A CT Scan Registry Preparation Test

128 Questions | Total Attempts: 7968

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A CT Scan Registry Preparation Test

A CT scan combines a series of X-Ray imagery of a patient’s body and is used to provide medical information that is different from other imaging exams. Some people have the misconception that CT tests are dangerous due to radiation exposure but the degree of exposure is actually small. This practice test will get you ready for the CT registry, give it a try!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The muscles of mastication include all of the following EXCEPT the:
    • A. 

      Temporalis

    • B. 

      Proximal pterygoid

    • C. 

      Masseter

    • D. 

      Lateral pterygoid

  • 2. 
    Which of the following statements concerning CT angiography of the neck is FALSE?
    • A. 

      It is more rapidly performed than conventional angiography

    • B. 

      It can be used to assess the degree of carotid artery stenosis

    • C. 

      It requires hospital admission due to the potential for adverse events during the procedure

    • D. 

      It requires proper timing to avoid overlapping contrast enhancement of the jugular vein

  • 3. 
    The gantry angle for a sinus cavity CT scan should be:
    • A. 

      Parallel to the roof of the hard palate

    • B. 

      Sagittal to the roof of the hard palate

    • C. 

      Parallel to the floor of the orbit

    • D. 

      Parallel to the roof of the orbit

  • 4. 
    Which one of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebrum?
    • A. 

      Occipital lobe

    • B. 

      Neural Lobe

    • C. 

      Parietal Lobe

    • D. 

      Temporal Lobe

  • 5. 
    Which superficial anterior muscle of the neck is known as the "muscle of facial expression"?
    • A. 

      Masseter

    • B. 

      Sternocleidomastoid

    • C. 

      Medial pterygoid

    • D. 

      Platysma

  • 6. 
    Which one of the following statements regarding the petrous pyramids is FALSE?
    • A. 

      It contains the middle and inner ear structures

    • B. 

      It extends medially beyond the sphenoid bones

    • C. 

      Its end forms the antrum of the eustachian tubule

    • D. 

      Its upper surface forms part of the floor of the middle cranial fossa

  • 7. 
    Scan coverage for a temporal bone scan should cover the:
    • A. 

      Mid mastoids to below the petrous ridge

    • B. 

      Mid mastoids to above the petrous ridge

    • C. 

      Petrous ridge alone

    • D. 

      Mid mastoid alone

  • 8. 
    The portion of the dura mater that separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum is known as the :
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Falx cerebri

    • C. 

      Falx cerebelli

    • D. 

      Tentorium cerebelli

  • 9. 
    The posterior margin of the posterior neck muscle triangle is formed by the_______ muscle.
    • A. 

      Trapezius

    • B. 

      Sternocleidomastoid

    • C. 

      Temporalis

    • D. 

      Deltoid

  • 10. 
    The accumulation of gas between the verterbral disks is known as:
    • A. 

      Vaccum phenomenon

    • B. 

      Air trapping

    • C. 

      Cervicopneumatic compression syndrome

    • D. 

      Idiopathic compression neuropathy

  • 11. 
    The appropriate DFOV in CT scans of the elbow is approximately _____cm.
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      14

    • D. 

      18

  • 12. 
    The best quality CT images of the sternum are reformatted in the __________planes.
    • A. 

      Coronal and sagittal

    • B. 

      Coronal and axial

    • C. 

      Coronal only

    • D. 

      Sagittal only

  • 13. 
    A CT scan of the cervical spine should extend from the:
    • A. 

      Axis to T1

    • B. 

      Base of the atlas to C7

    • C. 

      Craniocervical junction to T1

    • D. 

      C3 to T1

  • 14. 
    Which one of the following scapular projections is best described as a flat process that forms the highest point of the scapula?
    • A. 

      Scapular spine

    • B. 

      Acromion

    • C. 

      Glenoid process

    • D. 

      Coracoid process

  • 15. 
    Attachment of the vertebral column to the pelvis is provided by the:
    • A. 

      Symphysis pubis

    • B. 

      Sacroiliac joints

    • C. 

      Fifth lumbar vertebra (L5)

    • D. 

      Coccyx

  • 16. 
    CT scanning of the thoracic spine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT to:
    • A. 

      Rule out compression fracture

    • B. 

      Diagnose disc herniation

    • C. 

      Diagnose congential malformations

    • D. 

      Determine the presence of fibrotic scar tissue

  • 17. 
    CTA may require LOCM injection rats as high as ______mL/sec.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      7.5

  • 18. 
    If iodinated contrast is used in scans of the humerus and forearm, the appropriate scan delay time is _______sec.
    • A. 

      10 to 20

    • B. 

      20-30

    • C. 

      30-40

    • D. 

      45

  • 19. 
    In addition to having the patient raise the arms above the head, technologists can minimize scan artifacts in musculoskeletal CT imaging by:
    • A. 

      Reducing the normal LOCM dose by one-third

    • B. 

      Using both bone and soft tissue reconstruction algorithms

    • C. 

      Optimizing the DFOV to include only region of interest

    • D. 

      Placing the patient in the decubitus position

  • 20. 
    Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) measures the time required:
    • A. 

      To increase the platelet count by 5%

    • B. 

      To manufacture prothrombin

    • C. 

      To lyse an established clot

    • D. 

      For clot formation in normal plasma

  • 21. 
    A needle with plastic projections on either side that aid in holding the needle during venipuncture best describes a (an):
    • A. 

      Butterfly needle

    • B. 

      Small guage needle

    • C. 

      Angiocatheter

    • D. 

      Large guage needle

  • 22. 
    Which ONE of the following is an advantage of an angiocatheter over a butterfly needle?
    • A. 

      Comparable safety when performing venipuncture

    • B. 

      A better ability to withstand the force of a power injector

    • C. 

      A lower risk of contrast reaction

    • D. 

      The ability to leave the catheter in the antecubital vein without having to immobilize the arm

  • 23. 
    In order to lower the viscosity of the contrast agent before injection, it should be heated to:
    • A. 

      Room temperature

    • B. 

      5 degrees above room temperature

    • C. 

      Body temperature

    • D. 

      The contrast agent should not be preheated

  • 24. 
    If extravasation of contrast occurs, the technologist should do all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Remove the needle

    • B. 

      Elevate the affected limb

    • C. 

      Maintain pressure on the vein until the bleeding has stopped

    • D. 

      Apply heating pads to the area of extravasation

  • 25. 
    Contrast agents provide superior visibility in an anatomic area due to their ability to absorb:
    • A. 

      X-ray photons

    • B. 

      Infrared radiation

    • C. 

      Ultraviolet radiation

    • D. 

      Gamma radiation