Ultimate Quiz On Mammography

218 Questions

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Ultimate Quiz On Mammography

Bank of mammo questions. mix from all study guide.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The ACS does not recommend routine mammograms for women below the age of:
    • A. 

      40

    • B. 

      35

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      25

  • 2. 
    Lymph node enlargement, nipple inversion, nipple discharge, skin thickening, and breast lumps are ALWAYS a sign of breast cancer.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 3. 
    The only task NOT required of the RT is:
    • A. 

      Validation of the Doctor's requisition with the clinical history given by the patient.

    • B. 

      Diagramming lumps, scars, large moles on the breast.

    • C. 

      Diagnosing the patient's condition

    • D. 

      Choice of technical factors used - determined by patient age, density of breast tissue, equipment characteristics.

  • 4. 
    Which is NOT considered curative breast surgery?
    • A. 

      Core sample biopsy

    • B. 

      lumpectomy

    • C. 

      Quadectomy

    • D. 

      Modified radical mastectomy

  • 5. 
    The reason(s) for performing BSE include:
    • A. 

      To compensate for the inaccuracy in mammograms (up to 20%)

    • B. 

      To detect cancers which are not, even in retrospect, visible on the mammogram

    • C. 

      To involve women who do not have mammograms

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    BSE should be performed monthly by all women beginning in their 20's
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 8. 
    It is necessary for the technologist to diagram which of the following:
    • A. 

      Scars

    • B. 

      Tattoos

    • C. 

      Moles

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 9. 
    The physical boundaries of the breast include superior to the clavicle, medial to the sternum, inferior to the inframammary crease, and lateral to the midaxillary line.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    The base of the breast and the inframammary crease are one and the same.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 11. 
    The tissue type that attenuates the x-ray beam the least is:
    • A. 

      Adipose tissue

    • B. 

      Fibro-glandular tissue

    • C. 

      Fibrous tissue

    • D. 

      Fibro-fatty tissue

  • 12. 
    The tissue type that attenuates the x-ray beam the most is:
    • A. 

      Adipose tissue

    • B. 

      Fibro-glandular tissue

    • C. 

      Fibrous tissue

    • D. 

      Fibro-fatty tissue

  • 13. 
    50% of all breast cancers occur in which quadrant?
    • A. 

      LIQ

    • B. 

      LOQ

    • C. 

      UOQ

    • D. 

      UIQ

  • 14. 
    Choose the correct equation:
    • A. 

      Pixel size = FOV / matrix size

    • B. 

      Pixel size = FOV x matrix size

    • C. 

      Pixel size = matrix size / FOV

    • D. 

      Pixel size = FOV + matrix size

  • 15. 
    Breast cancers arise in which type of tissue?
    • A. 

      Ducts

    • B. 

      Lobules

    • C. 

      Adipose tissue

    • D. 

      A + B

  • 16. 
    The area of the breast that is not visualized on the CC view is:
    • A. 

      Posterior - inferior

    • B. 

      Posterior - superior

    • C. 

      Anterior - inferior

    • D. 

      Anterior - superior

  • 17. 
    Spot compression/coned-down views can:
    • A. 

      Helps separate superimposed tissue

    • B. 

      Increase contrast by reducing scatter

    • C. 

      Help identify subtle findings in dense breasts

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 18. 
    A grid may be used when performing magnification.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 19. 
    During pre-operative needle localizations, the amount of compression used should be equal to that of the routine mammogram.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    To reduce the patient's radiation dose during pre-operative needle localizations, which of the following can be done:
    • A. 

      Increase the kVp setting

    • B. 

      Use a faster screen/film system

    • C. 

      Exposes only that area of the breast immediately surrounding the area in question

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 21. 
    To improve the appearance of the specimen on film, one can:
    • A. 

      Magnify the specimen

    • B. 

      Use kVp settings below 25 (molybdenum)

    • C. 

      Compress the specimen

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 22. 
    When using a phototimer, if a plus density setting is used, which of the following will occur? 1. reduction focal spot size 2. increase in mA 3. increase in exposure time
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1, 2 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      3 only

  • 23. 
    The x-ray interaction that provides the contrast for the radiograph is:
    • A. 

      Photoelectric

    • B. 

      Compton

    • C. 

      Pair production

    • D. 

      Coherent

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      Upper and medial

    • B. 

      Lower and lateral

    • C. 

      Between sternum and clavicle

    • D. 

      Axillary and medial

  • 25. 
    Mammography films show breast calcifications better than chest x-rays because of:
    • A. 

      Makes a more uniform exposure of the entire breast

    • B. 

      Reduces geometric unsharpness

    • C. 

      Reduces exposure time and scattered radiation

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 26. 
    Mammography films show breast calcifications better than chest x-rays because of:
    • A. 

      More photoelectric effect

    • B. 

      Smaller focal spot

    • C. 

      Single rather than double emulsion film

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 27. 
    Repeat rate will decrease with FFDM mainly because of:
    • A. 

      Digitization

    • B. 

      Wide exposure latitude

    • C. 

      Lower dose

    • D. 

      High frequency generator

  • 28. 
    A simple cyst will show on ultrasound:
    • A. 

      Smooth walls

    • B. 

      Good acoustic enhancement

    • C. 

      No internal echoes (anechoic)

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 29. 
    Architectural distortion is most often found in cases of:
    • A. 

      Fibroadenoma

    • B. 

      Invasive breast carcinoma

    • C. 

      Papillomatosis

    • D. 

      Intramammary lymph node

  • 30. 
    Fibroadenomas:
    • A. 

      Are benign

    • B. 

      Can calcify

    • C. 

      Can involute

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 31. 
    A Mammotome is:
    • A. 

      A scalpel

    • B. 

      A densitometer

    • C. 

      Prone table

    • D. 

      Core biopsy needle

  • 32. 
    Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with an abnormal galactogram?
    • A. 

      A unilateral greenish nipple discharge

    • B. 

      Retroareolar pain with monthly variation

    • C. 

      A unilateral dark or bloody nipple discharge

    • D. 

      A bilateral white or creamy nipple discharge

  • 33. 
    Male breast carcinoma accounts for approximately what portion of all breast carcinomas?
    • A. 

      25%

    • B. 

      10%

    • C. 

      5%

    • D. 

      Less than 2%

  • 34. 
    Blurring of a mammogram image can be caused by:
    • A. 

      Patient motion

    • B. 

      Too long exposure

    • C. 

      Defective equipment

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 35. 
    "Camel's nose" refers to a mammogram which:
    • A. 

      Is too light

    • B. 

      Has a skin fold in the axilla on the MLO view

    • C. 

      Is too dark

    • D. 

      Shows sagging of the breast on the MLO view

  • 36. 
    Lobular carcinoma accounts for approximately what portion of all breasts carcinomas?
    • A. 

      50%

    • B. 

      25%

    • C. 

      10%

    • D. 

      Less than 2%

  • 37. 
    Ductal carcinoma can present with findings of:
    • A. 

      Masses

    • B. 

      Speculated lesions

    • C. 

      Microcalcifications

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 38. 
    The word "orthogonal" is best described as:
    • A. 

      Two planes

    • B. 

      At a 45 degree angle

    • C. 

      At a right angle

    • D. 

      Multi-sided

  • 39. 
    The following are all breast interventional procedures except:
    • A. 

      Pneumocystography

    • B. 

      Stereotactic core needle biopsy

    • C. 

      Myelography

    • D. 

      Galactography

  • 40. 
    Compared to open surgical biopsy, ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy:
    • A. 

      Is faster

    • B. 

      Is less expensive

    • C. 

      Leaves a smaller scar

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 41. 
    According to standards, where are the view markers placed when doing a mammogram?
    • A. 

      As close to the medial breast as the position allows

    • B. 

      Anywhere not obscuring breast tissue

    • C. 

      As close to the axilla as the position allows

    • D. 

      Next to the ID flash

  • 42. 
    For the MLO view, the best angle of the tube is:
    • A. 

      Standard 50 degree for all patients

    • B. 

      Standard 60 degree for all patients

    • C. 

      Standard 70 degree for all patients

    • D. 

      Determined by the anatomy of each patient

  • 43. 
    A pneumocystogram starts with aspiration of most or all of the fluid from a cystic lesion. Which of the following is then injected into the lesion just  before the pneumocystogram films are done?
    • A. 

      Betadine and air

    • B. 

      Saline

    • C. 

      Air and methylene blue dye

    • D. 

      Air

  • 44. 
    If microcalcification clustering is present on routine screening views what is the best next step?
    • A. 

      Biopsy

    • B. 

      Ultrasound

    • C. 

      Magnification views

    • D. 

      One year follow-up

  • 45. 
    Stereotactic guided core needle biopsy:
    • A. 

      Is less expensive than wire localization and open surgical biopsy

    • B. 

      Is faster than wire localization and open surgical biopsy

    • C. 

      Leaves a smaller scar than open surgical biopsy

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 46. 
    What is the condition of the detector if the radiation exposure is too high:
    • A. 

      Charge saturation

    • B. 

      Wide latitude

    • C. 

      High dark current

    • D. 

      Super-charged

  • 47. 
    Stereotactic imaging implies the use of:
    • A. 

      A digital monitor

    • B. 

      Optical storage media

    • C. 

      Core needle biopsy

    • D. 

      Two angled images

  • 48. 
    DCIS is an acronym for:
    • A. 

      Direct collimation in system

    • B. 

      Digital core in stereotactic

    • C. 

      Ductal carcinoma in situ

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 49. 
    A malignant breast lesion can appear on a mammogram:
    • A. 

      As a spiculated mass

    • B. 

      As microcalcification clustering

    • C. 

      As a neodensity

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 50. 
    MQSA stands for:
    • A. 

      Medical Quality Site Accreditation

    • B. 

      Mammography Quantity Select Aid

    • C. 

      Medical Query System Association

    • D. 

      Mammography Quality Standards Act

  • 51. 
    The core specimens should be radiographed when the biopsied lesion:
    • A. 

      Has speculations

    • B. 

      Is solid

    • C. 

      Is cystic

    • D. 

      Has calcifications

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      Complete the pathology requisition form

    • B. 

      Place a microclip

    • C. 

      Gives the patient post-biopsy instructions

    • D. 

      Gets a specimen radiograph

  • 53. 
    The digital detector can also function as the AEC.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 54. 
    Which of the following breast conditions is considered malignant:
    • A. 

      Dermal calcifications

    • B. 

      Accessory nipple

    • C. 

      Fibroadenoma

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 55. 
    Implant displaced views:
    • A. 

      Visualize tissue anteriorly and inferiorly to the implant

    • B. 

      May be difficult to obtain if implant is encapsulated

    • C. 

      May be phototimed if enough tissue is displaced

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 56. 
    What is the typical range of kVp used in mammography?
    • A. 

      10-18

    • B. 

      22-32

    • C. 

      45-55

    • D. 

      62-72

  • 57. 
    What material is used in the x-ray tube's window allow photons to pass through?
    • A. 

      Aluminum

    • B. 

      Rhodium

    • C. 

      Beryllium

    • D. 

      Molybdenum

  • 58. 
    Where is beam limitation most critical?
    • A. 

      Nearest to the technologist

    • B. 

      The edges of the film

    • C. 

      The chest wall of the patient

  • 59. 
    The actual focal spot is always _______ the projected focal spot.
    • A. 

      Larger than

    • B. 

      Smaller than

    • C. 

      The same size as

  • 60. 
    The size of the effective focal spot to the actual focal spot is related to
    • A. 

      Anode angle

    • B. 

      Ripple effect

    • C. 

      Characteristic cascade

    • D. 

      Manufacturer

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      Larger, small

    • B. 

      Medium, small

    • C. 

      Smaller, small

    • D. 

      Smaller, large

  • 62. 
    The effective focal spot is always largest on the _____ side of the field.
    • A. 

      Cathode

    • B. 

      Anode

  • 63. 
    What percent voltage ripple occurs with a high frequency generator?
    • A. 

      25%

    • B. 

      5%

    • C. 

      15%

    • D. 

      10%

  • 64. 
    Which TWO materials are used as anode target materials in mammography? 1. Aluminum 2. Rhodium 3. Beryllium                         4. Molybdenum
    • A. 

      1 and 3

    • B. 

      2 and 4

    • C. 

      1 and 4

    • D. 

      2 and 3

  • 65. 
    Aluminum filters are not used in mammography because of:
    • A. 

      Cost

    • B. 

      Weight

    • C. 

      Rarity

    • D. 

      Lack of k-edge attenuation

  • 66. 
    Choose all of the correct functions of a digital detector:
    • A. 

      Converts x-ray energy into electrical charge

    • B. 

      Produces dark current

    • C. 

      Transmit x-ray energy

    • D. 

      Absorb x-ray energy

  • 67. 
    What is the typical SID for mammographic imaging?
    • A. 

      60-65 cm

    • B. 

      45-50 cm

    • C. 

      27-57 cm

    • D. 

      70-100 cm

  • 68. 
    The maximum amount of automated compression allowed by the ACR is:
    • A. 

      40 lbs

    • B. 

      45 lbs

    • C. 

      50 lbs

    • D. 

      55 lbs

  • 69. 
    Which is NOT an advantage of compression?
    • A. 

      Decreased tissue thickness

    • B. 

      Decreases patient motion

    • C. 

      Increases exposure to breast tissues

    • D. 

      Spreads tissues

  • 70. 
    The breast attenuates what percentage of incident x-rays.
    • A. 

      0.9

    • B. 

      9

    • C. 

      59

    • D. 

      99

  • 71. 
    Which two items are used in mammography to reduce scattered radiation? 1. Stationary grid 2. Air gap 3. Moving grid 4. Lead shielding
    • A. 

      1 and 4

    • B. 

      2 and 3

    • C. 

      3 and 4

    • D. 

      4 and 2

  • 72. 
    Extended processing involves:
    • A. 

      Increased developer temperature

    • B. 

      Increased fixer temperature

    • C. 

      Shorter development time

    • D. 

      Warmer wash water

  • 73. 
    All chemical reactions depend on all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Time

    • B. 

      Temperature

    • C. 

      Chemical strength

    • D. 

      Pressure

  • 74. 
    In the correct order with largest number of pixels to the smallest:
    • A. 

      Acquisition workstation monitor, laser film, diagnostic workstation monitor

    • B. 

      Acquisition workstation monitor, diagnostic workstation monitor, laser film

    • C. 

      Laser film, diagnostic workstation monitor, acquisition workstation monitor

    • D. 

      Diagnostic workstation monitor, laser film, acquisition workstation monitor

  • 75. 
    Reciprocity failure occurs when:
    • A. 

      Very long or very short exposure times are used

    • B. 

      D-max is exceeded

    • C. 

      Developer becomes depleted

    • D. 

      Film is used beyond the expiration date

  • 76. 
    What brightness is recommended by the ACR for mammographic film illuminators?
    • A. 

      2000 cd/m2

    • B. 

      2500 cd/m2

    • C. 

      3000 cd/m2

    • D. 

      3500 cd/m2

  • 77. 
    The maximum MQSA-allowed radiation dose per exposure for a 4.2 cm average breast is:
    • A. 

      165 mrad

    • B. 

      5000 mrad

    • C. 

      300 rad

    • D. 

      300 mrad

  • 78. 
    Low contrast detectability can be improved by ________ the image.
    • A. 

      Masking

    • B. 

      Shielding

    • C. 

      Bending

    • D. 

      Squinting at

  • 79. 
    What is (are) the benefit(s) of a high frequency generator in mammography?
    • A. 

      Accuracy of exposure technique

    • B. 

      Reduce voltage ripple

    • C. 

      More compact size

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 80. 
    Changing from the moly to the rhodium filter ______ the x-ray beam energy.
    • A. 

      Decreases

    • B. 

      Increases

    • C. 

      Does not change

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 81. 
    The main advantage of half-field geometry is:
    • A. 

      Lower dose

    • B. 

      Increased contrast

    • C. 

      Better compression

    • D. 

      Improved positioning

  • 82. 
    Use of a grid _____ contrast and ______ radiation dose.
    • A. 

      Decreases, decreases

    • B. 

      Increases, decreases

    • C. 

      Decreases, increases

    • D. 

      Increases, increases

  • 83. 
    Radiation dose with a screen is about ___ times the dose of direct film mammography.
    • A. 

      1/10

    • B. 

      1/100

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      100

  • 84. 
    Recommended film storage conditions are: ___ relative humidity and ___ degrees F.
    • A. 

      30-40, 50-60

    • B. 

      35-55, 45-65

    • C. 

      30-50, 50-70

    • D. 

      25-50, 50-75

  • 85. 
    Radiation dose for FFDM will always be lower than for screen-film mammography:
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 86. 
    How does increasing the radiation dose affect the image noise?
    • A. 

      It increases

    • B. 

      It decreases

    • C. 

      It stays the same

  • 87. 
    If processing artifacts are more severe when the film is run emulsion side up, the artifacts may be caused by:
    • A. 

      Inner rollers of the developer rack

    • B. 

      Outer rollers of the developer rack

    • C. 

      Crossover assembly of the fix to wash tank

    • D. 

      Turnaround assembly of the fixer tank

  • 88. 
    Artifacts oriented perpendicular between 2 films after processing that have been run perpendicular and parallel to the direction of film travel are caused by problems in
    • A. 

      Processor tank

    • B. 

      Fixer tank

    • C. 

      Wash tank

    • D. 

      X-ray equipment or cassette

  • 89. 
    Artifacts oriented parallel between 2 films after processing that have been run perpendicular and parallel to the direction of film travel are caused by problems in
    • A. 

      Processor tank

    • B. 

      Fixer tank

    • C. 

      Wash tank

    • D. 

      X-Ray equipment or cassette

  • 90. 
    Plus density artifact bands running parallel to the direction of film travel are caused by:
    • A. 

      The build-up of developer on the processor rollers

    • B. 

      Improper cleaning of the crossover rack assembly

    • C. 

      Uneven roller pressure in the developer tank

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 91. 
    Processor roller marks that show up as artifacts running perpendicular to the direction of film travel are called
    • A. 

      Guide shoe marks

    • B. 

      Chatter

    • C. 

      Wet pressure

    • D. 

      Delay streaks

  • 92. 
    The film for the weekly phantom test is taken from
    • A. 

      Clinical bin

    • B. 

      QC box

    • C. 

      Either bin

    • D. 

      Neither the QC box or the clinical film bin

  • 93. 
    The “preferred” limits on a Processor Quality Control Chart for MD (mid density) are which of the following:
    • A. 

      +/- .05 from reference operating level

    • B. 

      +/- .10 from reference operating level

    • C. 

      +/- .15 from reference operating level

    • D. 

      +/- .20 from reference operating level

  • 94. 
    Currently what are the statistics of how many women will develop breast cancer over their lifetimes
    • A. 

      1 in 5

    • B. 

      1 in 8

    • C. 

      1 in 10

    • D. 

      1 in 12

  • 95. 
    The final MQSA regulations went into effect
    • A. 

      October 1992

    • B. 

      October 1994

    • C. 

      April 1994

    • D. 

      April 1999

  • 96. 
    All mammography films, no matter the manufacturer are
    • A. 

      Most sensitive to green light

    • B. 

      Most sensitive to blue light

    • C. 

      Equally sensitive to blue or green light

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 97. 
    The Mid-density (MD) on the processor quality control chart is chosen by the step closest in density to
    • A. 

      .45

    • B. 

      1.20

    • C. 

      1.50

    • D. 

      2.20

  • 98. 
    How many years do mammography films need to be kept for if the woman is a returning patient?
    • A. 

      2 years

    • B. 

      5 years

    • C. 

      10 years

    • D. 

      Indefinitely

  • 99. 
    The developer temperature should be kept within how many degrees of the processor manufacturer’s recommendation?
    • A. 

      +/- 5 degrees

    • B. 

      +/- 2 degrees

    • C. 

      +/- 1 degree

    • D. 

      +/- 0.5 degrees

  • 100. 
    The storage conditions of processed films should have a relative humidity of
    • A. 

      30 – 50%

    • B. 

      40 – 60%

    • C. 

      50 – 70%

    • D. 

      30 – 40%

  • 101. 
    Subjecting processed films to high temperatures and low humidity (below 30%) can result in which of the following
    • A. 

      Wet, tacky films

    • B. 

      Films with plus density, parallel artifacts

    • C. 

      Emulsion cracking

    • D. 

      Films with minus density perpendicular artifacts

  • 102. 
    Which of the following is the most serious citation a facility can obtain upon an FDA annual inspection
    • A. 

      Level 1

    • B. 

      Level 2

    • C. 

      Level 3

    • D. 

      Level 4

  • 103. 
    Using a 5M-pixel monitor to display 100 micron (0.1 mm) pixels, what is the FOV?
    • A. 

      20 cm x 25 cm

    • B. 

      20 cm x 20 cm

    • C. 

      25 cm x 25 cm

    • D. 

      50 cm x 50 cm

  • 104. 
    If a facility receives a Level 2 citation upon an annual FDA inspection, how many days does the facility have to correct the problem?
    • A. 

      5 days

    • B. 

      10 days

    • C. 

      15 days

    • D. 

      30 days

  • 105. 
    How many days does a facility have to notify a woman of her screening mammogram results following her screening mammogram?
    • A. 

      10 days

    • B. 

      20 days

    • C. 

      30 days

    • D. 

      No notification is necessary if the results are normal

  • 106. 
    In mammography facilities in the United States, ACR accreditation is applied for every
    • A. 

      Year

    • B. 

      2 years

    • C. 

      3 years

    • D. 

      5 years

  • 107. 
    Which of the following minimum requirements applies to the Phantom test in order to pass the evaluation
    • A. 

      Visualization of 4 fibers, 4 speck groups, 4 masses

    • B. 

      Visualization of 5 fibers 3 speck groups and 3 masses

    • C. 

      Visualization of 4 fibers 3 speck groups and 2 masses

    • D. 

      Visualization of 4 fibers, 3 speck groups and 3 masses

  • 108. 
    Under MQSA guidelines, which of the following represents the minimum number of mammograms a mammography technologist must perform in a 2 year period?
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      200

    • C. 

      300

    • D. 

      400

  • 109. 
    According to MQSA guidelines, how many continuing education credits are necessary for a mammography technologist to obtain in mammography
    • A. 

      15 credits every 3 years

    • B. 

      15 credits every year

    • C. 

      24 credits every 2 years

    • D. 

      5 credits every 2 years

  • 110. 
    The control limits on a phantom chart for the density difference (DD) are which of the following
    • A. 

      +/- .05

    • B. 

      +/- .10

    • C. 

      +/- .15

    • D. 

      +/- .20

  • 111. 
    Which of the following is NOT required on the Medical Report?
    • A. 

      Name of the lead interpreting physician

    • B. 

      Name of the technologist who performed the mammogram

    • C. 

      Additional patient qualifier

    • D. 

      Name of the facility

  • 112. 
    A mammography technologist may not count which of the following toward her MQSA performance requirement of 200 mammograms every 2 years
    • A. 

      Spot compression view

    • B. 

      Magnification view

    • C. 

      Additional views

    • D. 

      Needle localizations

  • 113. 
    Which of the following would be the greatest risk factor for breast cancer?
    • A. 

      Obesity

    • B. 

      Numerous full-term pregnancies

    • C. 

      Advanced age

    • D. 

      Late menopause

  • 114. 
    Which of the following would be considered major risk factors for breast cancer? 1. Family history (mother, sister) of breast disease 2. First of three pregnancies at age 22 3. Previous treatment for breast disease
    • A. 

      1 & 2

    • B. 

      2 & 3

    • C. 

      1 & 3

    • D. 

      1, 2 & 3

  • 115. 
    What is the approximate increased likelihood of developing breast cancer for the woman with a family history of breast cancer?
    • A. 

      5 times

    • B. 

      10 times

    • C. 

      20 times

    • D. 

      50 times

  • 116. 
    • A. 

      1 & 2

    • B. 

      2 & 3

    • C. 

      1 only

  • 117. 
    Output for a FFDM system includes: (choose all correct answers)
    • A. 

      Soft copy display

    • B. 

      Laser camera

    • C. 

      Display monitor

    • D. 

      Hard copy

  • 118. 
    The spread of malignant cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant an area of the body is termed:
    • A. 

      Idiopathy

    • B. 

      Carcinogenesis

    • C. 

      malignancy

    • D. 

      Metastasis

  • 119. 
    Current treatment for localized breast carcinoma with minimal disfiguration includes:
    • A. 

      Radical mastectomy

    • B. 

      Modified radical mastectomy

    • C. 

      Lumpectomy

    • D. 

      Needle localization

  • 120. 
    What age group is at the greatest risk for radiation-induced breast cancer?
    • A. 

      Less than 20 years old

    • B. 

      Between 20 & 35 years old

    • C. 

      Between 35 & 50 years old

    • D. 

      After 50 years old

  • 121. 
    Which combination of procedures is most effective for early detection of breast cancer? 1. breast self-examination 2. physical examination 3. mammography
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      2 and 3

    • C. 

      1 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 122. 
    How frequently should breast self-examination be performed?
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Bimonthly

    • D. 

      Quarterly

  • 123. 
    When should breast self-examination performed?
    • A. 

      Five to seven days after the menstrual cycle

    • B. 

      At the beginning of the menstrual cycle

    • C. 

      Three days following onset of the menstrual cycle

    • D. 

      Anytime during the menstrual cycle

  • 124. 
    When performing BSE, which of the following should be done?
    • A. 

      Gently survey the breast using a light touch

    • B. 

      Apply firm pressure to breast using the pads of the fingers

    • C. 

      Apply firm pressure using the dorsal aspect of the fingers

    • D. 

      Use pressing motion with the heel of the hand

  • 125. 
    Which detector type converts x-ray energy directly into electrical charge?
    • A. 

      CR

    • B. 

      Scintillator-photodiode

    • C. 

      Phosphor screen-CCD

    • D. 

      Selenium

  • 126. 
    Which of the following should the technologist complete before obtaining the mammogram images? 1. Record the exposure factors to be used on the patient’s film file 2. Review the patient’s personal history form with the patient 3. Review the patient’s previous mammogram images, (if available)
    • A. 

      1 & 2

    • B. 

      2 & 3

    • C. 

      1 & 3

    • D. 

      1, 2 & 3

  • 127. 
    What quadrant is 2:00 in the right breast
    • A. 

      UOQ

    • B. 

      UIQ

    • C. 

      LOQ

    • D. 

      LIQ

  • 128. 
    What quadrant is 1:00 in the left breast
    • A. 

      UOQ

    • B. 

      UIQ

    • C. 

      LOQ

    • D. 

      LIQ

  • 129. 
    What quadrant is 5:00 in the right breast
    • A. 

      UOQ

    • B. 

      UIQ

    • C. 

      LOQ

    • D. 

      LIQ

  • 130. 
    The advantage of the molybdenum target over the tungsten target for Mammography is its ability to produce:
    • A. 

      More characteristic photons of approximately 20 keV

    • B. 

      More characteristic photons of approximately 10 keV

    • C. 

      More bremsstrahlung photons of approximately 20 keV

    • D. 

      More bremsstrahlung photons of approximately 10 keV

  • 131. 
    What is an adequate range of force for a compression device?
    • A. 

      50 to 85 pounds

    • B. 

      25 to 45 pounds

    • C. 

      15 to 30 pounds

    • D. 

      05 to 20 pounds

  • 132. 
    • A. 

      Use all three sensing chambers simultaneously

    • B. 

      Place the most dense portion of the breast over the sensing chamber (photocell)

    • C. 

      Use the AEC only on the CC projection

    • D. 

      Raise the kilovoltage to avoid running into backup time

  • 133. 
    The primary purpose for using grids in mammography is to:
    • A. 

      Increase record detail (sharpness)

    • B. 

      Increase contrast

    • C. 

      Decrease dose

    • D. 

      Decrease production of scatter

  • 134. 
    What effect does beam restriction have on the quality of the mammography image?
    • A. 

      Less background density

    • B. 

      Better penetration of breast

    • C. 

      Magnification of small structures

    • D. 

      Improved contrast

  • 135. 
    What is the average focal film distance (FFD) available on dedicated Mammography units?
    • A. 

      20 to 25 cm

    • B. 

      40 to 45 cm

    • C. 

      60 to 65 cm

    • D. 

      80 to 85 cm

  • 136. 
    When a combination of single emulsion film and single screen is used, how should the screen and film be aligned?
    • A. 

      Film emulsion in contact with back of screen

    • B. 

      Film emulsion in contact with front of screen

    • C. 

      Non-emulsion side of film in contact with back of screen

    • D. 

      Non-emulsion side of film in contact with front of screen

  • 137. 
    The phosphors most commonly used for mammography screens emit light in what color?
    • A. 

      Yellow

    • B. 

      Yellow

    • C. 

      Blue

    • D. 

      Red

  • 138. 
    Analog-to-digital (A to D) conversion occurs _________ image processing.
    • A. 

      Before

    • B. 

      After

    • C. 

      Sometimes before and sometimes after

    • D. 

      At the same time as

  • 139. 
    The typical placement of the intensifying screen, when a single screen is employed, is with the:
    • A. 

      Back screen facing the x-ray source

    • B. 

      Front screen facing the x-ray source

    • C. 

      Front screen facing away from the x-ray source

  • 140. 
    Removal of unwanted, unexposed silver bromide on film happens in the:
    • A. 

      Developer cycle

    • B. 

      Fixer cycle

    • C. 

      Wash cycle

    • D. 

      Wash cycle

  • 141. 
    Extended cycle processing vs. Standard cycle processing:
    • A. 

      Increases speed of the film being processed

    • B. 

      Increases contrast of the film being processed

    • C. 

      Is determined by the amount of time spent in the developer tank

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 142. 
    In flooded replenishment, the starter is added to:
    • A. 

      Developer tank

    • B. 

      Replenishment tank

    • C. 

      Both

  • 143. 
    The purpose of adding starter to fresh chemicals is:
    • A. 

      To increase the temperature of the developer

    • B. 

      To season the developer

    • C. 

      Minimize developer artifacts

  • 144. 
    The crossover procedure is:
    • A. 

      Done to establish new operating levels for a new box of film

    • B. 

      Performed over 2 days

    • C. 

      Performed over 5 days

    • D. 

      Performed after a P.M. with fresh chemicals

  • 145. 
     Ideally, when is the best time to perform processor sensitometry?
    • A. 

      At the start of the work period (shift) before patient examinations have begun

    • B. 

      About 2 hours after examinations have begun, which allows processor warm-up

    • C. 

      At mid-shift, when technologists have a break

    • D. 

      At the end of the work period (shift)

  • 146. 
    Check compression device
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Semi-annually

  • 147. 
    Darkroom cleanliness
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      quarterly

    • D. 

      Semi-annually

  • 148. 
    Check viewboxes and viewing conditions
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      quarterly

    • D. 

      Semi-annually

  • 149. 
    Perform processor QC
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      quarterly

    • D. 

      Semi-annually

  • 150. 
    Which link in the mammographic imaging chain is the Phantom Image test monitoring?
    • A. 

      Processor

    • B. 

      Mammography equipment

    • C. 

      Film/screen combination

    • D. 

      Entire imaging chain

  • 151. 
    When processor sensitometry falls out of limits, what should be done first?
    • A. 

      Shut down and restart the processor

    • B. 

      Increase developer temperature

    • C. 

      Increase replenishment rates

    • D. 

      Repeat the sensitometric strip

  • 152. 
    • A. 

      0-1000

    • B. 

      250-750

    • C. 

      0-500

    • D. 

      500-1000

  • 153. 
    The breasts are separated from the pectoral muscle by a layer of retromammary:
    • A. 

      Adipose tissue

    • B. 

      Dense connective tissue

    • C. 

      Lactiferous tissue

    • D. 

      Epithelial tissue

  • 154. 
    Typically, the breast is situated on the thorax between the levels of the:
    • A. 

      1st and 4th ribs

    • B. 

      2nd and 6th ribs

    • C. 

      1st and 6th thoracic vertebrae

    • D. 

      2nd and 10th thoracic vertebrae

  • 155. 
    • A. 

      Include the nipple

    • B. 

      Include the IMP

    • C. 

      Include the axilla

    • D. 

      Be the area closest to the chest wall

  • 156. 
    The majority of glandular tissue exists in groups known as:
    • A. 

      Terminal ductal units

    • B. 

      Lobules

    • C. 

      Lobes

    • D. 

      Lactiferous ducts

  • 157. 
    • A. 

      Adipose

    • B. 

      Adipose

    • C. 

      Connective

    • D. 

      Areolar

  • 158. 
    The anatomic structures that support the breast are the:
    • A. 

      Submammary muscles

    • B. 

      Cruciate ligaments

    • C. 

      Axillary ligaments

    • D. 

      Cooper’s ligaments

  • 159. 
    The area between the breast and the pectoral muscle is the:
    • A. 

      Retromanmmary space

    • B. 

      Axillary prolongation

    • C. 

      Inframammary fold

    • D. 

      Mammary apex

  • 160. 
    Which of the following determines the level of radiographic contrast displayed on mammograms?
    • A. 

      Quantity of fibrous tissue compared with glandular and adipose

    • B. 

      Quantity of adipose tissue compared with fibrous and glandular

    • C. 

      Quantity of glandular tissue compared with adipose and fibrous

    • D. 

      Type of breast tissue has no influence on contrast

  • 161. 
    In which of the following life stages would the breast contain the LEAST amount of adipose (fat)tissue?
    • A. 

      Post puberty

    • B. 

      Middle age

    • C. 

      Mature adulthood

    • D. 

      Post menopause

  • 162. 
    During pregnancy and throughout lactation, the breast has an increased amount of:
    • A. 

      Adipose

    • B. 

      Glandular tissue

    • C. 

      Coopers ligaments

    • D. 

      Sebaceous glands

  • 163. 
    Which of the following primary signs of breast cancer, evident on a mammographic image, would indicate the disease at the earliest possible time?
    • A. 

      Dense mass with spiculations

    • B. 

      Numerous clustered microcalcifications

    • C. 

      Skin retraction

    • D. 

      Enlargement of focal veins

  • 164. 
    The characteristics of microcalcifications associated with malignancy include which of the following? 1. Fine size 2. Clustered appearance 3. Round shape 4. Very numerous calcifications
    • A. 

      1, 2, & 3

    • B. 

      2, 3, & 4

    • C. 

      1, 3, & 4

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 4

  • 165. 
    Characteristics of calcifications associated with benign growths include which of the following? 1. Smooth borders 2. Presence in clusters 3. Round shape 4. Numerous microcalcifications
    • A. 

      1, 2, & 4

    • B. 

      1, 3, & 4

    • C. 

      1 & 3

    • D. 

      2 & 4

  • 166. 
    What percentage of mammographic images of malignant disease present  microcalcifications?  
    • A. 

      100 %

    • B. 

      75 %

    • C. 

      40 - 60 %

    • D. 

      10 %

  • 167. 
    Image processing that smoothes the image will have what effect on image noise and detail?
    • A. 

      Decrease, decrease

    • B. 

      Decrease, increase

    • C. 

      Increase, decrease

    • D. 

      Increase, increase

  • 168. 
    A broken parallel set of calcifications will most likely be located in:
    • A. 

      Areola

    • B. 

      Arteries

    • C. 

      Cystic walls

    • D. 

      The skin

  • 169. 
    How should the patient’s arm on the side being examined be positioned for the CC projection?
    • A. 

      Down and slightly pulled back

    • B. 

      Abducted 90 degree to body

    • C. 

      Raised directly overhead

    • D. 

      Shoulder height and reaching forward for handlebar

  • 170. 
    What is the correct height of the image receptor in relation to the breast for routine CC projection?
    • A. 

      2 inches below the inframammary fold (IMF)

    • B. 

      2 inches above the IMF

    • C. 

      At level of IMF with breast at 45 degree angle to chest

    • D. 

      At level of IMF with breast at 90 degree angle to chest

  • 171. 
    Correct placement of the breast onto the image receptor for CC projection requires: 
    • A. 

      The patient to lift and place the breast as instructed by the technologist

    • B. 

      The image receptor to be below the breast and then raised with the breast

    • C. 

      The technologist to gently lift and pull the breast into position on the receptor

    • D. 

      The image receptor to be lower than the breast to allow the breast lie in its natural position

  • 172. 
    What should be done first if the nipple is rotated up or down instead of in profile?
    • A. 

      Mark on the history sheet could not get nipple

    • B. 

      Discontinue the attempt on that view and try again

    • C. 

      Angle the tube medially

    • D. 

      Build up the nipple area

  • 173. 
    The projection that best demonstrates the posterior portion of the breast, including the axillary tail, is the:
    • A. 

      Craniocaudal (CC)

    • B. 

      Craniocaudal (CC) with lateral exaggeration (XCCL)

    • C. 

      Mediolateral oblique (MLO)

    • D. 

      Lateral medial (LM)

  • 174. 
    The amount of obliquity (rotation of the C-arm) used to perform the mediolateral oblique projection varies from patient to patient.  However, the average degree of obliquity is:
    • A. 

      25 degree

    • B. 

      30 degree

    • C. 

      45 degree

    • D. 

      45 degree

  • 175. 
    For the mediolateral oblique (MLO) projection, the technologist should place the image receptor:
    • A. 

      Perpendicular to the breast

    • B. 

      Perpendicular to the pectoral muscle

    • C. 

      Parallel to the breast

    • D. 

      Parallel to the pectoral muscle

  • 176. 
    Indicate the projection described by the following positioning instructions: The tube assembly is vertical (x-ray beam perpendicular to the floor) and the tube is angled 5 degree in a lateral to medial direction. The erect atient faces the image receptor and is slightly rotated medially. The inferior aspect of the breast is on the image receptor. The central is directed to the midpoint of the image receptor (may be slightly lateral to the nipple).
    • A. 

      Mediolateral oblique (MLO)

    • B. 

      Oblique Craniocaudal

    • C. 

      Craniocaudal with medial exaggeration

    • D. 

      Craniocaudal with lateral exaggeration

  • 177. 
    Which projection would best demonstrate fluid levels in the erect patient?
    • A. 

      Mediolateral oblique (MLO)

    • B. 

      Medial lateral (ML)

    • C. 

      Craniocaudal (CC)

    • D. 

      Tangential (TAN)

  • 178. 
    In order to improve positioning capability for the Craniocaudal projection on a kyphotic patient, which alternate projection should be performed?
    • A. 

      Axillary tail (AT)

    • B. 

      Rolled (RM or RL)

    • C. 

      Exaggerated medial craniocaudal (XCCM)

    • D. 

      Caudalcranial (FB)

  • 179. 
    Match the following description with the correct projection: The tube assembly is rotated to a 90 degree position from vertical (x-ray beam is       parallel to the floor). The patient is erect and the arm on the side being examined is at the right angle to the body.  The edge of the image receptor is along the sternum and central ray is directed perpendicular to the image receptor from lateral to medial.
    • A. 

      Mediolateral oblique (MLO)

    • B. 

      Medial lateral (ML)

    • C. 

      Lateral medial (LM)

    • D. 

      Reverse oblique (LMO)

  • 180. 
    What portion of the breast is best demonstrated on the Axially Tail view
    • A. 

      Medial breast tissue

    • B. 

      Tail of the breast

    • C. 

      Nipple area

    • D. 

      Inframammary region

  • 181. 
    Which view would best demonstrate the deep medial aspect of the beast?
    • A. 

      Axillary tail

    • B. 

      Cleavage ((CV)

    • C. 

      Medial lateral

    • D. 

      Rolled

  • 182. 
    Which view would be most useful in determining whether calcification are within the skin rather than within the breast parenchyma?
    • A. 

      Rolled (RL or ML)

    • B. 

      Tangential (TAN)

    • C. 

      Axillary Tail (AT)

    • D. 

      Cleavage (CV)

  • 183. 
    If films are requested on a mastectomy patient (one side affected). What views would you take? 1. Routine projections - CC and MLO 2. MLO of the skin over the mastectomy site 3. Spot view of any area of concern 4. AP view of Axillary
    • A. 

      1 & 2

    • B. 

      2, 3 & 4

    • C. 

      1 & 3

    • D. 

      None - mammography is no longer required

  • 184. 
    Which of the following positions or techniques is used to demonstrate tissue that has been superimposed on another position?
    • A. 

      Axillary Tail (AT)

    • B. 

      Coat hanger

    • C. 

      Roll (RM or RL)

    • D. 

      Tangential

  • 185. 
    Any electrical charge remaining in the detector after image data readout is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Image noise

    • B. 

      Charge saturation

    • C. 

      Post-processing

    • D. 

      Ghost image

  • 186. 
    Which of the following positions is/are most helpful in demonstrating tissue in the 12:00 or 6:00 position?
    • A. 

      Cleavage (CV)

    • B. 

      Exaggerated CC lateral

    • C. 

      ML 90 degree or LM 90 degree

    • D. 

      Axillary Tail

  • 187. 
    Which additional position/s should be performed to determine milk of calcium? 1. Tangential 2. Roll (RL or RM) 3. ML 90 or LM 90
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 188. 
    Which of the following positions are recommended for a complete study of  the augmented breast? 1. Routine CC & MLO 2. Modified CC & MLO (push back, Eklund) 3. 30 degree oblique
    • A. 

      1 & 2 only

    • B. 

      1 & 3 only

    • C. 

      2 & 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 189. 
    • A. 

      1 & 2 only

    • B. 

      1 & 3 only

    • C. 

      All of the above

  • 190. 
    What is the primary reason for performing magnification mammography?
    • A. 

      Evaluation of fatty tissue

    • B. 

      Increased image contrast

    • C. 

      Reduce patient dose

    • D. 

      Increase detail of calcifications

  • 191. 
    Which of the following is the primary reason for breast compression?
    • A. 

      To void the need for more than one view per breast.

    • B. 

      To uniformly reduce the thickness of the breast tissue

    • C. 

      To avoid need for a grid

    • D. 

      To allow use of a faster screen/film system

  • 192. 
    In order to minimize patient discomfort, how should compression be applied?
    • A. 

      Compress very quickly

    • B. 

      Compress a little, then stop to allow patient time to adjust

    • C. 

      Compress slowly and steadily

    • D. 

      Allow the patient to apply compression

  • 193. 
    Proper compression of the breast is indicated by which of the following?
    • A. 

      The breast will feel soft

    • B. 

      The breast will feel taut

    • C. 

      The breast will have both tight and soft areas

    • D. 

      The patient will experience extreme discomfort

  • 194. 
    On which projection would the technologist check the medial and lateral aspects of the breast for the proper amount of compression?
    • A. 

      CC

    • B. 

      ML

    • C. 

      MLO

    • D. 

      Axillary

  • 195. 
    Correct use of vigorous compression will lower patient dose because of decreased:
    • A. 

      Focal film distance (FFD)

    • B. 

      Film distance

    • C. 

      Patient motion

    • D. 

      Tissue thickness

  • 196. 
    For magnification mammography, what is the maximum size the focal spot should be?
    • A. 

      1.2 mm

    • B. 

      0.6 mm

    • C. 

      0.2 mm

    • D. 

      0.1 mm

  • 197. 
    In order to perform successful magnification mammography, what criteria must be met?
    • A. 

      Decreased FFD

    • B. 

      Increased FFD

    • C. 

      Small focal spot

    • D. 

      Large focal spot

  • 198. 
    The most commonly used magnification factor for mammography is:
    • A. 

      1.5 times

    • B. 

      3.0 times

    • C. 

      2.3 times

    • D. 

      2.5 times

  • 199. 
    Which of the following may be achieved with magnification views of the breast?
    • A. 

      Decreased patient dose

    • B. 

      Improved visualization of suspicious areas

    • C. 

      Shorter exposure times

    • D. 

      Ability to improve contrast by using lower kilovoltage

  • 200. 
    Compared with routine mammographic imaging, what effect will magnification studies have on patient dose?
    • A. 

      Increased dose

    • B. 

      Decreased dose

    • C. 

      No effect

  • 201. 
    A mammographic image that appears to be properly penetrated but slightly underexposed should be corrected by altering which variable?
    • A. 

      MAs

    • B. 

      KVp

    • C. 

      FFD

    • D. 

      FFD

  • 202. 
    To increase exposure slightly when the AEC’s tracking ability is sub-optimum:
    • A. 

      The backup time should be increased

    • B. 

      The sensing chamber should be moved to its most anterior position

    • C. 

      The minimum reaction time should be decreased

    • D. 

      The density control should be increased

  • 203. 
    Why is the breast specimen radiographed?
    • A. 

      To provide the technologist with an opportunity to prefect exposure factors

    • B. 

      To determine if the suspicious area was successfully excised

    • C. 

      To determine finally the benign or malignant status of the tissue sample

    • D. 

      To validate the radiologist’s skill in performing needle localization procedures

  • 204. 
    The overall advantage of using automatic exposure control (phototimer, AEC’s) is the ability to automatically compensate for:
    • A. 

      Change in screen speed

    • B. 

      Inconsistent processing methods

    • C. 

      Poor positioning of the breast

    • D. 

      Variations in breast thickness

  • 205. 
    The automatic exposure control (AEC) may be used for all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Needle localization

    • B. 

      Specimen radiography

    • C. 

      A patient with breast implants in-place

    • D. 

      A male breast with enlarged breast

  • 206. 
    To decrease image noise you should do what to the radiation dose?
    • A. 

      Increase

    • B. 

      Increase

    • C. 

      Noise does not depend on dose

  • 207. 
    Where should identified markers be placed on the image receptor for the MLO and 90 lateral projection?
    • A. 

      Mid-film near nipple

    • B. 

      Inferior aspect of film near abdomen

    • C. 

      Superior aspect of the film near axilla

    • D. 

      Wherever they fit

  • 208. 
    Core biopsies of the breast are performed with a ____ gauge needle?
    • A. 

      14 gauge

    • B. 

      18 gauge

    • C. 

      20 gauge

    • D. 

      22 gauge

  • 209. 
    Possible causes of poor film screen contact include which of the following? 1. Trapped air 2. Warped cassettes 3. Foreign bodies with-in cassettes
    • A. 

      1 & 2

    • B. 

      2 & 3

    • C. 

      1 & 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 210. 
    A grid is not required during magnification mammography because of:
    • A. 

      Decreased patient dose

    • B. 

      Influence of the air gap

    • C. 

      Lower kilovoltage used

    • D. 

      Larger field size used

  • 211. 
    Magnification views have __________ exposure times than/as routine mammography.
    • A. 

      Longer

    • B. 

      Shorter

    • C. 

      The same

  • 212. 
    Which of the following should influence the length of the time between screening examinations on asymptomatic patients? 1. If the patient performs BSE 2. If the patient drinks coffee 3. Age of the patient 4. Positive family history
    • A. 

      1 & 2

    • B. 

      1 & 3

    • C. 

      2 & 3

    • D. 

      3 & 4

  • 213. 
    During a mammographic evaluation the radiographer does not have a responsibility to:
    • A. 

      Obtain a high quality examination

    • B. 

      To perform a clinical breast examination

    • C. 

      Reduce the anxiety level of the patient

    • D. 

      Coordinate clinical history with the radiologist

  • 214. 
    Image
    • A. 

      Major Muscle

    • B. 

      Rib Subcutaneous fat

    • C. 

      Lactiferous duct

    • D. 

      Inframammary Retromammary space/ fat

    • E. 

      Pectoralis fold/crease

  • 215. 
    Image
    • A. 

      Retromammary space/fat

    • B. 

      Pectoralis Major Muscle

    • C. 

      Rib

    • D. 

      Lactiferous duct

    • E. 

      Inframammary fold/crease

  • 216. 
    Image
    • A. 

      Retromammary space/fat

    • B. 

      Pectoralis Major Muscle

    • C. 

      Rib

    • D. 

      Lactiferous duct

    • E. 

      Inframammary fold/crease

  • 217. 
    Image
    • A. 

      Retromammary space/fat

    • B. 

      Pectoralis Major Muscle

    • C. 

      Rib

    • D. 

      Lactiferous duct

    • E. 

      Inframammary fold/crease

  • 218. 
    Image
    • A. 

      Retromammary space/fat

    • B. 

      Pectoralis Major Muscle

    • C. 

      Rib

    • D. 

      Lactiferous duct

    • E. 

      Inframammary fold/crease