CT Scan Registry Preparation Test

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CT Scan Registry Preparation Test - Quiz

Play this informative CT scan registry test to gauge your understanding. A CT scan, short for computed tomography, is a sophisticated medical imaging technique that utilizes a series of X-ray images to provide detailed information about a patient's body. Unlike other imaging exams, such as MRI or ultrasound, CT scans excel at capturing cross-sectional images of internal structures, allowing doctors to visualize organs, bones, and tissues with exceptional clarity. Unfortunately, there exists a common misconception that CT tests are unsafe due to potential radiation exposure. However, it's important to note that the actual amount of radiation exposure during a CT Read morescan is relatively low and well within acceptable limits.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The muscles of mastication include all of the following EXCEPT the:

    • A.

      Temporalis

    • B.

      Proximal pterygoid

    • C.

      Masseter

    • D.

      Lateral pterygoid

    Correct Answer
    B. Proximal pterygoid
    Explanation
    The muscles of mastication are responsible for the movements of the jaw during chewing. The temporalis, masseter, and lateral pterygoid muscles are all part of the muscles of mastication. However, the proximal pterygoid muscle is not considered one of the muscles of mastication. It is actually part of the muscles involved in opening and closing the jaw.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following statements concerning CT angiography of the neck is FALSE?

    • A.

      It is more rapidly performed than conventional angiography

    • B.

      It can be used to assess the degree of carotid artery stenosis

    • C.

      It requires hospital admission due to the potential for adverse events during the procedure

    • D.

      It requires proper timing to avoid overlapping contrast enhancement of the jugular vein

    Correct Answer
    C. It requires hospital admission due to the potential for adverse events during the procedure
    Explanation
    CT angiography of the neck does not require hospital admission due to the potential for adverse events during the procedure. CT angiography is a non-invasive imaging technique that uses X-rays and contrast dye to visualize the blood vessels in the neck. It is more rapidly performed than conventional angiography and can be used to assess the degree of carotid artery stenosis. Proper timing is important to avoid overlapping contrast enhancement of the jugular vein, but it does not require hospital admission.

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  • 3. 

    The gantry angle for a sinus cavity CT scan should be:

    • A.

      Parallel to the roof of the hard palate

    • B.

      Sagittal to the roof of the hard palate

    • C.

      Parallel to the floor of the orbit

    • D.

      Parallel to the roof of the orbit

    Correct Answer
    A. Parallel to the roof of the hard palate
    Explanation
    The gantry angle for a sinus cavity CT scan should be parallel to the roof of the hard palate. This is because the hard palate forms the floor of the sinus cavities, and by aligning the gantry parallel to it, the images obtained will provide a clear view of the sinus cavities and their surrounding structures. This positioning ensures optimal visualization and accurate diagnosis of sinus conditions.

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  • 4. 

    Which one of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebrum?

    • A.

      Occipital lobe

    • B.

      Neural Lobe

    • C.

      Parietal Lobe

    • D.

      Temporal Lobe

    Correct Answer
    B. Neural Lobe
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Neural Lobe" because there is no such lobe called the "Neural Lobe" in the cerebrum. The cerebrum is divided into four lobes: the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, and occipital lobe.

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  • 5. 

    Which superficial anterior muscle of the neck is known as the "muscle of facial expression"?

    • A.

      Masseter

    • B.

      Sternocleidomastoid

    • C.

      Medial pterygoid

    • D.

      Platysma

    Correct Answer
    D. Platysma
    Explanation
    The correct answer is platysma. The platysma is a superficial anterior muscle of the neck that is responsible for various facial expressions, such as lowering the jaw and corners of the mouth and wrinkling the skin on the neck. It is often referred to as the "muscle of facial expression" due to its involvement in these movements. The other options, including the masseter, sternocleidomastoid, and medial pterygoid, are not specifically involved in facial expressions.

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  • 6. 

    Which one of the following statements regarding the petrous pyramids is FALSE?

    • A.

      It contains the middle and inner ear structures

    • B.

      It extends medially beyond the sphenoid bones

    • C.

      Its end forms the antrum of the eustachian tubule

    • D.

      Its upper surface forms part of the floor of the middle cranial fossa

    Correct Answer
    C. Its end forms the antrum of the eustachian tubule
    Explanation
    The petrous pyramids do not form the antrum of the eustachian tubule. The antrum of the eustachian tube is actually located in the temporal bone, specifically in the mastoid process. The petrous pyramids do contain the middle and inner ear structures, extend medially beyond the sphenoid bones, and their upper surface forms part of the floor of the middle cranial fossa.

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  • 7. 

    Scan coverage for a temporal bone scan should cover the:

    • A.

      Mid mastoids to below the petrous ridge

    • B.

      Mid mastoids to above the petrous ridge

    • C.

      Petrous ridge alone

    • D.

      Mid mastoid alone

    Correct Answer
    B. Mid mastoids to above the petrous ridge
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "mid mastoids to above the petrous ridge." This is because a temporal bone scan is used to evaluate the bones of the skull known as the temporal bones, which house important structures such as the inner ear and the facial nerve. To ensure a comprehensive evaluation, the scan coverage should include the mid mastoids, which are located on the sides of the skull, and extend above the petrous ridge, which is a bony prominence in the temporal bone. By including this entire region in the scan coverage, any potential abnormalities or pathologies in the temporal bones can be properly assessed.

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  • 8. 

    The portion of the dura mater that separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum is known as the :

    • A.

      Pons

    • B.

      Falx cerebri

    • C.

      Falx cerebelli

    • D.

      Tentorium cerebelli

    Correct Answer
    D. Tentorium cerebelli
    Explanation
    The "tentorium cerebelli" is a partition or fold of the dura mater, one of the protective membranes surrounding the brain. It separates the cerebellum (responsible for motor coordination and balance) from the cerebrum (responsible for higher cognitive functions). This division helps prevent interference and compression between these brain regions and maintains the brain's structural integrity within the skull.

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  • 9. 

    The posterior margin of the posterior neck muscle triangle is formed by the_______ muscle.

    • A.

      Trapezius

    • B.

      Sternocleidomastoid

    • C.

      Temporalis

    • D.

      Deltoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Trapezius
    Explanation
    The posterior margin of the posterior neck muscle triangle is formed by the trapezius muscle. The trapezius muscle is a large muscle that extends from the back of the head, down the neck, and across the upper back. It helps to move and stabilize the shoulder blades and plays a role in head and neck movements. The trapezius muscle forms the posterior boundary of the posterior neck muscle triangle, which is an anatomical landmark used to identify structures in the neck.

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  • 10. 

    The accumulation of gas between the vertebral disks is known as:

    • A.

      Vaccum phenomenon

    • B.

      Air trapping

    • C.

      Cervicopneumatic compression syndrome

    • D.

      Idiopathic compression neuropathy

    Correct Answer
    A. Vaccum phenomenon
    Explanation
    The accumulation of gas between the vertebral disks is known as Vacuum phenomenon. This phenomenon can be observed in radiographic studies and is often associated with degenerative disc disease, although it can be seen in normal, asymptomatic individuals as well.

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  • 11. 

    The appropriate DFOV in CT scans of the elbow is approximately _____cm.

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      14

    • D.

      18

    Correct Answer
    C. 14
    Explanation
    The appropriate DFOV in CT scans of the elbow is approximately 14 cm. This measurement refers to the diameter of the field of view, which is the size of the area that the CT scanner captures during the scan. A DFOV of 14 cm is considered appropriate for imaging the elbow, as it allows for clear visualization of the joint and surrounding structures without capturing unnecessary surrounding tissue.

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  • 12. 

    The best quality CT images of the sternum are reformatted in the __________planes.

    • A.

      Coronal and sagittal

    • B.

      Coronal and axial

    • C.

      Coronal only

    • D.

      Sagittal only

    Correct Answer
    C. Coronal only
    Explanation
    The best quality CT images of the sternum are reformatted in the coronal plane only. This means that the images are taken from a vertical perspective, allowing for a detailed view of the sternum from front to back. This plane is particularly useful for evaluating the structure and alignment of the sternum, as well as any abnormalities or fractures that may be present. The sagittal and axial planes, on the other hand, provide different perspectives that may not be as beneficial for evaluating the sternum specifically.

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  • 13. 

    A CT scan of the cervical spine should extend from the:

    • A.

      Axis to T1

    • B.

      Base of the atlas to C7

    • C.

      Craniocervical junction to T1

    • D.

      C3 to T1

    Correct Answer
    C. Craniocervical junction to T1
    Explanation
    A CT scan of the cervical spine covers the region from the craniocervical junction, where the skull meets the spine, down to the first thoracic vertebra (T1). This imaging helps assess the structures in the neck and upper part of the spine, aiding in the diagnosis of various conditions and injuries.

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  • 14. 

    Which one of the following scapular projections is best described as a flat process that forms the highest point of the scapula?

    • A.

      Scapular spine

    • B.

      Acromion

    • C.

      Glenoid process

    • D.

      Coracoid process

    Correct Answer
    B. Acromion
    Explanation
    The acromion is the correct answer because it is a flat process that forms the highest point of the scapula. It is located at the top of the scapula and forms the outer edge of the shoulder. It serves as an attachment point for various muscles and ligaments and helps to stabilize the shoulder joint. The other options, such as the scapular spine, glenoid process, and coracoid process, are not described as forming the highest point of the scapula.

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  • 15. 

    Attachment of the vertebral column to the pelvis is provided by the:

    • A.

      Symphysis pubis

    • B.

      Sacroiliac joints

    • C.

      Fifth lumbar vertebra (L5)

    • D.

      Coccyx

    Correct Answer
    B. Sacroiliac joints
    Explanation
    The sacroiliac joints provide the attachment of the vertebral column to the pelvis. These joints are located between the sacrum, which is the triangular bone at the base of the spine, and the ilium, which is one of the bones that make up the pelvis. The sacroiliac joints are strong and stable, allowing for minimal movement and providing support and stability to the pelvis and the entire vertebral column.

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  • 16. 

    CT scanning of the thoracic spine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT to:

    • A.

      Rule out compression fracture

    • B.

      Diagnose disc herniation

    • C.

      Diagnose congential malformations

    • D.

      Determine the presence of fibrotic scar tissue

    Correct Answer
    C. Diagnose congential malformations
    Explanation
    CT scanning of the thoracic spine is used to rule out compression fractures, diagnose disc herniation, and determine the presence of fibrotic scar tissue. However, it is not typically used to diagnose congenital malformations. Congenital malformations are usually diagnosed through other imaging techniques or clinical examination.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following contrast materials is typically used for enhancing visibility in CT scans and is known for its risk of causing nephropathy in patients with pre-existing kidney issues?

    • A.

      Gadolinium

    • B.

      Barium Sulfate

    • C.

      Iodinated Contrast

    • D.

      Saline Solution

    Correct Answer
    C. Iodinated Contrast
    Explanation
    Iodinated contrast material is commonly used in CT scans to improve the visibility of internal organs, blood vessels, and tissues. However, it poses a risk of nephropathy, especially in patients with pre-existing renal dysfunction. Careful assessment of renal function is advised before administering this type of contrast.

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  • 18. 

    If iodinated contrast is used in scans of the humerus and forearm, the appropriate scan delay time is _______sec.

    • A.

      10 to 20

    • B.

      20-30

    • C.

      30-40

    • D.

      45

    Correct Answer
    B. 20-30
    Explanation
    The appropriate scan delay time for iodinated contrast used in scans of the humerus and forearm is 20-30 seconds. This delay allows for adequate distribution of the contrast agent throughout the blood vessels in the area, ensuring optimal visualization of the structures being scanned. A shorter delay may result in inadequate contrast enhancement, while a longer delay may lead to excessive contrast diffusion and blurring of the images.

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  • 19. 

    In addition to having the patient raise the arms above the head, technologists can minimize scan artifacts in musculoskeletal CT imaging by:

    • A.

      Reducing the normal LOCM dose by one-third

    • B.

      Using both bone and soft tissue reconstruction algorithms

    • C.

      Optimizing the DFOV to include only region of interest

    • D.

      Placing the patient in the decubitus position

    Correct Answer
    C. Optimizing the DFOV to include only region of interest
    Explanation
    By optimizing the DFOV (Display Field of View) to include only the region of interest, technologists can minimize scan artifacts in musculoskeletal CT imaging. This means that only the specific area that needs to be imaged will be included in the scan, reducing the chances of artifacts or distortions caused by unnecessary information. This technique allows for better visualization and accuracy in the images obtained during the CT scan.

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  • 20. 

    Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) measures the time required:

    • A.

      To increase the platelet count by 5%

    • B.

      To manufacture prothrombin

    • C.

      To lyse an established clot

    • D.

      For clot formation in normal plasma

    Correct Answer
    D. For clot formation in normal plasma
    Explanation
    Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for clot formation in normal plasma. This test evaluates the function of the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which involves factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII. PTT is used to assess the clotting ability of blood and to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. By measuring the time it takes for clot formation, PTT can help detect abnormalities in the clotting process and diagnose conditions such as hemophilia, von Willebrand disease, and certain liver diseases.

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  • 21. 

    A needle with plastic projections on either side that aid in holding the needle during venipuncture best describes a (an):

    • A.

      Butterfly needle

    • B.

      Small guage needle

    • C.

      Angiocatheter

    • D.

      Large guage needle

    Correct Answer
    A. Butterfly needle
    Explanation
    A needle with plastic projections on either side that aid in holding the needle during venipuncture is best described as a butterfly needle. This type of needle is commonly used for drawing blood or administering medication, as the plastic wings allow for better control and stability during the procedure. The plastic projections make it easier for the healthcare professional to grip the needle securely, reducing the risk of accidental needlestick injuries.

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  • 22. 

    Which ONE of the following is an advantage of an angiocatheter over a butterfly needle?

    • A.

      Comparable safety when performing venipuncture

    • B.

      A better ability to withstand the force of a power injector

    • C.

      A lower risk of contrast reaction

    • D.

      The ability to leave the catheter in the antecubital vein without having to immobilize the arm

    Correct Answer
    B. A better ability to withstand the force of a power injector
    Explanation
    An angiocatheter has a better ability to withstand the force of a power injector compared to a butterfly needle. This means that it is more durable and less likely to be damaged or dislodged when high pressure is applied during injection. This advantage is important in medical procedures that require the use of a power injector, such as contrast imaging studies, where a strong force is needed to inject contrast material into the bloodstream.

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  • 23. 

    In order to lower the viscosity of the contrast agent before injection, it should be heated to:

    • A.

      Room temperature

    • B.

      5 degrees above room temperature

    • C.

      Body temperature

    • D.

      The contrast agent should not be preheated

    Correct Answer
    C. Body temperature
    Explanation
    The correct answer is body temperature because heating the contrast agent to body temperature helps to lower its viscosity. This is important because a lower viscosity allows for easier injection and better distribution throughout the body. Heating the contrast agent to body temperature ensures that it is at the optimal temperature for injection and reduces the risk of complications or discomfort for the patient.

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  • 24. 

    If extravasation of contrast occurs, the technologist should do all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Remove the needle

    • B.

      Elevate the affected limb

    • C.

      Maintain pressure on the vein until the bleeding has stopped

    • D.

      Apply heating pads to the area of extravasation

    Correct Answer
    D. Apply heating pads to the area of extravasation
    Explanation
    Extravasation of contrast refers to the leakage of contrast material from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues during a medical imaging procedure. This can cause tissue damage and other complications. In such a situation, the technologist should take certain actions to minimize the damage. These include removing the needle, elevating the affected limb to reduce swelling, and maintaining pressure on the vein until the bleeding stops. However, applying heating pads to the area of extravasation is not recommended as it can potentially worsen the tissue damage.

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  • 25. 

    Contrast agents provide superior visibility in an anatomic area due to their ability to absorb:

    • A.

      X-ray photons

    • B.

      Infrared radiation

    • C.

      Ultraviolet radiation

    • D.

      Gamma radiation

    Correct Answer
    A. X-ray photons
    Explanation
    Contrast agents are substances that are used to enhance the visibility of certain structures or tissues in medical imaging. In this case, the correct answer is x-ray photons. X-ray photons are a form of electromagnetic radiation that can penetrate the body and are commonly used in x-ray imaging. Contrast agents are designed to absorb these x-ray photons, which helps to highlight specific areas or structures of interest, making them more visible in the resulting image. This enhanced visibility allows for better diagnosis and evaluation of various medical conditions.

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  • 26. 

    A technologist may administer contrast agents, radiopharmaceuticals, or medications:

    • A.

      Never

    • B.

      Only with another person in the room

    • C.

      As permitted by state statues and institutional policies

    • D.

      Whenever they feel comfortable with injection technique

    Correct Answer
    C. As permitted by state statues and institutional policies
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "as permitted by state statues and institutional policies." This means that a technologist can administer contrast agents, radiopharmaceuticals, or medications only if it is allowed by the laws and regulations of the state they are practicing in, as well as the policies set by their institution. They must follow these guidelines and obtain the necessary permissions before administering any substances.

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  • 27. 

    The measure of the total number of particles in contrast solution per kilogram of water describes:

    • A.

      Viscosity

    • B.

      Osmolality

    • C.

      Ionicity

    • D.

      Iodination

    Correct Answer
    B. Osmolality
    Explanation
    Osmolality is the measure of the total number of particles in a contrast solution per kilogram of water. It is used to determine the concentration of solutes in a solution and is important in medical and physiological contexts, as it affects the movement of water and solutes across cell membranes. Viscosity refers to the thickness or resistance to flow of a liquid, ionicity refers to the presence of ions in a solution, and iodination refers to the process of adding iodine to a compound.

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  • 28. 

    The correct Hounsfield unit measurement for acute intracranial hemmorhage is:

    • A.

      5 to 25

    • B.

      30 to 50

    • C.

      55 to 75

    • D.

      100 to 105

    Correct Answer
    C. 55 to 75
    Explanation
    The correct Hounsfield unit measurement for acute intracranial hemorrhage is 55 to 75. Hounsfield units (HU) are used to measure the density of different tissues in a CT scan. Acute intracranial hemorrhage refers to bleeding in the brain that has occurred recently. This bleeding typically appears as a high-density area on a CT scan, which corresponds to a higher Hounsfield unit measurement. The range of 55 to 75 HU is characteristic of acute intracranial hemorrhage, allowing for its identification and differentiation from other brain abnormalities.

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  • 29. 

    Which one of the following statements regarding CT scans for air trapping are TRUE?

    • A.

      Expiratory scans will show an increase in attenuation compared with inspiratory scans

    • B.

      Expiratory scans are not needed with multidetector CT scanners

    • C.

      Very thin slice thicknesses are used for diagnosis

    • D.

      The Housfield Unit number is expected to be very high on the inspiratory scan

    Correct Answer
    A. Expiratory scans will show an increase in attenuation compared with inspiratory scans
    Explanation
    Expiratory CT scans demonstrate increased attenuation compared to inspiratory scans due to air trapping in the lungs, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions such as obstructive lung diseases. This difference in attenuation helps identify areas of incomplete air expiration, providing valuable information for diagnosis and treatment planning.

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  • 30. 

    Methods for reducing streak artifacts in patients undergoing routine chest CT include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Raising both arms above the head

    • B.

      Crossing both arms across the chest

    • C.

      Raising one arm above the head

    • D.

      Increasing the exposure on the scan

    Correct Answer
    B. Crossing both arms across the chest
    Explanation
    Crossing both arms across the chest does not help in reducing streak artifacts in CT scans. Streak artifacts occur due to high-density objects, such as metal or bone, which can cause streaks of distortion in the image. Raising both arms above the head, raising one arm above the head, and increasing the exposure on the scan are methods that can help reduce streak artifacts by moving the high-density objects away from the chest area or adjusting the scan parameters. However, crossing both arms across the chest does not have any effect on reducing streak artifacts.

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  • 31. 

    Uniphasic, biphasic, and exponential decay all describe types of:

    • A.

      IV contrast injection techniques

    • B.

      Phase enhancement

    • C.

      Attenuation coefficients

    • D.

      Postprocessing techniques

    Correct Answer
    B. Phase enhancement
    Explanation
    Phase enhancement refers to a technique used in medical imaging to improve the visibility of certain structures or tissues. Uniphasic, biphasic, and exponential decay are all types of phase enhancement techniques. Uniphasic refers to a technique where the contrast agent is injected in a single phase, biphasic refers to a technique where the contrast agent is injected in two phases, and exponential decay refers to a technique where the contrast agent is injected and then gradually decreases in concentration over time. These techniques help enhance the contrast between different tissues or structures in the image, improving the diagnostic quality of the image.

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  • 32. 

    The recommended maximum slice thickness for display of CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis is _____mm.

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      6-7

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    C. 6-7
    Explanation
    The recommended maximum slice thickness for display of CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis is 6-7mm. This range allows for a balance between image resolution and scan time. A slice thickness of 6-7mm provides sufficient detail to visualize structures in the abdomen and pelvis while also minimizing the time required for image acquisition. This allows for efficient and accurate diagnosis of conditions in these regions.

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  • 33. 

    CT plays a limited role in evaluation of the distal esophagus because:

    • A.

      The tissue at the gastroesophageal junction is covered by a thick muscous lining that absorbs barium

    • B.

      The surrounding tissues are heavily vascularized, making it difficult to distinguish between the esophagus and the tissues

    • C.

      This area of the esophagus is difficult to distend with oral contrast agents

    • D.

      Oral contrast agents cause a high degree of gastroesophageal reflux, making the area difficult to clear of residual stomach contents

    Correct Answer
    C. This area of the esophagus is difficult to distend with oral contrast agents
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that the distal esophagus is difficult to distend with oral contrast agents. This means that it is challenging to fill this area of the esophagus with the contrast agent used in imaging tests. This could be due to various factors, such as the thick muscous lining at the gastroesophageal junction that absorbs the contrast agent or the high degree of gastroesophageal reflux caused by oral contrast agents, which makes it difficult to clear the area of residual stomach contents.

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  • 34. 

    Gastric tumors most commonly appear on CT as:

    • A.

      Localized thickening of the gastric wall

    • B.

      Heavily vascularized areas of the fundus of the stomach

    • C.

      Dark spots of the gastric wall with poorly demarcated borders

    • D.

      Distinct areas of "stripe-like" enhancement

    Correct Answer
    A. Localized thickening of the gastric wall
    Explanation
    Gastric tumors most commonly appear on CT as localized thickening of the gastric wall. This is because tumors in the stomach typically cause an abnormal growth or thickening of the gastric wall, which can be visualized on a CT scan. This thickening is often localized to a specific area of the stomach and can be a key indicator of the presence of a tumor. Other imaging features such as vascularization, dark spots, and stripe-like enhancement may also be seen in gastric tumors, but localized thickening of the gastric wall is the most common finding.

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  • 35. 

    The technique of ______is best described as capturing cardica CT images using estimates of the patient's RR interval based on initial electrocardiographic recordings of these intervals:

    • A.

      Multidector gating

    • B.

      Retrospective triggering

    • C.

      Prospective gating

    • D.

      Prospective triggering

    Correct Answer
    D. Prospective triggering
    Explanation
    Prospective triggering is the technique of capturing cardiac CT images using estimates of the patient's RR interval based on initial electrocardiographic recordings of these intervals. This means that the imaging is triggered in real-time based on the patient's heart rate, allowing for more accurate imaging of the cardiac structures. This technique is different from retrospective triggering, which captures images based on the entire recorded ECG signal after the scan has been completed. Multidetector gating is a general term for techniques that synchronize image acquisition with the cardiac cycle, and prospective gating is not a recognized term in cardiac CT imaging.

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  • 36. 

    The area where the trachea bifurcates is called the:

    • A.

      Bronchus

    • B.

      Carina

    • C.

      Hilum

    • D.

      Pleura

    Correct Answer
    B. Carina
    Explanation
    The area where the trachea bifurcates is called the carina. The carina is a ridge of cartilage located at the lower end of the trachea, where it splits into the left and right bronchi. It serves as a point of division and directs the airflow into the respective bronchi.

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  • 37. 

    Uniform marking of the small intestine with oral contrast agents can be achieved by:

    • A.

      Drinking 2 ounces of contrast every 4 hours starting 2 days before the CT exam

    • B.

      Drinking 4 ounces of water for every 8 ounces of contrast

    • C.

      Drinking the contrast agents steadily over a period of 45-60 minutes before the procedure

    • D.

      Concomitant use of a medication designed to increase gastric motility

    Correct Answer
    C. Drinking the contrast agents steadily over a period of 45-60 minutes before the procedure
    Explanation
    Drinking the contrast agents steadily over a period of 45-60 minutes before the procedure allows for the uniform marking of the small intestine. This method ensures that the contrast agents are distributed evenly throughout the small intestine, providing clear and accurate imaging during the CT exam. Drinking the contrast steadily over a period of time allows for proper absorption and distribution of the contrast, resulting in a more effective examination.

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  • 38. 

    The maximum diameter of the patient aperture in the gantry of a CT unit is approximately:

    • A.

      40 cm

    • B.

      50 cm

    • C.

      70 cm

    • D.

      80 cm

    Correct Answer
    D. 80 cm
    Explanation
    The maximum diameter of the patient aperture in the gantry of a CT unit is approximately 80 cm. This means that the opening through which the patient passes during a CT scan can accommodate a maximum diameter of 80 cm. A larger patient aperture allows for larger patients to be scanned comfortably without feeling claustrophobic or restricted. It also allows for more flexibility in positioning the patient during the scan.

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  • 39. 

    X-rays are produced whenever fast moving electrons collide with any form of matter because:

    • A.

      The electron splits into two x-ray photons of equal energy upon impact with the matter

    • B.

      The electron loses kinetic energy, which is converted into the emission of an x-ray photon

    • C.

      The moving electron converts the electron it collides with into an x-ray photon

    • D.

      The electrons multiply upon contact

    Correct Answer
    B. The electron loses kinetic energy, which is converted into the emission of an x-ray photon
    Explanation
    When fast-moving electrons collide with matter, they lose kinetic energy. This lost energy is converted into electromagnetic radiation, including X-rays. Therefore, the emission of an X-ray photon occurs due to the loss of kinetic energy by the fast-moving electron upon collision with matter.

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  • 40. 

    The gantry of a CT scanner is NOT likely to contain:

    • A.

      The xray tube

    • B.

      The array processor

    • C.

      The high-voltage generator

    • D.

      Slip-ring technology

    Correct Answer
    B. The array processor
    Explanation
    The gantry of a CT scanner is a mechanical structure that houses various components required for the scanning process. It typically includes the x-ray tube, high-voltage generator, and slip-ring technology. However, an array processor is not likely to be found in the gantry. The array processor is responsible for processing the data acquired during the scan and generating the final images. It is usually located outside the gantry in the control room or a separate computer system.

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  • 41. 

    Bremsstrahlung is:

    • A.

      The predominant form of radiation used in CT scanning

    • B.

      Produced when fast-moving electrons that collide with an atom replaces the electrons inside the atom

    • C.

      A type of artifact produced on CT images

    • D.

      The name of a man who developed the concept of CT scanning

    Correct Answer
    B. Produced when fast-moving electrons that collide with an atom replaces the electrons inside the atom
    Explanation
    Bremsstrahlung, which translates to "braking radiation" in German, occurs when fast-moving electrons are decelerated upon interacting with the nucleus of an atom, causing the electrons to lose energy which is emitted as X-ray radiation. This phenomenon is a significant component in the generation of X-rays in medical imaging and other applications. It does not pertain to the replacement of electrons within an atom, nor is it a type of artifact or named after a developer of CT scanning technology.

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  • 42. 

    The device in the gantry that measures the intensity of the x-ray beam emanating from the tube is called the:

    • A.

      Array processor

    • B.

      Anode

    • C.

      Photomultiplier tube

    • D.

      Air-reference detector

    Correct Answer
    D. Air-reference detector
    Explanation
    The device in the gantry that measures the intensity of the x-ray beam emanating from the tube is called an air-reference detector. This device is specifically designed to measure the intensity of the x-ray beam by comparing it to the intensity of the air. It provides a reference point for the measurement and ensures accurate and consistent readings. The other options mentioned, such as array processor, anode, and photomultiplier tube, do not perform the specific function of measuring the intensity of the x-ray beam in this context.

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  • 43. 

    Collimation in CT scanning does NOT serve which of the following functions?

    • A.

      Reducing scatter radiation to the patient

    • B.

      Ensuring a consistent beam width received by the detectors

    • C.

      Reducing the number of slices needed for a full set of images

    • D.

      Improving the image resolution

    Correct Answer
    C. Reducing the number of slices needed for a full set of images
    Explanation
    Collimation in CT scanning serves the functions of reducing scatter radiation to the patient, ensuring a consistent beam width received by the detectors, and improving the image resolution. However, it does not serve the function of reducing the number of slices needed for a full set of images. Collimation refers to the process of limiting the x-ray beam to a specific area of interest, which helps to reduce scatter radiation and improve image quality. It does not directly impact the number of slices required for a complete set of images, as that is determined by the specific scanning protocol and the desired anatomical coverage.

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  • 44. 

    Second-generation scanners were associated with the introduction of which of the following developments?

    • A.

      A fan beam technology

    • B.

      Large volume imaging

    • C.

      Slip ring technology

    • D.

      Paired detectors

    Correct Answer
    A. A fan beam technology
    Explanation
    The second-generation scanners were associated with the introduction of fan beam technology. This technology involves the use of a fan-shaped x-ray beam that rotates around the patient, allowing for more efficient and accurate imaging. It improved the image quality and reduced the scanning time compared to the previous generation scanners.

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  • 45. 

    The major change in CT technology seen with fourth-generation scanners was:

    • A.

      The use of up to 2000 detectors in a fixed ring

    • B.

      The introduction of slip-ring technology

    • C.

      The use of nutating rings

    • D.

      Translation-rotation

    Correct Answer
    A. The use of up to 2000 detectors in a fixed ring
    Explanation
    The major change in CT technology seen with fourth-generation scanners was the use of up to 2000 detectors in a fixed ring. This means that instead of using a single detector, these scanners had multiple detectors arranged in a fixed ring. This allowed for faster and more accurate imaging as the detectors could capture multiple slices of the body simultaneously. This advancement in technology greatly improved the efficiency and quality of CT scans.

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  • 46. 

    KV refers to:

    • A.

      Tube current

    • B.

      Tube voltage

    • C.

      Heat tolerance

    • D.

      The number of detectors

    Correct Answer
    B. Tube voltage
    Explanation
    kV refers to tube voltage. In medical imaging, kV (kilovolt) is used to measure the voltage applied across the X-ray tube. This voltage determines the energy of the X-ray beam produced. Higher kV values result in X-rays with higher energy and greater penetration, which is useful for imaging thicker body parts. Lower kV values produce X-rays with lower energy, suitable for imaging thinner body parts. Thus, kV is an important parameter in determining the quality and diagnostic value of X-ray images.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following statements about slip ring technology is NOT true?

    • A.

      It is most widely used with third-generation scanners

    • B.

      It involoves the use of metal brushes against the grooves of a metal alloy cylinder

    • C.

      It was necessary to the development of spiral/helical scanning

    • D.

      It requires long cables connecting to a power source outside of the scanning tube

    Correct Answer
    D. It requires long cables connecting to a power source outside of the scanning tube
    Explanation
    Slip ring technology does not require long cables connecting to a power source outside of the scanning tube. Slip rings are electrical connectors that allow the transmission of power and signals between a stationary and a rotating part. They are commonly used in various applications, including scanners. The use of metal brushes against the grooves of a metal alloy cylinder is a characteristic of slip ring technology. It was also necessary for the development of spiral/helical scanning. However, slip ring technology is not specifically associated with third-generation scanners.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following statements is true about tube current?

    • A.

      It can be altered by the technologist from the scanner console

    • B.

      It drives the electron beam to the target material in the cathode

    • C.

      Changing the current alters filament temperature to slow the speed of the electron beam

    • D.

      Tube current has a normal level of 120 kV

    Correct Answer
    A. It can be altered by the technologist from the scanner console
    Explanation
    The tube current can be altered by the technologist from the scanner console. This means that the technologist has the ability to adjust the amount of current flowing through the X-ray tube during a scan. By increasing or decreasing the tube current, the technologist can control the intensity of the X-ray beam and therefore the amount of radiation exposure to the patient. This is an important feature as it allows for customization of the scan parameters based on the specific needs of each patient.

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  • 49. 

    In an electron beam CT (EBCT) scanner, the type of radiation used to produce the image is:

    • A.

      Scatter radiation

    • B.

      A fixed x-ray beam

    • C.

      A mixed beam of electrons and x-rays a fixed electron beam

    • D.

      A fixed electron beam

    Correct Answer
    D. A fixed electron beam
    Explanation
    In an electron beam CT (EBCT) scanner, a fixed electron beam is used to produce the image. This means that a consistent and steady stream of electrons is directed towards the target area to generate the image. This fixed electron beam allows for precise and accurate imaging, as the beam remains constant throughout the scanning process.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following artifacts is also referred to as the cupping artifact?

    • A.

      Motion artifact

    • B.

      Beam hardening artifact

    • C.

      Aliasing artifact

    • D.

      Edge-gradient effect

    Correct Answer
    B. Beam hardening artifact
    Explanation
    The beam hardening artifact is also referred to as the cupping artifact. This artifact occurs when the X-ray beam passes through a dense object, such as bone, causing the beam to become harder or more penetrating. As a result, the surrounding tissues appear darker, creating a cup-like or shadowing effect around the dense object on the image. This artifact can affect the accuracy of the image interpretation and needs to be considered when analyzing radiographic images.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 19, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 29, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Tkraiger
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