CT Scan Registry Preparation Test

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1. Contrast agents provide superior visibility in an anatomic area due to their ability to absorb:

Explanation

Contrast agents are substances that are used to enhance the visibility of certain structures or tissues in medical imaging. In this case, the correct answer is x-ray photons. X-ray photons are a form of electromagnetic radiation that can penetrate the body and are commonly used in x-ray imaging. Contrast agents are designed to absorb these x-ray photons, which helps to highlight specific areas or structures of interest, making them more visible in the resulting image. This enhanced visibility allows for better diagnosis and evaluation of various medical conditions.

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About This Quiz
CT Scan Registry Preparation Test - Quiz

Play this informative CT scan registry test to gauge your understanding. A CT scan, short for computed tomography, is a sophisticated medical imaging technique that utilizes a series... see moreof X-ray images to provide detailed information about a patient's body. Unlike other imaging exams, such as MRI or ultrasound, CT scans excel at capturing cross-sectional images of internal structures, allowing doctors to visualize organs, bones, and tissues with exceptional clarity. Unfortunately, there exists a common misconception that CT tests are unsafe due to potential radiation exposure. However, it's important to note that the actual amount of radiation exposure during a CT scan is relatively low and well within acceptable limits.
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2. The primary reason for having the patient extend the arms above the head during a thoracic CT scan is that it

Explanation

Having the patient extend the arms above the head during a thoracic CT scan reduces the risk of artifacts. Artifacts are unwanted image distortions that can occur during a scan, and they can interfere with the accuracy and interpretation of the results. By having the patient extend their arms above the head, it helps to minimize any potential movement that could lead to artifacts. This position ensures that the patient remains still and reduces the chances of any unwanted image distortions, resulting in clearer and more accurate scan images.

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3. A technologist may administer contrast agents, radiopharmaceuticals, or medications:

Explanation

The correct answer is "as permitted by state statues and institutional policies." This means that a technologist can administer contrast agents, radiopharmaceuticals, or medications only if it is allowed by the laws and regulations of the state they are practicing in, as well as the policies set by their institution. They must follow these guidelines and obtain the necessary permissions before administering any substances.

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4. Spiral/helical CT:

Explanation

Spiral/helical CT involves continuous scanning around the patient and table. Unlike conventional CT scanning, which requires starting and stopping the scanner each time the table moves an increment, spiral/helical CT collects data in a continuous manner. This continuous scanning allows for faster image acquisition and reduces the overall scanning time. Additionally, spiral/helical CT requires a great deal of power to operate due to the continuous scanning process.

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5. Barium should not be used in patients with:

Explanation

Gastrointestinal perforation is a condition where there is a hole or tear in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to leakage of digestive fluids and bacteria into the abdominal cavity. Barium, a contrast agent used in medical imaging, should not be used in patients with gastrointestinal perforation because it can exacerbate the condition and further spread the contents of the gastrointestinal tract into the abdominal cavity, leading to complications such as infection and peritonitis.

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6. MRI may be of greater value than CT for musculoskeletal imaging of ___.

Explanation

MRI may be of greater value than CT for musculoskeletal imaging of ligaments because MRI provides better soft tissue contrast and resolution compared to CT. Ligaments are soft tissues that connect bones to other bones, and MRI can accurately visualize and assess the integrity of ligaments, including any tears, sprains, or other abnormalities. CT, on the other hand, is better suited for imaging bony structures and may not provide the same level of detail and sensitivity for evaluating ligaments.

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7. A needle with plastic projections on either side that aid in holding the needle during venipuncture best describes a (an):

Explanation

A needle with plastic projections on either side that aid in holding the needle during venipuncture is best described as a butterfly needle. This type of needle is commonly used for drawing blood or administering medication, as the plastic wings allow for better control and stability during the procedure. The plastic projections make it easier for the healthcare professional to grip the needle securely, reducing the risk of accidental needlestick injuries.

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8. Uniform marking of the small intestine with oral contrast agents can be achieved by:

Explanation

Drinking the contrast agents steadily over a period of 45-60 minutes before the procedure allows for the uniform marking of the small intestine. This method ensures that the contrast agents are distributed evenly throughout the small intestine, providing clear and accurate imaging during the CT exam. Drinking the contrast steadily over a period of time allows for proper absorption and distribution of the contrast, resulting in a more effective examination.

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9. The late effects of radiation exposure include all of the following EXCEPT development of:

Explanation

Exposure to radiation can have various long-term effects on the body. Cataracts, breast cancer, and thyroid cancer are all known to be potential late effects of radiation exposure. However, osteoporosis, which is the weakening of bones, is not typically associated with radiation exposure. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis.

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10. Which one of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebrum?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Neural Lobe" because there is no such lobe called the "Neural Lobe" in the cerebrum. The cerebrum is divided into four lobes: the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, and occipital lobe.

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11. The area where the trachea bifurcates is called the:

Explanation

The area where the trachea bifurcates is called the carina. The carina is a ridge of cartilage located at the lower end of the trachea, where it splits into the left and right bronchi. It serves as a point of division and directs the airflow into the respective bronchi.

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12. The imaging procedure involving the injection of contrast agents into the spinal canal is:

Explanation

Myelography is the correct answer because it involves the injection of contrast agents into the spinal canal. This procedure is used to visualize the spinal cord and nerve roots, as well as detect any abnormalities or blockages in the spinal canal. It is commonly used to diagnose conditions such as herniated discs, spinal tumors, or spinal stenosis. Arthrography is a different imaging procedure that involves the injection of contrast agents into a joint, not the spinal canal. Intrathecal lumbar imaging and laminectomy are unrelated to the injection of contrast agents into the spinal canal.

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13. Which of the following statements concerning CT angiography of the neck is FALSE?

Explanation

CT angiography of the neck does not require hospital admission due to the potential for adverse events during the procedure. CT angiography is a non-invasive imaging technique that uses X-rays and contrast dye to visualize the blood vessels in the neck. It is more rapidly performed than conventional angiography and can be used to assess the degree of carotid artery stenosis. Proper timing is important to avoid overlapping contrast enhancement of the jugular vein, but it does not require hospital admission.

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14. In CT scanning of the wrist, the technologist should employ all of the following techniques EXCEPT:

Explanation

A wide collimation refers to using a larger beam of X-rays during the CT scan. This technique is not recommended for imaging the wrist because it can result in decreased spatial resolution and increased image noise. The other techniques mentioned, such as using the smallest possible DFOV, constructing images with an overlap, and acquiring both coronal and sagittal images, are all important for obtaining high-quality and accurate images of the wrist during CT scanning.

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15. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) measures the time required:

Explanation

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for clot formation in normal plasma. This test evaluates the function of the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which involves factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII. PTT is used to assess the clotting ability of blood and to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. By measuring the time it takes for clot formation, PTT can help detect abnormalities in the clotting process and diagnose conditions such as hemophilia, von Willebrand disease, and certain liver diseases.

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16. KV refers to:

Explanation

kV refers to tube voltage. In medical imaging, kV (kilovolt) is used to measure the voltage applied across the X-ray tube. This voltage determines the energy of the X-ray beam produced. Higher kV values result in X-rays with higher energy and greater penetration, which is useful for imaging thicker body parts. Lower kV values produce X-rays with lower energy, suitable for imaging thinner body parts. Thus, kV is an important parameter in determining the quality and diagnostic value of X-ray images.

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17. The term "noise" in CT imaging refers to:

Explanation

The term "noise" in CT imaging refers to deviations in the consistency of the image grid. This means that there are inconsistencies or random variations in the pixel values of the image, which can result in a grainy or speckled appearance. These deviations can be caused by various factors such as statistical fluctuations in the x-ray photon detection process, electronic noise in the CT system, or patient motion during the scan. It is important to minimize noise in CT imaging to ensure accurate and high-quality diagnostic images.

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18. The function of the detector is to:

Explanation

The function of the detector is to measure attenuated x-rays and convert them to digital signals. This means that the detector is responsible for capturing the x-ray signal that has passed through the object being imaged, and then converting it into a digital format that can be processed and analyzed by a computer. The other options, such as amplifying the signal, defining the signal beam intensity, and reducing scatter radiation, do not accurately describe the main function of the detector in this context.

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19. The gelatinous core at the center of an intervertebral disc is called the:

Explanation

The gelatinous core at the center of an intervertebral disc is called the nucleus pulposus. This structure is responsible for providing cushioning and shock absorption between the vertebrae in the spine. It is composed of a jelly-like substance that helps to distribute pressure evenly throughout the disc, allowing for flexibility and movement in the spine. The nucleus pulposus also plays a role in maintaining the height and integrity of the intervertebral disc.

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20. The onset of most serious adverse reactions to contrast media occurs ______ post administration

Explanation

Most serious adverse reactions to contrast media occur within 5 minutes post administration. This means that the onset of these reactions, such as an allergic reaction or anaphylaxis, typically happens very quickly after the contrast media is administered. It is important for medical professionals to be aware of this timeframe so that they can monitor patients closely and respond promptly if any adverse reactions occur.

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21. The bone that transmittes the weight of the body from the distal portions of the tibia and fibula to the foot is called the:

Explanation

The talus is the bone that transmits the weight of the body from the distal portions of the tibia and fibula to the foot. It is located between the tibia and fibula of the lower leg and the calcaneus (heel bone) of the foot. The talus is an important bone in weight-bearing and plays a crucial role in the movement and stability of the ankle joint.

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22. The image grid on a computer screen is made up of tiny regions called:

Explanation

The image grid on a computer screen is made up of tiny regions called pixels. Pixels are the smallest unit of information in a digital image, representing a single point in a raster image. Each pixel contains color and intensity information, which collectively form the image on the screen. The term "voxels" refers to the three-dimensional equivalent of pixels, typically used in medical imaging or 3D graphics. CRT's (Cathode Ray Tubes) are a type of display technology that was commonly used in older computer monitors and televisions. "The matrix" is a vague term and does not specifically refer to the regions on a computer screen.

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23. Slip ring technology made spiral CT a possibility by:

Explanation

Slip ring technology allows the tube and detectors in a CT scanner to rotate continuously. This is important because it enables the scanner to capture images of the patient's body from multiple angles without the need to stop and reverse the rotation. This continuous rotation allows for a faster and more efficient scanning process, as well as more accurate beam direction. Without slip ring technology, the tube and detectors would be limited to a fixed position, resulting in less comprehensive and slower imaging.

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24. For the evaluation of herniated dics, CT provides _____________over MRI.

Explanation

CT provides superior visualization of bony abnormalities related to disc disease compared to MRI. This means that CT scans are better at detecting and showing any bone-related issues or abnormalities that may be present in the spine due to disc disease. MRI scans, on the other hand, are more useful for evaluating soft tissues, such as the spinal cord and cartilage erosion. However, when it comes to identifying bony abnormalities, CT scans are considered to be more accurate and effective.

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25. Which of the following structures is the most commonly used landmark in CT angiography of the brain?

Explanation

The circle of Willis is the best structure to use as a landmark in CT angiography of the brain. This is because it is a circular arrangement of blood vessels located at the base of the brain, connecting the major arteries that supply blood to the brain. It is easily identifiable on CT angiography images and serves as a reference point for evaluating the blood flow and detecting any abnormalities in the cerebral vasculature. The other options, such as the vertebral arteries, internal carotid arteries, and external carotid arteries, are also important vessels in the brain, but they are not as suitable as the circle of Willis for this specific purpose.

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26. What is the most common indication for CT of the hip?

Explanation

The most common indication for a CT scan of the hip is trauma. This is because CT scans are often used to evaluate fractures, dislocations, and other injuries to the hip joint that may result from trauma or accidents. CT scans can provide detailed images of the bones, soft tissues, and surrounding structures, allowing healthcare professionals to accurately diagnose and plan appropriate treatment for hip injuries caused by trauma.

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27. Which of the following contrast materials is typically used for enhancing visibility in CT scans and is known for its risk of causing nephropathy in patients with pre-existing kidney issues?

Explanation



Iodinated contrast material is commonly used in CT scans to improve the visibility of internal organs, blood vessels, and tissues. However, it poses a risk of nephropathy, especially in patients with pre-existing renal dysfunction. Careful assessment of renal function is advised before administering this type of contrast.
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28. Which ONE of the following is an advantage of an angiocatheter over a butterfly needle?

Explanation

An angiocatheter has a better ability to withstand the force of a power injector compared to a butterfly needle. This means that it is more durable and less likely to be damaged or dislodged when high pressure is applied during injection. This advantage is important in medical procedures that require the use of a power injector, such as contrast imaging studies, where a strong force is needed to inject contrast material into the bloodstream.

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29. The preferred type of external storage devices used on CT scanning computers is:

Explanation

The preferred type of external storage devices used on CT scanning computers is magnetic optical disk (MOD). This is because MODs offer a high storage capacity, fast access times, and reliable data retrieval. They are also durable and resistant to damage, making them suitable for the demanding environment of CT scanning. Additionally, MODs provide a cost-effective solution for long-term data storage and archiving.

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30. Common causes of RLQ pain that may mimic appendicitis, but can be ruled out with CT scanning, include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

The given question asks for a condition that can cause pain in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) and can be ruled out with CT scanning, similar to appendicitis. The correct answer, food poisoning, is a condition that typically causes gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. While it can cause abdominal pain, it is not typically associated with RLQ pain. CT scanning can help rule out other conditions such as cecal diverticulitis, Crohn's disease, and pelvic inflammatory disease, which can present with RLQ pain similar to appendicitis.

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31. The line that extends from the fold at the corner of the eye to the external hole of the ear is known as the ______line

Explanation

The line that extends from the fold at the corner of the eye to the external hole of the ear is known as the orbitomeatal line.

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32. Which one of the following is TRUE regarding ionic contrast media?

Explanation

Ionic contrast media are generally of higher osmolality than nonionic contrast media. Osmolality refers to the concentration of particles in a solution. Ionic contrast media contain charged particles, which increase the osmolality of the solution. Nonionic contrast media, on the other hand, do not contain charged particles and therefore have lower osmolality. The higher osmolality of ionic contrast media can lead to more adverse reactions and side effects compared to nonionic contrast media.

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33. CT scanning exposes the patient to more radiation than a plain x-ray film because:

Explanation

Unlike traditional X-rays that produce two-dimensional images, CT scans create detailed three-dimensional images of the inside of the body. This requires a larger number of X-ray beams from multiple angles to capture cross-sectional slices of the body.

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34. Attachment of the vertebral column to the pelvis is provided by the:

Explanation

The sacroiliac joints provide the attachment of the vertebral column to the pelvis. These joints are located between the sacrum, which is the triangular bone at the base of the spine, and the ilium, which is one of the bones that make up the pelvis. The sacroiliac joints are strong and stable, allowing for minimal movement and providing support and stability to the pelvis and the entire vertebral column.

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35. In CT imaging, which technique adjusts the tube current in response to the density of the body part being scanned to optimize dose efficiency?

Explanation

Automatic exposure control (AEC) in CT imaging is a critical technique that adjusts the x-ray tube current dynamically during the scan, based on the density of the body part being imaged. This adjustment is crucial for maintaining image quality while minimizing the radiation dose to the patient. AEC optimizes the dose by increasing or decreasing the tube current as needed to provide consistent image quality across different body parts and densities. This technology significantly enhances the balance between image quality and patient safety in CT imaging.

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36. The measure of the total number of particles in contrast solution per kilogram of water describes:

Explanation

Osmolality is the measure of the total number of particles in a contrast solution per kilogram of water. It is used to determine the concentration of solutes in a solution and is important in medical and physiological contexts, as it affects the movement of water and solutes across cell membranes. Viscosity refers to the thickness or resistance to flow of a liquid, ionicity refers to the presence of ions in a solution, and iodination refers to the process of adding iodine to a compound.

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37. Which of the following statements about slip ring technology is NOT true?

Explanation

Slip ring technology does not require long cables connecting to a power source outside of the scanning tube. Slip rings are electrical connectors that allow the transmission of power and signals between a stationary and a rotating part. They are commonly used in various applications, including scanners. The use of metal brushes against the grooves of a metal alloy cylinder is a characteristic of slip ring technology. It was also necessary for the development of spiral/helical scanning. However, slip ring technology is not specifically associated with third-generation scanners.

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38. The posterior margin of the posterior neck muscle triangle is formed by the_______ muscle.

Explanation

The posterior margin of the posterior neck muscle triangle is formed by the trapezius muscle. The trapezius muscle is a large muscle that extends from the back of the head, down the neck, and across the upper back. It helps to move and stabilize the shoulder blades and plays a role in head and neck movements. The trapezius muscle forms the posterior boundary of the posterior neck muscle triangle, which is an anatomical landmark used to identify structures in the neck.

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39. Methods for reducing streak artifacts in patients undergoing routine chest CT include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Crossing both arms across the chest does not help in reducing streak artifacts in CT scans. Streak artifacts occur due to high-density objects, such as metal or bone, which can cause streaks of distortion in the image. Raising both arms above the head, raising one arm above the head, and increasing the exposure on the scan are methods that can help reduce streak artifacts by moving the high-density objects away from the chest area or adjusting the scan parameters. However, crossing both arms across the chest does not have any effect on reducing streak artifacts.

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40. Second-generation scanners were associated with the introduction of which of the following developments?

Explanation

The second-generation scanners were associated with the introduction of fan beam technology. This technology involves the use of a fan-shaped x-ray beam that rotates around the patient, allowing for more efficient and accurate imaging. It improved the image quality and reduced the scanning time compared to the previous generation scanners.

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41. The field of view for a craniofacial scan should include the:

Explanation

A craniofacial scan is a medical imaging technique used to visualize the skull and face. It is important to include the entire skull and face in the field of view to ensure a comprehensive assessment of the craniofacial region. This allows for the identification and evaluation of any abnormalities, fractures, or other conditions that may affect the skull or facial structures. By including the entire skull and face in the scan, healthcare professionals can obtain a complete picture of the patient's craniofacial anatomy, aiding in diagnosis and treatment planning.

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42. The posterior elements of the vertebra are the:

Explanation

The posterior elements of the vertebra are the pedicles and laminae. The pedicles are short, thick processes that connect the vertebral body to the laminae, which are flat plates of bone that form the posterior portion of the vertebral arch. Together, the pedicles and laminae enclose the vertebral foramen, which houses the spinal cord. The annulus fibrosis is a component of the intervertebral disc, not the posterior elements of the vertebra. The nucleus pulposus is also part of the intervertebral disc and is located within the annulus fibrosis.

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43. Signs of anaphylactoid reaction to contrast include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Anaphylactoid reactions to contrast are severe allergic reactions that can occur after the administration of contrast media. These reactions can cause various symptoms such as cool, clammy skin, throat constriction, and a sense of apprehension. However, yellowing of the skin is not a typical symptom of anaphylactoid reactions. Yellowing of the skin, also known as jaundice, is usually associated with liver dysfunction or other medical conditions unrelated to contrast administration. Therefore, yellowing of the skin is not an expected sign of an anaphylactoid reaction to contrast.

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44. Exposure to radiation may affect cells in all of the following ways EXCEPT:

Explanation

Exposure to radiation can cause genetic damage, interfere with cell division by causing cells to die during mitosis or fail to divide at the normal rate. However, it does not precipitate apoptosis, which is a programmed cell death that occurs naturally in the body to remove damaged or unnecessary cells.

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45. What type of scout scans should be taken prior to performing craniofacial scans?

Explanation

Prior to performing craniofacial scans, both anterior-posterior and lateral scout scans should be taken. These scout scans provide a comprehensive view of the craniofacial region from different angles, allowing for accurate positioning and assessment of the area of interest. By taking both anterior-posterior and lateral scans, healthcare professionals can ensure a thorough evaluation of the craniofacial structures, aiding in diagnosis and treatment planning.

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46. In a patient with an abdominal mass, CT scanning is used for all of the following EXCEPT?

Explanation

CT scanning is a useful imaging technique for evaluating abdominal masses. It can help in differentiating tumors from cystic abnormalities, staging tumors, and determining if the tumor has invaded adjacent organs or tissues. However, CT scanning is not typically used for visualizing cytologic markers. Cytologic markers refer to cellular characteristics that can be identified through microscopic examination of cells, which is not the primary purpose of CT scanning.

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47. When conducting CT scans of the ankle, the ankles

Explanation

When conducting CT scans of the ankle, the ankles can be imaged together, but the images must be reconstructed separately using the smallest possible DFOV. This means that both ankles can be included in the same scan, but the images need to be reconstructed separately to ensure the highest level of detail and accuracy. By using the smallest possible DFOV (display field of view), the focus can be narrowed down to each ankle individually, allowing for a more precise evaluation of any abnormalities or injuries.

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48. In abdominal and pelvic CT imaging, IV contrast provides all of the following benefits EXCEPT:

Explanation

IV contrast in abdominal and pelvic CT imaging provides several benefits, including increasing the attenuation of pelvic blood vessels, assessing the vascularity of tumors, and increasing the attenuation of solid organs. However, it does not directly visualize the layers of the peritoneal membrane. The peritoneal membrane is a thin, transparent membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the abdominal organs. While IV contrast can help enhance the visualization of structures within the abdominal cavity, it does not specifically target or enhance the visualization of the peritoneal membrane itself.

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49. The Agaston score is a measurement of the:

Explanation

The Agaston score is a measurement of the degree of coronary artery calcification. This score is used to assess the amount of calcium deposits in the coronary arteries, which can indicate the presence and severity of coronary artery disease. It is calculated based on the amount and density of the calcium deposits seen on a CT scan of the heart. A higher Agaston score indicates a higher degree of calcification and therefore a higher risk for coronary artery disease.

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50. The ________ is/are the smallest of the cranial bones.

Explanation

The lacrimal bones are two small, thin bones located within the facial skeleton. Each lacrimal bone is situated near the medial or inner aspect of the eye socket (orbit). Their primary function is to contribute to the formation of the lacrimal apparatus, which is involved in the production and drainage of tears. Despite being small, the lacrimal bones play a crucial role in the overall structure and function of the facial and orbital regions.

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51. What is the proper patient positioning for axial CT scans of the orbits?

Explanation

The proper patient positioning for axial CT scans of the orbits is supine, head first neutral position. This means that the patient lies on their back, with their head positioned first and in a neutral, straight position. This positioning allows for clear and accurate imaging of the orbits, as it ensures that the patient's head is properly aligned and stationary during the scan.

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52. A proper IV contrast bolus for a soft-tissue scan of the neck is ___cc at ____cc/sec

Explanation

A proper IV contrast bolus for a soft-tissue scan of the neck is 20cc at 2cc/sec. This means that 20cc of contrast should be injected into the patient's bloodstream at a rate of 2cc per second. This specific amount and rate of contrast is necessary to ensure optimal visualization of the soft tissues in the neck during the scan.

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53. The gantry angle for a sinus cavity CT scan should be:

Explanation

The gantry angle for a sinus cavity CT scan should be parallel to the roof of the hard palate. This is because the hard palate forms the floor of the sinus cavities, and by aligning the gantry parallel to it, the images obtained will provide a clear view of the sinus cavities and their surrounding structures. This positioning ensures optimal visualization and accurate diagnosis of sinus conditions.

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54. In order to lower the viscosity of the contrast agent before injection, it should be heated to:

Explanation

The correct answer is body temperature because heating the contrast agent to body temperature helps to lower its viscosity. This is important because a lower viscosity allows for easier injection and better distribution throughout the body. Heating the contrast agent to body temperature ensures that it is at the optimal temperature for injection and reduces the risk of complications or discomfort for the patient.

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55. The first cervical vertebra (C1) is also known as the:

Explanation

The first cervical vertebra (C1) is known as the atlas. The atlas is responsible for supporting the weight of the skull and allowing for the nodding motion of the head. It is named after the Greek mythological figure Atlas, who was known for carrying the world on his shoulders. The atlas is unique compared to other vertebrae as it lacks a body and has a ring-like shape. It also has special features that allow for the articulation with the skull and the second cervical vertebra (C2), known as the axis.

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56. Phonation technique is sometimes employed in what type of CT scan?

Explanation

Phonation technique is sometimes employed in laryngeal CT scans. This technique involves the patient making specific sounds or phonations during the scan in order to visualize the movement and function of the vocal cords and laryngeal structures. It helps in assessing vocal cord function, identifying any abnormalities or pathologies, and planning appropriate treatment or interventions for voice disorders.

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57. Collimation in CT scanning does NOT serve which of the following functions?

Explanation

Collimation in CT scanning serves the functions of reducing scatter radiation to the patient, ensuring a consistent beam width received by the detectors, and improving the image resolution. However, it does not serve the function of reducing the number of slices needed for a full set of images. Collimation refers to the process of limiting the x-ray beam to a specific area of interest, which helps to reduce scatter radiation and improve image quality. It does not directly impact the number of slices required for a complete set of images, as that is determined by the specific scanning protocol and the desired anatomical coverage.

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58. In an electron beam CT (EBCT) scanner, the type of radiation used to produce the image is:

Explanation

In an electron beam CT (EBCT) scanner, a fixed electron beam is used to produce the image. This means that a consistent and steady stream of electrons is directed towards the target area to generate the image. This fixed electron beam allows for precise and accurate imaging, as the beam remains constant throughout the scanning process.

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59. Which of the following artifacts is also referred to as the cupping artifact?

Explanation

The beam hardening artifact is also referred to as the cupping artifact. This artifact occurs when the X-ray beam passes through a dense object, such as bone, causing the beam to become harder or more penetrating. As a result, the surrounding tissues appear darker, creating a cup-like or shadowing effect around the dense object on the image. This artifact can affect the accuracy of the image interpretation and needs to be considered when analyzing radiographic images.

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60. Uniphasic, biphasic, and exponential decay all describe types of:

Explanation

Phase enhancement refers to a technique used in medical imaging to improve the visibility of certain structures or tissues. Uniphasic, biphasic, and exponential decay are all types of phase enhancement techniques. Uniphasic refers to a technique where the contrast agent is injected in a single phase, biphasic refers to a technique where the contrast agent is injected in two phases, and exponential decay refers to a technique where the contrast agent is injected and then gradually decreases in concentration over time. These techniques help enhance the contrast between different tissues or structures in the image, improving the diagnostic quality of the image.

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61. The ______lobe of the brain is responsible for visual perception.

Explanation

The occipital lobe of the brain is responsible for visual perception. This lobe is located at the back of the brain and is primarily involved in processing and interpreting visual information received from the eyes. It plays a crucial role in tasks such as object recognition, color perception, depth perception, and visual memory. The occipital lobe contains the primary visual cortex, which is responsible for initial processing of visual stimuli.

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62. The maximum degree of percentage of overlap that most CT scanners will recognize

Explanation

Most CT scanners are designed to recognize a maximum degree of percentage overlap of 50%. This means that if two structures in the scanned area overlap by more than 50%, the scanner may have difficulty distinguishing between them and accurately representing them in the resulting image. Therefore, a percentage overlap of 50% is the highest degree that most CT scanners can reliably recognize.

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63. Scan coverage for a temporal bone scan should cover the:

Explanation

The correct answer is "mid mastoids to above the petrous ridge." This is because a temporal bone scan is used to evaluate the bones of the skull known as the temporal bones, which house important structures such as the inner ear and the facial nerve. To ensure a comprehensive evaluation, the scan coverage should include the mid mastoids, which are located on the sides of the skull, and extend above the petrous ridge, which is a bony prominence in the temporal bone. By including this entire region in the scan coverage, any potential abnormalities or pathologies in the temporal bones can be properly assessed.

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64. How man cc of contrast is appropriate to deliver for a routine brain scan?

Explanation

The appropriate amount of contrast to deliver for a routine brain scan is 100 cc. Contrast is used in imaging studies to enhance the visibility of certain structures or abnormalities. In a brain scan, contrast is often administered intravenously to highlight blood vessels, tumors, or areas of inflammation. The amount of contrast needed depends on the specific scan and the patient's condition. In this case, 100 cc is deemed appropriate for a routine brain scan, as it provides sufficient contrast for clear imaging without excessive risk or side effects.

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65. Which of the following is an important aspect to consider when preparing for a CT Scan Registry Examination?

Explanation

When preparing for a CT Scan Registry Examination, it is crucial to consider factors related to the safety and well-being of the patient and the accuracy of the scan. Allergic reactions to contrast agents used in CT scans are an essential consideration because some patients may be sensitive or allergic to these substances. Recognizing and managing allergic reactions is vital for patient safety during the scan and for the radiologic technologist's knowledge. The other options, such as dietary preferences, shoe size, and favorite color, are unrelated to the medical and safety aspects of CT scanning and the registry examination.

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66. The roughened surface on the anterior surface of the tibia that provides an insertion point for the knee cap ligaments is the:

Explanation

The tibial tuberosity is the roughened surface on the anterior surface of the tibia that serves as an insertion point for the knee cap ligaments. It is a prominent bony prominence located just below the knee joint. The ligaments, such as the patellar ligament, attach to the tibial tuberosity, providing stability and support to the knee joint during movement. The tibial tuberosity acts as a point of attachment for the muscles and tendons involved in knee extension and helps to transmit forces from the quadriceps muscles to the lower leg.

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67. Which one of the following scapular projections is best described as a flat process that forms the highest point of the scapula?

Explanation

The acromion is the correct answer because it is a flat process that forms the highest point of the scapula. It is located at the top of the scapula and forms the outer edge of the shoulder. It serves as an attachment point for various muscles and ligaments and helps to stabilize the shoulder joint. The other options, such as the scapular spine, glenoid process, and coracoid process, are not described as forming the highest point of the scapula.

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68. Which of the following statements is true about tube current?

Explanation

The tube current can be altered by the technologist from the scanner console. This means that the technologist has the ability to adjust the amount of current flowing through the X-ray tube during a scan. By increasing or decreasing the tube current, the technologist can control the intensity of the X-ray beam and therefore the amount of radiation exposure to the patient. This is an important feature as it allows for customization of the scan parameters based on the specific needs of each patient.

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69. Which of the following statements regarding CTA of the abdomen is FALSE?

Explanation

The rate of injection is not inversely proportional to contrast enhancement in CTA of the abdomen. In fact, a higher rate of injection of contrast material leads to a higher contrast enhancement in the images. This is because a higher rate of injection allows for a greater volume of contrast material to be delivered to the blood vessels, resulting in a more pronounced enhancement of the vessels in the images.

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70. Minimum CT scan times have been reduced from 5 minutes per slice in 1976 to _____seconds per slice in 2004.

Explanation

The minimum CT scan times have significantly decreased from 5 minutes per slice in 1976 to 0.375 seconds per slice in 2004. This indicates a remarkable advancement in technology and efficiency in performing CT scans. The reduction in scan time allows for quicker and more accurate diagnoses, benefiting both patients and medical professionals.

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71. Adverse reactions to contrast media include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Adverse reactions to contrast media can include dyspnea (difficulty breathing), hypotension (low blood pressure), and urticaria (hives). However, a feeling of warmth is not considered an adverse reaction to contrast media.

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72. Which one fo the following cartilages forms the lowest portion of the larynx?

Explanation

The cricoid cartilage forms the lowest portion of the larynx. It is a ring-shaped cartilage located just below the thyroid cartilage. The cricoid cartilage provides support and serves as a landmark for various structures in the neck. It is also important for maintaining the patency of the airway and facilitating vocal cord movement during speech and swallowing.

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73. The most appropriate landmark to use for orbital scans is the:

Explanation

The orbital meatus is the most appropriate landmark to use for orbital scans because it is a small opening in the orbital wall that allows for the passage of nerves and blood vessels. It is a reliable and easily identifiable point of reference for conducting orbital scans and imaging. The other options, such as the inferior and superior orbitocranial planes and the maxillary sinus, are not specifically related to orbital scans and would not provide accurate or relevant information for this purpose.

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74. Factors to consider in choosing a non-ionic, lower-osmolality agent over an ionic, higher-osmolality agent include all of the following except a history of:

Explanation

In choosing a non-ionic, lower-osmolality agent over an ionic, higher-osmolality agent, factors to consider include a history of asthma, adverse reactions to contrast media, and cardiac dysfunction. However, pregnancy is not a factor to consider when choosing between these two types of agents.

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75. Proper patient positioning for CT of the knee is feet first and supine, with the feet:

Explanation

Proper patient positioning for CT of the knee is feet first and supine, with the feet internally rotated. This position allows for optimal visualization of the knee joint and surrounding structures. By internally rotating the feet, the patella (kneecap) is aligned with the femur (thigh bone), providing a clear view of the joint space. This positioning also helps to reduce artifacts and distortions that may occur during the imaging process.

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76. In a routine neck scan, a lateral localizer light should be situated:

Explanation

The lateral localizer light should be situated parallel to the mid neck. This positioning ensures that the light is aligned with the neck anatomy and provides accurate localization for the scan. Placing the light perpendicular to the mid neck or midsagittal plane would result in incorrect positioning and potentially inaccurate scan results. Similarly, situating the light parallel to the level of the hyoid bone would not provide the necessary alignment with the mid neck.

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77. The gantry of a CT scanner is NOT likely to contain:

Explanation

The gantry of a CT scanner is a mechanical structure that houses various components required for the scanning process. It typically includes the x-ray tube, high-voltage generator, and slip-ring technology. However, an array processor is not likely to be found in the gantry. The array processor is responsible for processing the data acquired during the scan and generating the final images. It is usually located outside the gantry in the control room or a separate computer system.

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78. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the maxillary sinuses?

Explanation

The statement that is FALSE regarding the maxillary sinuses is that they lie lateral to but not within the maxillary bones. The maxillary sinuses are actually located within the maxillary bones. They are the largest sinus cavities, they lie above the roots of the upper teeth, and they drain through the infundibulum.

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79. The accumulation of gas between the vertebral disks is known as:

Explanation



The accumulation of gas between the vertebral disks is known as Vacuum phenomenon. This phenomenon can be observed in radiographic studies and is often associated with degenerative disc disease, although it can be seen in normal, asymptomatic individuals as well.
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80. The major change in CT technology seen with fourth-generation scanners was:

Explanation

The major change in CT technology seen with fourth-generation scanners was the use of up to 2000 detectors in a fixed ring. This means that instead of using a single detector, these scanners had multiple detectors arranged in a fixed ring. This allowed for faster and more accurate imaging as the detectors could capture multiple slices of the body simultaneously. This advancement in technology greatly improved the efficiency and quality of CT scans.

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81. The internal ear contains all of the following structures EXCEPT the:

Explanation

The malleus is a small bone located in the middle ear, not the internal ear. The internal ear consists of the cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibule. The cochlea is responsible for hearing, the semicircular canals are involved in balance and spatial orientation, and the vestibule helps with detecting changes in head position and linear acceleration. Therefore, the malleus is not part of the internal ear.

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82. THe paired bones of the craniofacial area include all of the following except the _______bones:

Explanation

The craniofacial area consists of the bones that make up the skull and face. The mandible, or lower jawbone, is not considered a paired bone because it is the only bone in the skull that moves. The palatine, zygomatic, and lacrimal bones are all paired bones that contribute to the structure and function of the craniofacial area.

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83. If extravasation of contrast occurs, the technologist should do all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

When contrast extravasation (leakage of contrast media into surrounding tissue) occurs, the technologist should stop the injection immediately, notify the radiologist, elevate the affected limb, and apply a cold or warm compress depending on protocol to manage inflammation and reduce damage. However, continuing the injection is contraindicated, as it can worsen tissue injury and lead to complications like compartment syndrome or necrosis. Therefore, the correct response is to not continue injecting—doing so goes against standard safety protocols.

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84. Which one of the following is a factor affecting choice of a particular contrast agent?

Explanation

One of the factors that affect the choice of a particular contrast agent is the cost. The cost of the contrast agent can vary and may influence the decision-making process when selecting a specific agent. Other factors mentioned in the question, such as an institutional contract with the manufacturer, the use of drip infusion vs power injector, and radiologist preference, can all play a role in the choice of a contrast agent. However, cost is the factor that is not directly related to these other considerations.

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85. THe vertebral arteries directly supply blood to all the following structures except the:

Explanation

The vertebral arteries directly supply blood to the occipital lobe, cerebellum, and brain stem, but not the frontal lobe. The frontal lobe is primarily supplied by the anterior cerebral arteries, which arise from the internal carotid arteries.

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86. The dorsal tendon group is responsible for:

Explanation

The dorsal tendon group is responsible for extending the fingers and wrist. This means that these tendons are involved in straightening or stretching the fingers and wrist joint, allowing for movement away from the palm. Flexing the fingers and wrist refers to bending them towards the palm, rotating the wrist involves turning it, and pronating the wrist means turning it so that the palm faces downwards.

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87. The most common reason to perform CT scanning of the lumbar spine is to:

Explanation

CT scanning of the lumbar spine is commonly performed to evaluate disc herniations. This imaging technique provides detailed cross-sectional images of the spine, allowing healthcare professionals to visualize the intervertebral discs and identify any herniations or bulges. CT scans can accurately depict the location, size, and severity of disc herniations, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment planning for patients with back pain or neurological symptoms associated with disc pathology. Other conditions, such as osteoporosis, spinal cord injury, or infection, may require different imaging modalities or clinical assessments for accurate evaluation.

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88. Gastric tumors most commonly appear on CT as:

Explanation

Gastric tumors most commonly appear on CT as localized thickening of the gastric wall. This is because tumors in the stomach typically cause an abnormal growth or thickening of the gastric wall, which can be visualized on a CT scan. This thickening is often localized to a specific area of the stomach and can be a key indicator of the presence of a tumor. Other imaging features such as vascularization, dark spots, and stripe-like enhancement may also be seen in gastric tumors, but localized thickening of the gastric wall is the most common finding.

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89. IV contrast is used in CT scans of the hip and pelvis to:

Explanation

IV contrast is used in CT scans of the hip and pelvis to allow concomitant mapping of the iliac and femoral vessels. IV contrast is a dye that is injected into the bloodstream to enhance the visibility of blood vessels and soft tissues during imaging. By using IV contrast, the radiologist can accurately visualize and map the iliac and femoral vessels, which are important for assessing blood flow and identifying any abnormalities or blockages. This information can be crucial in diagnosing and planning treatment for conditions such as peripheral arterial disease or deep vein thrombosis.

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90. CT plays a limited role in evaluation of the distal esophagus because:

Explanation

The correct answer explains that the distal esophagus is difficult to distend with oral contrast agents. This means that it is challenging to fill this area of the esophagus with the contrast agent used in imaging tests. This could be due to various factors, such as the thick muscous lining at the gastroesophageal junction that absorbs the contrast agent or the high degree of gastroesophageal reflux caused by oral contrast agents, which makes it difficult to clear the area of residual stomach contents.

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91. Which type of contrast media is commonly used in a CT scan to enhance imaging of blood vessels and internal organs?

Explanation



Iodine-based contrast agents are commonly used in CT scans to improve the visibility of blood vessels, internal organs, and tissues. These contrast agents increase the density within the structures, making them appear more distinct on the CT images. While barium sulfate can be used in certain types of CT scans (such as those of the gastrointestinal tract), iodine-based contrast is more widely used for general enhancement. Gadolinium is typically used in MRI scans, and fluorescein is not used in CT imaging.
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92. The maximum diameter of the patient aperture in the gantry of a CT unit is approximately:

Explanation

The maximum diameter of the patient aperture in the gantry of a CT unit is approximately 80 cm. This means that the opening through which the patient passes during a CT scan can accommodate a maximum diameter of 80 cm. A larger patient aperture allows for larger patients to be scanned comfortably without feeling claustrophobic or restricted. It also allows for more flexibility in positioning the patient during the scan.

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93. CT angiography of the brain is indicated in all of the following cases except:

Explanation

CT angiography of the brain is not indicated in cases of trauma because it is primarily used to evaluate the blood vessels of the brain for abnormalities such as aneurysms, arteriovenous malformations, or stenosis. In cases of trauma, other imaging modalities such as CT or MRI are typically used to assess for any structural damage to the brain, such as hemorrhage, contusions, or fractures. CT angiography is not necessary for evaluating traumatic brain injuries unless there is a specific concern for vascular injury.

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94. To obtain 3D images of the spine, scanning should be conducted using a minimum slice thickness of ___mm and an overlap of ____%.

Explanation

To obtain 3D images of the spine, scanning should be conducted using a minimum slice thickness of 1mm and an overlap of 50%. A thinner slice thickness allows for more detailed imaging of the spine, capturing finer structures and abnormalities. The overlap ensures that there is no information loss between adjacent slices, resulting in a more accurate and complete 3D reconstruction of the spine. Therefore, a minimum slice thickness of 1mm and an overlap of 50% are ideal for obtaining high-quality 3D images of the spine.

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95. Bremsstrahlung is:

Explanation



Bremsstrahlung, which translates to "braking radiation" in German, occurs when fast-moving electrons are decelerated upon interacting with the nucleus of an atom, causing the electrons to lose energy which is emitted as X-ray radiation. This phenomenon is a significant component in the generation of X-rays in medical imaging and other applications. It does not pertain to the replacement of electrons within an atom, nor is it a type of artifact or named after a developer of CT scanning technology.
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96. Which one of the following is NOT a structure of the eyeglobe?

Explanation

The posterior lens is not a structure of the eyeglobe. The eyeglobe consists of the cornea, anterior lens, and vitreous fluid. The cornea is the clear outer layer of the eye, the anterior lens is located behind the cornea and helps to focus light onto the retina, and the vitreous fluid is a gel-like substance that fills the space between the lens and the retina. The posterior lens, however, is not a recognized structure of the eyeglobe.

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97. The CT urogram is a comprehensive protocol designed to detect or rule out all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

The CT urogram is a comprehensive protocol that is used to detect or rule out various conditions in the urinary system. It can help identify tumors, renal calculi, and lesions in the ureter. However, it is not specifically designed to detect or rule out renal artery stenosis, which is a narrowing of the arteries that supply blood to the kidneys. Therefore, the correct answer is renal artery stenosis.

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98. Which of the following terms is used to describe the effectiveness with which the detectors gather the photons transmitted from the patient?

Explanation

Capture efficiency is the term used to describe the effectiveness with which the detectors gather the photons transmitted from the patient. It refers to how well the detectors are able to capture and detect the photons that pass through the patient's body. A higher capture efficiency means that more photons are successfully detected, resulting in better image quality and accuracy in medical imaging techniques such as X-rays or CT scans.

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99. The portion of the dura mater that separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum is known as the :

Explanation

The "tentorium cerebelli" is a partition or fold of the dura mater, one of the protective membranes surrounding the brain. It separates the cerebellum (responsible for motor coordination and balance) from the cerebrum (responsible for higher cognitive functions). This division helps prevent interference and compression between these brain regions and maintains the brain's structural integrity within the skull.

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100. The ideal kVp/mAs settings for a posterior fossa scan are:

Explanation

The ideal kVp/mAs settings for a posterior fossa scan are 120-140/200. This means that the kilovolt peak (kVp) should be set between 120 and 140, while the milliampere-seconds (mAs) should be set to 200. These settings are optimal for obtaining clear and detailed images of the posterior fossa, which is the area at the back of the skull. The kVp determines the quality and contrast of the image, while the mAs controls the amount of radiation exposure.

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101. The sciatic nerve carries nerve fibers from the vertebral interspaces most prominently at:

Explanation

The sciatic nerve carries nerve fibers from the vertebral interspaces most prominently at the levels L3-L5. This means that the nerve fibers originating from the spinal cord at the vertebral levels L3, L4, and L5 contribute to the formation of the sciatic nerve. These nerve fibers travel down the leg, supplying sensation and motor function to the lower limb.

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102. How many display fields of view are recommended to obtain a complete CT scan of the neck?

Explanation

To obtain a complete CT scan of the neck, it is recommended to have three display fields of view. This is because the neck is a complex area with various structures that need to be captured in the scan. Having three display fields of view allows for a comprehensive examination of the neck, ensuring that all necessary information is obtained.

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103. The spinal cord originates at the foramen magnum in the skull base and extends approximately to the level of:

Explanation



The spinal cord originates at the foramen magnum in the skull base and extends approximately to the level of the first or second lumbar vertebrae (L1-L2) in most adults.
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104. A CT scan of the cervical spine should extend from the:

Explanation



A CT scan of the cervical spine covers the region from the craniocervical junction, where the skull meets the spine, down to the first thoracic vertebra (T1). This imaging helps assess the structures in the neck and upper part of the spine, aiding in the diagnosis of various conditions and injuries.
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105. The basilar artery divides to form the _______arteries

Explanation

The basilar artery, located in the brainstem, divides to form the posterior cerebral arteries. These arteries supply blood to the posterior part of the brain, including the occipital lobe responsible for visual processing. The anterior cerebral arteries supply blood to the frontal lobes, while the middle cerebral arteries supply blood to the lateral parts of the brain. The internal carotid arteries are major blood vessels that supply blood to the brain, but they do not directly arise from the basilar artery.

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106. The correct Hounsfield unit measurement for acute intracranial hemmorhage is:

Explanation

The correct Hounsfield unit measurement for acute intracranial hemorrhage is 55 to 75. Hounsfield units (HU) are used to measure the density of different tissues in a CT scan. Acute intracranial hemorrhage refers to bleeding in the brain that has occurred recently. This bleeding typically appears as a high-density area on a CT scan, which corresponds to a higher Hounsfield unit measurement. The range of 55 to 75 HU is characteristic of acute intracranial hemorrhage, allowing for its identification and differentiation from other brain abnormalities.

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107. The field of view for pituitary gland scans should be ____cm.

Explanation

The field of view for pituitary gland scans should be 10-12cm. This range allows for a comprehensive view of the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain. A larger field of view would include unnecessary surrounding structures, while a smaller field of view may not capture the entire gland. Therefore, a field of view between 10-12cm is ideal for accurately assessing the pituitary gland.

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108. The appropriate DFOV in CT scans of the elbow is approximately _____cm.

Explanation

The appropriate DFOV in CT scans of the elbow is approximately 14 cm. This measurement refers to the diameter of the field of view, which is the size of the area that the CT scanner captures during the scan. A DFOV of 14 cm is considered appropriate for imaging the elbow, as it allows for clear visualization of the joint and surrounding structures without capturing unnecessary surrounding tissue.

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109. X-rays are produced whenever fast moving electrons collide with any form of matter because:

Explanation

When fast-moving electrons collide with matter, they lose kinetic energy. This lost energy is converted into electromagnetic radiation, including X-rays. Therefore, the emission of an X-ray photon occurs due to the loss of kinetic energy by the fast-moving electron upon collision with matter.

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110. The extraocular muscles of the orbital muscle cone include all of the following EXCEPT the:

Explanation

The correct answer is lateral obliques. The extraocular muscles of the orbital muscle cone include the superior recti, inferior recti, and inferior obliques. However, the lateral obliques are not part of the extraocular muscles.

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111. Which one of the following statements regarding the petrous pyramids is FALSE?

Explanation

The petrous pyramids do not form the antrum of the eustachian tubule. The antrum of the eustachian tube is actually located in the temporal bone, specifically in the mastoid process. The petrous pyramids do contain the middle and inner ear structures, extend medially beyond the sphenoid bones, and their upper surface forms part of the floor of the middle cranial fossa.

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112. An appropriate length of scan delay in seconds following contrast injection for orbital scan is:

Explanation

The appropriate length of scan delay in seconds following contrast injection for an orbital scan is 60 seconds. This delay allows enough time for the contrast to distribute throughout the blood vessels and tissues in the orbit, enhancing the visibility of any abnormalities or structures of interest. A shorter delay may result in inadequate contrast enhancement, while a longer delay may lead to excessive contrast washout and decreased image quality. Therefore, a 60-second delay strikes a balance between optimal contrast enhancement and image quality.

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113. The viscosity of a contrast agent refers to:

Explanation

The viscosity of a contrast agent refers to the rate at which the agent can be heated to room temperature. Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's resistance to flow, and it is influenced by factors such as temperature. In the context of a contrast agent, viscosity is important because it affects how easily the agent can be injected into the body and how it spreads within the body. A lower viscosity means that the agent can be heated to room temperature more quickly, making it easier to handle and administer.

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114. The field of view for an internal auditory canal scan should be:

Explanation

The correct answer is 23 cm prospectively/10 cm retrospectively. This means that when performing an internal auditory canal scan, the field of view should be 23 cm when scanning in the forward direction (prospectively) and 10 cm when scanning in the backward direction (retrospectively). This allows for a comprehensive view of the internal auditory canal both in real-time and during review.

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115. The device in the gantry that measures the intensity of the x-ray beam emanating from the tube is called the:

Explanation

The device in the gantry that measures the intensity of the x-ray beam emanating from the tube is called an air-reference detector. This device is specifically designed to measure the intensity of the x-ray beam by comparing it to the intensity of the air. It provides a reference point for the measurement and ensures accurate and consistent readings. The other options mentioned, such as array processor, anode, and photomultiplier tube, do not perform the specific function of measuring the intensity of the x-ray beam in this context.

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116. Which one of the following statements regarding CT scans for air trapping are TRUE?

Explanation



Expiratory CT scans demonstrate increased attenuation compared to inspiratory scans due to air trapping in the lungs, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions such as obstructive lung diseases. This difference in attenuation helps identify areas of incomplete air expiration, providing valuable information for diagnosis and treatment planning.
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117. Which superficial anterior muscle of the neck is known as the "muscle of facial expression"?

Explanation

The correct answer is platysma. The platysma is a superficial anterior muscle of the neck that is responsible for various facial expressions, such as lowering the jaw and corners of the mouth and wrinkling the skin on the neck. It is often referred to as the "muscle of facial expression" due to its involvement in these movements. The other options, including the masseter, sternocleidomastoid, and medial pterygoid, are not specifically involved in facial expressions.

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118. The best quality CT images of the sternum are reformatted in the __________planes.

Explanation

The best quality CT images of the sternum are reformatted in the coronal plane only. This means that the images are taken from a vertical perspective, allowing for a detailed view of the sternum from front to back. This plane is particularly useful for evaluating the structure and alignment of the sternum, as well as any abnormalities or fractures that may be present. The sagittal and axial planes, on the other hand, provide different perspectives that may not be as beneficial for evaluating the sternum specifically.

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119. CT scanning of the thoracic spine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT to:

Explanation

CT scanning of the thoracic spine is used to rule out compression fractures, diagnose disc herniation, and determine the presence of fibrotic scar tissue. However, it is not typically used to diagnose congenital malformations. Congenital malformations are usually diagnosed through other imaging techniques or clinical examination.

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120. The muscles of mastication include all of the following EXCEPT the:

Explanation

The muscles of mastication are responsible for the movements of the jaw during chewing. The temporalis, masseter, and lateral pterygoid muscles are all part of the muscles of mastication. However, the proximal pterygoid muscle is not considered one of the muscles of mastication. It is actually part of the muscles involved in opening and closing the jaw.

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121. If iodinated contrast is used in scans of the humerus and forearm, the appropriate scan delay time is _______sec.

Explanation

The appropriate scan delay time for iodinated contrast used in scans of the humerus and forearm is 20-30 seconds. This delay allows for adequate distribution of the contrast agent throughout the blood vessels in the area, ensuring optimal visualization of the structures being scanned. A shorter delay may result in inadequate contrast enhancement, while a longer delay may lead to excessive contrast diffusion and blurring of the images.

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122. The recommended maximum slice thickness for display of CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis is _____mm.

Explanation

The recommended maximum slice thickness for display of CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis is 6-7mm. This range allows for a balance between image resolution and scan time. A slice thickness of 6-7mm provides sufficient detail to visualize structures in the abdomen and pelvis while also minimizing the time required for image acquisition. This allows for efficient and accurate diagnosis of conditions in these regions.

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123. What is an appropriate length of scan delay in seconds following contrast injection for CT angiography of the brain?

Explanation

The appropriate length of scan delay in seconds following contrast injection for CT angiography of the brain is 15-17. This delay allows the contrast to reach the blood vessels in the brain and enhance the visibility of the blood vessels during the scan. A delay that is too short may result in inadequate enhancement, while a delay that is too long may lead to excessive contrast washout. Therefore, a delay of 15-17 seconds is considered optimal for obtaining high-quality images of the brain's blood vessels.

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124. The larynx is best visualized with axial slices that are:

Explanation

The larynx is a structure located in the neck, responsible for producing sound and protecting the airway during swallowing. To visualize the larynx effectively, axial slices that are parallel to the plane of the inferior aspect of the mandible are ideal. This is because the inferior aspect of the mandible provides a reliable landmark for locating the larynx. By aligning the slices parallel to this plane, the larynx can be accurately visualized and assessed for any abnormalities or pathologies.

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125. The technique of ______is best described as capturing cardica CT images using estimates of the patient's RR interval based on initial electrocardiographic recordings of these intervals:

Explanation

Prospective triggering is the technique of capturing cardiac CT images using estimates of the patient's RR interval based on initial electrocardiographic recordings of these intervals. This means that the imaging is triggered in real-time based on the patient's heart rate, allowing for more accurate imaging of the cardiac structures. This technique is different from retrospective triggering, which captures images based on the entire recorded ECG signal after the scan has been completed. Multidetector gating is a general term for techniques that synchronize image acquisition with the cardiac cycle, and prospective gating is not a recognized term in cardiac CT imaging.

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126. Which of the following statements about solid state generators is NOT true?

Explanation

In solid-state generators, scintillation crystals are typically not soluble, and they are used to convert ionizing radiation (such as X-rays) into flashes of light (photons), which can then be detected and converted into electrical signals. These electrical signals are used to create medical images, such as in CT scans and other imaging modalities. Soluble crystals would not be suitable for this purpose. The other statements are generally true about solid-state generators: they involve scintillation crystals near a photomultiplier tube, produce light flashes, and are useful in high-speed scanning.

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127. For pituitary scans, intravenous contrast should be injected at a rate of ___cc/sec

Explanation

The correct answer is 1. When performing pituitary scans, it is recommended to inject intravenous contrast at a rate of 1 cc/sec. This rate allows for optimal visualization of the pituitary gland and surrounding structures. Injecting the contrast at a slower or faster rate may result in suboptimal imaging quality and potentially affect the accuracy of the scan.

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128. What are the proper kVp/mAs settings for a scan of the soft tissues of the neck?

Explanation

The proper kVp/mAs settings for a scan of the soft tissues of the neck are 120-140 kVp and 300 mAs. This combination of settings ensures that the image will have sufficient penetration and contrast for accurate visualization of the soft tissues in the neck region.

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Contrast agents provide superior visibility in an anatomic area due to...
The primary reason for having the patient extend the arms above the...
A technologist may administer contrast agents, radiopharmaceuticals,...
Spiral/helical CT:
Barium should not be used in patients with:
MRI may be of greater value than CT for musculoskeletal imaging of...
A needle with plastic projections on either side that aid in holding...
Uniform marking of the small intestine with oral contrast agents can...
The late effects of radiation exposure include all of the following...
Which one of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebrum?
The area where the trachea bifurcates is called the:
The imaging procedure involving the injection of contrast agents into...
Which of the following statements concerning CT angiography of the...
In CT scanning of the wrist, the technologist should employ all of the...
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) measures the time required:
KV refers to:
The term "noise" in CT imaging refers to:
The function of the detector is to:
The gelatinous core at the center of an intervertebral disc is called...
The onset of most serious adverse reactions to contrast media occurs...
The bone that transmittes the weight of the body from the distal...
The image grid on a computer screen is made up of tiny regions called:
Slip ring technology made spiral CT a possibility by:
For the evaluation of herniated dics, CT provides _____________over...
Which of the following structures is the most commonly used landmark...
What is the most common indication for CT of the hip?
Which of the following contrast materials is typically used for...
Which ONE of the following is an advantage of an angiocatheter over a...
The preferred type of external storage devices used on CT scanning...
Common causes of RLQ pain that may mimic appendicitis, but can be...
The line that extends from the fold at the corner of the eye to the...
Which one of the following is TRUE regarding ionic contrast media?
CT scanning exposes the patient to more radiation than a plain x-ray...
Attachment of the vertebral column to the pelvis is provided by the:
In CT imaging, which technique adjusts the tube current in response to...
The measure of the total number of particles in contrast solution per...
Which of the following statements about slip ring technology is NOT...
The posterior margin of the posterior neck muscle triangle is formed...
Methods for reducing streak artifacts in patients undergoing routine...
Second-generation scanners were associated with the introduction of...
The field of view for a craniofacial scan should include the:
The posterior elements of the vertebra are the:
Signs of anaphylactoid reaction to contrast include all of the...
Exposure to radiation may affect cells in all of the following ways...
What type of scout scans should be taken prior to performing...
In a patient with an abdominal mass, CT scanning is used for all of...
When conducting CT scans of the ankle, the ankles
In abdominal and pelvic CT imaging, IV contrast provides all of the...
The Agaston score is a measurement of the:
The ________ is/are the smallest of the cranial bones.
What is the proper patient positioning for axial CT scans of the...
A proper IV contrast bolus for a soft-tissue scan of the neck is ___cc...
The gantry angle for a sinus cavity CT scan should be:
In order to lower the viscosity of the contrast agent before...
The first cervical vertebra (C1) is also known as the:
Phonation technique is sometimes employed in what type of CT scan?
Collimation in CT scanning does NOT serve which of the following...
In an electron beam CT (EBCT) scanner, the type of radiation used to...
Which of the following artifacts is also referred to as the cupping...
Uniphasic, biphasic, and exponential decay all describe types of:
The ______lobe of the brain is responsible for visual perception.
The maximum degree of percentage of overlap that most CT scanners will...
Scan coverage for a temporal bone scan should cover the:
How man cc of contrast is appropriate to deliver for a routine brain...
Which of the following is an important aspect to consider when...
The roughened surface on the anterior surface of the tibia that...
Which one of the following scapular projections is best described...
Which of the following statements is true about tube current?
Which of the following statements regarding CTA of the abdomen is...
Minimum CT scan times have been reduced from 5 minutes per slice in...
Adverse reactions to contrast media include all of the following...
Which one fo the following cartilages forms the lowest portion of the...
The most appropriate landmark to use for orbital scans is the:
Factors to consider in choosing a non-ionic, lower-osmolality agent...
Proper patient positioning for CT of the knee is feet first and...
In a routine neck scan, a lateral localizer light should be situated:
The gantry of a CT scanner is NOT likely to contain:
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the maxillary...
The accumulation of gas between the vertebral disks is known as:
The major change in CT technology seen with fourth-generation scanners...
The internal ear contains all of the following structures EXCEPT the:
THe paired bones of the craniofacial area include all of the following...
If extravasation of contrast occurs, the technologist should do all of...
Which one of the following is a factor affecting choice of a...
THe vertebral arteries directly supply blood to all the following...
The dorsal tendon group is responsible for:
The most common reason to perform CT scanning of the lumbar spine is...
Gastric tumors most commonly appear on CT as:
IV contrast is used in CT scans of the hip and pelvis to:
CT plays a limited role in evaluation of the distal esophagus because:
Which type of contrast media is commonly used in a CT scan to enhance...
The maximum diameter of the patient aperture in the gantry of a CT...
CT angiography of the brain is indicated in all of the following cases...
To obtain 3D images of the spine, scanning should be conducted using a...
Bremsstrahlung is:
Which one of the following is NOT a structure of the eyeglobe?
The CT urogram is a comprehensive protocol designed to detect or rule...
Which of the following terms is used to describe the effectiveness...
The portion of the dura mater that separates the cerebellum from the...
The ideal kVp/mAs settings for a posterior fossa scan are:
The sciatic nerve carries nerve fibers from the vertebral interspaces...
How many display fields of view are recommended to obtain a complete...
The spinal cord originates at the foramen magnum in the skull base and...
A CT scan of the cervical spine should extend from the:
The basilar artery divides to form the _______arteries
The correct Hounsfield unit measurement for acute intracranial...
The field of view for pituitary gland scans should be ____cm.
The appropriate DFOV in CT scans of the elbow is approximately...
X-rays are produced whenever fast moving electrons collide with any...
The extraocular muscles of the orbital muscle cone include all of...
Which one of the following statements regarding the petrous pyramids...
An appropriate length of scan delay in seconds following contrast...
The viscosity of a contrast agent refers to:
The field of view for an internal auditory canal scan should be:
The device in the gantry that measures the intensity of the x-ray beam...
Which one of the following statements regarding CT scans for air...
Which superficial anterior muscle of the neck is known as the "muscle...
The best quality CT images of the sternum are reformatted in the...
CT scanning of the thoracic spine is indicated for all of the...
The muscles of mastication include all of the following EXCEPT the:
If iodinated contrast is used in scans of the humerus and forearm, the...
The recommended maximum slice thickness for display of CT scans of the...
What is an appropriate length of scan delay in seconds following...
The larynx is best visualized with axial slices that are:
The technique of ______is best described as capturing cardica CT...
Which of the following statements about solid state generators is NOT...
For pituitary scans, intravenous contrast should be injected at a rate...
What are the proper kVp/mAs settings for a scan of the soft tissues of...
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