CT Scan Registry Preparation Test

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  • 1/128 Questions

    Contrast agents provide superior visibility in an anatomic area due to their ability to absorb:

    • X-ray photons
    • Infrared radiation
    • Ultraviolet radiation
    • Gamma radiation
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About This Quiz

Play this informative CT scan registry test to gauge your understanding. A CT scan, short for computed tomography, is a sophisticated medical imaging technique that utilizes a series of X-ray images to provide detailed information about a patient's body. Unlike other imaging exams, such as MRI or ultrasound, CT scans excel at capturing cross-sectional images of internal structures, allowing doctors See moreto visualize organs, bones, and tissues with exceptional clarity. Unfortunately, there exists a common misconception that CT tests are unsafe due to potential radiation exposure. However, it's important to note that the actual amount of radiation exposure during a CT scan is relatively low and well within acceptable limits.

CT Scan Registry Preparation Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The primary reason for having the patient extend the arms above the head during a thoracic CT scan is that it

    • Provides maximum extension of the spine

    • Helps the patient better maintain a breath hold

    • Minimizes movement during the scan

    • Reduces the risk of artifacts

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduces the risk of artifacts
    Explanation
    Having the patient extend the arms above the head during a thoracic CT scan reduces the risk of artifacts. Artifacts are unwanted image distortions that can occur during a scan, and they can interfere with the accuracy and interpretation of the results. By having the patient extend their arms above the head, it helps to minimize any potential movement that could lead to artifacts. This position ensures that the patient remains still and reduces the chances of any unwanted image distortions, resulting in clearer and more accurate scan images.

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  • 3. 

    A technologist may administer contrast agents, radiopharmaceuticals, or medications:

    • Never

    • Only with another person in the room

    • As permitted by state statues and institutional policies

    • Whenever they feel comfortable with injection technique

    Correct Answer
    A. As permitted by state statues and institutional policies
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "as permitted by state statues and institutional policies." This means that a technologist can administer contrast agents, radiopharmaceuticals, or medications only if it is allowed by the laws and regulations of the state they are practicing in, as well as the policies set by their institution. They must follow these guidelines and obtain the necessary permissions before administering any substances.

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  • 4. 

    Spiral/helical CT:

    • Takes much longer than conventional CT scanning

    • Requires a great deal of power to operate

    • Collects data by starting and stopping the scanner each time the table moves an increment

    • Involves continuous scanning around the patient and table

    Correct Answer
    A. Involves continuous scanning around the patient and table
    Explanation
    Spiral/helical CT involves continuous scanning around the patient and table. Unlike conventional CT scanning, which requires starting and stopping the scanner each time the table moves an increment, spiral/helical CT collects data in a continuous manner. This continuous scanning allows for faster image acquisition and reduces the overall scanning time. Additionally, spiral/helical CT requires a great deal of power to operate due to the continuous scanning process.

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  • 5. 

    Barium should not be used in patients with:

    • Diverticulitis

    • Gastroesophageal reflux disease

    • Gastrointestinal perforation

    • Nutcracker esophagus

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastrointestinal perforation
    Explanation
    Gastrointestinal perforation is a condition where there is a hole or tear in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to leakage of digestive fluids and bacteria into the abdominal cavity. Barium, a contrast agent used in medical imaging, should not be used in patients with gastrointestinal perforation because it can exacerbate the condition and further spread the contents of the gastrointestinal tract into the abdominal cavity, leading to complications such as infection and peritonitis.

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  • 6. 

    MRI may be of greater value than CT for musculoskeletal imaging of ___.

    • Normal bone

    • Osteoporotic processes in the lumbar spine

    • Ligaments

    • The arteries that transverse the cervical spine

    Correct Answer
    A. Ligaments
    Explanation
    MRI may be of greater value than CT for musculoskeletal imaging of ligaments because MRI provides better soft tissue contrast and resolution compared to CT. Ligaments are soft tissues that connect bones to other bones, and MRI can accurately visualize and assess the integrity of ligaments, including any tears, sprains, or other abnormalities. CT, on the other hand, is better suited for imaging bony structures and may not provide the same level of detail and sensitivity for evaluating ligaments.

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  • 7. 

    A needle with plastic projections on either side that aid in holding the needle during venipuncture best describes a (an):

    • Butterfly needle

    • Small guage needle

    • Angiocatheter

    • Large guage needle

    Correct Answer
    A. Butterfly needle
    Explanation
    A needle with plastic projections on either side that aid in holding the needle during venipuncture is best described as a butterfly needle. This type of needle is commonly used for drawing blood or administering medication, as the plastic wings allow for better control and stability during the procedure. The plastic projections make it easier for the healthcare professional to grip the needle securely, reducing the risk of accidental needlestick injuries.

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  • 8. 

    Uniform marking of the small intestine with oral contrast agents can be achieved by:

    • Drinking 2 ounces of contrast every 4 hours starting 2 days before the CT exam

    • Drinking 4 ounces of water for every 8 ounces of contrast

    • Drinking the contrast agents steadily over a period of 45-60 minutes before the procedure

    • Concomitant use of a medication designed to increase gastric motility

    Correct Answer
    A. Drinking the contrast agents steadily over a period of 45-60 minutes before the procedure
    Explanation
    Drinking the contrast agents steadily over a period of 45-60 minutes before the procedure allows for the uniform marking of the small intestine. This method ensures that the contrast agents are distributed evenly throughout the small intestine, providing clear and accurate imaging during the CT exam. Drinking the contrast steadily over a period of time allows for proper absorption and distribution of the contrast, resulting in a more effective examination.

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  • 9. 

    The late effects of radiation exposure include all of the following EXCEPT development of:

    • Cataracts

    • Breast cancer

    • Thyroid cancer

    • Osteoporosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteoporosis
    Explanation
    Exposure to radiation can have various long-term effects on the body. Cataracts, breast cancer, and thyroid cancer are all known to be potential late effects of radiation exposure. However, osteoporosis, which is the weakening of bones, is not typically associated with radiation exposure. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis.

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  • 10. 

    Which one of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebrum?

    • Occipital lobe

    • Neural Lobe

    • Parietal Lobe

    • Temporal Lobe

    Correct Answer
    A. Neural Lobe
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Neural Lobe" because there is no such lobe called the "Neural Lobe" in the cerebrum. The cerebrum is divided into four lobes: the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, and occipital lobe.

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  • 11. 

    The area where the trachea bifurcates is called the:

    • Bronchus

    • Carina

    • Hilum

    • Pleura

    Correct Answer
    A. Carina
    Explanation
    The area where the trachea bifurcates is called the carina. The carina is a ridge of cartilage located at the lower end of the trachea, where it splits into the left and right bronchi. It serves as a point of division and directs the airflow into the respective bronchi.

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  • 12. 

    The imaging procedure involving the injection of contrast agents into the spinal canal is:

    • Myelography

    • Arthrography

    • Intrathecal lumbar imaging

    • Laminectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Myelography
    Explanation
    Myelography is the correct answer because it involves the injection of contrast agents into the spinal canal. This procedure is used to visualize the spinal cord and nerve roots, as well as detect any abnormalities or blockages in the spinal canal. It is commonly used to diagnose conditions such as herniated discs, spinal tumors, or spinal stenosis. Arthrography is a different imaging procedure that involves the injection of contrast agents into a joint, not the spinal canal. Intrathecal lumbar imaging and laminectomy are unrelated to the injection of contrast agents into the spinal canal.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following statements concerning CT angiography of the neck is FALSE?

    • It is more rapidly performed than conventional angiography

    • It can be used to assess the degree of carotid artery stenosis

    • It requires hospital admission due to the potential for adverse events during the procedure

    • It requires proper timing to avoid overlapping contrast enhancement of the jugular vein

    Correct Answer
    A. It requires hospital admission due to the potential for adverse events during the procedure
    Explanation
    CT angiography of the neck does not require hospital admission due to the potential for adverse events during the procedure. CT angiography is a non-invasive imaging technique that uses X-rays and contrast dye to visualize the blood vessels in the neck. It is more rapidly performed than conventional angiography and can be used to assess the degree of carotid artery stenosis. Proper timing is important to avoid overlapping contrast enhancement of the jugular vein, but it does not require hospital admission.

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  • 14. 

    Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) measures the time required:

    • To increase the platelet count by 5%

    • To manufacture prothrombin

    • To lyse an established clot

    • For clot formation in normal plasma

    Correct Answer
    A. For clot formation in normal plasma
    Explanation
    Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for clot formation in normal plasma. This test evaluates the function of the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which involves factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII. PTT is used to assess the clotting ability of blood and to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. By measuring the time it takes for clot formation, PTT can help detect abnormalities in the clotting process and diagnose conditions such as hemophilia, von Willebrand disease, and certain liver diseases.

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  • 15. 

    KV refers to:

    • Tube current

    • Tube voltage

    • Heat tolerance

    • The number of detectors

    Correct Answer
    A. Tube voltage
    Explanation
    kV refers to tube voltage. In medical imaging, kV (kilovolt) is used to measure the voltage applied across the X-ray tube. This voltage determines the energy of the X-ray beam produced. Higher kV values result in X-rays with higher energy and greater penetration, which is useful for imaging thicker body parts. Lower kV values produce X-rays with lower energy, suitable for imaging thinner body parts. Thus, kV is an important parameter in determining the quality and diagnostic value of X-ray images.

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  • 16. 

    The term "noise" in CT imaging refers to:

    • Deviations in the consistency of the image grid

    • The sound of the high-voltage generator during the scanning process

    • Multiple objects in the same SFOV

    • The inability of the scanner to function

    Correct Answer
    A. Deviations in the consistency of the image grid
    Explanation
    The term "noise" in CT imaging refers to deviations in the consistency of the image grid. This means that there are inconsistencies or random variations in the pixel values of the image, which can result in a grainy or speckled appearance. These deviations can be caused by various factors such as statistical fluctuations in the x-ray photon detection process, electronic noise in the CT system, or patient motion during the scan. It is important to minimize noise in CT imaging to ensure accurate and high-quality diagnostic images.

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  • 17. 

    In CT scanning of the wrist, the technologist should employ all of the following techniques EXCEPT:

    • Use of the smallest possible DFOV

    • Construction of images with an overlap

    • Use of a wide collimation

    • Acquisition of both coronal and sagittal images

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wide collimation
    Explanation
    A wide collimation refers to using a larger beam of X-rays during the CT scan. This technique is not recommended for imaging the wrist because it can result in decreased spatial resolution and increased image noise. The other techniques mentioned, such as using the smallest possible DFOV, constructing images with an overlap, and acquiring both coronal and sagittal images, are all important for obtaining high-quality and accurate images of the wrist during CT scanning.

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  • 18. 

    The function of the detector is to:

    • Amplify the measured signal

    • Define the signal beam intensity

    • Measure attenuated x-rays and convert them to digital signals

    • Reduce scatter radiation

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure attenuated x-rays and convert them to digital signals
    Explanation
    The function of the detector is to measure attenuated x-rays and convert them to digital signals. This means that the detector is responsible for capturing the x-ray signal that has passed through the object being imaged, and then converting it into a digital format that can be processed and analyzed by a computer. The other options, such as amplifying the signal, defining the signal beam intensity, and reducing scatter radiation, do not accurately describe the main function of the detector in this context.

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  • 19. 

    The gelatinous core at the center of an intervertebral disc is called the:

    • Nucleus pulposus

    • Annulus fibrosis

    • Vertebral foramen

    • Pedicles

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucleus pulposus
    Explanation
    The gelatinous core at the center of an intervertebral disc is called the nucleus pulposus. This structure is responsible for providing cushioning and shock absorption between the vertebrae in the spine. It is composed of a jelly-like substance that helps to distribute pressure evenly throughout the disc, allowing for flexibility and movement in the spine. The nucleus pulposus also plays a role in maintaining the height and integrity of the intervertebral disc.

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  • 20. 

    The onset of most serious adverse reactions to contrast media occurs ______ post administration

    • Within 5 minutes

    • Within 15 minutes

    • Within 30 minutes

    • After 1 hour

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 5 minutes
    Explanation
    Most serious adverse reactions to contrast media occur within 5 minutes post administration. This means that the onset of these reactions, such as an allergic reaction or anaphylaxis, typically happens very quickly after the contrast media is administered. It is important for medical professionals to be aware of this timeframe so that they can monitor patients closely and respond promptly if any adverse reactions occur.

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  • 21. 

    The bone that transmittes the weight of the body from the distal portions of the tibia and fibula to the foot is called the:

    • Talus

    • Lateral malleolus

    • Medial malleolus

    • Superior calcaneus

    Correct Answer
    A. Talus
    Explanation
    The talus is the bone that transmits the weight of the body from the distal portions of the tibia and fibula to the foot. It is located between the tibia and fibula of the lower leg and the calcaneus (heel bone) of the foot. The talus is an important bone in weight-bearing and plays a crucial role in the movement and stability of the ankle joint.

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  • 22. 

    The image grid on a computer screen is made up of tiny regions called:

    • Voxels

    • Pixels

    • CRT's

    • The matrix

    Correct Answer
    A. Pixels
    Explanation
    The image grid on a computer screen is made up of tiny regions called pixels. Pixels are the smallest unit of information in a digital image, representing a single point in a raster image. Each pixel contains color and intensity information, which collectively form the image on the screen. The term "voxels" refers to the three-dimensional equivalent of pixels, typically used in medical imaging or 3D graphics. CRT's (Cathode Ray Tubes) are a type of display technology that was commonly used in older computer monitors and televisions. "The matrix" is a vague term and does not specifically refer to the regions on a computer screen.

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  • 23. 

    Slip ring technology made spiral CT a possibility by:

    • Improved insulating and cooling systems, allowing CT scanners to run at a higher speed and temperature

    • Decreasing the amount of radiation per slice

    • Allowing the gantry to stop rotating and reverse course while maintaining accurate beam direction

    • Allowing the tube and detectors to rotate continuously

    Correct Answer
    A. Allowing the tube and detectors to rotate continuously
    Explanation
    Slip ring technology allows the tube and detectors in a CT scanner to rotate continuously. This is important because it enables the scanner to capture images of the patient's body from multiple angles without the need to stop and reverse the rotation. This continuous rotation allows for a faster and more efficient scanning process, as well as more accurate beam direction. Without slip ring technology, the tube and detectors would be limited to a fixed position, resulting in less comprehensive and slower imaging.

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  • 24. 

    For the evaluation of herniated dics, CT provides _____________over MRI.

    • Superior assessment of spinal cord inflammation

    • More accurate determination of the degree of cartilage erosion

    • More accurate identification of those who are likely to benefit from surgical repair

    • Superior visulization of bony abnormalities related to disc disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Superior visulization of bony abnormalities related to disc disease
    Explanation
    CT provides superior visualization of bony abnormalities related to disc disease compared to MRI. This means that CT scans are better at detecting and showing any bone-related issues or abnormalities that may be present in the spine due to disc disease. MRI scans, on the other hand, are more useful for evaluating soft tissues, such as the spinal cord and cartilage erosion. However, when it comes to identifying bony abnormalities, CT scans are considered to be more accurate and effective.

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  • 25. 

    What is the most common indication for CT of the hip?

    • Trauma

    • Arthitis

    • Avascular necrosis

    • Infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Trauma
    Explanation
    The most common indication for a CT scan of the hip is trauma. This is because CT scans are often used to evaluate fractures, dislocations, and other injuries to the hip joint that may result from trauma or accidents. CT scans can provide detailed images of the bones, soft tissues, and surrounding structures, allowing healthcare professionals to accurately diagnose and plan appropriate treatment for hip injuries caused by trauma.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following structures is the most commonly used landmark in CT angiography of the brain?

    • Circle of Willis

    • Vertebral arteries

    • Internal carotid arteries

    • External carotid arteries

    Correct Answer
    A. Circle of Willis
    Explanation
    The circle of Willis is the best structure to use as a landmark in CT angiography of the brain. This is because it is a circular arrangement of blood vessels located at the base of the brain, connecting the major arteries that supply blood to the brain. It is easily identifiable on CT angiography images and serves as a reference point for evaluating the blood flow and detecting any abnormalities in the cerebral vasculature. The other options, such as the vertebral arteries, internal carotid arteries, and external carotid arteries, are also important vessels in the brain, but they are not as suitable as the circle of Willis for this specific purpose.

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  • 27. 

    Which ONE of the following is an advantage of an angiocatheter over a butterfly needle?

    • Comparable safety when performing venipuncture

    • A better ability to withstand the force of a power injector

    • A lower risk of contrast reaction

    • The ability to leave the catheter in the antecubital vein without having to immobilize the arm

    Correct Answer
    A. A better ability to withstand the force of a power injector
    Explanation
    An angiocatheter has a better ability to withstand the force of a power injector compared to a butterfly needle. This means that it is more durable and less likely to be damaged or dislodged when high pressure is applied during injection. This advantage is important in medical procedures that require the use of a power injector, such as contrast imaging studies, where a strong force is needed to inject contrast material into the bloodstream.

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  • 28. 

    The preferred type of external storage devices used on CT scanning computers is:

    • Magnetic optical disk (MOD)

    • Digital audiotape (DAT)

    • CRT

    • Mylar tape

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnetic optical disk (MOD)
    Explanation
    The preferred type of external storage devices used on CT scanning computers is magnetic optical disk (MOD). This is because MODs offer a high storage capacity, fast access times, and reliable data retrieval. They are also durable and resistant to damage, making them suitable for the demanding environment of CT scanning. Additionally, MODs provide a cost-effective solution for long-term data storage and archiving.

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  • 29. 

    Common causes of RLQ pain that may mimic appendicitis, but can be ruled out with CT scanning, include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Cecal diverticulitis

    • Food poisening

    • Crohn's disease

    • Pelvic inflammatory disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Food poisening
    Explanation
    The given question asks for a condition that can cause pain in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) and can be ruled out with CT scanning, similar to appendicitis. The correct answer, food poisoning, is a condition that typically causes gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. While it can cause abdominal pain, it is not typically associated with RLQ pain. CT scanning can help rule out other conditions such as cecal diverticulitis, Crohn's disease, and pelvic inflammatory disease, which can present with RLQ pain similar to appendicitis.

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  • 30. 

    Which one of the following is TRUE regarding ionic contrast media?

    • They are generally of higher osmolality than nonionic contrast media

    • They are generally of lower osmolality than nonionic contrast media

    • Their particles are too large to exert ionic effects over prolonged periods of time

    • Iodine is generally carried on the cation group

    Correct Answer
    A. They are generally of higher osmolality than nonionic contrast media
    Explanation
    Ionic contrast media are generally of higher osmolality than nonionic contrast media. Osmolality refers to the concentration of particles in a solution. Ionic contrast media contain charged particles, which increase the osmolality of the solution. Nonionic contrast media, on the other hand, do not contain charged particles and therefore have lower osmolality. The higher osmolality of ionic contrast media can lead to more adverse reactions and side effects compared to nonionic contrast media.

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  • 31. 

    The line that extends from the fold at the corner of the eye to the external hole of the ear is known as the ______line

    • Temporomeatal

    • Canthomeatal

    • Infratemporomeatal

    • Orbitomeatal

    Correct Answer
    A. Orbitomeatal
    Explanation
    The line that extends from the fold at the corner of the eye to the external hole of the ear is known as the orbitomeatal line.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following contrast materials is typically used for enhancing visibility in CT scans and is known for its risk of causing nephropathy in patients with pre-existing kidney issues?

    • Gadolinium

    • Barium Sulfate

    • Iodinated Contrast

    • Saline Solution

    Correct Answer
    A. Iodinated Contrast
    Explanation
    Iodinated contrast material is commonly used in CT scans to improve the visibility of internal organs, blood vessels, and tissues. However, it poses a risk of nephropathy, especially in patients with pre-existing renal dysfunction. Careful assessment of renal function is advised before administering this type of contrast.

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  • 33. 

    CT scanning exposes the patient to more radiation than a plain x-ray film because:

    • It takes less time to perform the scan

    • Contrast agents direct the x-ray beam to specified areas

    • The CT beam is less collimated

    • CT scanners use multiple X-ray beams to create detailed images of the internal structures.

    Correct Answer
    A. CT scanners use multiple X-ray beams to create detailed images of the internal structures.
    Explanation
    Unlike traditional X-rays that produce two-dimensional images, CT scans create detailed three-dimensional images of the inside of the body. This requires a larger number of X-ray beams from multiple angles to capture cross-sectional slices of the body.

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  • 34. 

    Attachment of the vertebral column to the pelvis is provided by the:

    • Symphysis pubis

    • Sacroiliac joints

    • Fifth lumbar vertebra (L5)

    • Coccyx

    Correct Answer
    A. Sacroiliac joints
    Explanation
    The sacroiliac joints provide the attachment of the vertebral column to the pelvis. These joints are located between the sacrum, which is the triangular bone at the base of the spine, and the ilium, which is one of the bones that make up the pelvis. The sacroiliac joints are strong and stable, allowing for minimal movement and providing support and stability to the pelvis and the entire vertebral column.

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  • 35. 

    The measure of the total number of particles in contrast solution per kilogram of water describes:

    • Viscosity

    • Osmolality

    • Ionicity

    • Iodination

    Correct Answer
    A. Osmolality
    Explanation
    Osmolality is the measure of the total number of particles in a contrast solution per kilogram of water. It is used to determine the concentration of solutes in a solution and is important in medical and physiological contexts, as it affects the movement of water and solutes across cell membranes. Viscosity refers to the thickness or resistance to flow of a liquid, ionicity refers to the presence of ions in a solution, and iodination refers to the process of adding iodine to a compound.

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  • 36. 

    In CT imaging, which technique adjusts the tube current in response to the density of the body part being scanned to optimize dose efficiency?

    • Tube modulation 

    • Dose modulation 

    • Automatic exposure control (AEC) 

    • Fixed current settings

    Correct Answer
    A. Automatic exposure control (AEC) 
    Explanation
    Automatic exposure control (AEC) in CT imaging is a critical technique that adjusts the x-ray tube current dynamically during the scan, based on the density of the body part being imaged. This adjustment is crucial for maintaining image quality while minimizing the radiation dose to the patient. AEC optimizes the dose by increasing or decreasing the tube current as needed to provide consistent image quality across different body parts and densities. This technology significantly enhances the balance between image quality and patient safety in CT imaging.

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  • 37. 

    Second-generation scanners were associated with the introduction of which of the following developments?

    • A fan beam technology

    • Large volume imaging

    • Slip ring technology

    • Paired detectors

    Correct Answer
    A. A fan beam technology
    Explanation
    The second-generation scanners were associated with the introduction of fan beam technology. This technology involves the use of a fan-shaped x-ray beam that rotates around the patient, allowing for more efficient and accurate imaging. It improved the image quality and reduced the scanning time compared to the previous generation scanners.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following statements about slip ring technology is NOT true?

    • It is most widely used with third-generation scanners

    • It involoves the use of metal brushes against the grooves of a metal alloy cylinder

    • It was necessary to the development of spiral/helical scanning

    • It requires long cables connecting to a power source outside of the scanning tube

    Correct Answer
    A. It requires long cables connecting to a power source outside of the scanning tube
    Explanation
    Slip ring technology does not require long cables connecting to a power source outside of the scanning tube. Slip rings are electrical connectors that allow the transmission of power and signals between a stationary and a rotating part. They are commonly used in various applications, including scanners. The use of metal brushes against the grooves of a metal alloy cylinder is a characteristic of slip ring technology. It was also necessary for the development of spiral/helical scanning. However, slip ring technology is not specifically associated with third-generation scanners.

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  • 39. 

    The posterior margin of the posterior neck muscle triangle is formed by the_______ muscle.

    • Trapezius

    • Sternocleidomastoid

    • Temporalis

    • Deltoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Trapezius
    Explanation
    The posterior margin of the posterior neck muscle triangle is formed by the trapezius muscle. The trapezius muscle is a large muscle that extends from the back of the head, down the neck, and across the upper back. It helps to move and stabilize the shoulder blades and plays a role in head and neck movements. The trapezius muscle forms the posterior boundary of the posterior neck muscle triangle, which is an anatomical landmark used to identify structures in the neck.

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  • 40. 

    Methods for reducing streak artifacts in patients undergoing routine chest CT include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Raising both arms above the head

    • Crossing both arms across the chest

    • Raising one arm above the head

    • Increasing the exposure on the scan

    Correct Answer
    A. Crossing both arms across the chest
    Explanation
    Crossing both arms across the chest does not help in reducing streak artifacts in CT scans. Streak artifacts occur due to high-density objects, such as metal or bone, which can cause streaks of distortion in the image. Raising both arms above the head, raising one arm above the head, and increasing the exposure on the scan are methods that can help reduce streak artifacts by moving the high-density objects away from the chest area or adjusting the scan parameters. However, crossing both arms across the chest does not have any effect on reducing streak artifacts.

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  • 41. 

    The field of view for a craniofacial scan should include the:

    • Face only

    • Entire skull and face

    • Orbital and nasal bones only

    • Nasal and mandibular bones only

    Correct Answer
    A. Entire skull and face
    Explanation
    A craniofacial scan is a medical imaging technique used to visualize the skull and face. It is important to include the entire skull and face in the field of view to ensure a comprehensive assessment of the craniofacial region. This allows for the identification and evaluation of any abnormalities, fractures, or other conditions that may affect the skull or facial structures. By including the entire skull and face in the scan, healthcare professionals can obtain a complete picture of the patient's craniofacial anatomy, aiding in diagnosis and treatment planning.

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  • 42. 

    Signs of anaphylactoid reaction to contrast include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Yellowing of the skin

    • Cool, clammy skin

    • Throat constriction

    • A sense of apprehension

    Correct Answer
    A. Yellowing of the skin
    Explanation
    Anaphylactoid reactions to contrast are severe allergic reactions that can occur after the administration of contrast media. These reactions can cause various symptoms such as cool, clammy skin, throat constriction, and a sense of apprehension. However, yellowing of the skin is not a typical symptom of anaphylactoid reactions. Yellowing of the skin, also known as jaundice, is usually associated with liver dysfunction or other medical conditions unrelated to contrast administration. Therefore, yellowing of the skin is not an expected sign of an anaphylactoid reaction to contrast.

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  • 43. 

    Exposure to radiation may affect cells in all of the following ways EXCEPT:

    • Causing genetic damage

    • Dying during mitosis

    • Failing to divide at the normal rate

    • Precipitating apoptosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Precipitating apoptosis
    Explanation
    Exposure to radiation can cause genetic damage, interfere with cell division by causing cells to die during mitosis or fail to divide at the normal rate. However, it does not precipitate apoptosis, which is a programmed cell death that occurs naturally in the body to remove damaged or unnecessary cells.

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  • 44. 

    What type of scout scans should be taken prior to performing craniofacial scans?

    • Anterior-posterior only

    • Lateral only

    • Both anterior-posterior and lateral

    • Neither anterior=posterior and lateral

    Correct Answer
    A. Both anterior-posterior and lateral
    Explanation
    Prior to performing craniofacial scans, both anterior-posterior and lateral scout scans should be taken. These scout scans provide a comprehensive view of the craniofacial region from different angles, allowing for accurate positioning and assessment of the area of interest. By taking both anterior-posterior and lateral scans, healthcare professionals can ensure a thorough evaluation of the craniofacial structures, aiding in diagnosis and treatment planning.

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  • 45. 

    The posterior elements of the vertebra are the:

    • Pedicles and annulus fibrosis

    • Pedicles and laminae

    • Laminate and vertebral foramen

    • Pedicles and nucleus pulposus

    Correct Answer
    A. Pedicles and laminae
    Explanation
    The posterior elements of the vertebra are the pedicles and laminae. The pedicles are short, thick processes that connect the vertebral body to the laminae, which are flat plates of bone that form the posterior portion of the vertebral arch. Together, the pedicles and laminae enclose the vertebral foramen, which houses the spinal cord. The annulus fibrosis is a component of the intervertebral disc, not the posterior elements of the vertebra. The nucleus pulposus is also part of the intervertebral disc and is located within the annulus fibrosis.

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  • 46. 

    When conducting CT scans of the ankle, the ankles

    • Should not be imaged together

    • Can be imaged together and different positions chosen for each

    • Can be imaged together and the images reconstructed with a wide enough DFOV to include both ankles

    • Can be imaged together, but images must be reconstructed separately using the smallest possible DFOV

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be imaged together, but images must be reconstructed separately using the smallest possible DFOV
    Explanation
    When conducting CT scans of the ankle, the ankles can be imaged together, but the images must be reconstructed separately using the smallest possible DFOV. This means that both ankles can be included in the same scan, but the images need to be reconstructed separately to ensure the highest level of detail and accuracy. By using the smallest possible DFOV (display field of view), the focus can be narrowed down to each ankle individually, allowing for a more precise evaluation of any abnormalities or injuries.

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  • 47. 

    In a patient with an abdominal mass, CT scanning is used for all of the following EXCEPT?

    • Differentiating tumors from cystic abnormalities

    • Staging tumors

    • Visualizing cytologic markers

    • Determining if the tumor has invaded adjacent organs or tissues

    Correct Answer
    A. Visualizing cytologic markers
    Explanation
    CT scanning is a useful imaging technique for evaluating abdominal masses. It can help in differentiating tumors from cystic abnormalities, staging tumors, and determining if the tumor has invaded adjacent organs or tissues. However, CT scanning is not typically used for visualizing cytologic markers. Cytologic markers refer to cellular characteristics that can be identified through microscopic examination of cells, which is not the primary purpose of CT scanning.

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  • 48. 

    In abdominal and pelvic CT imaging, IV contrast provides all of the following benefits EXCEPT:

    • Visualizing the layers of the peritoneal membrane

    • Increasing the attentuation of pelvic blood vessels

    • Assessing the vascularity of tumors

    • Increasing the attenuation of solid organs

    Correct Answer
    A. Visualizing the layers of the peritoneal membrane
    Explanation
    IV contrast in abdominal and pelvic CT imaging provides several benefits, including increasing the attenuation of pelvic blood vessels, assessing the vascularity of tumors, and increasing the attenuation of solid organs. However, it does not directly visualize the layers of the peritoneal membrane. The peritoneal membrane is a thin, transparent membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the abdominal organs. While IV contrast can help enhance the visualization of structures within the abdominal cavity, it does not specifically target or enhance the visualization of the peritoneal membrane itself.

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  • 49. 

    The Agaston score is a measurement of the:

    • Percent of the lung affected by emphysema

    • Degree of risk for adverse reactions to contrast material

    • Total radiation exposure from x-ray/CT/nuclear imaging during a patient's lifetime

    • Degree of coronary artery calcification

    Correct Answer
    A. Degree of coronary artery calcification
    Explanation
    The Agaston score is a measurement of the degree of coronary artery calcification. This score is used to assess the amount of calcium deposits in the coronary arteries, which can indicate the presence and severity of coronary artery disease. It is calculated based on the amount and density of the calcium deposits seen on a CT scan of the heart. A higher Agaston score indicates a higher degree of calcification and therefore a higher risk for coronary artery disease.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 2, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 02, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 29, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Tkraiger

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