideration in the care of an unconscious patient is to ensure that:

Explanation

In the care of an unconscious patient, the most important consideration is to ensure that the air passages are clear. This is crucial because an unconscious patient may have difficulty breathing or may be at risk of airway obstruction. By ensuring that the air passages are clear, healthcare providers can maintain proper oxygenation and prevent any further complications. This may involve techniques such as positioning the patient's head to open the airway, suctioning any secretions, or providing artificial ventilation if necessary.

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12. The human embryo/fetus is most sensitive to radiation:

Explanation

During the first trimester of pregnancy, the human embryo/fetus is most sensitive to radiation. This is because during this period, the major organs and systems of the body are developing rapidly. Any exposure to radiation during this critical stage can potentially cause severe damage to the developing cells, leading to birth defects or other health issues. As the pregnancy progresses into the second and third trimesters, the organs and systems have already formed, making them less susceptible to the harmful effects of radiation.

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13. Platelets are small:

Explanation

Platelets are small cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood coagulation. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets are activated and form a plug at the site of injury to stop bleeding. They also release chemicals that help in the formation of a fibrin clot, which further reinforces the plug. Without platelets, blood would not be able to clot properly, leading to excessive bleeding. Therefore, platelets are necessary for the process of blood coagulation.

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14. Which of the following are typical start and end locations for CT scans of the pelvis?

Explanation

CT scans of the pelvis typically start from the iliac crest, which is the top edge of the hip bone, and end at the symphysis pubis, which is the joint between the two pubic bones. This range allows for a comprehensive view of the pelvic area, including the hip joints, pelvic bones, and surrounding structures. The other options either do not cover the entire pelvis or include incorrect anatomical landmarks.

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15. Which of the following is a reason for inserting a tampon in the vagina for CT exams of the female pelvis?

Explanation

Inserting a tampon in the vagina for CT exams of the female pelvis helps visualize the vaginal canal. This is because the tampon expands the vaginal canal, allowing for better visualization of any abnormalities or structures within the canal. It helps the radiologist to accurately assess the condition of the vaginal canal and identify any potential issues or abnormalities.

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16. If there is doubt regarding the sterility of the contrast media, the contrast media must be:

Explanation

If there is doubt regarding the sterility of the contrast media, it must be discarded. This is because using a potentially contaminated contrast media can lead to infections or other complications in patients. It is important to prioritize patient safety and avoid any risks associated with using a contaminated substance. Therefore, the correct course of action is to discard the contrast media in order to prevent any potential harm to the patient.

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17. What control does the operator have over the x-rays in a CT exam?

Explanation

The operator has control over the energy level and the quantity of x-rays in a CT exam. This means that they can adjust the strength and amount of x-rays used during the exam, which is important for optimizing the image quality and minimizing radiation exposure to the patient. By selecting the appropriate energy level and quantity of x-rays, the operator can ensure accurate diagnostic information while keeping the radiation dose as low as reasonably achievable.

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18. The distance that the table travels between slices is called:

Explanation

The correct answer is "table increment" because it refers to the distance that the table moves between each slice during a medical imaging procedure. This movement is necessary for capturing multiple images of the body and creating a three-dimensional reconstruction. The table increment determines the spacing between each image and affects the overall quality and accuracy of the reconstructed images.

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19. A 25 year old female is scheduled for a CT scan of the sinuses.  She is not absolutely certain that she is not pregnant and it has been three weeks since her last menstrual period.  Which of the following is the best course of action?

Explanation

The best course of action in this situation is to postpone the procedure until the patient is more certain of her pregnancy status. Since she is not absolutely certain that she is not pregnant and it has been three weeks since her last menstrual period, there is a possibility that she could be pregnant. It is important to prioritize the safety of the patient and avoid any potential harm to the fetus. Therefore, it is necessary to delay the CT scan until the patient can confirm her pregnancy status.

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20. Which of the following is a possible long-term effect of repeated exposure to radiation?
1. cancer
2. cataracts
3. decrease in life expectancy

Explanation

Repeated exposure to radiation can have several long-term effects on the body. One possible effect is the development of cancer, as radiation can damage DNA and lead to the formation of cancerous cells. Another possible effect is the development of cataracts, which can cause vision problems. Additionally, repeated exposure to radiation can decrease life expectancy, as it can increase the risk of various health complications and diseases. Therefore, all of the options listed - cancer, cataracts, and a decrease in life expectancy - can be possible long-term effects of repeated exposure to radiation.

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21. IV contrast agents used in CT increase the attenuation of the x-ray beam due to the concentration of _____ in the agent.

Explanation

IV contrast agents used in CT increase the attenuation of the x-ray beam due to the concentration of iodine in the agent. Iodine is a commonly used contrast agent in CT scans because it has a high atomic number, which means it is effective in absorbing x-rays. When injected into the bloodstream, the iodine contrast agent enhances the visibility of blood vessels, organs, and tissues, allowing for better visualization and detection of abnormalities during the CT scan.

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22. How long does it take to inject 150 ml of contrast media with an injection rate of 2 ml/sec.?

Explanation

To calculate the time it takes to inject 150 ml of contrast media with an injection rate of 2 ml/sec, we divide the total volume (150 ml) by the injection rate (2 ml/sec). This gives us 75 seconds, which is the correct answer.

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23. The heating unit on a power injector is for _____ of the contrast agent.

Explanation

The heating unit on a power injector is used to decrease the viscosity of the contrast agent. By heating the contrast agent, its viscosity is reduced, making it easier to inject into the patient's bloodstream. This allows for a smoother and more efficient administration of the contrast agent during medical imaging procedures.

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24. Which of the following is a technique used to minimize artifacts from patient motion in exams of the chest?
1. patient immobilization devices
2. suspended respiration
3. shortened scan time

Explanation

Patient motion during exams of the chest can cause artifacts in the resulting images, making it difficult to interpret the findings accurately. To minimize these artifacts, several techniques can be used. Patient immobilization devices, such as straps or foam pads, can help restrict movement and keep the patient still during the exam. Suspended respiration involves instructing the patient to hold their breath at a specific point during the scan, reducing motion caused by breathing. Shortened scan time is another technique that can be employed, as a shorter scan duration reduces the likelihood of motion artifacts. Therefore, all three options - patient immobilization devices, suspended respiration, and shortened scan time - are valid techniques to minimize artifacts from patient motion in chest exams.

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25. Which of the following affects beam hardening?
1. the energies of the photons in the beam
2. the thickness of the tissues traversed by the beam
3. the types of tissues the beam passes through

Explanation

Beam hardening is a phenomenon that occurs in computed tomography (CT) imaging, where the X-ray beam passing through the patient's body becomes harder (higher energy) as it passes through different tissues. This is caused by the preferential absorption of lower-energy photons by the tissues, resulting in an increase in the average energy of the beam. Therefore, all three factors mentioned in the question - the energies of the photons in the beam, the thickness of the tissues traversed by the beam, and the types of tissues the beam passes through - can affect beam hardening.

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26. A CT artifact is:

Explanation

An anomaly in the CT image refers to any abnormality or irregularity that is observed in the CT scan. This could include artifacts such as streaks, blurring, or distortions in the image that are not representative of the actual anatomy or pathology being imaged. These artifacts can be caused by a variety of factors including patient motion, equipment malfunctions, or technical errors during image acquisition or processing. Identifying and understanding these anomalies is important for accurate diagnosis and interpretation of CT scans.

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27. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the GI tract?

Explanation

The spleen is not part of the GI tract. The GI tract consists of a series of organs that are involved in the digestion and absorption of food, including the stomach, esophagus, and duodenum. The spleen, on the other hand, is part of the lymphatic system and is involved in filtering and removing old or damaged red blood cells from the bloodstream.

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28. Which of the following may help to reduce adverse reactions resulting from the administration of IV contrast media?
1. administer an antihistamine prior to the IV contrast injection
2. increase the rate of injection
3. use high osmolar contrast media

Explanation

Administering an antihistamine prior to the IV contrast injection may help to reduce adverse reactions resulting from the administration of IV contrast media. Antihistamines can help to prevent or reduce allergic reactions by blocking the release of histamine, which is responsible for many allergic symptoms. By administering an antihistamine before the injection, it can help to prevent or minimize any adverse reactions that may occur. Increasing the rate of injection or using high osmolar contrast media are not effective methods for reducing adverse reactions.

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29. A CT Number Calibration Test should be performed:

Explanation

A CT Number Calibration Test should be performed daily to ensure the accuracy and reliability of the CT scanner. Daily testing helps to identify any potential issues or deviations in the CT numbers, which are essential for accurate image interpretation and diagnosis. Regular calibration ensures that the CT scanner is functioning properly and producing consistent results, leading to improved patient care and accurate treatment planning.

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30. What type(s) of storage media may hold CT image data?
1. internal hard disk
2. re-writable optical disk
3. CD

Explanation

CT image data can be stored on various types of storage media. The internal hard disk of a computer can be used to store CT image data. Additionally, re-writable optical disks, which include options such as DVDs or Blu-ray discs, can also be used for this purpose. Furthermore, CT image data can be stored on CDs, making them another suitable storage medium. Therefore, all of the options listed, including 1, 2, and 3, are correct and can hold CT image data.

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31. The slip ring on continuous rotation CT scanners:
1. allows the exam to commence more rapidly
2. eliminates the need for the reversal of gantry frame rotation
3. prevents the high voltage cable from winding up

Explanation

The slip ring on continuous rotation CT scanners allows the exam to commence more rapidly because it provides a continuous electrical connection between the rotating gantry and the stationary components of the scanner. This eliminates the need for the reversal of gantry frame rotation, as the slip ring ensures a constant supply of power and data transmission during the scan. Additionally, the slip ring prevents the high voltage cable from winding up, ensuring a smooth and uninterrupted rotation of the gantry. Therefore, all of the given statements are correct.

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32. Scatter radiation is caused by:

Explanation

Scatter radiation occurs when an x-ray photon interacts with the patient's body and changes direction from its original trajectory. This can happen due to the presence of tissues or organs in the path of the x-ray beam. Improper patient positioning can also contribute to scatter radiation as it may result in the x-ray beam interacting with unintended areas of the body. A miscalibrated detector, on the other hand, would not directly cause scatter radiation. X-rays generated spontaneously in the ambient atmosphere are unrelated to scatter radiation.

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33. The main purpose of the detector is to:

Explanation

The main purpose of the detector is to capture x-ray photons and convert them to a measurable signal. This is important because it allows for the detection and measurement of x-rays, which are used in various medical imaging procedures. By capturing the x-ray photons and converting them to a measurable signal, the detector enables the creation of clear and accurate images that can be used for diagnosis and treatment planning. Without this capability, it would be impossible to effectively use x-rays for medical imaging purposes.

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34. The _____ determines how penetrating the x-ray beam will be.

Explanation

The kVp (kilovolt peak) determines how penetrating the x-ray beam will be. Increasing the kVp increases the energy of the x-ray photons, allowing them to penetrate deeper into the body. Conversely, decreasing the kVp decreases the energy of the x-ray photons, resulting in less penetration. Therefore, the kVp setting directly affects the quality and depth of the x-ray image.

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35. Which of the following conditions may be an indication NOT to use IV contrast media?
1. allergy to iodine
2. previous serious reaction to contrast media used during another diagnostic procedure
3. renal impairment

Explanation

All of the given conditions may be indications NOT to use IV contrast media. An allergy to iodine can cause an allergic reaction when contrast media containing iodine is administered. A previous serious reaction to contrast media used during another diagnostic procedure suggests a high risk of another adverse reaction if contrast media is used again. Renal impairment can impair the body's ability to excrete the contrast media, leading to potential complications. Therefore, all three conditions are contraindications for the use of IV contrast media.

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36. Which is NOT a standard infection control precaution to use with all patients?

Explanation

The use of an N95 respirator is not a standard infection control precaution to use with all patients. N95 respirators are typically used in healthcare settings when there is a risk of airborne transmission of infectious diseases, such as tuberculosis or COVID-19. However, for routine infection control precautions, such as disposal of needles in sharps containers, handwashing after touching a patient, and wearing gloves when starting an IV, are standard practices to prevent the spread of infection.

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37. Which of the following may result from exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation?
1. deformities
2. mental retardation
3. miscarriage

Explanation

Exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation can result in deformities, mental retardation, and miscarriage. X-ray radiation has the potential to damage the developing cells and tissues of the embryo, leading to physical deformities. It can also affect the development of the brain, causing mental retardation. Additionally, the radiation can disrupt the normal development of the embryo, increasing the risk of miscarriage. Therefore, all of the given options, 1, 2, and 3, may result from exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation.

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38. What should be done if extravasationis noticed at the injection site?

Explanation

If extravasation is noticed at the injection site, it is important to stop the injection immediately. Extravasation refers to the leakage of a medication from a vein into the surrounding tissues, which can cause damage and complications. By stopping the injection, further leakage and potential harm can be prevented. Applying heat or ice or slapping the area may not be effective in addressing the issue and could potentially worsen the situation. Therefore, the immediate cessation of the injection is the appropriate course of action.

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39. For which of the following studies in the chest is IV contrast typically used?
1. cardiac masses
2. chest masses
3. hilar masses

Explanation

IV contrast is typically used in studies of the chest for the evaluation of cardiac masses, chest masses, and hilar masses. The use of IV contrast allows for better visualization and differentiation of these masses from surrounding structures, aiding in the diagnosis and characterization of these abnormalities. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.

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40. When positioning for a CT exam of the wrist, the patient should be positioned:

Explanation

The correct answer is "prone with the arm raised above the head." This position allows for better visualization of the wrist joint and surrounding structures. By raising the arm above the head, the wrist is extended, which helps to separate the bones and reduce overlap. Additionally, being in the prone position allows the forearm to be parallel to the detector, minimizing distortion and improving image quality.

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41. X-rays are used in CT because:

Explanation

X-rays are used in CT scans because they have the ability to penetrate the body and are able to differentiate between different tissues based on their specific attenuation characteristics. This means that different tissues in the body absorb and scatter X-rays to varying degrees, allowing for the creation of detailed images. This property of X-rays makes them ideal for producing clear and accurate images of the internal structures of the body during CT scans.

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42. Which of the following is NOT a function of a PACS system?

Explanation

A PACS system, or Picture Archiving and Communication System, is primarily used for the digital distribution of medical images, image display for radiologists, and long-term data storage. However, reconstruction of the image from the raw data is not a function of a PACS system. This process typically involves specialized software or algorithms that are separate from the PACS system itself.

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43. Which of the following tests is NOT an indication of renal function?
1. BUN
2. creatinine
3. PTT

Explanation

PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) is a test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot. It is not an indication of renal function because it measures the coagulation pathway, specifically the intrinsic pathway, which is involved in the formation of blood clots. BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) and creatinine, on the other hand, are commonly used tests to assess renal function. BUN measures the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from the waste product urea, while creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is filtered out by the kidneys.

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44. When reviewing the images from a helical CT scan, a subtle, suspicious area of possible pathology is noticed. What could be done to better visualize the suspicious area WITHOUT increasing the dose to the patient?
1. re-scan the region using a lower pitch
2. re-scan the region using thinner slices
3. retrospectively reconstruct the slices so that they overlap

Explanation

To better visualize the suspicious area without increasing the dose to the patient, the option of retrospectively reconstructing the slices so that they overlap can be employed. This technique allows for a more comprehensive view of the area of interest without the need for additional scans or thinner slices. By reconstructing the slices in a way that they overlap, any subtle abnormalities or pathology can be better visualized and analyzed. This approach is a non-invasive and efficient way to enhance the visualization of the suspicious area without subjecting the patient to increased radiation dose.

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45. Which of the following positions may reduce the lordotic curve, when performing a CT scan on the lumbosacral spine?

Explanation

The supine position with knees bent over a wedge may reduce the lordotic curve when performing a CT scan on the lumbosacral spine. This position helps to flatten the natural curve of the lower back, allowing for better visualization of the spine and surrounding structures. By bending the knees over a wedge, it helps to flex the hips and reduce the lordotic curve, providing a clearer image for diagnostic purposes.

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46. Which of the following is the typical orientation for a localizer in a chest exam?

Explanation

The typical orientation for a localizer in a chest exam is AP, which stands for Anterior-Posterior. This means that the X-ray beam is directed from the front of the patient towards the back, capturing an image of the chest from the front to the back. This orientation allows for a clear visualization of the lungs, heart, and other structures in the chest.

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47. The mA determines the:

Explanation

The mA (milliamperage) setting on an X-ray machine determines the quantity of X-ray photons produced. Increasing the mA setting increases the number of X-ray photons generated, while reducing the mA setting decreases the number of X-ray photons. This is because the mA setting controls the electric current flowing through the X-ray tube, which in turn affects the production of X-ray photons. Therefore, the correct answer is that the mA determines the quantity of X-ray photons.

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48. Which of the following CT scanner designs does NOT use an x-ray tube?

Explanation

The electron beam CT design does not use an x-ray tube because it uses an electron gun instead. The electron gun generates a beam of electrons which is then directed towards a target material, creating x-rays through a process called bremsstrahlung. This design allows for faster scanning times and higher resolution images compared to traditional x-ray tube-based CT scanners.

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49. Which of the following is the conversion equation from CT number to Hounsfield unit?

Explanation

The conversion equation from CT number to Hounsfield unit is CT number = Hounsfield unit. This means that the CT number is equal to the Hounsfield unit value.

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50. Which of the following vital signs is considered abnormal?

Explanation

A blood pressure reading of 160/100 is considered abnormal because it falls within the hypertensive range. Normal blood pressure for adults is typically around 120/80. A reading of 160/100 indicates high blood pressure, which can be a risk factor for various cardiovascular conditions such as heart disease and stroke. It is important to monitor and manage high blood pressure to prevent further complications.

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51. Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's:

Explanation

Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's thickness. It refers to the resistance of a fluid to flow, with high viscosity indicating a thicker fluid that flows more slowly, while low viscosity indicates a thinner fluid that flows more easily. Therefore, thickness is the correct choice as it accurately describes the property being measured.

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52. An injection rate of _____ ml/sec. will maintain a dense bolus of IV contrast media for a CTA examination and will be tolerated by most patients.

Explanation

An injection rate of 4 - 5 ml/sec. will maintain a dense bolus of IV contrast media for a CTA examination and will be tolerated by most patients. This rate is considered optimal as it allows for a sufficient amount of contrast media to be delivered quickly, ensuring clear and accurate imaging results. Additionally, this rate is generally well tolerated by patients without causing discomfort or adverse reactions.

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53. Tungsten is used as the target material on the tube's anode because it has a _____ atomic number and a _____ melting point.

Explanation

Tungsten's high atomic number means it has a high melting point of approximately 3400 degrees Celsius.

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54. If the mA of a 2 second brain scan is doubled and all other parameters are not changed, the dose is:

Explanation

If the mA (milliamperage) of a 2-second brain scan is doubled and all other parameters remain unchanged, the dose of radiation is doubled. This is because the mA is directly proportional to the dose of radiation. When the mA is doubled, the amount of radiation delivered to the brain is also doubled, resulting in an increased dose.

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55. Which of the following types of contrast media has NO application for a CT study of the thoracic spine?
1. intrathecal
2. intravenous
3. oral

Explanation

Intrathecal contrast media is injected into the spinal canal to enhance visualization of the spinal cord and nerve roots. Intravenous contrast media is injected into a vein to enhance visualization of blood vessels and tissues. Oral contrast media is ingested to enhance visualization of the gastrointestinal tract. In a CT study of the thoracic spine, there is no need to visualize the gastrointestinal tract, so oral contrast media has no application. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 only.

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56. Which of the following determinants of CT image quality is responsible for how grainy or speckled a CT image appears?

Explanation

Noise is responsible for how grainy or speckled a CT image appears. Noise refers to random variations in pixel values that can degrade the image quality. Higher levels of noise can result in a grainy appearance, making it difficult to distinguish fine details in the image. Lower levels of noise are desirable as they improve image clarity and allow for better visualization of structures.

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57. Tube interscan delay time refers to:

Explanation

Tube interscan delay time refers to the time between the end of one scan and the start of the next scan during which the tube will cool. This delay is necessary to prevent overheating of the tube and ensure optimal image quality. During this time, the tube is allowed to cool down, reducing the risk of damage and maintaining the functionality of the equipment. By allowing sufficient cooling time, the technologist can ensure accurate and reliable scans.

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58. The result of the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta is the left and right _____ arteries.

Explanation

The result of the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta is the left and right common iliac arteries.

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59. Which of the following may be the cause of two parallel lines seen on a localizer image?

Explanation

Two faulty detector elements may cause two parallel lines to appear on a localizer image. When the detector elements are faulty, they may produce incorrect readings or fail to detect certain signals, resulting in the appearance of parallel lines on the image. This can distort the accuracy of the localizer image and affect the diagnostic interpretation.

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60. Which of the following oral contrast agents is better for opacifying the distal small intestine?
1. a non-ionic iodinated contrast agent
2. an ionic iodinated contrast agent
3. barium sulfate

Explanation

Barium sulfate is the better oral contrast agent for opacifying the distal small intestine. This is because it is not absorbed by the body and provides excellent visualization of the gastrointestinal tract. Ionic and non-ionic iodinated contrast agents are typically used for opacifying other parts of the gastrointestinal tract, but they are not as effective in opacifying the distal small intestine.

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61. Which of the following is NOT a part of the CT tube?

Explanation

A collimator is not a part of the CT tube. The CT tube consists of a filament, rotating anode, and a tungsten target. The collimator is a separate component used to shape and control the X-ray beam emitted by the CT tube. It is responsible for limiting the size and shape of the X-ray beam to ensure accurate imaging and reduce unnecessary radiation exposure.

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62. In order for an x-ray photon to be measured it must:
1. enter the detector chamber
2. be absorbed by the detector material
3. be converted to a measurable event

Explanation

An x-ray photon must enter the detector chamber in order to be measured. It must also be absorbed by the detector material for it to be detected and recorded. Finally, the x-ray photon must be converted to a measurable event, such as the release of an electron or the generation of an electrical signal. Therefore, all of the given options - 1, 2, and 3 - are correct explanations for the statement.

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63. A pixel is a:

Explanation

A pixel refers to a single 2D picture element within the image plane. It represents the smallest unit of information in a digital image, consisting of a single point of color or brightness. Pixels are arranged in a grid pattern to form the complete image and are used to display and represent visual information in various digital devices such as cameras, computer screens, and televisions.

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64. What is the most common type of film used for recording CT images?

Explanation

Single emulsion is the most common type of film used for recording CT images. This type of film has a single layer of emulsion, which contains light-sensitive silver halide crystals. When exposed to X-ray radiation, these crystals produce a latent image, which can be developed and fixed to create a visible image. Single emulsion film is widely used in CT imaging due to its high sensitivity and ability to capture detailed images with good contrast. It is also cost-effective and readily available, making it the preferred choice for recording CT images.

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65. There are _____ total pixels in a 1024 x 1024 matrix.

Explanation

A 1024 x 1024 matrix has a total of 1,048,576 pixels. This is because the total number of pixels in a matrix is calculated by multiplying the number of rows (1024) by the number of columns (1024), which gives us 1,048,576. Therefore, the correct answer is "more than 1 million".

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66. Which of the following values for pitch would stretch the x-ray helix the most?

Explanation

A higher value for pitch would stretch the x-ray helix the most. Pitch refers to the distance between each coil of the helix. When the pitch value is increased, the coils become more spread out, causing the helix to stretch. Therefore, the highest value of 1.5 would result in the most stretching of the x-ray helix.

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67. Which of the following would be used in a high resolution study of the temporal bones?
1. reduced reconstruction FOV
2. reduced slice thickness
3. sharp reconstruction filter

Explanation

All of the options mentioned (reduced reconstruction FOV, reduced slice thickness, sharp reconstruction filter) would be used in a high resolution study of the temporal bones. A reduced reconstruction FOV helps to focus on a smaller area, increasing the detail and resolution. A reduced slice thickness means thinner slices are taken, allowing for more precise imaging. A sharp reconstruction filter enhances the sharpness and clarity of the images. Combining all three techniques would result in a high resolution study of the temporal bones.

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68. On a CTA exam of lower extremity vasculature to assess atherosclerosis, coverage should extend from the _____ to the _____.

Explanation

For a CTA exam of lower extremity vasculature to assess atherosclerosis, the coverage should extend from the abdominal aorta to the ankles. This is because atherosclerosis can affect the arteries in the lower extremities, and by imaging the entire length from the abdominal aorta to the ankles, the presence and severity of atherosclerosis can be accurately evaluated. The abdominal aorta is the starting point as it supplies blood to the lower extremities, and the ankles are the end point as they are the most distal part of the lower extremities.

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69. Which of the following would eliminate a ring artifact?

Explanation

Recalibration of the detector elements would eliminate a ring artifact. Ring artifacts occur when there is a malfunction or inconsistency in the detector elements of a medical imaging system, causing irregularities in the image. By recalibrating the detector elements, any errors or inconsistencies can be corrected, leading to a more accurate and artifact-free image. Decreased matrix, increased mAs, and removal of metal are not directly related to eliminating ring artifacts.

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70. Which of the following has the highest patient dose assuming all other parameters are the same?

Explanation

The patient dose in computed tomography (CT) is determined by the product of the tube current (mA) and the exposure time (rotation time). In this case, all other parameters are the same except for the mA and rotation time. The highest patient dose will occur when the product of mA and rotation time is the highest. In this case, the product of mA = 150 and rotation time = 3 seconds is the highest among the given options, resulting in the highest patient dose.

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71. ________ affects the CT number of water.

Explanation

The CT number of water is not affected by any imaging parameter. The CT number represents the density of an object on a CT scan, and water has a known and constant density. Therefore, regardless of the imaging parameters such as kVp, mAs, or slice thickness, the CT number of water remains the same.

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72. To modify a standard CT protocol so that is is appropriate for children, which of the following should be decreased?
1. kVp
2. mAs
3. pitch

Explanation

To modify a standard CT protocol for children, both the kVp (kilovolt peak) and mAs (milliampere-seconds) should be decreased. Decreasing the kVp helps to reduce radiation dose, as lower energy X-rays are used. Lowering the mAs also reduces the radiation dose, as it decreases the number of X-rays produced during the scan. Decreasing the pitch, which refers to the distance the table moves per rotation of the X-ray tube, is not necessary when modifying a CT protocol for children.

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73. Which of the following characteristics of an IV contrast agent affects patient tolerance?
1. concentration of iodine
2. osmolality
3. viscosity

Explanation

The concentration of iodine, osmolality, and viscosity of an IV contrast agent can all affect patient tolerance. Higher concentrations of iodine can lead to more adverse reactions in patients. Osmolality refers to the number of particles in a solution and a higher osmolality can cause discomfort or adverse reactions. Viscosity, or thickness, of the contrast agent can also impact patient tolerance, as a more viscous agent may be more difficult to inject and cause discomfort. Therefore, all of these characteristics can affect how well a patient tolerates the IV contrast agent.

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74. A _____ scan uses only a single projection.
1. conventional, or serial
2. helical
3. localizer

Explanation

A localizer scan uses only a single projection. This type of scan is typically used to locate a specific area or region of interest within the body. It provides a localized image rather than a full scan of the entire body. Conventional or serial scans involve multiple projections, while helical scans involve continuous rotation of the scanner during the scan. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 only, as only the localizer scan uses a single projection.

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75. _____ may have to be edited from the data set to get a diagnostic MIP of a CTA exam.

Explanation

To obtain a diagnostic MIP (Maximum Intensity Projection) of a CTA (Computed Tomography Angiography) exam, the bones in the data set may need to be edited. This is because bones can obstruct the visualization of blood vessels and other structures of interest in the exam. By editing or removing the bones from the data set, a clearer and more accurate MIP can be generated, allowing for better assessment of the blood vessels.

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76. Which of the following is a component NOT normally located in the gantry of a modern CT system?

Explanation

The array processor is a component that is not normally located in the gantry of a modern CT system. The gantry typically houses the x-ray tube, solid-state detectors, and pre-patient collimators. The array processor, on the other hand, is usually located outside the gantry and is responsible for processing the data received from the detectors to generate the final CT image.

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77. The pencil thin section of the x-ray fan beam that strikes a single detector is called a:

Explanation

The pencil thin section of the x-ray fan beam that strikes a single detector is called a "ray" because a ray refers to a narrow beam of light or energy that travels in a straight line. In the context of x-ray imaging, the fan beam is composed of multiple rays, and each ray represents a path along which the x-ray photons travel from the source to the detector. Therefore, the correct term to describe the thin section of the beam that reaches a single detector is a "ray."

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78. The ______ move(s) during a helical scan on a third-generation scanner.
1. detector elements
2. patient table
3. x-ray tube

Explanation

During a helical scan on a third-generation scanner, all of the mentioned components move. The detector elements move to capture the x-ray data, the patient table moves to position the patient correctly, and the x-ray tube moves to emit the x-rays. These movements are coordinated to ensure accurate and comprehensive imaging during the helical scan.

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79. Which of the following is the expected result of a CT Number Calibration Test performed on a water phantom?

Explanation

A CT Number Calibration Test performed on a water phantom is expected to yield a result of 0 +/- 3. This means that the CT number measured for the water phantom should be close to 0, with a tolerance of +/- 3. The CT number represents the attenuation of the X-ray beam as it passes through the water, and a result of 0 indicates that the water is accurately calibrated and has the expected density. The tolerance of +/- 3 accounts for any slight variations or uncertainties in the measurement.

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80. If there is no overlap or gap between adjacent slices of a CT scan, CTDI _____ MSAD.

Explanation

The CT dose index (CTDI) and the multiple scan average dose(MSAD) are two ways that the patient dose from a multiple slice CT scanner are measured.

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81. A normal adult has _____ respirations per minute.

Explanation

A normal adult typically has a respiratory rate of 12-20 breaths per minute. This range is considered normal as it reflects a healthy breathing pattern. A respiratory rate outside of this range may indicate an underlying medical condition or respiratory distress.

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82. A localizer image in which of the following orientations should be used to set up axial slices so that they can be angled parallel to the plane of a specific lumbar disk?

Explanation

A lateral localizer image should be used to set up axial slices so that they can be angled parallel to the plane of a specific lumbar disk. This is because the lateral orientation allows for visualization of the spine from a side view, which can help determine the exact angle and position of the lumbar disk.

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83. Which of the following combinations of scanning parameters is best for evaluating abnormalities within the petrous pyramids of the temporal bones?

Explanation

The sharp algorithm with a window width of 2500 and 0.5 to 3 mm slices is the best combination of scanning parameters for evaluating abnormalities within the petrous pyramids of the temporal bones. The sharp algorithm enhances image sharpness and detail, which is important for evaluating small structures like the petrous pyramids. A window width of 2500 allows for a wider range of grayscale values to be displayed, which can help in identifying abnormalities. The slice thickness of 0.5 to 3 mm is ideal for capturing fine details within the temporal bones.

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84. Which of the following might increase the possibility of motion artifacts occurring?

Explanation

Using no straps or pads so that the patient feels comfortable and unrestricted might increase the possibility of motion artifacts occurring. This is because without proper immobilization, the patient's movements can introduce motion artifacts into the imaging results. Straps and pads are commonly used to secure the patient in a stable position during the procedure, reducing the chances of motion artifacts.

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85. A variation in which of the following will affect the hardening of an x-ray beam?
1. kVp
2. tissue density
3. tissue thickness

Explanation

The hardening of an x-ray beam refers to an increase in the energy of the x-ray photons. This can be influenced by several factors. Increasing the kVp (kilovoltage peak) will result in higher energy x-rays and therefore a harder beam. Tissue density also affects the hardening of the beam, as denser tissues will attenuate the x-rays more, resulting in a harder beam. Similarly, tissue thickness plays a role, as thicker tissues will attenuate the x-rays more, leading to a harder beam. Therefore, all of the above factors - kVp, tissue density, and tissue thickness - can affect the hardening of an x-ray beam.

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86. Which of the following is the complete name of the laboratory test known as PTT?

Explanation

The correct answer is "partial thromboplastin time." Thromboplastin time is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot. However, the term "partial" is necessary to specify that only a partial version of thromboplastin is used in the test. Prothrombin time, on the other hand, measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is not the complete name for the PTT test. Partial prothrombin time is not a recognized laboratory test.

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87. _____ mm Hg is within the normal diastolic pressure range for adults.

Explanation

normal adult diastolic pressure = 60 - 80 mm Hg
normal adult systolic pressure = 110 - 140 mm Hg

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88. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the collection of CT data?

Explanation

Long scan times are not more desirable because they average out motion artifacts. In fact, shorter scan times are preferred in CT imaging as they reduce the chances of motion artifacts. Motion artifacts can occur when the patient moves during the scan, leading to blurring or distortion in the images. Therefore, it is important to minimize scan times to obtain clear and accurate CT data.

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89. Which of the following parameters is responsible for partial volume averaging?

Explanation

Partial volume averaging refers to the phenomenon where different tissues within a voxel are averaged together, resulting in a loss of image detail and accuracy. A larger slice thickness means that the voxel encompasses a greater volume of tissue, increasing the likelihood of partial volume averaging. Therefore, slice thickness is responsible for partial volume averaging.

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90. Which of the following is the appropriate range of coverage for a coronal sinus study?

Explanation

The appropriate range of coverage for a coronal sinus study is from the dorsum sella to the anterior aspect of the frontal sinus. This range includes the region of interest for the study, which is the area from the back of the sella turcica (dorsum sella) to the front of the frontal sinus. This range allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the coronal sinuses and any abnormalities or pathologies that may be present in this area.

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91. How should the mAs be varied to compensate for an increase in apparent image noise caused by reducing the slice thickness?

Explanation

To compensate for an increase in apparent image noise caused by reducing the slice thickness, the mAs should be increased. This is because reducing the slice thickness can result in less radiation reaching the detector, leading to increased noise in the image. By increasing the mAs, more radiation is used during the scan, which helps to improve the signal-to-noise ratio and reduce the apparent image noise.

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92. What is the primary reason to have a patient phonate the letter "e" during a CT exam of the larynx?

Explanation

Phonating the letter "e" during a CT exam of the larynx allows for the demonstration of vocal cord mobility. Phonation involves the movement of the vocal cords, and by asking the patient to phonate the letter "e," the examiner can observe how well the vocal cords are able to move and function. This can provide valuable information about the health and function of the larynx, helping to diagnose any potential issues or abnormalities.

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93. Which of the following may reduce the out-of-field artifact?

Explanation

The out-of-field artifact is caused by anatomy extending beyond the scan field-of-view. Increasing the scan field-of-view will reduce this by decreasing the likelihood of anatomy extending beyond its boundaries.

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94. If a thin slice is used, which of the following would help reduce the apparent image noise?

Explanation

Increasing the mAs (milliampere-seconds) would help reduce the apparent image noise when using a thin slice. mAs is a measure of the total amount of radiation used during the exposure. By increasing the mAs, more radiation is used, resulting in a higher signal-to-noise ratio and reduced image noise. This is because the increased mAs provides more photons to create the image, which helps to overcome the noise generated by the detector.

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95. Which of the following is a reason to increase the pitch?
1. radiation dose to the patient can be increased
2. a given volume of anatomy can be covered faster
3. a greater volume of anatomy can be covered in a given time

Explanation

Increasing the pitch in medical imaging refers to increasing the distance between each slice or image taken during a scan. This allows for a faster scan time, as a larger volume of anatomy can be covered in a given time. Additionally, increasing the pitch can also result in a higher radiation dose to the patient, as the scanner is capturing images at a faster rate. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 & 3.

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96. Which of the following is TRUE regarding multi-row detector CT scanners?
1. all of the detector arrays may or may not be used
2. the attenuation information from adjacent detector arras may be added together to generate thicker slices
3. the size of the detector arrays along the z-direction may be different

Explanation

Multi-row detector CT scanners have multiple detector arrays, and all of these arrays may or may not be used depending on the specific scanning requirements. Additionally, the attenuation information from adjacent detector arrays can be added together to generate thicker slices, allowing for better visualization of structures. Furthermore, the size of the detector arrays along the z-direction may be different, providing flexibility in scanning different anatomical regions. Therefore, all of the statements mentioned in the options are true regarding multi-row detector CT scanners.

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97. If an image matrix has 360 rows and 360 columns, how many pixels are there in the image?

Explanation

# of Rows X # of columns = total # of pixels

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98. A smooth, or low-pass, reconstruction filter is typically NOT selected for a(n) _____exam.

Explanation

A smooth, or low-pass, reconstruction filter is typically not selected for an internal auditory canals exam because it is not necessary to filter out high-frequency noise or artifacts in this specific type of examination. The internal auditory canals are part of the ear and are responsible for transmitting sound and maintaining balance. Therefore, a smooth reconstruction filter, which is used to enhance low-frequency signals and remove high-frequency noise, is not needed for this particular exam.

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99. Which of the following statements is TRUE if the patient history was taken at the time of scheduling?
1. a claustrophobic patient can arrive for the scan prepared with a prescription sedative
2. if it has been determined that the patient has no prior illnesses or conditions, monitoring is unnecessary
3. time can be saved the day of the exam by skipping the screening process

Explanation

If the patient history was taken at the time of scheduling, it means that the medical staff already knows that the patient is claustrophobic. Therefore, the patient can arrive for the scan prepared with a prescription sedative to help them manage their anxiety during the procedure. This is the only statement that is true in this context.

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100. CPR must me administered to a cardiac arrest victim within a maximum of _____ minute(s) before there is a risk of brain damage.

Explanation

CPR must be administered to a cardiac arrest victim within a maximum of 4 minutes before there is a risk of brain damage. When the heart stops pumping blood, the brain is deprived of oxygen, and brain cells can start to die within minutes. CPR helps to maintain blood flow and deliver oxygen to the brain until professional medical help arrives. The sooner CPR is started, the better the chances of preventing brain damage and increasing the chances of survival.

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101. Making up the ARRT Standard of Ethics are the Code of Ethics, which is _____, and the Rules of Ethics, which are _____.

Explanation

The ARRT Standard of Ethics is made up of two components: the Code of Ethics and the Rules of Ethics. The Code of Ethics serves as a conduct guideline, providing principles and standards that radiologic technologists should adhere to in their professional practice. The Rules of Ethics, on the other hand, are enforceable regulations that further specify the expectations and requirements for ethical behavior. Together, these two components form a comprehensive framework for maintaining ethical standards in the field of radiologic technology.

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102. Exams to rule out _____ would indicate the use of IV contrast media in the chest.
1. aortic dissection
2. hilar mass
3. lymphoma

Explanation

Exams to rule out aortic dissection, hilar mass, and lymphoma would indicate the use of IV contrast media in the chest. This means that all three conditions require imaging exams that involve the administration of IV contrast media to help visualize and identify any abnormalities or potential diseases in the chest area. Therefore, all of the above options (1, 2, and 3) are correct as they all require the use of IV contrast media for diagnosis.

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103. An indication for IV contrast injection is to rule out:

Explanation

An indication for IV contrast injection is to rule out meningioma. Meningioma is a type of brain tumor that arises from the meninges, the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. IV contrast injection is often used in imaging tests such as CT scans or MRI scans to enhance the visibility of certain structures or abnormalities, including tumors. By injecting contrast dye into the bloodstream, the tumor can be better visualized and distinguished from other conditions such as Grave's disease, mastoiditis, or sinusitis.

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104. When a contrast agent is injected directly into the joint space it is known as _____ contrast.

Explanation

When a contrast agent is injected directly into the joint space, it is known as intraarticular contrast. This method is commonly used in medical imaging, such as arthrography, to enhance the visibility of structures within the joint. By injecting the contrast agent into the joint, it allows for better visualization and evaluation of the joint and surrounding structures, helping to diagnose and treat various joint-related conditions.

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105. Which of the following window settings provides the best tissue differentiation of the soft tissues of the abdomen?

Explanation

A window setting with a wider window width allows for a greater range of Hounsfield units to be displayed. This means that more shades of gray can be seen, providing better tissue differentiation. The window level determines the midpoint of the range, with higher values shifting the range towards brighter shades and lower values shifting it towards darker shades. In this case, a window width of 300 and a window level of 40 would provide a good balance between a wide range of gray shades and a midpoint that is suitable for differentiating soft tissues in the abdomen.

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106. Which of the following is TRUE regarding barium sulfate solutions used in CT?

Explanation

Barium sulfate solutions used in CT are less concentrated than those used in conventional radiography. This is because in CT, the goal is to enhance the contrast between different tissues and structures in the body, while minimizing the radiation dose to the patient. Therefore, a lower concentration of barium sulfate is used in CT to achieve the desired contrast without overexposing the patient to radiation. In conventional radiography, higher concentrations of barium sulfate may be used to obtain clearer images.

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107. The number of electrons that flow from the cathode to the anode in the tube is controlled by the:

Explanation

The number of electrons that flow from the cathode to the anode in the tube is controlled by the milliamperage (mA). The milliamperage determines the strength of the current passing through the tube, which directly affects the number of electrons flowing. Higher milliamperage results in more electrons flowing, while lower milliamperage reduces the number of electrons. Therefore, the correct answer is mA.

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108. Which of the following is TRUE regarding solid state detectors?
1. they are the detector type used on most CT scanners today
2. they can be used in both third-generation and fourth-generation CT systems
3. x-ray photons cause the detectors to generate a flash of light

Explanation

Solid state detectors are the detector type used on most CT scanners today, making statement 1 true. They can be used in both third-generation and fourth-generation CT systems, making statement 2 true. X-ray photons cause the detectors to generate a flash of light, making statement 3 true. Therefore, all the statements are true, making the correct answer "all the above".

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109. The patient table:

Explanation

During a scan, the patient table may move continuously. This movement is necessary to ensure that each slice of the scan is completed accurately. However, once the initial positioning is done, the table remains stationary throughout the entire patient exam. The continuous movement of the table allows for a thorough and precise scan, while the stationary position afterwards ensures patient safety and stability.

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110. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
1. the amplified electrical signal obtained from the detectors must be digitized
2. digital CT images are numerical representations of cross-sectional anatomy
3. digital signals may be formed by sampling analog signals at discrete time intervals

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above". This means that all three statements are true. Statement 1 states that the amplified electrical signal obtained from the detectors must be digitized, which is true because digital CT scanners convert analog signals into digital form for processing. Statement 2 states that digital CT images are numerical representations of cross-sectional anatomy, which is true because digital CT scanners produce images by collecting numerical data from multiple cross-sectional slices. Statement 3 states that digital signals may be formed by sampling analog signals at discrete time intervals, which is true because digital signals are created by taking discrete samples of an analog signal at specific time intervals.

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111. Which of the following would not enhance during the first several minutes of a post-contrast CT study of the neck?

Explanation

During a post-contrast CT study of the neck, the administration of contrast agent enhances the visibility of blood vessels and lesions due to increased blood flow and vascularity. However, lymph nodes do not enhance significantly during this study because they lack a high vascularity compared to blood vessels and lesions. Therefore, lymph nodes would not enhance during the first several minutes of a post-contrast CT study of the neck.

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112. Which of the following is NOT a typical adverse reaction to oral contrast media used in CT?

Explanation

Hives are not a typical adverse reaction to oral contrast media used in CT. Oral contrast media can cause adverse reactions such as abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and flatulence. However, hives, which are itchy, raised welts on the skin, are not commonly associated with the use of oral contrast media.

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113. In all states, patients are required by law to sign consent forms for the following reason:

Explanation

The correct answer is that signed consent forms are not required by law in every state. This means that there are some states where it is not legally mandatory for patients to sign consent forms. The other options listed (permission to administer contrast, permission to perform surgical procedure, permission to administer sedation) are not the correct answer because they do not address the requirement of signed consent forms in every state.

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114. __________ is the mathematical process used by single-row detectors scanners to reconstruct CT images from raw data.

Explanation

Filtered back projection is the mathematical process used by single-row detectors scanners to reconstruct CT images from raw data. This technique involves filtering the raw data and then back projecting it onto the image plane to create a two-dimensional image. It is a commonly used method in CT imaging as it allows for the reconstruction of high-quality images by accounting for the attenuation of X-ray beams as they pass through the body. The other options, integration of the area under the curve, the Fourier transform, and weighted averaging, are not the specific processes used in CT image reconstruction.

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115. On a conventional, or serial, CT scan, if we want 5 mm slices with 1 mm of overlap, the table increment should be _____ mm.

Explanation

In order to obtain 5 mm slices with 1 mm of overlap on a conventional CT scan, the table increment should be 4 mm. This means that after each slice is taken, the table would move 4 mm to position the next slice for imaging. This allows for the desired overlap between slices and ensures that the entire region of interest is captured accurately.

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116. The service engineer should be notified about which of the following?
1. a consistent circle on the images
2. frequent bad streaks on the inferior slices of head scans
3. frequent bad streaks throughout the entire image

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 & 3. This means that the service engineer should be notified about both a consistent circle on the images (option 1) and frequent bad streaks throughout the entire image (option 3). These issues could indicate a problem with the imaging equipment that needs to be addressed by the service engineer. Option 2, which refers to frequent bad streaks on the inferior slices of head scans, is not mentioned as something that should be brought to the service engineer's attention.

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117. A(n) _____ artifact is a streak artifact which arises from a high spatial frequency interface between tissues with a great difference in density.

Explanation

An edge gradient artifact is a streak artifact that occurs when there is a high spatial frequency interface between tissues with a significant difference in density. This artifact is caused by the abrupt change in density at the tissue interface, resulting in streaks or lines on the image.

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118. The enormous heat that builds up in the CT tube is caused by the:

Explanation

The correct answer is the collision of the electron beam with the tungsten target on the tube anode. When the electron beam strikes the tungsten target, it transfers its kinetic energy to the target, causing it to heat up. This heat is then dissipated through the CT tube, resulting in the enormous heat buildup.

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119. Which of the following would display the greatest amount of partial volume artifact?

Explanation

A 10 mm slice from a 20 slice study would display the greatest amount of partial volume artifact. This is because a thicker slice (10 mm) has a higher chance of including multiple tissues with different densities within it, leading to partial volume averaging. Additionally, a 20 slice study may not have enough slices to adequately capture the details of the anatomy, resulting in more pronounced partial volume artifacts.

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120. Which of the following window settings provides the best tissue differentiation within the liver?

Explanation

A window width of 140 and a window level of 60 provide the best tissue differentiation within the liver. A narrower window width allows for better contrast between different densities of tissues, while a higher window level helps to highlight the specific range of densities within the liver. This combination allows for optimal visualization and differentiation of liver tissue.

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121. Which technology do multi-row detector scanners employ?

Explanation

Multi-row detector scanners employ third-generation technology.

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122. In a _____, the highest pixel values from a stack of CTA images are projected along many "rays".

Explanation

MIP stands for Maximum Intensity Projection. In this technique, the highest pixel values from a stack of CTA (Computed Tomography Angiography) images are projected along many "rays". This allows for the visualization of the blood vessels and other structures with the highest intensity, providing a clearer and more detailed image.

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123. If a reconstruction FOV of 32 cm and a 512 x 512 matrix are used, the pixel size is _____ mm.

Explanation

Pixel size = reconstruction FOV/matrix. Pixel size =320 mm/512.

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124. Which of the following does NOT minimize the radiation dose to the patient?

Explanation

Decreasing the distance from the x-ray tube to the patient actually increases the radiation dose to the patient. The closer the patient is to the x-ray tube, the higher the radiation dose received. Therefore, decreasing the distance does not minimize the radiation dose to the patient.

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125. Why is the cephalic vein a less desirable site for injection than the basilic vein?

Explanation

The cephalic vein is a less desirable site for injection than the basilic vein because the flow of blood may be impeded when the patient's arms are raised. This can make it difficult to administer medication or draw blood effectively. In contrast, the basilic vein is not affected by arm movement, making it a more suitable choice for injections.

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126. Which of the following would reduce the partial volume effect?

Explanation

Decreasing the slice thickness would reduce the partial volume effect. The partial volume effect occurs when a voxel contains a mixture of different tissues, causing blurring and loss of detail in the image. By decreasing the slice thickness, the voxel size becomes smaller, reducing the likelihood of containing multiple tissues and improving spatial resolution. This allows for better differentiation and visualization of structures, reducing the partial volume effect.

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127. Barium sulfate oral contrast media would be selected instead of iodinated oral contrast media because:
1. it passes through the GI tract quicker
2. the contrast media stays more dense in the distal GI tract
3. the trauma patient may have a perforated bowel

Explanation

Barium sulfate oral contrast media would be selected instead of iodinated oral contrast media because it stays more dense in the distal GI tract. This means that it provides better visualization of the lower gastrointestinal tract, allowing for more accurate diagnosis of any abnormalities or conditions in that area. Additionally, the use of barium sulfate may be preferred in trauma patients who may have a perforated bowel, as it is less likely to leak into the abdominal cavity compared to iodinated contrast media.

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128. The smallest object that can be resolved if a reconstruction FOV of 24 cm and a 512 x 512 matrix are used is _____ mm.

Explanation

Spatial resolution is a measure of the smallest objects able to be resolved. Spatial resolution = FOV/matrix. Spatial resolution = 240 mm/512.

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129. A normal pulse rate for an infant is _____ BPM.

Explanation

infant = 100 - 180
child = 95 - 110
adult = 70 - 100
athletic adult = 45 - 60

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130. The definition of osmolality is the ________ the contrast agent solution.

Explanation

Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of molecular particles in a solution. It quantifies the number of solute particles present in a unit of solvent, regardless of their size or charge. This measurement is important in medical and biological fields as it helps determine the osmotic pressure and the effects of a solution on cells and tissues.

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131. What is the appropriate care to give to a patient with diabetes?
1. if IV contrast media is required, use LOCM
2. if the patient is using Metformin, advise them to resume its use 48 hours after IV contrast administration only after kidney function has been reassessed and determined to be normal
3. if the patient is using Metformin, advise them to stop its use 48 hours before IV contrast is administered

Explanation

The appropriate care to give to a patient with diabetes includes using LOCM if IV contrast media is required and advising the patient to resume the use of Metformin 48 hours after IV contrast administration only after kidney function has been reassessed and determined to be normal. This ensures that the patient's kidney function is not compromised and that the use of Metformin is safe.

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132. Which of the following is the typical scan delay after the initiation of injection of contrast media for studies of the liver?

Explanation

The typical scan delay after the initiation of injection of contrast media for studies of the liver is 65 to 75 seconds. This delay allows the contrast media to circulate through the liver and enhance the visualization of the blood vessels and liver parenchyma. It gives enough time for the contrast to reach the desired concentration in the liver, ensuring optimal image quality for diagnostic purposes.

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133. Collimation:

Explanation

Collimation is the process of narrowing down the beam of x-rays to a specific area of interest. This is typically achieved by physically blocking the x-rays using collimators, which are devices that have lead plates with small apertures. These lead plates absorb or block the x-rays that are not needed for the scan, resulting in a more focused and accurate image. By physically blocking the x-rays, collimation helps to reduce scatter radiation and improve image quality. It does not involve electrically blocking x-rays or limiting the energy of the photons.

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134. Most of the commands from the technologist are received by the:

Explanation

The correct answer is the operator's console. The operator's console is where most of the commands from the technologist are received. This is where the technologist interacts with the system and inputs commands for various operations. The operator's console acts as a control panel for the technologist to monitor and manage the system effectively.

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135. Which of the following is a reconstruction technique applied to the raw data after the primary reconstruction has already been accomplished?

Explanation

Retrospective reconstruction is a technique applied to the raw data after the primary reconstruction has already been accomplished. It allows for additional image manipulations and adjustments to be made, such as changing the slice thickness or orientation, without having to acquire new data. This technique is often used in medical imaging to improve the quality and diagnostic value of the images.

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136. If the radiologist requires 2 mm thick contiguous slices through the pituitary, and 2.4 cm of coverage, How many slices are necessary?

Explanation

2.4cm = 24mm/2 mm slice thickness = 12 slices

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137. Which of the following is the order in which the phases of IV contrast enhancement occur?

Explanation

The correct answer is "bolus, non-equilibrium, equilibrium." This is the correct order in which the phases of IV contrast enhancement occur. First, the contrast agent is injected as a bolus, which quickly fills the blood vessels. Then, the non-equilibrium phase occurs, where the contrast agent is distributed throughout the body and organs. Finally, the equilibrium phase is reached, where the contrast agent is evenly distributed and the concentration remains constant.

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138. Which of the following may occur if the patient's arms are placed at their sides during a chest exam if the scan field-of-view is 33 cm?
1. beam hardening
2. cone beam artifact
3. out-of-field artifact

Explanation

If the patient's arms are placed at their sides during a chest exam with a scan field-of-view of 33 cm, two possible occurrences may happen. The first is beam hardening, which is a type of artifact caused by the attenuation of the X-ray beam as it passes through different materials. This can result in streaks or dark bands on the image. The second occurrence is an out-of-field artifact, which happens when the area outside the scan field-of-view affects the image quality. This can include structures or objects that are not within the intended area of examination.

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139. Which of the following is a common patient reaction to IV contrast media?
1. warmth at the injection site
2. headache
3. nausea

Explanation

A common patient reaction to IV contrast media includes warmth at the injection site, headache, and nausea. These symptoms are often experienced by patients after receiving IV contrast media.

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140. An increase in _____ will result in hardening of an x-ray beam.
1. kVp
2. tissue density
3. tissue thickness

Explanation

An increase in kVp will result in hardening of an x-ray beam because higher kVp values lead to higher energy photons, which can penetrate tissues more effectively. Similarly, an increase in tissue density will result in hardening of the x-ray beam because denser tissues attenuate the beam less, allowing more photons to reach the detector. Additionally, an increase in tissue thickness will also result in hardening of the x-ray beam because thicker tissues attenuate the beam more, reducing the number of photons that reach the detector. Therefore, all of the given options (1, 2, and 3) contribute to the hardening of an x-ray beam.

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141. X-ray photons are produced by a fast moving electron:
1. colliding with an atomic nucleus
2. colliding with an electron within an atom and ejecting it
3. passing close to an atomic nucleus

Explanation

X-ray photons can be produced through all three mechanisms mentioned. When a fast-moving electron collides with an atomic nucleus, it can cause the emission of X-ray photons. Similarly, when a fast-moving electron collides with an electron within an atom and ejects it, X-ray photons can be generated. Finally, when a fast-moving electron passes close to an atomic nucleus, it can also result in the production of X-ray photons. Therefore, all three options are correct and contribute to the generation of X-ray photons.

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142. __________ made helical imaging possible.

Explanation

Continuous rotation scanners made helical imaging possible. Helical imaging is a technique where the scanner rotates continuously while the patient is moved through the gantry. This allows for the acquisition of volumetric data in a single continuous scan, eliminating the need for multiple individual scans. Continuous rotation scanners provide a more efficient and faster imaging process, resulting in improved image quality and reduced patient discomfort. This advancement in technology revolutionized the field of medical imaging, enabling better diagnostics and treatment planning.

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143. Increased _____ will increase the likelihood that a given x-ray will penetrate a material.
1. exposure time
2. kV
3. mA

Explanation

Increasing the kV (kilovoltage) will increase the likelihood that a given x-ray will penetrate a material. This is because the kV determines the energy of the x-ray beam. Higher energy x-rays are more penetrating and can pass through thicker or denser materials. Therefore, increasing the kV will increase the chances of the x-ray beam being able to penetrate the material.

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144. CTA images come from a _____ scan.
1. conventional, or serial
2. helical
3. localizer

Explanation

CTA images come from a helical scan. A helical scan is a technique used in computed tomography (CT) imaging where the X-ray tube continuously rotates around the patient while the patient is simultaneously moved through the scanner. This allows for a continuous spiral acquisition of data, resulting in high-quality images with improved spatial resolution and reduced motion artifacts. Conventional or serial scans do not involve continuous rotation and localizer scans are used to determine the position and orientation of the patient, but they do not generate the actual CTA images.

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145. Which of the following parameters causes helical slices to be reconstructed so they overlap?

Explanation

The reconstruction interval parameter causes helical slices to be reconstructed so they overlap. This parameter determines the distance between each reconstructed slice. If the reconstruction interval is smaller than the pitch, the slices will overlap, resulting in a helical or spiral pattern.

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146. To best visualize the stomach wall, which of the following should the patient drink last?
1. barium sulfate oral contrast
2. iodinated oral contrast media
3. water

Explanation

To best visualize the stomach wall, the patient should drink water last. This is because water does not interfere with the imaging process and does not create any artifacts or obstructions. Barium sulfate oral contrast and iodinated oral contrast media are used to enhance the visibility of certain structures in the stomach, but they should be consumed before water to ensure a clear and accurate visualization of the stomach wall.

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147. Which of the following could allow for a reduction of partial volume artifact while not increasing the appearance of the noise in the image?

Explanation

Decreasing slice thickness while increasing mAs could allow for a reduction of partial volume artifact. Partial volume artifact occurs when an object is larger than the slice thickness, causing it to appear blurred or distorted in the image. By decreasing the slice thickness, the object can be better represented and the artifact reduced. Increasing mAs (milliampere-seconds) helps to increase the signal-to-noise ratio, which means that the image will have less noise without increasing the appearance of noise. Therefore, this combination of decreasing slice thickness and increasing mAs can help reduce partial volume artifact without increasing the appearance of noise in the image.

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148. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a helical study compared to a conventional, serial CT study?

Explanation

A helical study offers the advantage of being able to retrospectively reconstruct a slice at any arbitrary position, minimizing anatomical misregistration caused by inconsistent breath holding, and shorter total exam time. However, it does not offer the best image quality for a brain exam.

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149. Which of the following is common to both a localizer scan and a conventional, serial CT scan?

Explanation

Both a localizer scan and a conventional, serial CT scan produce digital images. This means that the images are captured and stored in a digital format, allowing for easy manipulation, analysis, and sharing of the images. Digital images also have the advantage of being easily accessible and can be viewed on various devices, making them convenient for medical professionals to review and interpret.

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150. Which of the following is NOT directly proportional to mAs?

Explanation

The mean energy of the x-ray photons leaving the tube is not directly proportional to mAs because mAs is a measure of the total amount of radiation delivered, while the mean energy of the x-ray photons is related to the quality or penetrating power of the radiation. Increasing the mAs will result in more x-ray photons being produced, but it does not necessarily change the average energy of those photons.

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151. On a multi-row detector scanner, a radiation penumbra may be found:

Explanation

A radiation penumbra refers to the blurring or smearing effect that occurs at the edges of an image produced by a scanner. In the case of a multi-row detector scanner, this penumbra is only present on the first and last slices of the slice volume. This is because the radiation beams used to create the image overlap slightly, causing a blurring effect at the edges of the slices. However, on the other slices in between, the overlap is not present, resulting in a sharper image without the penumbra.

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152. A blood urea nitrogen level of _____ mg/dl is considered outside the normal range.
1. 10
2. 18
3. 32

Explanation

The normally accepted range for BUN is 5 - 25 mg/dl.

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153. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
1. pulse oximeters are allowed in the CT suite
2. respirators are not allowed in the CT suite
3. the patient should be removed from the CT suite to treat cardiac arrest

Explanation

Pulse oximeters are allowed in the CT suite. This means that it is permissible to use pulse oximeters in the CT suite for monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation levels.

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154.  Which the following is NOT contained within the mediastinum?

Explanation

The mediastinum includes the heart, the origins of the great vessels, the trachea, the bronchi, the esophagus, the thymus, lymph nodes, the thoracic duct, and the phrenic and vagus nerves.

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155. Which of the following are NOT commonly used on today's commercially available CT scanners?
1. continuous rotation technology
2. fourth-generation technology
3. xenon detectors

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 & 3. Fourth-generation technology and xenon detectors are not commonly used on today's commercially available CT scanners. Continuous rotation technology, on the other hand, is commonly used in modern CT scanners.

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156. The actual attenuation data measured by the detectors from all projections during a scan is contained in CT _____ data.
1. convolved
2. image
3. raw

Explanation

The correct answer is 3 only. In CT imaging, the actual attenuation data measured by the detectors from all projections during a scan is contained in raw data. This raw data is then processed to generate an image. Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer as it accurately describes the type of data that contains the measured attenuation values.

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157. 3D shaded surface displays are performed on CT:
1. attenuation profiles
2. image data
3. raw data

Explanation

3D shaded surface displays are performed on image data. This means that the shading and highlighting effects are applied to the image data to create a three-dimensional representation of the object or structure being imaged. Attenuation profiles and raw data are not directly used in creating the shaded surface displays.

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158. A kernel is a:

Explanation

A kernel is a filter applied to the CT raw data. In computed tomography (CT), raw data is acquired by the scanner in the form of x-ray attenuation measurements. This raw data is then processed using various filters, including kernels, to enhance image quality and reduce noise. Kernels are mathematical algorithms that modify the raw data by selectively amplifying or attenuating certain frequencies or structures. This filtering process helps to improve image sharpness, contrast, and overall diagnostic accuracy in CT imaging.

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159. Increasing _____ results in lowering the patient dose.
            1. pitch             2. mAs             3. table increment

Explanation

Increasing pitch and table increment both result in lowering the patient dose. Increasing pitch refers to increasing the distance between each scan line, which reduces the amount of radiation exposure to the patient. Table increment refers to the distance the table moves between each scan, and increasing this distance also reduces the amount of radiation exposure. Therefore, both increasing pitch and table increment help to lower the patient dose.

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160. Which of the following parameters allows adjacent slices to be overlapped without increasing the dose to the patient?

Explanation

The reconstruction interval refers to the spacing between the slices that are reconstructed from the acquired data. By increasing the reconstruction interval, adjacent slices can be overlapped without increasing the dose to the patient. This means that there is an overlap in the region where the slices are reconstructed, allowing for a smoother transition between the slices without the need for additional radiation exposure.

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161. For x-ray radiation, which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

The answer 1 rem = 1 rad is true because rem (roentgen equivalent man) and rad (radiation absorbed dose) are both units used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed by a person or object. They are often used interchangeably, with 1 rem being equal to 1 rad. Therefore, the statement is true.

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162. A creatinine level of 3.1 mg/dl indicates the:
1. kidneys are not removing waste products from the urine
2. patient is not a good candidate to receive IV contrast media
3. value is below the normal range

Explanation

A creatinine level of 3.1 mg/dl indicates that the patient is not a good candidate to receive IV contrast media. This is because a high creatinine level suggests that the kidneys are not functioning properly and may not be able to filter out the contrast media effectively, potentially leading to complications. The other options are not applicable because a high creatinine level does not necessarily mean that waste products are not being removed from the urine, and it is not below the normal range.

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163. How would the artifact from a faulty detector element appear on a localizer image?

Explanation

When a detector element is faulty, it can result in a line artifact on the localizer image that is parallel to the long axis of the patient table. This means that the line will be oriented in the same direction as the table, rather than being perpendicular or appearing as a circle in the center of the image.

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164. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
1. kV is the voltage potential between the tube cathode and anode while mA ultimately controls the filament current and, thus, the temperature of the cathode filament
2. kV controls the energy level of the x-ray photons and mA controls the number of x-ray photons emitted from the tube
3. although the kV and th mA affect the operation of the CT x-ray tube, the two parameters have no bearing on the image quality

Explanation

Statement 1 is true because kV is the voltage potential between the tube cathode and anode, which affects the temperature of the cathode filament. Statement 2 is also true because kV controls the energy level of the x-ray photons, while mA controls the number of x-ray photons emitted from the tube. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are true.

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165. Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of shock?

Explanation

Convulsive seizures are not a typical indication of shock. Shock is a condition characterized by inadequate blood flow to the body's tissues and organs, resulting in a decrease in oxygen and nutrient supply. Typical indications of shock include pale or grayish skin tone, low blood pressure (hypotension), and a rapid heartbeat (tachycardia). Convulsive seizures, on the other hand, are involuntary muscle contractions caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain and are not directly related to shock.

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166. For which of the following conditions of the brain should IV contrast NOT be administered?

Explanation

IV contrast should not be administered for suspected atrophy of the brain because contrast agents are typically used to enhance the visibility of blood vessels and abnormal tissue in imaging studies. In the case of suspected atrophy, there is no need to enhance the visibility of the brain tissue as atrophy refers to the shrinkage or loss of brain cells, which would not be affected by the use of contrast agents. Therefore, administering IV contrast in this situation would not provide any additional diagnostic information and may unnecessarily expose the patient to potential risks associated with contrast agents.

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167. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the lobes of the liver?
1. the caudate lobe is more medial than the right lobe
2. the left lobe is more anterior than the caudate lobe
3. the left lobe is more anterior than the right lobe

Explanation

The statement "all of the above" is the correct answer because it includes all three statements mentioned in the question. Statement 1 states that the caudate lobe is more medial than the right lobe, which is true. Statement 2 states that the left lobe is more anterior than the caudate lobe, which is also true. Statement 3 states that the left lobe is more anterior than the right lobe, which is again true. Therefore, all three statements are true, making "all of the above" the correct answer.

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168. What is the range of anatomy that should be covered for examination of one intervertebral disk space?

Explanation

The range of anatomy that should be covered for examination of one intervertebral disk space is from the pedicle of the vertebra above the disk to the pedicle of the vertebra below the disk. This means that the examination should include the structures surrounding and connecting the vertebrae, specifically the pedicles, which are bony projections that connect the vertebral body to the rest of the vertebra. By examining this range, a comprehensive evaluation of the intervertebral disk space can be achieved.

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169. For a CT scan of the spleen, which of the following is typically used?

Explanation

For a CT scan of the spleen, both oral and IV contrast media are typically used. This is because the spleen is a highly vascular organ, and the use of both types of contrast media helps to enhance the visibility of the spleen and surrounding structures. IV contrast media is administered intravenously, allowing it to circulate throughout the bloodstream and highlight the blood vessels within the spleen. Oral contrast media is ingested orally, and it helps to outline the gastrointestinal tract, making it easier to differentiate the spleen from other abdominal organs.

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170. Which of the following does NOT affect the quantity of x-rays that completely penetrates the patient?
1. the type of detector material used
2. the molecular composition of the tissues through which the x-ray photons pass
3. the distance that the x-ray photons must travel on their course through the patient's body

Explanation

The type of detector material used does not affect the quantity of x-rays that completely penetrates the patient. The detector material is responsible for capturing and measuring the x-ray photons that pass through the patient's body, but it does not affect the actual penetration of the x-rays themselves. The quantity of x-rays that completely penetrates the patient is primarily determined by the molecular composition of the tissues through which the x-ray photons pass and the distance that the x-ray photons must travel on their course through the patient's body.

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171. Which of the following utilizes convolution?
1. 3D SSD
2. filtered back projection
3. Fourier transform

Explanation

Filtered back projection is the only option that utilizes convolution. Convolution is a mathematical operation that combines two functions to produce a third function representing the amount of overlap between them. In the case of filtered back projection, it is used to reconstruct an image from its projections by convolving the projections with a filter kernel. This process helps to enhance image quality and reduce artifacts. On the other hand, 3D SSD and Fourier transform do not involve convolution in their operations.

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172. MDCT scanners capable of collecting 64 slices in a single rotation do NOT:

Explanation

MDCT scanners capable of collecting 64 slices in a single rotation do not use filtered back projection as their method of image reconstruction. Filtered back projection is an older technique that reconstructs images by back projecting the data and applying a filter to improve image quality. However, modern MDCT scanners use more advanced methods such as iterative reconstruction algorithms, which provide better image quality and reduce radiation dose. Therefore, these scanners do not rely on filtered back projection for image reconstruction.

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173. A CT study of the brain to visualize MS plaques may be made more sensitive by using _____ delay after the contrast agent has been injected.

Explanation

A CT study of the brain to visualize MS plaques may be made more sensitive by using a 45-minute delay after the contrast agent has been injected. This longer delay allows for better visualization of the plaques as the contrast agent has more time to circulate and accumulate in the areas of abnormality.

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174. Which of the following are possible results of partial voluming?
1. improvement in resolution
2. misleading CT numbers
3. decreased sharpness of edges

Explanation

Partial voluming occurs when more than one tissue is contained within a voxel and the attenuation values of the tissues are averaged together to determine the final CT number. It can blur edges between tissues if the edges fall within a voxel.

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175. A delay of about _____ seconds after the start of the IV contrast injection should be used for a helical scan of the neck.

Explanation

For a helical scan of the neck, a delay of about 35 seconds after the start of the IV contrast injection should be used. This delay allows the contrast to circulate through the blood vessels and enhance the visibility of the neck structures during the scan. A shorter delay may result in insufficient contrast enhancement, while a longer delay may lead to excessive contrast dispersion and reduced image quality. Therefore, 35 seconds is the optimal delay for a helical scan of the neck.

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176. Which of the following is FALSE regarding CT systems?
1. they are limited to non-oblique transverse scanning
2. they cannot generate a straight coronal or sagittal image
3. they have no moving parts

Explanation

CT systems are not limited to non-oblique transverse scanning. They can generate images in various planes, including coronal and sagittal. Additionally, CT systems do have moving parts, such as the rotating gantry and the patient table. Therefore, all of the statements given in the options are false.

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177. The CT x-ray tube rotates around the patient to:
1. generate projection views at different angles
2. keep the tube cool
3. minimize the x-ray dose administered to the patient

Explanation

The CT x-ray tube rotates around the patient to generate projection views at different angles. This allows for a more comprehensive and detailed image of the patient's internal structures. By capturing images from different angles, it is possible to create a three-dimensional representation of the patient's body. The rotation of the tube helps to capture images from various perspectives, enhancing the diagnostic capabilities of the CT scan.

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178. Contrast agents containing barium sulfate:
1. enhance structures because they are absorbed into the blood stream
2. enhance structures because they are absorbed through the small intestine
3. pass through the GI tract unchanged

Explanation

Contrast agents containing barium sulfate pass through the GI tract unchanged. This means that they are not absorbed into the blood stream or through the small intestine. Instead, they remain in the gastrointestinal tract, allowing for better visualization of the structures in that area during medical imaging procedures.

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179. _____ in the image is a possible manifestation of patient motion.
1. Blurring
2. Ghosting
3. Streaks

Explanation

Blurring, ghosting, and streaks in the image can all be possible manifestations of patient motion. Blurring occurs when the patient moves during the image acquisition, resulting in a loss of sharpness and clarity. Ghosting refers to the appearance of faint, transparent duplicates of the patient's anatomy, which can be caused by slight movement. Streaks can occur when the patient moves in a linear direction, causing streak-like artifacts in the image. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, and 3) can be correct in this case.

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180. Which of the following strategies would NOT help us differentiate possible pathology from a partial volume artifact?
1. collect additional thinner slices through suspicious region
2. inspection of adjacent slices
3. rescan and decrease pitch, without changing slice thickness

Explanation

Decreasing the pitch without changing the slice thickness would not help differentiate possible pathology from a partial volume artifact. The pitch refers to the distance between consecutive slices during scanning. By decreasing the pitch, the slices would be closer together, but this would not affect the slice thickness. Pathology and partial volume artifacts can both appear as abnormalities on an image, so changing the pitch alone would not provide additional information to differentiate between the two. Collecting additional thinner slices and inspecting adjacent slices, on the other hand, can provide more detailed information about the suspicious region and help differentiate between pathology and artifacts.

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181. In order to generate a 3D shaded surface rendering of the hips, the _____ data is used directly by the 3D reconstruction software.

Explanation

The correct answer is "image". In order to generate a 3D shaded surface rendering of the hips, the image data is used directly by the 3D reconstruction software. This means that the software takes the information from the image and uses it to create a three-dimensional representation of the hips, with shading and depth. The image data contains the necessary information for the software to accurately reconstruct the 3D model.

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182. Which of the following may occur during the interscan delay of a conventional, or serial, CT scan performed on a continuous rotation scanner?
1. the table position is incremented
2. the tube assembly makes a 360 degree rotation
3. the tube continues to rotate in the same direction as during the scan

Explanation

During the interscan delay of a conventional CT scan performed on a continuous rotation scanner, all of the following may occur:
1. The table position is incremented, meaning that the patient is moved slightly to the next position for the next scan slice.
2. The tube assembly makes a 360-degree rotation, allowing for a complete revolution of the X-ray source around the patient.
3. The tube continues to rotate in the same direction as during the scan, ensuring that the X-ray beam remains consistent and aligned with the detectors.

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183. The x-ray beam used in CT scanning is _____ the patient's tissues.
1. attenuated by
2. generated by
3. reflected off of

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 only because the x-ray beam used in CT scanning is attenuated by the patient's tissues. Attenuation refers to the reduction in intensity of the x-ray beam as it passes through the body. This attenuation is caused by the absorption and scattering of the x-ray photons by the different tissues in the body, which allows for the creation of detailed images in CT scans. The other options, generated by and reflected off of, do not accurately describe the interaction of the x-ray beam with the patient's tissues in CT scanning.

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184. Which of the following occurs when slice thickness is reduced?             1. appearance of noise in the image increases             2. partial volume averaging decreases             3. the number of photons used in making the slice decreases  

Explanation

When slice thickness is reduced, several changes occur. Firstly, the appearance of noise in the image increases, meaning that the image becomes more grainy and less clear. Secondly, partial volume averaging decreases, which means that the blurring effect caused by overlapping structures is reduced. Lastly, the number of photons used in making the slice decreases, leading to a decrease in the overall image quality. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.

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185. How would we expect metal to affect the appearance of a localizer image?

Explanation

Metal objects in a localizer image are expected to be represented by high CT numbers, as metal has a high density compared to other tissues. This means that the metal object will appear brighter or whiter in the image. Additionally, there will be no streaks emanating from the metal object, as streak artifacts typically occur when there is a large density difference between the metal object and the surrounding tissues. Therefore, the correct answer is that the metal object will be represented by high CT numbers and there will be no streaks.

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186. Which scanning plane is best for evaluating the anatomical relationship between the pituitary and the sella turcica?

Explanation

Coronal images should be either directly acquired or reconstructed from the helical images using thin slices of about 1-2mm and should extend from the anterior clinoid through the dorsum sella.

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187. CT numbers _____ would appear black if a window width of 400 and a window level of -100 are used.

Explanation

If CT numbers are below -300 and a window width of 400 and a window level of -100 are used, they would appear black. This is because the window width determines the range of CT numbers that will be displayed, and the window level determines the midpoint of that range. In this case, the window width of 400 is wider than the range of CT numbers below -300, so all CT numbers below -300 would fall outside the range and appear black.

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188. Which of the following parameters affects the contrast of a CT image?

Explanation

kVp stands for kilovolt peak and it is a parameter that affects the contrast of a CT image. kVp determines the energy level of the X-ray beam used in CT imaging. Higher kVp values result in a greater penetration of the X-ray beam through the body, leading to a decrease in contrast. Lower kVp values result in increased contrast as there is less penetration of the X-ray beam. Therefore, kVp plays a significant role in determining the contrast of a CT image.

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189. On a single-row detector scanner, which of the following does NOT decrease the patient dose?

Explanation

Decreasing the slice thickness while covering the same anatomical region does not decrease the patient dose because it does not affect the amount of radiation exposure the patient receives. The slice thickness refers to the thickness of the image slices that are obtained during the scan, and reducing it does not change the amount of radiation used or the area being scanned. Therefore, it does not have an impact on the patient dose.

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190. Iodinated IV contrast agents perfuse normal:

Explanation

Iodinated IV contrast agents perfuse liver tissues because these agents are commonly used in medical imaging to enhance the visibility of blood vessels and organs. The liver is a highly vascular organ, meaning it has a rich blood supply, so when the contrast agent is injected into the bloodstream, it quickly reaches and perfuses the liver tissues. This allows for better visualization and evaluation of the liver during imaging procedures such as CT scans or angiograms.

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191. MIP images:

Explanation

MIP (Maximum Intensity Projection) images do not demonstrate detail beneath the brightest pixel. This means that when creating a MIP image, the brightest pixel in each column or row is selected, and only that pixel's intensity is shown in the final image. This technique is commonly used to visualize air-filled spaces, such as the lungs or gastrointestinal tract. However, it is important to note that MIP images may not accurately represent the entire volume of interest, as they only show the brightest pixels and do not provide detailed information about the structures or tissues beneath them.

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192. Multi-planar reconstructions are performed on which of the following?
1. attenuation profiles
2. image data
3. raw data

Explanation

Multi-planar reconstructions are performed on image data. This technique allows for the creation of images in different planes (such as axial, sagittal, and coronal) using the acquired image data. Attenuation profiles refer to the measurement of the reduction in intensity of a beam of radiation as it passes through a material, and raw data refers to the unprocessed data acquired during imaging. Therefore, multi-planar reconstructions are not performed on attenuation profiles or raw data.

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193. Which of the following is NOT a reason for using thinner slices in the posterior fossa compared with the more superior regions of the brain?
1. to decrease radiation dose to the patient
2. to improve spatial resolution
3. to reduce streak artifacts

Explanation

Thinner slices are used in the posterior fossa compared to the more superior regions of the brain in order to decrease radiation dose to the patient. Thinner slices allow for a more focused and targeted radiation dose, reducing the overall exposure to the patient. This is important in the posterior fossa, as it contains sensitive structures such as the brainstem and cranial nerves. Thinner slices also help to improve spatial resolution, allowing for better visualization of smaller structures. However, thinner slices do not directly contribute to reducing streak artifacts, which are caused by factors such as metallic objects or dense structures in the imaging field. Therefore, option 1 only is the correct answer.

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194. If we want to generate a diagnostic 3D surface reconstruction of the affected region of the cervical spine how should the scan be performed?

Explanation

To generate a diagnostic 3D surface reconstruction of the affected region of the cervical spine, the scan should be performed at a single angle through the affected region. This means that the imaging should be done from one specific perspective, capturing the entire affected region from that angle. This approach allows for a comprehensive and accurate reconstruction of the 3D surface of the cervical spine, providing valuable information for diagnostic purposes. Performing the scan at orthogonal orientations, at various angles through each affected disk space, or with fairly large gaps between the slices would not be suitable for generating a diagnostic 3D surface reconstruction.

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195. Which of the following is a possible manifestation of beam hardening?
1. CT number inaccuracies
2. cupping artifact
3. streaks in the image

Explanation

Beam hardening is a phenomenon that occurs in computed tomography (CT) imaging when the X-ray beam passing through an object is attenuated more by higher density materials than lower density materials. This causes the X-ray beam to become harder (more energetic) as it passes through the object. The possible manifestations of beam hardening include CT number inaccuracies, which refers to errors in the measurement of tissue density, cupping artifact, which appears as a darkening or brightening of the image near high-density structures, and streaks in the image, which are caused by the beam hardening effect. Therefore, all of the above options are possible manifestations of beam hardening.

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196. Which of the following affects the severity of metal artifacts?
1. the number of data sampling points
2. the quantity, composition and shape of the metal
3. the slice thickness

Explanation

The severity of metal artifacts is affected by multiple factors. The number of data sampling points can impact the accuracy and resolution of the image, which in turn affects the severity of metal artifacts. The quantity, composition, and shape of the metal also play a role as they can cause more distortion and scattering of the imaging signal. Additionally, the slice thickness can influence the appearance of metal artifacts, with thinner slices potentially reducing their severity. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to the severity of metal artifacts.

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197. A cone beam artifact may look like stars:

Explanation

Cone beam artifacts occur in cone beam computed tomography (CBCT) scans and can appear as streaks or star-shaped patterns. These artifacts are caused by the cone-shaped beam used in CBCT, which can lead to inaccuracies in the image reconstruction process. In this case, the artifact is specifically mentioned to be coming from structures around the edge of the image. This suggests that the artifact is originating from the outer boundaries of the scanned object, resulting in streaks or star-like patterns that extend towards the center of the image.

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198. If the slice thickness is changed from 5 mm to 7 mm and all other parameters are held constant, _____% more photons will be used in making the slice.

Explanation

As the slice thickness is increased, the number of photons used in making the slice is increased proportionately.

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199. On a single-row detector scanner, collimation:
1. controls the slice thickness
2. minimizes the x-ray dose to the patient
3. reduces the detection of scatter radiation

Explanation

Collimation on a single-row detector scanner refers to the process of controlling the slice thickness, minimizing the x-ray dose to the patient, and reducing the detection of scatter radiation. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.

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200. Which of the following is TRUE regarding a radiation penumbra?
1. it is accounted for in the calculation of the MSAD
2. it is radiation that extends outside of the imaging region
3. it occurs because the collimator is broken

Explanation

A radiation penumbra refers to the blurred or fuzzy edges of a radiation field. It is caused by the divergence of the radiation beam and the finite size of the radiation source. The penumbra is accounted for in the calculation of the MSAD (Mean Source-to-Axis Distance), which is a parameter used to determine the dose delivered by the radiation. Additionally, the penumbra extends outside of the imaging region, meaning that it affects areas beyond the intended target. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are true.

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Renal function refers to which of the following organs?
The operator's console may include:1. graphic input device2....
During a CT scan, the patient must be monitored:
A patient about to get a scan of her sinuses may wear:
The viscosity of IV contrast media can be reduced by:
Following the HIPAA guidelines, you may give a patient's medical...
For a routine CT exam of the pelvis, what gantry tilt is used?
The most common catheter size used in CT _____ gauge.
CT is commonly referred to as all of the following names EXCEPT:
Which of the following is the correct action to take if a patient...
The most important consideration in the care of an unconscious patient...
The human embryo/fetus is most sensitive to radiation:
Platelets are small:
Which of the following are typical start and end locations for CT...
Which of the following is a reason for inserting a tampon in the...
If there is doubt regarding the sterility of the contrast media, the...
What control does the operator have over the x-rays in a CT exam?
The distance that the table travels between slices is called:
A 25 year old female is scheduled for a CT scan of the sinuses. ...
Which of the following is a possible long-term effect of repeated...
IV contrast agents used in CT increase the attenuation of the x-ray...
How long does it take to inject 150 ml of contrast media with an...
The heating unit on a power injector is for _____ of the contrast...
Which of the following is a technique used to minimize artifacts from...
Which of the following affects beam hardening?1. the energies of the...
A CT artifact is:
Which of the following structures is NOT part of the GI tract?
Which of the following may help to reduce adverse reactions resulting...
A CT Number Calibration Test should be performed:
What type(s) of storage media may hold CT image data?1. internal hard...
The slip ring on continuous rotation CT scanners:1. allows the exam to...
Scatter radiation is caused by:
The main purpose of the detector is to:
The _____ determines how penetrating the x-ray beam will be.
Which of the following conditions may be an indication NOT to use IV...
Which is NOT a standard infection control precaution to use with all...
Which of the following may result from exposing an embryo to x-ray...
What should be done if extravasationis noticed at the injection site?
For which of the following studies in the chest is IV contrast...
When positioning for a CT exam of the wrist, the patient should be...
X-rays are used in CT because:
Which of the following is NOT a function of a PACS system?
Which of the following tests is NOT an indication of renal function?1....
When reviewing the images from a helical CT scan, a subtle, suspicious...
Which of the following positions may reduce the lordotic curve, when...
Which of the following is the typical orientation for a localizer in a...
The mA determines the:
Which of the following CT scanner designs does NOT use an x-ray tube?
Which of the following is the conversion equation from CT ...
Which of the following vital signs is considered abnormal?
Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's:
An injection rate of _____ ml/sec. will maintain a dense bolus of IV...
Tungsten is used as the target material on the tube's anode because it...
If the mA of a 2 second brain scan is doubled and all other parameters...
Which of the following types of contrast media has NO application for...
Which of the following determinants of CT image quality is responsible...
Tube interscan delay time refers to:
The result of the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta is the left and...
Which of the following may be the cause of two parallel lines seen on...
Which of the following oral contrast agents is better for opacifying...
Which of the following is NOT a part of the CT tube?
In order for an x-ray photon to be measured it must:1. enter the...
A pixel is a:
What is the most common type of film used for recording CT images?
There are _____ total pixels in a 1024 x 1024 matrix.
Which of the following values for pitch would stretch the x-ray helix...
Which of the following would be used in a high resolution study of the...
On a CTA exam of lower extremity vasculature to assess...
Which of the following would eliminate a ring artifact?
Which of the following has the highest patient dose assuming all other...
________ affects the CT number of water.
To modify a standard CT protocol so that is is appropriate for...
Which of the following characteristics of an IV contrast agent affects...
A _____ scan uses only a single projection.1. conventional, or...
_____ may have to be edited from the data set to get a diagnostic MIP...
Which of the following is a component NOT normally located in the...
The pencil thin section of the x-ray fan beam that strikes a single...
The ______ move(s) during a helical scan on a third-generation...
Which of the following is the expected result of ...
If there is no overlap or gap between adjacent slices of a CT scan,...
A normal adult has _____ respirations per minute.
A localizer image in which of the following orientations should be...
Which of the following combinations of scanning parameters is best for...
Which of the following might increase the possibility of motion...
A variation in which of the following will affect the hardening of an...
Which of the following is the complete name of the laboratory test...
_____ mm Hg is within the normal diastolic pressure range for adults.
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the collection of...
Which of the following parameters is responsible for partial ...
Which of the following is the appropriate range of coverage for a...
How should the mAs be varied to compensate for an increase in apparent...
What is the primary reason to have a patient phonate the letter "e"...
Which of the following may reduce the out-of-field artifact?
If a thin slice is used, which of the following would help reduce the...
Which of the following is a reason to increase the pitch?1. radiation...
Which of the following is TRUE regarding multi-row detector CT...
If an image matrix has 360 rows and 360 columns, how many pixels are...
A smooth, or low-pass, reconstruction filter is typically NOT selected...
Which of the following statements is TRUE if the patient history was...
CPR must me administered to a cardiac arrest victim within a maximum...
Making up the ARRT Standard of Ethics are the Code of Ethics, which is...
Exams to rule out _____ would indicate the use of IV contrast media in...
An indication for IV contrast injection is to rule out:
When a contrast agent is injected directly into the joint space it is...
Which of the following window settings provides the best tissue...
Which of the following is TRUE regarding barium sulfate solutions used...
The number of electrons that flow from the cathode to the anode in the...
Which of the following is TRUE regarding solid state detectors?1. they...
The patient table:
Which of the following statements is TRUE?1. the amplified electrical...
Which of the following would not enhance during the first several...
Which of the following is NOT a typical adverse reaction to oral...
In all states, patients are required by law to sign consent forms for...
__________ is the mathematical process used by single-row detectors...
On a conventional, or serial, CT scan, if we ...
The service engineer should be notified about which of the...
A(n) _____ artifact is a streak artifact which arises from a high...
The enormous heat that builds up in the CT tube is caused by the:
Which of the following would display the greatest amount of partial...
Which of the following window settings provides the best tissue...
Which technology do multi-row detector scanners employ?
In a _____, the highest pixel values from a stack of CTA images are...
If a reconstruction FOV of 32 cm and a 512 x 512 matrix are used, the...
Which of the following does NOT minimize the radiation dose to the...
Why is the cephalic vein a less desirable site for injection than the...
Which of the following would reduce the partial volume effect?
Barium sulfate oral contrast media would be selected instead of...
The smallest object that can be resolved if a ...
A normal pulse rate for an infant is _____ BPM.
The definition of osmolality is the ________ the contrast agent...
What is the appropriate care to give to a patient with diabetes?1. if...
Which of the following is the typical scan delay after the initiation...
Collimation:
Most of the commands from the technologist are received by the:
Which of the following is a reconstruction technique applied to the...
If the radiologist requires 2 mm thick contiguous slices through the...
Which of the following is the order in which the phases of IV contrast...
Which of the following may occur if the patient's arms are placed at...
Which of the following is a common patient reaction to IV contrast...
An increase in _____ will result in hardening of an x-ray beam.1....
X-ray photons are produced by a fast moving electron:1. colliding with...
__________ made helical imaging possible.
Increased _____ will increase the likelihood that a given x-ray will...
CTA images come from a _____ scan.1. conventional, or serial2....
Which of the following parameters causes helical ...
To best visualize the stomach wall, which of the following should the...
Which of the following could allow for a reduction of partial volume...
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a helical study compared...
Which of the following is common to both a localizer scan and a...
Which of the following is NOT directly proportional to mAs?
On a multi-row detector scanner, a radiation penumbra may be found:
A blood urea nitrogen level of _____ mg/dl is considered outside the...
Which of the following statements is TRUE?1. pulse oximeters are...
 Which the following is NOT contained within the mediastinum?
Which of the following are NOT commonly used on today's commercially...
The actual attenuation data measured by the detectors from all...
3D shaded surface displays are performed on CT:1. attenuation...
A kernel is a:
Increasing _____ results in lowering the patient ...
Which of the following parameters allows ...
For x-ray radiation, which of the following is TRUE?
A creatinine level of 3.1 mg/dl indicates the:1. kidneys are not...
How would the artifact from a faulty detector element appear on a...
Which of the following statements is TRUE?1. kV is the voltage...
Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of shock?
For which of the following conditions of the brain should IV contrast...
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the lobes of the...
What is the range of anatomy that should be covered for examination of...
For a CT scan of the spleen, which of the following is typically used?
Which of the following does NOT affect the quantity of x-rays that...
Which of the following utilizes convolution?1. 3D SSD2. filtered back...
MDCT scanners capable of collecting 64 slices in a single rotation do...
A CT study of the brain to visualize MS plaques may be made more...
Which of the following are possible results of partial voluming?1....
A delay of about _____ seconds after the start of the IV contrast...
Which of the following is FALSE regarding CT systems?1. they are...
The CT x-ray tube rotates around the patient to:1. generate projection...
Contrast agents containing barium sulfate:1. enhance structures...
_____ in the image is a possible manifestation of patient motion.1....
Which of the following strategies would NOT help us differentiate...
In order to generate a 3D shaded surface rendering of the hips, the...
Which of the following may occur during the interscan delay of a...
The x-ray beam used in CT scanning is _____ the patient's tissues.1....
Which of the following occurs when slice thickness is ...
How would we expect metal to affect the appearance of a localizer...
Which scanning plane is best for evaluating the anatomical...
CT numbers _____ would appear black if a window width of 400 and a...
Which of the following parameters affects the contrast of a CT image?
On a single-row detector scanner, which of the following does NOT...
Iodinated IV contrast agents perfuse normal:
MIP images:
Multi-planar reconstructions are performed on which of the...
Which of the following is NOT a reason for using thinner slices in the...
If we want to generate a diagnostic 3D surface reconstruction of the...
Which of the following is a possible manifestation of beam...
Which of the following affects the severity of metal artifacts?1. the...
A cone beam artifact may look like stars:
If the slice thickness is changed from 5 mm to 7 mm and all other...
On a single-row detector scanner, collimation:1. controls the slice...
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a radiation penumbra?1. it is...
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