Mammography Practice Test Questions And Answers

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Mammography Practice Test Questions And Answers - Quiz

What do you know about a mammogram and mammography? Take this mammography practice test and check your knowledge for the same. Mammography is the process of examining the human breast for diagnosis and screening by using low-energy X-rays. Mammographers use a mammogram to check early signs of breast cancer. If you aspire to be a mammographer, you must pass this quiz with at least 70% marks. Stop wasting your precious time. Play the quiz now. .


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The ACS does not recommend routine mammograms for women below the age of:

    • A.

      40

    • B.

      35

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      25

    Correct Answer
    A. 40
    Explanation
    The American Cancer Society (ACS) does not recommend routine mammograms for women below the age of 40. Mammograms are X-ray images of the breast used to detect breast cancer early. However, the ACS guidelines suggest that women aged 40 and older should have mammograms every 1 to 2 years. This is because the risk of breast cancer increases with age, and mammograms are more effective in detecting cancer in older women. Therefore, women below the age of 40 are not recommended to have routine mammograms according to ACS guidelines.

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  • 2. 

    Lymph node enlargement, nipple inversion, nipple discharge, skin thickening, and breast lumps are ALWAYS a sign of breast cancer.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because lymph node enlargement, nipple inversion, nipple discharge, skin thickening, and breast lumps are not always a sign of breast cancer. While these symptoms can be associated with breast cancer, they can also be caused by other conditions such as infections, hormonal changes, or benign breast conditions. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and diagnosis.

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  • 3. 

    The only task NOT required of the RT is:

    • A.

      Validation of the Doctor's requisition with the clinical history given by the patient.

    • B.

      Diagramming lumps, scars, large moles on the breast.

    • C.

      Diagnosing the patient's condition

    • D.

      Choice of technical factors used - determined by patient age, density of breast tissue, equipment characteristics.

    Correct Answer
    C. Diagnosing the patient's condition
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Diagnosing the patient's condition". The reason for this is that the role of the RT (Radiologic Technologist) is primarily focused on performing imaging procedures and assisting in the diagnostic process, rather than making the final diagnosis. The RT's main responsibility is to ensure that the technical aspects of the imaging procedure are properly executed, such as selecting the appropriate technical factors based on patient characteristics and equipment specifications. The validation of the doctor's requisition with the patient's clinical history and the diagramming of lumps, scars, and moles on the breast are also important tasks for the RT, as they contribute to the accuracy and completeness of the imaging process.

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  • 4. 

    Which is NOT considered curative breast surgery?

    • A.

      Core sample biopsy

    • B.

      lumpectomy

    • C.

      Quadectomy

    • D.

      Modified radical mastectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Core sample biopsy
    Explanation
    A core sample biopsy is not considered curative breast surgery because it is a diagnostic procedure rather than a treatment option. It involves removing a small sample of breast tissue for further examination to determine if cancer is present. While it helps in the diagnosis and staging of breast cancer, it does not remove the entire tumor or treat the disease. On the other hand, lumpectomy, quadectomy, and modified radical mastectomy are all surgical procedures aimed at removing the cancerous tissue and potentially curing the disease.

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  • 5. 

    The reason(s) for performing BSE include:

    • A.

      To compensate for the inaccuracy in mammograms (up to 20%)

    • B.

      To detect cancers which are not, even in retrospect, visible on the mammogram

    • C.

      To involve women who do not have mammograms

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Performing breast self-examination (BSE) is recommended for several reasons. Firstly, mammograms can have a certain level of inaccuracy, up to 20%, so BSE can help compensate for any potential missed abnormalities. Secondly, BSE can detect cancers that may not be visible on a mammogram, even when looking back retrospectively. Lastly, BSE is important for women who do not have access to or choose not to undergo mammograms. Therefore, all of the reasons mentioned above contribute to the importance of performing BSE.

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  • 6. 

    BSE should be done in a random pattern using the fingertips.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    BSE (Breast Self-Examination) should not be done in a random pattern using the fingertips. The correct technique for BSE involves using the pads of the fingers in a systematic pattern to thoroughly examine the entire breast, including the surrounding areas and underarms. This helps in detecting any lumps or changes in the breast tissue that may require further medical evaluation.

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  • 7. 

    BSE should be performed monthly by all women beginning in their 20's

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    BSE (Breast Self-Examination) is a simple and important technique for women to detect any changes or abnormalities in their breasts. By performing BSE monthly, women can become familiar with the normal look and feel of their breasts, making it easier to identify any potential issues such as lumps or changes in size or shape. Starting in their 20's allows women to establish a baseline for their breast health and detect any changes early on, which can significantly improve the chances of successful treatment if any abnormalities are found. Therefore, it is recommended for all women to perform BSE monthly starting in their 20's.

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  • 8. 

    It is necessary for the technologist to diagram which of the following:

    • A.

      Scars

    • B.

      Tattoos

    • C.

      Moles

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The technologist needs to diagram all of the above (scars, tattoos, and moles) because these are important identifying features on a person's body. Diagramming these features helps in accurately documenting and tracking any changes or abnormalities over time, which is crucial for medical and forensic purposes. This information can assist in identifying individuals, monitoring the progression of diseases, and providing evidence in legal cases.

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  • 9. 

    The physical boundaries of the breast include superior to the clavicle, medial to the sternum, inferior to the inframammary crease, and lateral to the midaxillary line.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because it accurately describes the physical boundaries of the breast. It states that the breast is located superior to the clavicle, which is the collarbone, and medial to the sternum, which is the breastbone. It is also located inferior to the inframammary crease, which is the fold beneath the breast, and lateral to the midaxillary line, which is the line running down the side of the body. Therefore, the statement is correct.

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  • 10. 

    The base of the breast and the inframammary crease are one and the same.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The base of the breast and the inframammary crease are not the same. The base of the breast refers to the area where the breast tissue attaches to the chest wall, while the inframammary crease is the natural fold or line where the bottom of the breast meets the chest wall. These two terms refer to different anatomical structures and locations within the breast.

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  • 11. 

    The tissue type that attenuates the x-ray beam the least is:

    • A.

      Adipose tissue

    • B.

      Fibro-glandular tissue

    • C.

      Fibrous tissue

    • D.

      Fibro-fatty tissue

    Correct Answer
    A. Adipose tissue
    Explanation
    Adipose tissue is the correct answer because it contains a high percentage of fat cells, which have a low atomic number and therefore attenuate the x-ray beam the least. This means that adipose tissue allows more x-rays to pass through, resulting in less absorption and a lighter appearance on the x-ray image. In contrast, fibro-glandular tissue, fibrous tissue, and fibro-fatty tissue have higher atomic numbers and therefore attenuate the x-ray beam to a greater extent, resulting in more absorption and a darker appearance on the x-ray image.

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  • 12. 

    The tissue type that attenuates the x-ray beam the most is:

    • A.

      Adipose tissue

    • B.

      Fibro-glandular tissue

    • C.

      Fibrous tissue

    • D.

      Fibro-fatty tissue

    Correct Answer
    B. Fibro-glandular tissue
    Explanation
    Fibro-glandular tissue is the correct answer because it contains a higher density of glandular and fibrous structures compared to the other tissue types listed. These glandular and fibrous structures have a higher atomic number and density, which results in increased attenuation of the x-ray beam. Adipose tissue, on the other hand, has a lower atomic number and density, leading to less attenuation of the x-ray beam. Fibrous tissue and fibro-fatty tissue also have lower densities and atomic numbers compared to fibro-glandular tissue, making them less effective at attenuating the x-ray beam.

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  • 13. 

    50% of all breast cancers occur in which quadrant?

    • A.

      LIQ

    • B.

      LOQ

    • C.

      UOQ

    • D.

      UIQ

    Correct Answer
    C. UOQ
    Explanation
    50% of all breast cancers occur in the upper outer quadrant (UOQ) of the breast. The upper outer quadrant is the area of the breast that is closest to the armpit. This region of the breast has a higher density of glandular tissue, which makes it more susceptible to developing cancerous cells. Additionally, the UOQ is also more exposed to environmental factors such as sunlight, which may contribute to the higher incidence of breast cancer in this quadrant.

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  • 14. 

    Choose the correct equation:

    • A.

      Pixel size = FOV / matrix size

    • B.

      Pixel size = FOV x matrix size

    • C.

      Pixel size = matrix size / FOV

    • D.

      Pixel size = FOV + matrix size

    Correct Answer
    A. Pixel size = FOV / matrix size
    Explanation
    The equation "pixel size = FOV / matrix size" is correct because in order to calculate the pixel size, we need to divide the field of view (FOV) by the matrix size. This equation makes sense because the pixel size is inversely proportional to the matrix size - as the matrix size increases, the pixel size decreases, and vice versa. Additionally, dividing the FOV by the matrix size aligns with the concept that the FOV should be divided into smaller segments represented by the matrix size to determine the size of each pixel.

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  • 15. 

    Breast cancers arise in which type of tissue?

    • A.

      Ducts

    • B.

      Lobules

    • C.

      Adipose tissue

    • D.

      A + B

    Correct Answer
    D. A + B
    Explanation
    Breast cancers can arise in both the ducts and lobules of the breast tissue. Ductal carcinoma is the most common type of breast cancer and originates in the milk ducts, while lobular carcinoma starts in the lobules, which are the milk-producing glands. Adipose tissue, which is fatty tissue, does not give rise to breast cancers. Therefore, the correct answer is A + B, indicating that breast cancers can arise in both ducts and lobules.

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  • 16. 

    The area of the breast that is not visualized on the CC view is:

    • A.

      Posterior - inferior

    • B.

      Posterior - superior

    • C.

      Anterior - inferior

    • D.

      Anterior - superior

    Correct Answer
    B. Posterior - superior
    Explanation
    The CC view in mammography refers to the cranio-caudal view, which is an X-ray image taken from the top of the breast to the bottom. The breast is compressed between two plates during this view. In the given question, the correct answer is "posterior - superior." This means that the area of the breast that is not visualized on the CC view is the upper and back part of the breast.

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  • 17. 

    Spot compression/coned-down views can:

    • A.

      Helps separate superimposed tissue

    • B.

      Increase contrast by reducing scatter

    • C.

      Help identify subtle findings in dense breasts

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Spot compression/coned-down views can help separate superimposed tissue, increase contrast by reducing scatter, and help identify subtle findings in dense breasts. These views are used to focus on a specific area of interest by compressing the breast tissue and reducing the amount of scatter radiation. This allows for better visualization and differentiation of structures that may be obscured or difficult to identify on a standard mammogram. Therefore, all of the given statements are correct.

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  • 18. 

    A grid may be used when performing magnification.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A grid is not used when performing magnification. Magnification is typically achieved through the use of lenses or other optical devices that enlarge the size of an object or image. A grid, on the other hand, is a pattern of intersecting lines that is used in various fields such as photography or graphic design to assist with composition or alignment. Therefore, the statement that a grid may be used when performing magnification is false.

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  • 19. 

    During pre-operative needle localizations, the amount of compression used should be equal to that of the routine mammogram.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The amount of compression used during pre-operative needle localizations should not be equal to that of the routine mammogram. This is because the purpose of pre-operative needle localizations is to precisely locate and mark a specific area of concern for surgery, whereas routine mammograms aim to screen the entire breast for any abnormalities. Therefore, the compression used during pre-operative needle localizations may vary depending on the specific needs of the procedure.

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  • 20. 

    To reduce the patient's radiation dose during pre-operative needle localizations, which of the following can be done:

    • A.

      Increase the kVp setting

    • B.

      Use a faster screen/film system

    • C.

      Exposes only that area of the breast immediately surrounding the area in question

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    To reduce the patient's radiation dose during pre-operative needle localizations, all of the above options can be done. Increasing the kVp setting helps to produce higher-energy x-rays, which require less exposure time and thus reduce the overall radiation dose. Using a faster screen/film system allows for shorter exposure times, further reducing the radiation dose. Lastly, exposing only the area of the breast immediately surrounding the area in question ensures that radiation is limited to the necessary area, minimizing exposure to the rest of the breast.

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  • 21. 

    To improve the appearance of the specimen on film, one can:

    • A.

      Magnify the specimen

    • B.

      Use kVp settings below 25 (molybdenum)

    • C.

      Compress the specimen

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because magnifying the specimen can help to capture more details and enhance its appearance on film. Using kVp settings below 25 (molybdenum) can reduce scatter radiation and improve image contrast. Compressing the specimen can help to reduce motion artifacts and ensure sharper images. Therefore, all three options can contribute to improving the appearance of the specimen on film.

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  • 22. 

    When using a phototimer, if a plus density setting is used, which of the following will occur? 1. reduction focal spot size 2. increase in mA 3. increase in exposure time

    • A.

      1 and 2

    • B.

      1, 2 and 3

    • C.

      2 and 3

    • D.

      3 only

    Correct Answer
    D. 3 only
    Explanation
    When using a phototimer, if a plus density setting is used, only an increase in exposure time will occur. A plus density setting means that the image needs to be darker, so the phototimer will automatically increase the exposure time to achieve this. The focal spot size and mA settings are not affected by the density setting.

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  • 23. 

    The x-ray interaction that provides the contrast for the radiograph is:

    • A.

      Photoelectric

    • B.

      Compton

    • C.

      Pair production

    • D.

      Coherent

    Correct Answer
    A. Photoelectric
    Explanation
    The correct answer is photoelectric. In the process of photoelectric interaction, an x-ray photon is completely absorbed by an inner shell electron, resulting in the ejection of the electron from its orbit. This interaction provides the contrast for the radiograph as it produces a high level of absorption and allows for the visualization of structures with different densities.

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  • 24. 

    Which type of mammography uses 3D imaging technology?

    • A.

      Digital mammography

    • B.

      Film mammography

    • C.

      Tomosynthesis

    • D.

      MRI mammography

    Correct Answer
    C. Tomosynthesis
    Explanation
    Tomosynthesis, also known as 3D mammography, uses 3D imaging technology to capture multiple images of the breast from different angles. This helps in improving the accuracy of breast cancer detection.

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  • 25. 

    Mammography films show breast calcifications better than chest x-rays because of:

    • A.

      Makes a more uniform exposure of the entire breast

    • B.

      Reduces geometric unsharpness

    • C.

      Reduces exposure time and scattered radiation

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Mammography films show breast calcifications better than chest x-rays because they make a more uniform exposure of the entire breast, which ensures that the calcifications are captured clearly. Additionally, mammography reduces geometric unsharpness, resulting in sharper and more detailed images of the calcifications. It also reduces exposure time and scattered radiation, making the procedure safer and more efficient. Therefore, all of the above factors contribute to mammography films being superior in displaying breast calcifications compared to chest x-rays.

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  • 26. 

    Mammography films show breast calcifications better than chest x-rays because of:

    • A.

      More photoelectric effect

    • B.

      Smaller focal spot

    • C.

      Single rather than double emulsion film

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above". Mammography films show breast calcifications better than chest x-rays due to a combination of factors. Firstly, there is more photoelectric effect, which means that the x-rays are absorbed more by the breast tissue, making the calcifications more visible. Additionally, mammography machines typically have a smaller focal spot, resulting in sharper images with better resolution. Lastly, mammography films use single emulsion film, which reduces the scattering of x-rays and improves the clarity of the image.

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  • 27. 

    Repeat rate will decrease with FFDM mainly because of:

    • A.

      Digitization

    • B.

      Wide exposure latitude

    • C.

      Lower dose

    • D.

      High frequency generator

    Correct Answer
    B. Wide exposure latitude
    Explanation
    The wide exposure latitude of FFDM refers to its ability to capture a wide range of image densities without significant loss of image quality. This means that the system can handle a variety of breast sizes and tissue densities, resulting in fewer repeat exams. With a wider exposure latitude, the chances of under or overexposure are reduced, leading to improved image quality and decreased need for repeat imaging.

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  • 28. 

    A simple cyst will show on ultrasound:

    • A.

      Smooth walls

    • B.

      Good acoustic enhancement

    • C.

      No internal echoes (anechoic)

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    A simple cyst will show smooth walls, good acoustic enhancement, and no internal echoes on ultrasound. Smooth walls indicate that the cyst is well-defined and does not have any irregularities. Good acoustic enhancement means that there is increased sound transmission through the cyst, resulting in a dark area behind it. No internal echoes or anechoic appearance indicates that the cyst is filled with fluid and does not contain any solid components. Therefore, all of the above characteristics are indicative of a simple cyst on ultrasound.

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  • 29. 

    Architectural distortion is most often found in cases of:

    • A.

      Fibroadenoma

    • B.

      Invasive breast carcinoma

    • C.

      Papillomatosis

    • D.

      Intramammary lymph node

    Correct Answer
    B. Invasive breast carcinoma
    Explanation
    Architectural distortion refers to changes in the normal structure or arrangement of breast tissue, often seen as irregular or spiculated lines on a mammogram. It is most commonly associated with invasive breast carcinoma, which is a type of breast cancer that has spread from the milk ducts or lobules into the surrounding tissue. Fibroadenoma, papillomatosis, and intramammary lymph node are all benign conditions that typically do not cause architectural distortion. Therefore, invasive breast carcinoma is the most likely cause of this finding.

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  • 30. 

    Fibroadenomas:

    • A.

      Are benign

    • B.

      Can calcify

    • C.

      Can involute

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Fibroadenomas are benign tumors commonly found in the breast tissue. They are non-cancerous and do not pose a threat to health. Fibroadenomas can calcify, meaning that calcium deposits can form within the tumor. This can be seen on imaging tests such as mammograms. Additionally, fibroadenomas have the ability to involute, which means that they can shrink or disappear on their own over time. Therefore, all of the given statements - being benign, capable of calcification, and able to involute - are true for fibroadenomas.

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  • 31. 

    A Mammotome is:

    • A.

      A scalpel

    • B.

      A densitometer

    • C.

      Prone table

    • D.

      Core biopsy needle

    Correct Answer
    D. Core biopsy needle
    Explanation
    A Mammotome is a core biopsy needle. A core biopsy is a procedure used to remove a small amount of tissue from the breast for further examination. The Mammotome is a specialized needle that is designed to accurately and efficiently remove a core sample of breast tissue. It is commonly used in the diagnosis of breast abnormalities or to evaluate suspicious areas found on a mammogram or ultrasound. The Mammotome allows for a minimally invasive approach to obtaining tissue samples, reducing the need for more invasive surgical procedures.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with an abnormal galactogram?

    • A.

      A unilateral greenish nipple discharge

    • B.

      Retroareolar pain with monthly variation

    • C.

      A unilateral dark or bloody nipple discharge

    • D.

      A bilateral white or creamy nipple discharge

    Correct Answer
    C. A unilateral dark or bloody nipple discharge
    Explanation
    A unilateral dark or bloody nipple discharge is most likely to be associated with an abnormal galactogram. Galactogram is a diagnostic test used to evaluate the ducts of the breast for any abnormalities. Dark or bloody nipple discharge can indicate the presence of a lesion or tumor within the ducts, which would be detected through the galactogram. Unilateral discharge suggests that the abnormality is localized to one breast, further indicating the need for diagnostic investigation.

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  • 33. 

    Male breast carcinoma accounts for approximately what portion of all breast carcinomas?

    • A.

      25%

    • B.

      10%

    • C.

      5%

    • D.

      Less than 2%

    Correct Answer
    D. Less than 2%
    Explanation
    Male breast carcinoma is a rare form of breast cancer that affects men. It accounts for less than 2% of all breast carcinomas, making it a very small portion. This low percentage is due to the fact that breast cancer is more commonly found in women, with men having a significantly lower risk. Therefore, less than 2% accurately reflects the proportion of male breast carcinomas compared to all breast carcinomas.

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  • 34. 

    Blurring of a mammogram image can be caused by:

    • A.

      Patient motion

    • B.

      Too long exposure

    • C.

      Defective equipment

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Blurring of a mammogram image can be caused by patient motion, too long exposure, and defective equipment. Patient motion can result in a blurry image if the patient moves during the examination. Too long exposure can cause blurring if the image is exposed for an extended period, leading to motion blur. Defective equipment can also contribute to blurring if there are issues with the imaging system. Therefore, all of the mentioned factors can cause blurring in a mammogram image.

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  • 35. 

    "Camel's nose" refers to a mammogram which:

    • A.

      Is too light

    • B.

      Has a skin fold in the axilla on the MLO view

    • C.

      Is too dark

    • D.

      Shows sagging of the breast on the MLO view

    Correct Answer
    D. Shows sagging of the breast on the MLO view
    Explanation
    The term "camel's nose" is used to describe a mammogram that shows sagging of the breast on the MLO view. This means that the breast tissue appears to be drooping or hanging down in the image. The comparison to a camel's nose is used metaphorically to suggest that if a small issue like sagging is ignored or not properly addressed, it can lead to bigger problems or complications, just like how allowing a camel's nose into a tent can eventually result in the whole camel entering.

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  • 36. 

    Lobular carcinoma accounts for approximately what portion of all breasts carcinomas?

    • A.

      50%

    • B.

      25%

    • C.

      10%

    • D.

      Less than 2%

    Correct Answer
    C. 10%
    Explanation
    Lobular carcinoma accounts for approximately 10% of all breast carcinomas. This means that out of every 100 cases of breast carcinoma, around 10 cases are lobular carcinoma. It is important to note that lobular carcinoma is a type of breast cancer that starts in the milk-producing glands of the breast, and it differs from the more common type of breast cancer known as ductal carcinoma.

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  • 37. 

    Ductal carcinoma can present with findings of:

    • A.

      Masses

    • B.

      Speculated lesions

    • C.

      Microcalcifications

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Ductal carcinoma can present with masses, speculated lesions, and microcalcifications. This means that when someone has ductal carcinoma, they may have any combination of these findings. Masses are abnormal lumps or growths in the breast tissue, speculated lesions are areas of abnormal tissue that appear as irregular shapes, and microcalcifications are tiny calcium deposits that can be seen on a mammogram. Therefore, all of these findings can be seen in cases of ductal carcinoma.

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  • 38. 

    The word "orthogonal" is best described as:

    • A.

      Two planes

    • B.

      At a 45 degree angle

    • C.

      At a right angle

    • D.

      Multi-sided

    Correct Answer
    C. At a right angle
    Explanation
    The word "orthogonal" is best described as "at a right angle". In mathematics and geometry, two lines or planes are said to be orthogonal if they intersect at a right angle, forming a 90-degree angle. This term is commonly used to indicate perpendicularity, where two lines or planes meet or intersect perpendicularly.

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  • 39. 

    The following are all breast interventional procedures except:

    • A.

      Pneumocystography

    • B.

      Stereotactic core needle biopsy

    • C.

      Myelography

    • D.

      Galactography

    Correct Answer
    C. Myelography
    Explanation
    Myelography is not a breast interventional procedure. Myelography is a diagnostic imaging technique used to visualize the spinal cord and nerve roots by injecting a contrast dye into the spinal canal. It is primarily used to diagnose conditions affecting the spinal cord, such as herniated discs or spinal tumors. In contrast, pneumocystography, stereotactic core needle biopsy, and galactography are all breast interventional procedures. Pneumocystography involves injecting air or a gas into the breast ducts to visualize any abnormalities, while stereotactic core needle biopsy is a minimally invasive procedure to obtain tissue samples from breast lesions. Galactography is a procedure used to evaluate and diagnose breast duct problems, such as nipple discharge or recurrent infections.

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  • 40. 

    Compared to open surgical biopsy, ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy:

    • A.

      Is faster

    • B.

      Is less expensive

    • C.

      Leaves a smaller scar

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy is preferred over open surgical biopsy because it offers several advantages. Firstly, it is faster as it can be performed quickly and efficiently under ultrasound guidance. Secondly, it is less expensive as it does not require the use of an operating room or general anesthesia. Lastly, it leaves a smaller scar as it only requires a small incision for the needle insertion. Therefore, all of the given options are correct and highlight the benefits of ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy.

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  • 41. 

    According to standards, where are the view markers placed when doing a mammogram?

    • A.

      As close to the medial breast as the position allows

    • B.

      Anywhere not obscuring breast tissue

    • C.

      As close to the axilla as the position allows

    • D.

      Next to the ID flash

    Correct Answer
    C. As close to the axilla as the position allows
    Explanation
    View markers in a mammogram are placed as close to the axilla (armpit) as the position allows. This is done to provide a reference point for the radiologist when interpreting the images and to ensure proper orientation of the breast tissue. Placing the markers in this location helps in identifying any abnormalities or changes in the breast tissue accurately.

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  • 42. 

    For the MLO view, the best angle of the tube is:

    • A.

      Standard 50 degree for all patients

    • B.

      Standard 60 degree for all patients

    • C.

      Standard 70 degree for all patients

    • D.

      Determined by the anatomy of each patient

    Correct Answer
    D. Determined by the anatomy of each patient
    Explanation
    The MLO view, which stands for Medio-Lateral Oblique view, is a mammographic technique used to examine breast tissue. The best angle of the tube for this view is determined by the anatomy of each patient. This means that the angle of the tube may vary depending on factors such as the size, shape, and position of the breast. It is important to customize the angle for each patient to ensure optimal imaging and accurate interpretation of the mammogram.

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  • 43. 

    A pneumocystogram starts with aspiration of most or all of the fluid from a cystic lesion. Which of the following is then injected into the lesion just  before the pneumocystogram films are done?

    • A.

      Betadine and air

    • B.

      Saline

    • C.

      Air and methylene blue dye

    • D.

      Air

    Correct Answer
    D. Air
    Explanation
    Before the pneumocystogram films are done, air is injected into the cystic lesion. This is done to visualize the internal structure of the lesion and to create contrast on the X-ray images. Injecting air helps to outline the boundaries of the cystic lesion and allows for better visualization of any abnormalities or pathologies present.

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  • 44. 

    If microcalcification clustering is present on routine screening views what is the best next step?

    • A.

      Biopsy

    • B.

      Ultrasound

    • C.

      Magnification views

    • D.

      One year follow-up

    Correct Answer
    C. Magnification views
    Explanation
    If microcalcification clustering is present on routine screening views, the best next step would be to perform magnification views. Magnification views provide a closer and more detailed look at the microcalcifications, allowing for a more accurate assessment of their characteristics. This can help determine if further diagnostic tests, such as a biopsy, are necessary. Ultrasound may also be used in conjunction with magnification views to further evaluate the microcalcifications. One-year follow-up may be considered if the microcalcifications are determined to be benign and do not require immediate intervention.

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  • 45. 

    Stereotactic guided core needle biopsy:

    • A.

      Is less expensive than wire localization and open surgical biopsy

    • B.

      Is faster than wire localization and open surgical biopsy

    • C.

      Leaves a smaller scar than open surgical biopsy

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The given answer, "all of the above," is correct because stereotactic guided core needle biopsy is indeed less expensive than wire localization and open surgical biopsy, as it does not require the use of wires or a surgical procedure. It is also faster than wire localization and open surgical biopsy since it is a minimally invasive procedure that can be done relatively quickly. Additionally, it leaves a smaller scar than open surgical biopsy because it only requires a small incision for the needle insertion. Therefore, all the statements mentioned in the options are true.

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  • 46. 

    What is the condition of the detector if the radiation exposure is too high:

    • A.

      Charge saturation

    • B.

      Wide latitude

    • C.

      High dark current

    • D.

      Super-charged

    Correct Answer
    A. Charge saturation
    Explanation
    When the radiation exposure is too high, the condition of the detector is charge saturation. This means that the detector has reached its maximum capacity to collect and store charge, and any additional radiation will not result in an increase in the detected signal. This can occur when the radiation intensity is too high for the detector to handle, causing it to become saturated and unable to accurately measure the radiation levels.

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  • 47. 

    Stereotactic imaging implies the use of:

    • A.

      A digital monitor

    • B.

      Optical storage media

    • C.

      Core needle biopsy

    • D.

      Two angled images

    Correct Answer
    D. Two angled images
    Explanation
    Stereotactic imaging refers to a technique that involves obtaining images from two different angles. This allows for a more accurate and precise visualization of the target area, which is important in procedures such as biopsies. The use of two angled images helps in determining the exact location and coordinates of the target, enabling the healthcare professional to perform procedures with minimal invasiveness and increased accuracy. Therefore, the correct answer is two angled images.

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  • 48. 

    DCIS is an acronym for:

    • A.

      Direct collimation in system

    • B.

      Digital core in stereotactic

    • C.

      Ductal carcinoma in situ

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Ductal carcinoma in situ
    Explanation
    DCIS stands for ductal carcinoma in situ. This is a non-invasive form of breast cancer where abnormal cells are found in the milk ducts of the breast. It is considered to be the earliest stage of breast cancer and has not spread to the surrounding breast tissue or other parts of the body. Treatment for DCIS usually involves surgery to remove the abnormal cells, and in some cases, radiation therapy may be recommended. Regular follow-up and monitoring are important to detect any potential recurrence or progression of the disease.

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  • 49. 

    A malignant breast lesion can appear on a mammogram:

    • A.

      As a spiculated mass

    • B.

      As microcalcification clustering

    • C.

      As a neodensity

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    A malignant breast lesion can appear on a mammogram as a spiculated mass, which refers to a mass with irregular or jagged edges. It can also appear as microcalcification clustering, which refers to small calcium deposits that are clustered together. Additionally, it can appear as a neodensity, which refers to a new area of increased density on the mammogram. Therefore, all of the above options are possible appearances of a malignant breast lesion on a mammogram.

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  • 50. 

    MQSA stands for:

    • A.

      Medical Quality Site Accreditation

    • B.

      Mammography Quantity Select Aid

    • C.

      Medical Query System Association

    • D.

      Mammography Quality Standards Act

    Correct Answer
    D. Mammography Quality Standards Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Mammography Quality Standards Act." MQSA is an acronym that stands for Mammography Quality Standards Act. This act was passed by the United States Congress in 1992 and it establishes quality standards for mammography facilities. The purpose of MQSA is to ensure that mammography services are provided with high quality and accuracy, thus promoting early detection and prevention of breast cancer. This act requires mammography facilities to be accredited and certified, and it also provides guidelines for equipment, personnel qualifications, and quality assurance procedures.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 09, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 27, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    JUDIESORIANO
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