Mammography Practice Test Questions And Answers

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1. Which of the following is the primary reason for breast compression?

Explanation

Breast compression is primarily done to uniformly reduce the thickness of the breast tissue. This is important in mammography as it helps to spread out the breast tissue, reducing overlapping structures and improving image quality. By compressing the breast, the radiographer can also ensure that all the breast tissue is included in the image, making it easier to detect any abnormalities or changes. Additionally, breast compression helps to immobilize the breast, reducing motion artifacts and improving the accuracy of the image.

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About This Quiz
Mammography Practice Test Questions And Answers - Quiz

What do you know about a mammogram and mammography? Take this mammography practice test and check your knowledge for the same. Mammography is the process of examining the... see morehuman breast for diagnosis and screening by using low-energy X-rays. Mammographers use a mammogram to check early signs of breast cancer. If you aspire to be a mammographer, you must pass this quiz with at least 70% marks. Stop wasting your precious time. Play the quiz now. . see less

2. It is necessary for the technologist to diagram which of the following:

Explanation

The technologist needs to diagram all of the above (scars, tattoos, and moles) because these are important identifying features on a person's body. Diagramming these features helps in accurately documenting and tracking any changes or abnormalities over time, which is crucial for medical and forensic purposes. This information can assist in identifying individuals, monitoring the progression of diseases, and providing evidence in legal cases.

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3. Compared to open surgical biopsy, ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy:

Explanation

Ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy is preferred over open surgical biopsy because it offers several advantages. Firstly, it is faster as it can be performed quickly and efficiently under ultrasound guidance. Secondly, it is less expensive as it does not require the use of an operating room or general anesthesia. Lastly, it leaves a smaller scar as it only requires a small incision for the needle insertion. Therefore, all of the given options are correct and highlight the benefits of ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy.

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4. MQSA stands for:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Mammography Quality Standards Act." MQSA is an acronym that stands for Mammography Quality Standards Act. This act was passed by the United States Congress in 1992 and it establishes quality standards for mammography facilities. The purpose of MQSA is to ensure that mammography services are provided with high quality and accuracy, thus promoting early detection and prevention of breast cancer. This act requires mammography facilities to be accredited and certified, and it also provides guidelines for equipment, personnel qualifications, and quality assurance procedures.

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5. Which of the following may be achieved with magnification views of the breast?

Explanation

Magnification views of the breast can help improve the visualization of suspicious areas. By magnifying the image, it becomes easier to detect any abnormalities or potential signs of breast cancer. This can aid in early detection and diagnosis, leading to better treatment outcomes. The other options mentioned, such as decreased patient dose, shorter exposure times, and improved contrast using lower kilovoltage, are not directly related to magnification views of the breast.

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6. DCIS is an acronym for:

Explanation

DCIS stands for ductal carcinoma in situ. This is a non-invasive form of breast cancer where abnormal cells are found in the milk ducts of the breast. It is considered to be the earliest stage of breast cancer and has not spread to the surrounding breast tissue or other parts of the body. Treatment for DCIS usually involves surgery to remove the abnormal cells, and in some cases, radiation therapy may be recommended. Regular follow-up and monitoring are important to detect any potential recurrence or progression of the disease.

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7. A malignant breast lesion can appear on a mammogram:

Explanation

A malignant breast lesion can appear on a mammogram as a spiculated mass, which refers to a mass with irregular or jagged edges. It can also appear as microcalcification clustering, which refers to small calcium deposits that are clustered together. Additionally, it can appear as a neodensity, which refers to a new area of increased density on the mammogram. Therefore, all of the above options are possible appearances of a malignant breast lesion on a mammogram.

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8. Spot compression/coned-down views can:

Explanation

Spot compression/coned-down views can help separate superimposed tissue, increase contrast by reducing scatter, and help identify subtle findings in dense breasts. These views are used to focus on a specific area of interest by compressing the breast tissue and reducing the amount of scatter radiation. This allows for better visualization and differentiation of structures that may be obscured or difficult to identify on a standard mammogram. Therefore, all of the given statements are correct.

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9. Stereotactic guided core needle biopsy:

Explanation

The given answer, "all of the above," is correct because stereotactic guided core needle biopsy is indeed less expensive than wire localization and open surgical biopsy, as it does not require the use of wires or a surgical procedure. It is also faster than wire localization and open surgical biopsy since it is a minimally invasive procedure that can be done relatively quickly. Additionally, it leaves a smaller scar than open surgical biopsy because it only requires a small incision for the needle insertion. Therefore, all the statements mentioned in the options are true.

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10. What portion of the breast is best demonstrated on the Axially Tail view

Explanation

The Axially Tail view is a specific mammographic projection that is used to visualize the tail of the breast. This view allows for better visualization and assessment of any abnormalities or lesions in the tail region, which is the extension of breast tissue towards the axilla (armpit). Therefore, the correct answer is "Tail of the breast".

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11. What is the primary reason for performing magnification mammography?

Explanation

Magnification mammography is primarily performed to increase the detail of calcifications. Calcifications are tiny deposits of calcium that can be a sign of early breast cancer. By magnifying the image, radiologists can better visualize and assess the shape, size, and distribution of these calcifications, which can help in the early detection and diagnosis of breast cancer. This technique allows for a more accurate evaluation of suspicious lesions and aids in determining the appropriate course of action for the patient.

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12. Proper compression of the breast is indicated by which of the following?

Explanation

When properly compressed, the breast will feel taut. This indicates that the breast tissue is being adequately compressed, allowing for better visualization of the breast during imaging procedures such as mammography. A taut breast ensures that the maximum amount of breast tissue is included in the image, improving the accuracy of the examination. Softness in the breast would suggest inadequate compression, while both tight and soft areas would indicate an uneven compression, which may result in an incomplete or inaccurate examination. Extreme discomfort is not a desired outcome and should be minimized during breast compression.

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13. Ductal carcinoma can present with findings of:

Explanation

Ductal carcinoma can present with masses, speculated lesions, and microcalcifications. This means that when someone has ductal carcinoma, they may have any combination of these findings. Masses are abnormal lumps or growths in the breast tissue, speculated lesions are areas of abnormal tissue that appear as irregular shapes, and microcalcifications are tiny calcium deposits that can be seen on a mammogram. Therefore, all of these findings can be seen in cases of ductal carcinoma.

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14. The spread of malignant cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant an area of the body is termed:

Explanation

Metastasis refers to the spread of malignant cancer cells from the primary tumor to other parts of the body. It is a crucial stage in cancer progression, where cancer cells break away from the primary tumor, invade nearby tissues, enter the bloodstream or lymphatic system, and establish secondary tumors in distant organs. This process is responsible for the majority of cancer-related deaths and is a significant challenge in cancer treatment.

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15. How frequently should breast self-examination be performed?

Explanation

Breast self-examination should be performed on a monthly basis. This is because conducting regular self-exams allows women to become familiar with the normal look and feel of their breasts, making it easier to detect any changes or abnormalities. Monthly self-exams also help in early detection of breast cancer, which increases the chances of successful treatment. Performing the examination on a weekly, bimonthly, or quarterly basis may not provide the same level of vigilance and awareness that is necessary for early detection.

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16. The anatomic structures that support the breast are the:

Explanation

Cooper's ligaments are the anatomic structures that support the breast. These ligaments are fibrous bands of tissue that extend from the skin to the chest wall and provide structural support to the breast tissue. They help maintain the shape and position of the breast by preventing sagging and drooping. When these ligaments weaken or stretch, it can lead to breast ptosis (sagging). Therefore, Cooper's ligaments play a crucial role in supporting the breast.

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17. The area between the breast and the pectoral muscle is the:

Explanation

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18. Compared with routine mammographic imaging, what effect will magnification studies have on patient dose?

Explanation

Magnification studies in mammographic imaging involve zooming in on a specific area of interest to obtain a more detailed image. This process requires higher radiation exposure to achieve the desired level of magnification, resulting in an increased dose to the patient. Therefore, compared to routine mammographic imaging, magnification studies will have the effect of increasing the patient dose.

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19. The only task NOT required of the RT is:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Diagnosing the patient's condition". The reason for this is that the role of the RT (Radiologic Technologist) is primarily focused on performing imaging procedures and assisting in the diagnostic process, rather than making the final diagnosis. The RT's main responsibility is to ensure that the technical aspects of the imaging procedure are properly executed, such as selecting the appropriate technical factors based on patient characteristics and equipment specifications. The validation of the doctor's requisition with the patient's clinical history and the diagramming of lumps, scars, and moles on the breast are also important tasks for the RT, as they contribute to the accuracy and completeness of the imaging process.

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20. Mammography films show breast calcifications better than chest x-rays
because of:

Explanation

Mammography films show breast calcifications better than chest x-rays because they make a more uniform exposure of the entire breast, which ensures that the calcifications are captured clearly. Additionally, mammography reduces geometric unsharpness, resulting in sharper and more detailed images of the calcifications. It also reduces exposure time and scattered radiation, making the procedure safer and more efficient. Therefore, all of the above factors contribute to mammography films being superior in displaying breast calcifications compared to chest x-rays.

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21. A simple cyst will show on ultrasound:

Explanation

A simple cyst will show smooth walls, good acoustic enhancement, and no internal echoes on ultrasound. Smooth walls indicate that the cyst is well-defined and does not have any irregularities. Good acoustic enhancement means that there is increased sound transmission through the cyst, resulting in a dark area behind it. No internal echoes or anechoic appearance indicates that the cyst is filled with fluid and does not contain any solid components. Therefore, all of the above characteristics are indicative of a simple cyst on ultrasound.

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22. Blurring of a mammogram image can be caused by:

Explanation

Blurring of a mammogram image can be caused by patient motion, too long exposure, and defective equipment. Patient motion can result in a blurry image if the patient moves during the examination. Too long exposure can cause blurring if the image is exposed for an extended period, leading to motion blur. Defective equipment can also contribute to blurring if there are issues with the imaging system. Therefore, all of the mentioned factors can cause blurring in a mammogram image.

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23. The size of the effective focal spot to the actual focal spot is related to

Explanation

The size of the effective focal spot to the actual focal spot is related to the anode angle. The anode angle refers to the angle at which the x-ray tube is positioned relative to the patient. A larger anode angle will result in a larger effective focal spot, which can affect the resolution of the image produced. This is because a larger effective focal spot can lead to increased blurring and decreased image sharpness. Therefore, the anode angle is an important factor to consider in order to achieve optimal image quality in radiography.

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24. When should breast self-examination performed?

Explanation

Breast self-examination should be performed five to seven days after the menstrual cycle. This is because during this time, the breasts are less likely to be swollen or tender, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. Hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle can cause temporary changes in the breasts, so performing the examination after the cycle allows for a more accurate assessment of the breast tissue.

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25. During a mammographic evaluation the radiographer does not have a responsibility to:

Explanation

The radiographer does not have a responsibility to perform a clinical breast examination during a mammographic evaluation. This task is typically performed by a healthcare provider, such as a physician or nurse practitioner, who specializes in breast examinations. The radiographer's main responsibility is to obtain a high-quality examination by positioning the patient correctly and ensuring proper image acquisition. They also play a role in reducing the anxiety level of the patient and coordinating the clinical history with the radiologist.

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26. 50% of all breast cancers occur in which quadrant?

Explanation

50% of all breast cancers occur in the upper outer quadrant (UOQ) of the breast. The upper outer quadrant is the area of the breast that is closest to the armpit. This region of the breast has a higher density of glandular tissue, which makes it more susceptible to developing cancerous cells. Additionally, the UOQ is also more exposed to environmental factors such as sunlight, which may contribute to the higher incidence of breast cancer in this quadrant.

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27. To improve the appearance of the specimen on film, one can:

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above" because magnifying the specimen can help to capture more details and enhance its appearance on film. Using kVp settings below 25 (molybdenum) can reduce scatter radiation and improve image contrast. Compressing the specimen can help to reduce motion artifacts and ensure sharper images. Therefore, all three options can contribute to improving the appearance of the specimen on film.

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28. For the MLO view, the best angle of the tube is:

Explanation

The MLO view, which stands for Medio-Lateral Oblique view, is a mammographic technique used to examine breast tissue. The best angle of the tube for this view is determined by the anatomy of each patient. This means that the angle of the tube may vary depending on factors such as the size, shape, and position of the breast. It is important to customize the angle for each patient to ensure optimal imaging and accurate interpretation of the mammogram.

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29. Implant displaced views:

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above". This means that all of the statements mentioned in the question are true explanations for implant displaced views. Implant displaced views allow visualization of tissue anteriorly and inferiorly to the implant. However, obtaining these views may be difficult if the implant is encapsulated. Additionally, if enough tissue is displaced, the views may be phototimed. Therefore, all of these explanations are valid reasons for implant displaced views.

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30. What is (are) the benefit(s) of a high frequency generator in mammography?

Explanation

A high frequency generator in mammography offers multiple benefits. Firstly, it improves the accuracy of exposure technique, ensuring that the right amount of radiation is delivered to the patient. Secondly, it helps reduce voltage ripple, resulting in a smoother and more consistent radiation output. Lastly, high frequency generators are more compact in size, making them easier to install and operate in limited spaces. Therefore, all of the above benefits are associated with a high frequency generator in mammography.

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31. When performing BSE, which of the following should be done?

Explanation

When performing a breast self-examination (BSE), it is important to apply firm pressure to the breast using the pads of the fingers. This allows for better detection of any abnormalities or lumps that may be present in the breast tissue. Applying firm pressure with the pads of the fingers helps to ensure that all areas of the breast are thoroughly examined and any potential abnormalities are identified.

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32. Typically, the breast is situated on the thorax between the levels of the:

Explanation

The breast is typically situated on the thorax between the 2nd and 6th ribs. This means that the breast tissue extends from the level of the 2nd rib to the level of the 6th rib. The ribs provide protection and support to the breast tissue, and the positioning of the breast between these specific ribs allows for its proper placement on the chest.

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33. Correct placement of the breast onto the image receptor for CC projection requires: 

Explanation

Correct placement of the breast onto the image receptor for CC projection requires the technologist to gently lift and pull the breast into position on the receptor. This ensures that the breast is properly positioned and compressed for an accurate and clear image. The other options mentioned, such as the patient lifting and placing the breast or raising the image receptor with the breast, are not correct techniques for CC projection. The image receptor being lower than the breast allows the breast to lie in its natural position, but it is the technologist's responsibility to position the breast correctly.

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34. In order to minimize patient discomfort, how should compression be applied?

Explanation

Compression should be applied slowly and steadily in order to minimize patient discomfort. This allows the patient's body to adjust to the pressure gradually, reducing the chances of any sudden discomfort or pain. Applying compression quickly or in a jerky manner can cause unnecessary discomfort and may even lead to injury. Allowing the patient to apply compression themselves may not be feasible or practical in many cases, as it requires proper training and knowledge. Therefore, the best approach is to apply compression slowly and steadily to ensure patient comfort and safety.

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35. Why is the breast specimen radiographed?

Explanation

The breast specimen is radiographed to determine if the suspicious area was successfully excised. This helps in confirming whether the tissue sample removed during surgery includes the suspicious area that was identified on imaging. By radiographing the specimen, the surgeon can visually assess if the targeted area has been completely removed or if further intervention is required.

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36. Where should identified markers be placed on the image receptor for the MLO and 90 lateral projection?

Explanation

The identified markers should be placed on the superior aspect of the film near the axilla for the MLO and 90 lateral projection. This is because the axilla is the area near the armpit, and placing the markers in this location helps to ensure proper positioning and orientation of the image. Additionally, placing the markers on the superior aspect of the film helps to provide a reference point for anatomical landmarks and aids in accurate interpretation of the image.

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37. Which of the following should influence the length of the time between screening examinations on asymptomatic patients?
1. If the patient performs BSE 2. If the patient drinks coffee 3. Age of the patient 4. Positive family history

Explanation

The length of time between screening examinations on asymptomatic patients should be influenced by the age of the patient and positive family history. Age is an important factor as certain diseases become more common with increasing age. Positive family history indicates a higher risk for certain conditions, which may require more frequent screenings to detect any potential problems early on. Performing BSE (Breast Self-Examination) and drinking coffee are not mentioned as factors that should influence the length of time between screenings.

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38. BSE should be performed monthly by all women beginning in their 20's

Explanation

BSE (Breast Self-Examination) is a simple and important technique for women to detect any changes or abnormalities in their breasts. By performing BSE monthly, women can become familiar with the normal look and feel of their breasts, making it easier to identify any potential issues such as lumps or changes in size or shape. Starting in their 20's allows women to establish a baseline for their breast health and detect any changes early on, which can significantly improve the chances of successful treatment if any abnormalities are found. Therefore, it is recommended for all women to perform BSE monthly starting in their 20's.

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39. Which is NOT an advantage of compression?

Explanation

Compression in mammography is an important technique that helps to improve image quality and detect abnormalities in breast tissue. It offers several advantages, such as decreased tissue thickness, which allows for better visualization of small masses or calcifications. Compression also helps to reduce patient motion, which can result in blurry images. Additionally, compression spreads the breast tissue, allowing for better differentiation between normal and abnormal tissue. However, the statement "increases exposure to breast tissues" is not an advantage of compression. In fact, compression helps to minimize radiation exposure by reducing the amount of tissue that needs to be imaged.

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40. Which of the following positions or techniques is used to demonstrate tissue that has been superimposed on another position?

Explanation

The technique of Roll (RM or RL) is used to demonstrate tissue that has been superimposed on another position. This technique involves rotating the patient's body or limb slightly to separate and visualize overlapping structures. It is commonly used in radiographic imaging to obtain a clear view of the anatomy and identify any abnormalities or pathology that may be hidden or obscured by overlapping tissues.

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41. Which of the following is NOT a common type of mammogram?

Explanation

Mammography is a specialized imaging technique used to detect and diagnose breast diseases. Screening mammograms are routine exams for early detection in asymptomatic women. Diagnostic mammograms are used for women with breast symptoms or abnormalities found on a screening mammogram. 3D mammograms provide a more detailed view of breast tissue. Therapeutic mammograms are not a recognized type of mammogram.

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42. To reduce the patient's radiation dose during pre-operative needle localizations, which of the following can be done:

Explanation

To reduce the patient's radiation dose during pre-operative needle localizations, all of the above options can be done. Increasing the kVp setting helps to produce higher-energy x-rays, which require less exposure time and thus reduce the overall radiation dose. Using a faster screen/film system allows for shorter exposure times, further reducing the radiation dose. Lastly, exposing only the area of the breast immediately surrounding the area in question ensures that radiation is limited to the necessary area, minimizing exposure to the rest of the breast.

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43. "Camel's nose" refers to a mammogram which:

Explanation

The term "camel's nose" is used to describe a mammogram that shows sagging of the breast on the MLO view. This means that the breast tissue appears to be drooping or hanging down in the image. The comparison to a camel's nose is used metaphorically to suggest that if a small issue like sagging is ignored or not properly addressed, it can lead to bigger problems or complications, just like how allowing a camel's nose into a tent can eventually result in the whole camel entering.

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44. Aluminum filters are not used in mammography because of:

Explanation

Aluminum filters are not used in mammography because of their lack of k-edge attenuation. K-edge attenuation refers to the ability of a material to absorb X-rays at a specific energy level, which is important in mammography to enhance image contrast. Aluminum filters do not provide sufficient k-edge attenuation, making them unsuitable for use in mammography.

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45. What quadrant is 2:00 in the right breast

Explanation

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46.  Ideally, when is the best time to perform processor sensitometry?

Explanation

Performing processor sensitometry at the start of the work period before patient examinations have begun is the best time because it ensures that the processor is calibrated and functioning properly before any patient images are processed. This helps to prevent any potential issues or errors in image quality that could occur if the processor is not properly calibrated. Additionally, performing sensitometry at the start of the shift allows for any necessary adjustments or maintenance to be made before the workload begins, ensuring that the processor is in optimal condition for the day's imaging procedures.

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47. Which projection would best demonstrate fluid levels in the erect patient?

Explanation

The medial lateral (ML) projection would best demonstrate fluid levels in the erect patient. This projection is performed by imaging the chest from the side, with the patient standing upright. It allows for visualization of fluid levels within the lungs or pleural spaces, as well as any abnormalities or pathologies that may be present. The ML projection is commonly used in radiology to assess for conditions such as pneumonia, pleural effusion, or pulmonary edema.

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48. Correct use of vigorous compression will lower patient dose because of decreased:

Explanation

Vigorous compression during imaging procedures can help to reduce patient dose by decreasing tissue thickness. When the tissue is compressed, it becomes thinner, allowing for better penetration of the X-ray beam. This results in a clearer image with less scatter radiation, leading to a lower dose of radiation required to obtain a diagnostic image.

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49. The overall advantage of using automatic exposure control (phototimer, AEC’s) is the ability to automatically compensate for:

Explanation

Automatic exposure control (AEC) is a feature in imaging systems that adjusts the exposure settings based on the thickness of the breast. This is important because different breast thicknesses require different exposure levels to obtain optimal image quality. Without AEC, variations in breast thickness may result in overexposed or underexposed images, making it difficult to accurately interpret the images and potentially leading to missed diagnoses. AEC ensures that the exposure is automatically adjusted to compensate for these variations, resulting in consistently high-quality images regardless of breast thickness.

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50. A grid is not required during magnification mammography because of:

Explanation

During magnification mammography, a grid is not required because of the influence of the air gap. The air gap technique is used to reduce scatter radiation by increasing the distance between the breast and the image receptor. This helps to improve image quality and reduce patient dose. The air gap acts as a natural grid, reducing scatter radiation without the need for an additional device. Therefore, a grid is not necessary during magnification mammography.

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51. The physical boundaries of the breast include superior to the clavicle, medial to the sternum, inferior to the inframammary crease, and lateral to the midaxillary line.

Explanation

The breast is located on the anterior thoracic wall. Its physical boundaries are:

Superior: Clavicle (collarbone)

Medial: Sternum (breastbone)

Inferior: Inframammary crease (the fold where the breast meets the chest)

Lateral: Midaxillary line (an imaginary line running vertically down the armpit)

Understanding these boundaries is important for clinical breast examinations, imaging, and surgical procedures.

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52. Mammography films show breast calcifications better than chest x-rays
because of:

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above". Mammography films show breast calcifications better than chest x-rays due to a combination of factors. Firstly, there is more photoelectric effect, which means that the x-rays are absorbed more by the breast tissue, making the calcifications more visible. Additionally, mammography machines typically have a smaller focal spot, resulting in sharper images with better resolution. Lastly, mammography films use single emulsion film, which reduces the scattering of x-rays and improves the clarity of the image.

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53. Fibroadenomas:

Explanation

Fibroadenomas are benign tumors commonly found in the breast tissue. They are non-cancerous and do not pose a threat to health. Fibroadenomas can calcify, meaning that calcium deposits can form within the tumor. This can be seen on imaging tests such as mammograms. Additionally, fibroadenomas have the ability to involute, which means that they can shrink or disappear on their own over time. Therefore, all of the given statements - being benign, capable of calcification, and able to involute - are true for fibroadenomas.

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54. Low contrast detectability can be improved by ________ the image.

Explanation

Masking refers to the technique of enhancing the visibility of an image by reducing the influence of unwanted or distracting elements. By applying a mask to the image, certain areas can be selectively altered or highlighted, thereby improving the ability to detect low contrast details. This process helps to eliminate background noise or clutter, making the desired features more prominent and easier to identify.

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55. Under MQSA guidelines, which of the following represents the minimum number of mammograms a mammography technologist must perform in a 2 year period?

Explanation

Under MQSA guidelines, a mammography technologist must perform a minimum of 200 mammograms in a 2-year period. This ensures that the technologist has enough experience and practice to effectively perform mammograms and accurately interpret the results. Performing a sufficient number of mammograms also helps to maintain the technologist's skills and proficiency in this specialized field.

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56. What is an adequate range of force for a compression device?

Explanation

An adequate range of force for a compression device is 25 to 45 pounds. This range ensures that the device is capable of providing enough pressure to compress and support the desired area effectively, without causing excessive discomfort or potential harm to the user. It strikes a balance between being strong enough to achieve the desired therapeutic effect and being gentle enough to avoid causing any unnecessary pain or injury.

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57. A grid may be used when performing magnification.

Explanation

A grid is not used when performing magnification. Magnification is typically achieved through the use of lenses or other optical devices that enlarge the size of an object or image. A grid, on the other hand, is a pattern of intersecting lines that is used in various fields such as photography or graphic design to assist with composition or alignment. Therefore, the statement that a grid may be used when performing magnification is false.

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58. If microcalcification clustering is present on routine screening views what is the best next step?

Explanation

If microcalcification clustering is present on routine screening views, the best next step would be to perform magnification views. Magnification views provide a closer and more detailed look at the microcalcifications, allowing for a more accurate assessment of their characteristics. This can help determine if further diagnostic tests, such as a biopsy, are necessary. Ultrasound may also be used in conjunction with magnification views to further evaluate the microcalcifications. One-year follow-up may be considered if the microcalcifications are determined to be benign and do not require immediate intervention.

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59. Which of the following would be considered major risk factors for breast cancer? 1. Family history (mother, sister) of breast disease 2. First of three pregnancies at age 22 3. Previous treatment for breast disease

Explanation

A family history of breast disease is considered a major risk factor for breast cancer because it suggests a genetic predisposition to the disease. Previous treatment for breast disease is also a major risk factor as it indicates a previous presence of abnormal cells in the breast. The first pregnancy at age 22 is not considered a major risk factor for breast cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 & 3.

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60. What quadrant is 1:00 in the left breast

Explanation

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61. The base of the breast is considered to:

Explanation

The base of the breast is considered to be the area closest to the chest wall. This means that it is the part of the breast that is located nearest to the underlying muscles and bones of the chest. The base of the breast does not include the nipple, the inframammary fold (IMP), or the axilla (armpit).

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62. Which view would best demonstrate the deep medial aspect of the beast?

Explanation

The cleavage view would best demonstrate the deep medial aspect of the breast. This view allows for visualization of the innermost portion of the breast tissue, which is important for detecting any abnormalities or lesions in that area. The axillary tail view focuses more on the outer portion of the breast, while the medial lateral and rolled views do not specifically target the deep medial aspect of the breast.

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63. Which of the following positions is/are most helpful in demonstrating tissue in the 12:00 or 6:00 position?

Explanation

The ML 90 degree or LM 90 degree positions are most helpful in demonstrating tissue in the 12:00 or 6:00 position. These positions involve a lateral view of the breast with the patient's arm raised and the breast pulled away from the chest wall. This allows for better visualization of the upper and lower portions of the breast, which correspond to the 12:00 and 6:00 positions. The ML 90 degree position is obtained by rotating the patient's body 90 degrees, while the LM 90 degree position is obtained by rotating the mammography machine 90 degrees. Both positions provide optimal imaging of the tissue in the desired locations.

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64. Possible causes of poor film screen contact include which of the following? 1. Trapped air 2. Warped cassettes 3. Foreign bodies with-in cassettes

Explanation

Possible causes of poor film screen contact include trapped air, warped cassettes, and foreign bodies within cassettes.

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65. Lymph node enlargement, nipple inversion, nipple discharge, skin thickening, and breast lumps are ALWAYS a sign of breast cancer.

Explanation

The statement is false because lymph node enlargement, nipple inversion, nipple discharge, skin thickening, and breast lumps are not always a sign of breast cancer. While these symptoms can be associated with breast cancer, they can also be caused by other conditions such as infections, hormonal changes, or benign breast conditions. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and diagnosis.

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66. The reason(s) for performing BSE include:

Explanation

Performing breast self-examination (BSE) is recommended for several reasons. Firstly, mammograms can have a certain level of inaccuracy, up to 20%, so BSE can help compensate for any potential missed abnormalities. Secondly, BSE can detect cancers that may not be visible on a mammogram, even when looking back retrospectively. Lastly, BSE is important for women who do not have access to or choose not to undergo mammograms. Therefore, all of the reasons mentioned above contribute to the importance of performing BSE.

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67. BSE should be done in a random pattern using the fingertips.

Explanation

BSE (Breast Self-Examination) should not be done in a random pattern using the fingertips. The correct technique for BSE involves using the pads of the fingers in a systematic pattern to thoroughly examine the entire breast, including the surrounding areas and underarms. This helps in detecting any lumps or changes in the breast tissue that may require further medical evaluation.

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68. Which TWO materials are used as anode target materials in mammography? 1. Aluminum 2. Rhodium 3. Beryllium                         4. Molybdenum

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 and 4. Rhodium and Molybdenum are used as anode target materials in mammography.

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69. What quadrant is 5:00 in the right breast

Explanation

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70. Which of the following positions are recommended for a complete study of  the augmented breast? 1. Routine CC & MLO 2. Modified CC & MLO (push back, Eklund) 3. 30 degree oblique

Explanation

The recommended positions for a complete study of the augmented breast are Routine CC & MLO and Modified CC & MLO (push back, Eklund). These positions provide different views and angles of the breast, allowing for a comprehensive examination of the augmented breast. The 30 degree oblique position is not necessary for a complete study of the augmented breast.

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71. What is the typical range of kVp used in mammography?

Explanation

The typical range of kVp used in mammography is 22-32. This range is specifically chosen to provide optimal image quality while minimizing radiation dose to the patient. Higher kVp values can improve image contrast and reduce scatter radiation, while lower values can increase image sharpness. Therefore, the range of 22-32 kVp is considered ideal for mammography examinations.

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72. Male breast carcinoma accounts for approximately what portion of all breast carcinomas?

Explanation

Male breast carcinoma is a rare form of breast cancer that affects men. It accounts for less than 2% of all breast carcinomas, making it a very small portion. This low percentage is due to the fact that breast cancer is more commonly found in women, with men having a significantly lower risk. Therefore, less than 2% accurately reflects the proportion of male breast carcinomas compared to all breast carcinomas.

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73. The amount of obliquity (rotation of the C-arm) used to perform the mediolateral oblique projection varies from patient to patient.  However, the average degree of obliquity is:

Explanation

The average degree of obliquity used to perform the mediolateral oblique projection in medical imaging, such as in mammography, is typically around 45 degrees. This angle helps to visualize specific structures or regions of interest by providing a different perspective and reducing the overlap of tissues in the image. This angle might vary based on the specific imaging procedure and the patient's anatomy.

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74. In order to perform successful magnification mammography, what criteria must be met?

Explanation

To perform successful magnification mammography, a small focal spot is required. This is because a small focal spot helps in achieving higher resolution images, allowing for better visualization of small details and abnormalities in the breast tissue. A larger focal spot would result in lower resolution images, making it difficult to detect small abnormalities. Decreased or increased FFD (focus-to-film distance) does not directly affect the magnification mammography process.

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75. The ACS does not recommend routine mammograms for women below the age of:

Explanation

The American Cancer Society (ACS) does not recommend routine mammograms for women below the age of 40. Mammograms are X-ray images of the breast used to detect breast cancer early. However, the ACS guidelines suggest that women aged 40 and older should have mammograms every 1 to 2 years. This is because the risk of breast cancer increases with age, and mammograms are more effective in detecting cancer in older women. Therefore, women below the age of 40 are not recommended to have routine mammograms according to ACS guidelines.

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76. Which of the following breast conditions is considered malignant:

Explanation

None of the above conditions mentioned are considered malignant. Dermal calcifications are calcium deposits in the skin and are not necessarily indicative of cancer. Accessory nipple refers to an extra nipple, which is a benign condition. Fibroadenoma is a common benign tumor in the breast. Therefore, none of these conditions are considered malignant.

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77. Darkroom cleanliness

Explanation

Darkroom cleanliness is a crucial aspect of maintaining the quality of photographs. Daily cleaning ensures that dust, dirt, and other contaminants are regularly removed, preventing them from affecting the development process or appearing as imperfections on the final prints. Regular cleaning also helps to maintain the functionality of equipment and prevents the buildup of chemicals or residues that can compromise the darkroom's performance. Therefore, daily cleaning is necessary to ensure a clean and optimal working environment in the darkroom.

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78. The digital detector can also function as the AEC.

Explanation

The statement suggests that the digital detector has the capability to function as the Automatic Exposure Control (AEC). This means that the digital detector can automatically adjust the exposure settings, such as the radiation dose or image brightness, based on the specific requirements of the imaging procedure. This feature helps in optimizing image quality and reducing unnecessary radiation exposure to the patient. Therefore, the statement is true.

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79. Plus density artifact bands running parallel to the direction of film travel are caused by:

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above". Density artifact bands running parallel to the direction of film travel can be caused by the build-up of developer on the processor rollers, improper cleaning of the crossover rack assembly, and uneven roller pressure in the developer tank. Each of these factors can contribute to uneven development and result in density artifact bands on the film.

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80. During pregnancy and throughout lactation, the breast has an increased amount of:

Explanation

During pregnancy and lactation, the breast undergoes significant changes to prepare for milk production and breastfeeding. Glandular tissue is responsible for milk production and secretion. It consists of lobes and ducts that produce and transport milk. The amount of glandular tissue increases during pregnancy and lactation to meet the demands of milk production. Adipose tissue, on the other hand, provides support and cushioning to the breast but does not directly contribute to milk production. Coopers ligaments provide structural support to the breast, while sebaceous glands are responsible for producing oil to lubricate the nipple.

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81. How should the patient’s arm on the side being examined be positioned for the CC projection?

Explanation

The patient's arm on the side being examined should be positioned down and slightly pulled back for the CC projection. This position helps to separate the breast tissue and allows for better visualization of the breast on the mammogram. It also helps to minimize superimposition of the arm on the breast tissue, ensuring a clear and accurate image.

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82. The maximum amount of automated compression allowed by the ACR is:

Explanation

The ACR (Automated Compression Release) allows for a maximum amount of compression of 45 lbs. This means that the ACR can compress an object or material up to 45 lbs of force. It is important to adhere to this limit to ensure proper functioning and avoid any potential damage or malfunctioning of the ACR system.

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83. Currently what are the statistics of how many women will develop breast cancer over their lifetimes

Explanation

1 in 8 women will develop breast cancer over their lifetimes. This statistic indicates that there is a significant risk for women to develop breast cancer. It highlights the importance of regular screenings, early detection, and awareness about breast cancer and its risk factors.

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84. How many days does a facility have to notify a woman of her screening mammogram results following her screening mammogram?

Explanation

A facility has up to 30 days to notify a woman of her screening mammogram results following her screening mammogram. This allows sufficient time for the facility to review and interpret the results accurately and inform the woman of any findings.

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85. Current treatment for localized breast carcinoma with minimal disfiguration includes:

Explanation

Lumpectomy is the correct answer because it is a surgical procedure that removes only the tumor and a small margin of surrounding healthy tissue, while preserving the rest of the breast. This treatment option is preferred for localized breast carcinoma with minimal disfiguration as it allows women to retain their breast shape and size to a greater extent compared to more extensive surgeries like radical mastectomy or modified radical mastectomy. Additionally, lumpectomy is often followed by radiation therapy to ensure complete removal of any remaining cancer cells. Needle localization is a technique used to guide the surgeon during a lumpectomy procedure.

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86. Which combination of procedures is most effective for early detection of breast cancer? 1. breast self-examination 2. physical examination 3. mammography

Explanation

The most effective combination of procedures for early detection of breast cancer is a combination of breast self-examination, physical examination, and mammography. Breast self-examination allows women to become familiar with their own breasts and detect any changes or abnormalities. Physical examination by a healthcare professional can help identify any lumps or other signs of breast cancer. Mammography, which is an X-ray of the breast, can detect breast cancer at its earliest stages, often before any symptoms are present. By combining all three methods, the chances of detecting breast cancer early are maximized.

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87. Extended cycle processing vs. Standard cycle processing:

Explanation

Extended cycle processing refers to a method of developing film that involves longer periods of time in the developer tank compared to standard cycle processing. This extended time allows for increased speed and contrast of the film being processed. Therefore, all of the given options are correct as extended cycle processing does indeed increase the speed and contrast of the film being processed, and the determining factor is the amount of time spent in the developer tank.

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88. The characteristics of microcalcifications associated with malignancy include which of the following? 1. Fine size 2. Clustered appearance 3. Round shape 4. Very numerous calcifications

Explanation

Microcalcifications associated with malignancy typically have the following characteristics: they are fine in size, have a clustered appearance, and are very numerous. These features are often indicative of a malignant process and can help in the diagnosis of breast cancer. The round shape is not necessarily a characteristic of malignancy, as microcalcifications can have various shapes. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, & 4.

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89. What is the correct height of the image receptor in relation to the breast for routine CC projection?

Explanation

The correct height of the image receptor in relation to the breast for routine CC projection is at the level of the inframammary fold (IMF) with the breast at a 90 degree angle to the chest. This positioning ensures that the entire breast tissue is captured on the image and allows for accurate evaluation of the breast.

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90. Which is NOT considered curative breast surgery?

Explanation

A core sample biopsy is not considered curative breast surgery because it is a diagnostic procedure rather than a treatment option. It involves removing a small sample of breast tissue for further examination to determine if cancer is present. While it helps in the diagnosis and staging of breast cancer, it does not remove the entire tumor or treat the disease. On the other hand, lumpectomy, quadectomy, and modified radical mastectomy are all surgical procedures aimed at removing the cancerous tissue and potentially curing the disease.

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91. The following are all breast interventional procedures except:

Explanation

Myelography is not a breast interventional procedure. Myelography is a diagnostic imaging technique used to visualize the spinal cord and nerve roots by injecting a contrast dye into the spinal canal. It is primarily used to diagnose conditions affecting the spinal cord, such as herniated discs or spinal tumors. In contrast, pneumocystography, stereotactic core needle biopsy, and galactography are all breast interventional procedures. Pneumocystography involves injecting air or a gas into the breast ducts to visualize any abnormalities, while stereotactic core needle biopsy is a minimally invasive procedure to obtain tissue samples from breast lesions. Galactography is a procedure used to evaluate and diagnose breast duct problems, such as nipple discharge or recurrent infections.

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92. According to standards, where are the view markers placed when doing a mammogram?

Explanation

View markers in a mammogram are placed as close to the axilla (armpit) as the position allows. This is done to provide a reference point for the radiologist when interpreting the images and to ensure proper orientation of the breast tissue. Placing the markers in this location helps in identifying any abnormalities or changes in the breast tissue accurately.

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93. If a facility receives a Level 2 citation upon an annual FDA inspection, how many days does the facility have to correct the problem?

Explanation

Upon receiving a Level 2 citation during an annual FDA inspection, the facility is given 30 days to correct the problem. This allows the facility ample time to identify and address the issue, ensuring that it meets the necessary standards and regulations set by the FDA.

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94. Which of the following would be the greatest risk factor for breast cancer?

Explanation

Advanced age is the greatest risk factor for breast cancer because as a person gets older, their risk of developing the disease increases. This is because breast tissue changes over time and becomes more susceptible to cancerous growths. Additionally, as a person ages, they may have been exposed to more environmental factors or lifestyle choices that can contribute to the development of breast cancer. Therefore, advanced age is considered the greatest risk factor for breast cancer.

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95. Which of the following should the technologist complete before obtaining the mammogram images? 1. Record the exposure factors to be used on the patient’s film file 2. Review the patient’s personal history form with the patient 3. Review the patient’s previous mammogram images, (if available)

Explanation

The technologist should review the patient's personal history form with the patient before obtaining the mammogram images to ensure they have all the necessary information about the patient's medical history. They should also review the patient's previous mammogram images, if available, to compare them with the new images and look for any changes or abnormalities. This helps in providing accurate and comprehensive results.

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96. In order to improve positioning capability for the Craniocaudal projection on a kyphotic patient, which alternate projection should be performed?

Explanation

In order to improve positioning capability for the Craniocaudal projection on a kyphotic patient, the alternate projection that should be performed is:

Exaggerated medial craniocaudal (XCCM)

This projection is specifically designed to better visualize the breast tissue in patients with increased kyphosis. It allows for better separation of the breast tissue from the chest wall, resulting in improved image quality.

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97. Which view would be most useful in determining whether calcification are within the skin rather than within the breast parenchyma?

Explanation

The tangential (TAN) view would be most useful in determining whether calcifications are within the skin rather than within the breast parenchyma. This is because the TAN view allows for a more oblique angle of the breast tissue, which can help differentiate between calcifications that are superficial (in the skin) and those that are deeper within the breast tissue. The other views listed (Rolled, Axillary Tail, Cleavage) may not provide the same level of visualization or differentiation in this specific scenario.

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98. Which of the following positions may be required for a complete mammographic study of a patient after a mastectomy? 1. MLO of skin of affected breast 2. CC and MLO of uneffective breast 3. Axillary view of affected breast 4. Spot view of any area of concern

Explanation

For a complete mammographic study of a patient after a mastectomy, multiple positions may be required to ensure a thorough examination. Position 1, MLO (Mediolateral Oblique) of the skin of the affected breast, is necessary to assess any abnormalities in the remaining breast tissue. Position 2, CC (Craniocaudal) and MLO of the unaffected breast, is important for comparison and to establish a baseline for future examinations. Position 3, an axillary view of the affected breast, helps to evaluate the axillary lymph nodes and detect any abnormalities. Position 4, a spot view of any area of concern, is necessary to focus on specific regions that require further investigation. Therefore, all of the above positions may be required for a complete mammographic study after a mastectomy.

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99. The maximum MQSA-allowed radiation dose per exposure for a 4.2 cm average breast is:

Explanation

The maximum MQSA-allowed radiation dose per exposure for a 4.2 cm average breast is 300 mrad. This dose limit is set to ensure that the radiation exposure during mammography does not exceed a safe level. It is important to control and limit the radiation dose to minimize the potential risks associated with radiation exposure, especially for sensitive tissues like the breasts. The MQSA guidelines aim to strike a balance between obtaining high-quality images for accurate diagnosis and ensuring patient safety by setting a maximum dose limit.

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100. Changing from the moly to the rhodium filter ______ the x-ray beam energy.

Explanation

When changing from the moly to the rhodium filter, the x-ray beam energy increases. This is because rhodium has a higher atomic number than molybdenum, which means it has more protons in its nucleus. As a result, the rhodium filter is more effective at absorbing lower energy x-rays, allowing higher energy x-rays to pass through. Therefore, the x-ray beam energy increases when using a rhodium filter compared to a molybdenum filter.

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101. The breasts are separated from the pectoral muscle by a layer of retromammary:

Explanation

The breasts are separated from the pectoral muscle by a layer of adipose tissue. Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue that contains fat cells. It provides cushioning and support to the breasts, and also helps in maintaining their shape. This layer of adipose tissue acts as a barrier between the breasts and the underlying pectoral muscle, allowing for movement and flexibility.

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102. In which of the following life stages would the breast contain the LEAST amount of adipose (fat)tissue?

Explanation

During puberty, the breast tissue undergoes significant development and growth. This growth is primarily due to the accumulation of adipose tissue, or fat, in the breast. As a person progresses through the different life stages, such as middle age, mature adulthood, and post menopause, the amount of adipose tissue in the breast tends to increase. Therefore, post puberty would be the life stage where the breast contains the least amount of adipose tissue.

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103. Magnification views have __________ exposure times than/as routine mammography.

Explanation

Magnification views in mammography require longer exposure times compared to routine mammography. This is because magnification views involve zooming in on a specific area of interest, which requires more time for the X-ray machine to capture a detailed image. By increasing the exposure time, the image quality is enhanced, allowing for better visualization of small abnormalities or calcifications in the breast tissue.

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104. The x-ray interaction that provides the contrast for the radiograph is:

Explanation

The correct answer is photoelectric. In the process of photoelectric interaction, an x-ray photon is completely absorbed by an inner shell electron, resulting in the ejection of the electron from its orbit. This interaction provides the contrast for the radiograph as it produces a high level of absorption and allows for the visualization of structures with different densities.

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105. Repeat rate will decrease with FFDM mainly because of:

Explanation

The wide exposure latitude of FFDM refers to its ability to capture a wide range of image densities without significant loss of image quality. This means that the system can handle a variety of breast sizes and tissue densities, resulting in fewer repeat exams. With a wider exposure latitude, the chances of under or overexposure are reduced, leading to improved image quality and decreased need for repeat imaging.

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106. The typical placement of the intensifying screen, when a single screen is employed, is with the:

Explanation

The correct answer is "front screen facing the x-ray source." When a single intensifying screen is used, it is typically placed with the front screen facing the x-ray source. This arrangement allows the front screen to receive the x-rays first and convert them into light, which in turn exposes the film. The back screen then helps to intensify the light emitted by the front screen, resulting in a clearer image on the film.

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107. Which of the following primary signs of breast cancer, evident on a mammographic image, would indicate the disease at the earliest possible time?

Explanation

Numerous clustered microcalcifications on a mammographic image would indicate breast cancer at the earliest possible time. Microcalcifications are tiny calcium deposits that can be a sign of early breast cancer. When these microcalcifications are clustered together, it suggests the presence of abnormal cells in the breast tissue. Detecting these clustered microcalcifications early can help in early diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer.

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108. For the mediolateral oblique (MLO) projection, the technologist should place the image receptor:

Explanation

In the MLO projection, the image receptor should be placed parallel to the pectoral muscle. This positioning allows for better visualization of the breast tissue and the pectoral muscle, reducing overlap and distortion. Placing the image receptor perpendicular to the pectoral muscle would not provide an optimal view of the breast tissue and may result in a less accurate interpretation of the image.

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109. Match the following description with the correct projection: The tube assembly is rotated to a 90 degree position from vertical (x-ray beam is       parallel to the floor). The patient is erect and the arm on the side being examined is at the right angle to the body.  The edge of the image receptor is along the sternum and central ray is directed perpendicular to the image receptor from lateral to medial.

Explanation

The given description states that the tube assembly is rotated to a 90-degree position from vertical, meaning that the x-ray beam is parallel to the floor. The patient is erect and the arm on the side being examined is at a right angle to the body. The edge of the image receptor is along the sternum, and the central ray is directed perpendicular to the image receptor from lateral to medial. This description matches the projection known as Lateral medial (LM).

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110. The automatic exposure control (AEC) may be used for all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

The automatic exposure control (AEC) is a feature in radiography that automatically adjusts the exposure factors such as radiation dose and exposure time based on the thickness and density of the body part being imaged. It helps to ensure consistent image quality and minimize unnecessary radiation exposure. However, when it comes to a patient with breast implants in place, the AEC may not be suitable as the implants can interfere with the accuracy of the exposure control system. Therefore, AEC may not be used for a patient with breast implants in place.

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111. The base of the breast and the inframammary crease are one and the same.

Explanation

The base of the breast and the inframammary crease are not the same. The base of the breast refers to the area where the breast tissue attaches to the chest wall, while the inframammary crease is the natural fold or line where the bottom of the breast meets the chest wall. These two terms refer to different anatomical structures and locations within the breast.

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112. Architectural distortion is most often found in cases of:

Explanation

Architectural distortion refers to changes in the normal structure or arrangement of breast tissue, often seen as irregular or spiculated lines on a mammogram. It is most commonly associated with invasive breast carcinoma, which is a type of breast cancer that has spread from the milk ducts or lobules into the surrounding tissue. Fibroadenoma, papillomatosis, and intramammary lymph node are all benign conditions that typically do not cause architectural distortion. Therefore, invasive breast carcinoma is the most likely cause of this finding.

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113. The core specimens should be radiographed when the biopsied lesion:

Explanation

When a biopsied lesion has calcifications, it is important to radiograph the core specimens. Calcifications can indicate the presence of abnormal tissue, such as tumors or cysts, and radiographing the core specimens can provide additional information about the size, shape, and distribution of the calcifications. This can help in the diagnosis and treatment planning for the patient.

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114. Where is beam limitation most critical?

Explanation

Beam limitation is most critical at the chest wall of the patient because this is the area where the radiation beam needs to be carefully controlled and limited to avoid unnecessary exposure to healthy tissues and organs. The chest wall is a sensitive and vital area, so it is crucial to minimize radiation dose to this region while still ensuring proper imaging of the target area. By limiting the beam at the chest wall, the technologist can protect the patient from potential harm and achieve accurate diagnostic results.

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115. The effective focal spot is always largest on the _____ side of the field.

Explanation

The effective focal spot is always largest on the cathode side of the field because the cathode is the source of the x-ray beam. As the x-rays are emitted from the cathode, they diverge and spread out, resulting in a larger focal spot. On the other hand, the anode side of the field receives the x-rays after they have been focused by the anode, resulting in a smaller focal spot. Therefore, the effective focal spot is largest on the cathode side.

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116. All chemical reactions depend on all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Chemical reactions depend on various factors such as time, temperature, and chemical strength. However, pressure is not a factor that directly affects the occurrence or rate of a chemical reaction. While pressure can have an indirect influence on reactions involving gases, it is not a fundamental requirement for all chemical reactions. Therefore, pressure is the only option among the given choices that is not essential for chemical reactions.

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117. A broken parallel set of calcifications will most likely be located in:

Explanation

A broken parallel set of calcifications refers to the presence of calcium deposits that are not arranged in a uniform, parallel pattern. This is commonly seen in arteries, particularly in conditions such as atherosclerosis where plaque buildup can cause irregular calcifications. The other options, such as the areola, cystic walls, and the skin, are less likely to exhibit this specific pattern of calcifications.

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118. Which additional position/s should be performed to determine milk of calcium? 1. Tangential 2. Roll (RL or RM) 3. ML 90 or LM 90

Explanation

To determine milk of calcium, the additional position that should be performed is ML 90 or LM 90. This position allows for a lateral view of the breast, which can help identify the presence of milk of calcium. Tangential and roll positions are not necessary for determining milk of calcium.

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119. The most commonly used magnification factor for mammography is:

Explanation

The most commonly used magnification factor for mammography is 1.5 times. This means that the image produced during mammography is enlarged by a factor of 1.5, allowing for better visualization of small abnormalities or lesions in the breast tissue. This magnification factor is widely used in mammography because it provides a good balance between image quality and radiation dose to the patient.

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120. Reciprocity failure occurs when:

Explanation

Reciprocity failure refers to the phenomenon where the sensitivity of film decreases when it is exposed to very long or very short exposure times. This means that the film may not accurately capture the intended image due to the altered sensitivity. The other options listed, such as exceeding D-max, depleting developer, or using expired film, do not directly relate to the concept of reciprocity failure.

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121. A mammography technologist may not count which of the following toward her MQSA performance requirement of 200 mammograms every 2 years

Explanation

A mammography technologist may not count needle localizations toward her MQSA performance requirement of 200 mammograms every 2 years because needle localizations are not considered mammograms. Mammograms involve using X-rays to capture images of the breast tissue, while needle localizations are a procedure used to guide a needle to a specific area of concern in the breast, such as a lump or abnormality. Therefore, needle localizations are not included in the count of mammograms for the performance requirement.

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122. What should be done first if the nipple is rotated up or down instead of in profile?

Explanation

If the nipple is rotated up or down instead of in profile, it means that the current view is not providing a clear image of the nipple. In order to obtain a proper image, it is recommended to discontinue the attempt on that view and try again. This suggests that the current angle or positioning of the tube is not suitable for capturing the desired image and a different approach is needed.

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123. On which projection would the technologist check the medial and lateral aspects of the breast for the proper amount of compression?

Explanation

The technologist would check the medial and lateral aspects of the breast for the proper amount of compression on the CC projection.

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124. When a lesion has been entirely removed (resected) as seen on the post core needle biopsy stereotactic images, what must be done before the patient is released from the stereotactic unit?

Explanation

After a lesion has been completely removed during a post core needle biopsy, it is necessary to place a microclip before the patient is released from the stereotactic unit. Placing a microclip helps to mark the area where the lesion was located, allowing for easier identification during follow-up examinations or surgeries if needed. This ensures proper tracking and monitoring of the site where the lesion was resected.

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125. What is the typical SID for mammographic imaging?

Explanation

The typical SID (Source-to-Image Distance) for mammographic imaging is 60-65 cm. This refers to the distance between the X-ray source and the image receptor or detector. A shorter SID can result in magnification of the image, while a longer SID can result in reduced image sharpness. Therefore, a SID of 60-65 cm is commonly used to obtain clear and accurate mammographic images.

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126. Which two items are used in mammography to reduce scattered radiation? 1. Stationary grid 2. Air gap 3. Moving grid 4. Lead shielding

Explanation

In mammography, scattered radiation can affect the quality of the image. To reduce scattered radiation, two items are commonly used: an air gap and a moving grid. The air gap is a space between the patient and the image receptor, which helps to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the receptor. A moving grid is a device that is placed between the patient and the receptor, and it moves during the exposure to absorb scattered radiation. Therefore, options 2 and 3 (air gap and moving grid) are the correct answer.

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127. What effect does beam restriction have on the quality of the mammography image?

Explanation

Beam restriction in mammography refers to limiting the size of the x-ray beam to only the area of interest. This restriction helps to reduce scatter radiation, resulting in improved contrast in the mammography image. Scatter radiation can decrease image quality by causing blurring and reducing the ability to distinguish subtle differences in tissue density. By restricting the beam, the amount of scatter radiation is minimized, leading to clearer and more detailed images with improved contrast.

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128. The tissue type that attenuates the x-ray beam the least is:

Explanation

Adipose tissue is the correct answer because it contains a high percentage of fat cells, which have a low atomic number and therefore attenuate the x-ray beam the least. This means that adipose tissue allows more x-rays to pass through, resulting in less absorption and a lighter appearance on the x-ray image. In contrast, fibro-glandular tissue, fibrous tissue, and fibro-fatty tissue have higher atomic numbers and therefore attenuate the x-ray beam to a greater extent, resulting in more absorption and a darker appearance on the x-ray image.

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129. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with an abnormal galactogram?

Explanation

A unilateral dark or bloody nipple discharge is most likely to be associated with an abnormal galactogram. Galactogram is a diagnostic test used to evaluate the ducts of the breast for any abnormalities. Dark or bloody nipple discharge can indicate the presence of a lesion or tumor within the ducts, which would be detected through the galactogram. Unilateral discharge suggests that the abnormality is localized to one breast, further indicating the need for diagnostic investigation.

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130. Core biopsies of the breast are performed with a ____ gauge needle?

Explanation

Core biopsies of the breast are performed with a 14 gauge needle. This is because a larger gauge needle allows for a larger tissue sample to be obtained during the biopsy procedure. A 14 gauge needle is thicker than an 18, 20, or 22 gauge needle, making it more suitable for obtaining an adequate tissue sample for diagnosis.

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131. Characteristics of calcifications associated with benign growths include which of the following? 1. Smooth borders 2. Presence in clusters 3. Round shape 4. Numerous microcalcifications

Explanation

Calcifications associated with benign growths typically have smooth borders and a round shape. This is because benign calcifications are usually formed as a result of normal tissue changes or benign conditions. These calcifications tend to be well-defined and uniform in appearance, often appearing as small, round dots on imaging. Presence in clusters and numerous microcalcifications are more commonly associated with malignant growths.

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132. What material is used in the x-ray tube's window allow photons to pass through?

Explanation

Beryllium is used in the x-ray tube's window because it allows photons to pass through. Beryllium is a lightweight and transparent material that has low atomic number and high x-ray transmission efficiency. It is commonly used in x-ray tubes because it can withstand high temperatures and has good mechanical properties.

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133. According to MQSA guidelines, how many continuing education credits are necessary for a mammography technologist to obtain in mammography

Explanation

According to MQSA guidelines, a mammography technologist is required to obtain 15 continuing education credits every 3 years. This ensures that the technologist stays updated with the latest advancements and practices in mammography, maintaining their competence and providing quality care to patients.

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134. The projection that best demonstrates the posterior portion of the breast, including the axillary tail, is the:

Explanation

The mediolateral oblique (MLO) projection is the best projection to demonstrate the posterior portion of the breast, including the axillary tail. The MLO view allows for better visualization of the posterior breast tissue and the axillary tail, which is important for detecting any abnormalities or lesions in these areas. The craniocaudal (CC) projection may not provide a clear view of the posterior breast tissue, while the XCCL and LM projections are not commonly used for breast imaging.

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135. A mammographic image that appears to be properly penetrated but slightly underexposed should be corrected by altering which variable?

Explanation

To correct a mammographic image that appears to be properly penetrated but slightly underexposed, the variable that should be altered is MAs (milliamperes-seconds). MAs determines the amount of radiation used during the imaging process. By increasing the MAs, more radiation will be used, resulting in a higher exposure and a properly exposed image.

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136. Choose the correct equation:

Explanation

The equation "pixel size = FOV / matrix size" is correct because in order to calculate the pixel size, we need to divide the field of view (FOV) by the matrix size. This equation makes sense because the pixel size is inversely proportional to the matrix size - as the matrix size increases, the pixel size decreases, and vice versa. Additionally, dividing the FOV by the matrix size aligns with the concept that the FOV should be divided into smaller segments represented by the matrix size to determine the size of each pixel.

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137. During pre-operative needle localizations, the amount of compression used should be equal to that of the routine mammogram.

Explanation

The amount of compression used during pre-operative needle localizations should not be equal to that of the routine mammogram. This is because the purpose of pre-operative needle localizations is to precisely locate and mark a specific area of concern for surgery, whereas routine mammograms aim to screen the entire breast for any abnormalities. Therefore, the compression used during pre-operative needle localizations may vary depending on the specific needs of the procedure.

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138. A Mammotome is:

Explanation

A Mammotome is a core biopsy needle. A core biopsy is a procedure used to remove a small amount of tissue from the breast for further examination. The Mammotome is a specialized needle that is designed to accurately and efficiently remove a core sample of breast tissue. It is commonly used in the diagnosis of breast abnormalities or to evaluate suspicious areas found on a mammogram or ultrasound. The Mammotome allows for a minimally invasive approach to obtaining tissue samples, reducing the need for more invasive surgical procedures.

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139. Use of a grid _____ contrast and ______ radiation dose.

Explanation

The use of a grid increases contrast by reducing scatter radiation, which improves the clarity of the image. However, it also increases the radiation dose because the grid absorbs some of the primary radiation, requiring the machine to produce more radiation to compensate. Therefore, both contrast and radiation dose increase when a grid is used.

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140. What is the average focal film distance (FFD) available on dedicated Mammography units?

Explanation

The average focal film distance (FFD) available on dedicated Mammography units is typically 60 to 65 cm. This distance refers to the distance between the focal spot on the x-ray tube and the image receptor or film. It is an important parameter in mammography as it affects the magnification and sharpness of the images produced. A longer FFD allows for better image quality and reduced distortion, which is crucial in detecting and diagnosing breast abnormalities.

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141. A pneumocystogram starts with aspiration of most or all of the fluid from a cystic lesion. Which of the following is then injected into the lesion just  before the pneumocystogram films are done?

Explanation

Before the pneumocystogram films are done, air is injected into the cystic lesion. This is done to visualize the internal structure of the lesion and to create contrast on the X-ray images. Injecting air helps to outline the boundaries of the cystic lesion and allows for better visualization of any abnormalities or pathologies present.

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142. The advantage of the molybdenum target over the tungsten target for Mammography is its ability to produce:

Explanation

The molybdenum target is advantageous over the tungsten target for mammography because it is able to produce more characteristic photons of approximately 20 keV. Characteristic photons are produced when an electron interacts with an inner shell electron in the target material, causing it to be ejected and creating a vacancy. When an outer shell electron fills this vacancy, it emits a characteristic photon with a specific energy level. These photons are important for producing high-quality mammography images.

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143. Analog-to-digital (A to D) conversion occurs _________ image processing.

Explanation

Analog-to-digital (A to D) conversion is the process of converting continuous analog signals into discrete digital signals. In the context of image processing, this conversion typically occurs before any digital processing or manipulation takes place. This is because digital processing requires discrete, quantized data, which is obtained through A to D conversion. Therefore, the correct answer is "before".

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144. The crossover procedure is:

Explanation

The crossover procedure is done to establish new operating levels for a new box of film. This means that when a new box of film is used, the crossover procedure is performed in order to determine the correct settings and adjustments needed to achieve optimal results with the new film. It helps to calibrate the equipment and ensure that the film is processed correctly, resulting in high-quality images.

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145. A smaller anode angle results in a _____ field size and is used with the _____ focal spot.

Explanation

A smaller anode angle results in a smaller field size and is used with a small focal spot. The anode angle refers to the angle at which the x-ray beam is emitted from the anode of the x-ray tube. A smaller anode angle will result in a narrower beam and therefore a smaller field size. The focal spot refers to the area on the anode where the electrons strike to produce x-rays. A small focal spot is used when fine detail is required in the image, such as in radiography of small bones or dental imaging.

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146. In mammography facilities in the United States, ACR accreditation is applied for every

Explanation

ACR accreditation is applied for every 3 years in mammography facilities in the United States. This means that these facilities undergo a rigorous evaluation process by the American College of Radiology (ACR) every 3 years to ensure that they meet the highest standards of quality and safety in mammography services. This accreditation helps to ensure that patients receive accurate and reliable mammograms, and that the facilities are equipped with the necessary technology and expertise to provide effective breast cancer screening.

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147. Which of the following is the most serious citation a facility can obtain upon an FDA annual inspection

Explanation

Level 1 is the most serious citation a facility can obtain upon an FDA annual inspection. This suggests that there are multiple levels of citations, with Level 1 being the highest level of severity. It implies that Level 1 citations indicate significant violations or non-compliance with FDA regulations, potentially posing a serious risk to public health and safety.

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148. Which of the following minimum requirements applies to the Phantom test in order to pass the evaluation

Explanation

The correct answer is the visualization of 4 fibers, 3 speck groups, and 3 masses. This means that in order to pass the evaluation for the Phantom test, the minimum requirement is to be able to visualize 4 fibers, 3 speck groups, and 3 masses. The other options do not meet this requirement as they either have fewer fibers, speck groups, or masses.

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149. The breast attenuates what percentage of incident x-rays.

Explanation

The breast attenuates 99% of incident x-rays. This means that when x-rays pass through the breast tissue, 99% of the radiation is absorbed or scattered, while only 1% is able to pass through. This high level of attenuation is important in medical imaging, as it helps to create clear and detailed images of the breast for diagnostic purposes.

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150. Extended processing involves:

Explanation

Extended processing involves increasing the developer temperature. This means that the temperature of the developer solution used in the photographic development process is raised. This can have several effects on the final image, such as increased contrast, enhanced shadow detail, and improved overall image quality. By increasing the developer temperature, the development time can be shortened while still achieving the desired results. Additionally, warmer wash water may also be used in extended processing to further enhance the final image.

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151. Subjecting processed films to high temperatures and low humidity (below 30%) can result in which of the following

Explanation

Subjecting processed films to high temperatures and low humidity can cause the emulsion, which is the light-sensitive layer of the film, to crack. This can occur due to the contraction and expansion of the film base and emulsion layers, leading to stress on the emulsion. Cracking can result in visible lines or fractures on the film surface, affecting the quality and integrity of the image.

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152. Which of the following is NOT required on the Medical Report?

Explanation

In a medical report, especially for a mammogram, the required information typically includes:

Name of the lead interpreting physician: To identify who interpreted the results.

Name of the technologist who performed the mammogram: To document who conducted the procedure.

Name of the facility: To specify where the procedure took place.

An additional patient qualifier is not a standard required element on a medical report. Therefore, the correct answer is "additional patient qualifier."

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153. What percentage of mammographic images of malignant disease present  microcalcifications?  

Explanation

A percentage range of 40-60% is given as the answer. This suggests that a significant proportion (between 40% and 60%) of mammographic images of malignant disease present microcalcifications.

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154. How many years do mammography films need to be kept for if the woman is a returning patient?

Explanation

Mammography films need to be kept for 5 years if the woman is a returning patient. This is because mammography films are used for screening and diagnosing breast cancer, and keeping them for 5 years allows for comparison with previous films to track any changes or developments in the breast tissue. This duration ensures that there is sufficient historical data available for accurate analysis and evaluation of the patient's breast health.

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155. Any electrical charge remaining in the detector after image data readout is referred to as:

Explanation

A ghost image refers to any electrical charge remaining in the detector after image data readout. This residual charge can create a faint or distorted image that appears alongside the main image. It is considered a form of image noise caused by incomplete removal of the charge during the readout process.

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156. The area of the breast that is not visualized on the CC view is:

Explanation

The CC view in mammography refers to the cranio-caudal view, which is an X-ray image taken from the top of the breast to the bottom. The breast is compressed between two plates during this view. In the given question, the correct answer is "posterior - superior." This means that the area of the breast that is not visualized on the CC view is the upper and back part of the breast.

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157. Stereotactic imaging implies the use of:

Explanation

Stereotactic imaging refers to a technique that involves obtaining images from two different angles. This allows for a more accurate and precise visualization of the target area, which is important in procedures such as biopsies. The use of two angled images helps in determining the exact location and coordinates of the target, enabling the healthcare professional to perform procedures with minimal invasiveness and increased accuracy. Therefore, the correct answer is two angled images.

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158. The tissue type that attenuates the x-ray beam the most is:

Explanation

Fibro-glandular tissue is the correct answer because it contains a higher density of glandular and fibrous structures compared to the other tissue types listed. These glandular and fibrous structures have a higher atomic number and density, which results in increased attenuation of the x-ray beam. Adipose tissue, on the other hand, has a lower atomic number and density, leading to less attenuation of the x-ray beam. Fibrous tissue and fibro-fatty tissue also have lower densities and atomic numbers compared to fibro-glandular tissue, making them less effective at attenuating the x-ray beam.

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159. When processor sensitometry falls out of limits, what should be done first?

Explanation

When processor sensitometry falls out of limits, the first step should be to repeat the sensitometric strip. This is because the sensitometric strip is used to measure the sensitivity and contrast of the processor, and by repeating it, we can ensure that the measurements are accurate and within the desired limits. This will help identify any issues with the processor and allow for adjustments to be made if necessary.

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160. The Mid-density (MD) on the processor quality control chart is chosen by the step closest in density to

Explanation

The Mid-density (MD) on the processor quality control chart is chosen by selecting the step that has a density closest to 1.20. This means that out of the given options, the step with a density closest to 1.20 is the correct choice for the MD on the chart.

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161. When a combination of single emulsion film and single screen is used, how should the screen and film be aligned?

Explanation



When using a combination of single emulsion film and a single screen, align the film with its emulsion side touching the back of the screen. This configuration ensures optimal image clarity and quality during projection by allowing light to pass through the film and interact with the screen material effectively.
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162. Indicate the projection described by the following positioning instructions:
The tube assembly is vertical (x-ray beam perpendicular to the floor) and the tube is angled 5 degree in a lateral to medial direction. The erect atient faces the image receptor and is slightly rotated medially. The inferior aspect of the breast is on the image receptor. The central is directed to the midpoint of the image receptor (may be slightly lateral to the nipple).

Explanation

The given positioning instructions describe a projection where the tube assembly is vertical and the tube is angled 5 degrees in a lateral to medial direction. The patient is slightly rotated medially and the inferior aspect of the breast is on the image receptor. The central ray is directed to the midpoint of the image receptor, which may be slightly lateral to the nipple. This positioning corresponds to a Craniocaudal projection with lateral exaggeration, where the x-ray beam is directed from the head (cranial) to the feet (caudal) with an exaggerated lateral angle.

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163. Which of the following determines the level of radiographic contrast displayed on mammograms?

Explanation

The level of radiographic contrast displayed on mammograms is determined by the quantity of adipose tissue compared with fibrous and glandular tissue. Adipose tissue appears darker on mammograms, while fibrous and glandular tissue appear lighter. Therefore, a higher quantity of adipose tissue will result in a lower level of contrast, as there will be less variation in density between different areas of the breast. Conversely, a higher quantity of fibrous and glandular tissue will result in a higher level of contrast, as there will be more variation in density.

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164. What is the condition of the detector if the radiation exposure is too high:

Explanation

When the radiation exposure is too high, the condition of the detector is charge saturation. This means that the detector has reached its maximum capacity to collect and store charge, and any additional radiation will not result in an increase in the detected signal. This can occur when the radiation intensity is too high for the detector to handle, causing it to become saturated and unable to accurately measure the radiation levels.

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165. The actual focal spot is always _______ the projected focal spot.

Explanation



The actual focal spot is always smaller than the projected focal spot. In X-ray systems, the actual focal spot refers to the area on the anode of the X-ray tube where electrons strike and produce X-rays. Due to the angle of the anode, the X-ray beam appears larger as it is projected outwards, creating what is known as the projected focal spot. This difference is due to geometric enlargement, where the angle of the anode in relation to the direction of the X-ray beam causes the size of the focal spot to appear larger on the target than it actually is at the point of electron impact.
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166. What percent voltage ripple occurs with a high frequency generator?

Explanation

A high frequency generator produces a smaller voltage ripple compared to a low frequency generator. The given answer of 5% suggests that the voltage ripple with a high frequency generator is relatively low, indicating that the output voltage remains stable with minimal fluctuations.

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167. How does increasing the radiation dose affect the image noise?

Explanation

Increasing the radiation dose decreases the image noise. This is because a higher radiation dose results in more photons reaching the image receptor, which improves the signal-to-noise ratio. With a higher signal-to-noise ratio, the image contains less random variations or noise, resulting in a clearer and less grainy image.

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168. The word "orthogonal" is best described as:

Explanation

The word "orthogonal" is best described as "at a right angle". In mathematics and geometry, two lines or planes are said to be orthogonal if they intersect at a right angle, forming a 90-degree angle. This term is commonly used to indicate perpendicularity, where two lines or planes meet or intersect perpendicularly.

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169. What age group is at the greatest risk for radiation-induced breast cancer?

Explanation

The age group that is at the greatest risk for radiation-induced breast cancer is less than 20 years old. This is because younger individuals have more rapidly dividing cells, which makes them more susceptible to the harmful effects of radiation. Additionally, their breast tissue is still developing and is therefore more sensitive to radiation exposure.

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170. The primary purpose for using grids in mammography is to:

Explanation

Grids are used in mammography to increase contrast. Mammography grids consist of thin lead strips that are placed between the breast and the image receptor. These lead strips absorb scattered radiation, which can reduce image contrast. By reducing scatter, grids improve the visibility of small structures and enhance the contrast between different tissues in the breast. This helps radiologists to detect abnormalities and make accurate diagnoses. Therefore, the primary purpose of using grids in mammography is to increase contrast.

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171. The purpose of adding starter to fresh chemicals is:

Explanation

The addition of a starter to fresh chemicals in mammography serves to minimize developer artifacts. This crucial step initiates optimal chemical reactions, preventing unwanted imperfections in the developed images. It ensures a smooth and artifact-free development process, contributing to accurate and reliable mammographic results.

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172. What brightness is recommended by the ACR for mammographic film illuminators?

Explanation

The ACR (American College of Radiology) recommends a brightness of 3000 cd/m2 for mammographic film illuminators. This brightness level ensures optimal viewing conditions for radiologists when interpreting mammograms, allowing for better visualization of subtle details and abnormalities in the images.

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173. To decrease image noise you should do what to the radiation dose?

Explanation



Reducing the radiation dose decreases image noise. Image noise refers to random variations in brightness or color that obscure details in an image. Lowering the dose minimizes the amount of random fluctuations, resulting in a clearer image with improved visibility of structures and reduced interference from unwanted artifacts.
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174. The final MQSA regulations went into effect

Explanation

The final MQSA regulations went into effect in April 1999. This means that the regulations were officially implemented and became active in April of that year.

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175. The control limits on a phantom chart for the density difference (DD) are which of the following

Explanation

The control limits on a phantom chart for the density difference (DD) are +/- .05. Control limits are used in statistical process control to determine if a process is in control or out of control. In this case, the control limits of +/- .05 indicate that any density difference within this range is considered acceptable and within control. Any density difference outside of this range would be considered out of control and would require investigation and corrective action.

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176. Which detector type converts x-ray energy directly into electrical charge?

Explanation

Selenium is the correct answer because it is a direct conversion detector type that converts x-ray energy directly into electrical charge. Unlike other options like CR (Computed Radiography), scintillator-photodiode, and phosphor screen-CCD, which involve intermediate steps in the conversion process, selenium directly converts the x-ray energy into electrical charge.

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177. Check viewboxes and viewing conditions

Explanation

The given answer suggests that in order to check viewboxes and viewing conditions, it is recommended to do so on a weekly basis. This implies that regular monitoring and assessment of viewboxes and viewing conditions should be conducted on a weekly schedule to ensure their proper functioning and adherence to desired standards. By checking weekly, any issues or discrepancies can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring optimal viewing experiences and maintaining the desired quality of the viewboxes.

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178. What is the approximate increased likelihood of developing breast cancer for the woman with a family history of breast cancer?

Explanation

Having a family history of breast cancer increases the likelihood of developing breast cancer. In this case, the approximate increased likelihood is 5 times. This means that the woman with a family history of breast cancer is five times more likely to develop breast cancer compared to someone without a family history.

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179. Which link in the mammographic imaging chain is the Phantom Image test monitoring?

Explanation

The Phantom Image test is used to monitor the entire imaging chain in mammographic imaging. This means that it assesses the performance and quality of each component in the chain, including the processor, mammography equipment, and film/screen combination. By evaluating the entire imaging chain, any potential issues or discrepancies can be identified and addressed, ensuring accurate and reliable mammographic images.

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180. The film for the weekly phantom test is taken from

Explanation

The film for the weekly phantom test is taken from the clinical bin. This suggests that the film used for the test is specifically obtained from the clinical bin and not from any other source mentioned. It implies that the clinical bin is the designated location where the required film for the test is stored or kept, making it the correct answer choice.

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181. If WW = 500 and WL = 500, what image pixel values are displayed?

Explanation

The image pixel values that are displayed are 250-750. This is because WW (Window Width) is set to 500, which means that the range of pixel values that will be displayed is centered around the middle value of 500. WL (Window Level) is also set to 500, which means that the middle value of the displayed range is also 500. Therefore, the displayed pixel values will range from 250 (500 - 250) to 750 (500 + 250).

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182. Lobular carcinoma accounts for approximately what portion of all breasts carcinomas?

Explanation

Lobular carcinoma accounts for approximately 10% of all breast carcinomas. This means that out of every 100 cases of breast carcinoma, around 10 cases are lobular carcinoma. It is important to note that lobular carcinoma is a type of breast cancer that starts in the milk-producing glands of the breast, and it differs from the more common type of breast cancer known as ductal carcinoma.

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183. All mammography films, no matter the manufacturer are

Explanation

Mammography films are most sensitive to green light. This means that they are able to capture and produce the clearest and most detailed images when exposed to green light. Green light is specifically chosen because it allows for better visualization and differentiation of breast tissue. The sensitivity to green light helps in detecting any abnormalities or potential signs of breast cancer.

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184. Radiation dose for FFDM will always be lower than for screen-film mammography:

Explanation

The statement is false because the radiation dose for FFDM (Full-Field Digital Mammography) is generally higher than for screen-film mammography. FFDM uses digital technology to capture and store images, which requires a higher radiation dose to ensure image quality. In contrast, screen-film mammography uses traditional film to capture images, which requires a lower radiation dose. Therefore, the radiation dose for FFDM is not always lower than for screen-film mammography.

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185. If films are requested on a mastectomy patient (one side affected). What views would you take? 1. Routine projections - CC and MLO 2. MLO of the skin over the mastectomy site 3. Spot view of any area of concern 4. AP view of Axillary

Explanation

The correct answer is 2, 3 & 4.

1. Routine projections - CC and MLO: These are standard views taken during a mammogram and are useful for detecting any abnormalities in the breast tissue. However, in the case of a mastectomy patient, only one side of the breast is affected, so routine projections may not be necessary.

2. MLO of the skin over the mastectomy site: This view is important as it allows the radiologist to assess the skin over the mastectomy site for any abnormalities or changes.

3. Spot view of any area of concern: This view is taken if there are any specific areas of concern or abnormalities that need further evaluation.

4. AP view of Axillary: This view is taken to assess the axillary region for any abnormalities, such as lymph node involvement.

Therefore, taking into consideration the specific needs of a mastectomy patient, views 2, 3, and 4 would be appropriate.

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186. Recommended film storage conditions are: ___ relative humidity and ___ degrees F.

Explanation

The recommended film storage conditions are a relative humidity of 30-50% and a temperature of 50-70 degrees Fahrenheit. These conditions help to maintain the quality and longevity of the film by preventing moisture damage and excessive heat exposure.

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187. Using a 5M-pixel monitor to display 100 micron (0.1 mm) pixels, what is the FOV?

Explanation

The FOV (Field of View) can be calculated by dividing the total width and height of the monitor by the size of each pixel. In this case, the monitor has a width of 20 cm and a height of 25 cm. Since each pixel is 100 microns (0.1 mm), the FOV can be calculated as follows:

Width of FOV = (width of monitor) / (size of pixel) = 20 cm / 0.1 mm = 2000 pixels
Height of FOV = (height of monitor) / (size of pixel) = 25 cm / 0.1 mm = 2500 pixels

Therefore, the FOV is 2000 pixels x 2500 pixels, which is equivalent to 20 cm x 25 cm.

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188. The phosphors most commonly used for mammography screens emit light in what color?

Explanation

The phosphors most commonly used for mammography screens emit light in the color blue-green or ultraviolet. This emission of blue-green light is used to capture X-ray images in mammography, as it provides good contrast and sensitivity for detecting breast abnormalities. The emitted blue-green light is then detected and converted into digital images for medical evaluation.

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189. Perform processor QC

Explanation

The correct answer is "daily" because performing processor QC on a daily basis ensures that the processor is functioning properly and any issues can be identified and addressed promptly. This frequent QC helps to maintain the overall performance and reliability of the processor, ensuring that it meets the required standards on a daily basis.

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190. Which type of mammography uses 3D imaging technology?

Explanation

Tomosynthesis, also known as 3D mammography, is an advanced imaging technique that creates a three-dimensional image of the breast. It involves taking multiple X-ray images of the breast from different angles, which are then reconstructed into a 3D image. This allows for a more detailed visualization of breast tissue, improving the accuracy of breast cancer detection, particularly in dense breast tissue.

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191. To increase exposure slightly when the AEC’s tracking ability is sub-optimum:

Explanation

Increasing the density control can help increase exposure slightly when the AEC's tracking ability is sub-optimum. The density control refers to the setting that adjusts the sensitivity of the automatic exposure control system. By increasing the density control, the system becomes more sensitive to radiation and adjusts the exposure accordingly. This compensates for the sub-optimum tracking ability of the AEC and ensures that the appropriate exposure is achieved.

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192. In the correct order with largest number of pixels to the smallest:

Explanation

The correct order with the largest number of pixels to the smallest is laser film, diagnostic workstation monitor, acquisition workstation monitor. Laser film typically has the highest resolution and pixel density among the options listed. The diagnostic workstation monitor usually has a lower resolution than laser film, but still higher than the acquisition workstation monitor. The acquisition workstation monitor typically has the lowest resolution and pixel density among the options.

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193. The majority of glandular tissue exists in groups known as:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Lobes." Glandular tissue is organized into lobes, which are larger structures made up of smaller lobules. Lobules contain terminal ductal units, which are responsible for producing and secreting milk. Lactiferous ducts are the channels that carry the milk from the lobes to the nipple. Therefore, while all the options mentioned are related to glandular tissue, the majority of the tissue exists in lobes.

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194. In digital mammography, what is the role of solid-state detectors in the imaging process?

Explanation

Solid-state detectors in digital mammography work by converting the x-rays that pass through the breast into electronic signals. These signals are then processed to create digital images of the breast tissue. This process allows for enhanced image quality, quicker imaging, and reduced need for retakes compared to traditional film-based mammography. They do not use magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or ultrasound technology.

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195. Radiation dose with a screen is about ___ times the dose of direct film mammography.

Explanation

The radiation dose with a screen is about 1/100 times the dose of direct film mammography. This means that using a screen for mammography results in a significantly lower radiation dose compared to using direct film. This is beneficial as it reduces the potential risk of radiation exposure for patients undergoing mammography screenings.

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196. In flooded replenishment, the starter is added to:

Explanation

The correct answer is replenishment tank. In flooded replenishment, the starter is added to the replenishment tank. This is because flooded replenishment is a method used in photocopiers to continuously supply fresh developer to the developer tank. The replenishment tank holds the fresh developer mixture, which is then added to the developer tank to maintain the proper concentration of developer.

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197. If processing artifacts are more severe when the film is run emulsion side up, the artifacts may be caused by:

Explanation

When the film is run emulsion side up, the inner rollers of the developer rack are responsible for causing more severe processing artifacts. These rollers come in direct contact with the emulsion side of the film during the development process. If there are any issues or damage to these inner rollers, they can cause scratches, streaks, or other artifacts on the film.

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198. Processor roller marks that show up as artifacts running perpendicular to the direction of film travel are called

Explanation

Chatter refers to processor roller marks that appear as artifacts running perpendicular to the direction of film travel. These marks are caused by the rollers vibrating or bouncing during the film processing, resulting in uneven pressure and inconsistent development. Chatter marks can negatively affect the quality of the processed film, leading to visible streaks or lines on the final image.

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199. The developer temperature should be kept within how many degrees of the processor manufacturer’s recommendation?

Explanation

The correct answer is +/- 0.5 degrees. This means that the developer temperature should be kept within half a degree above or below the processor manufacturer's recommendation. This level of precision ensures that the temperature is maintained at an optimal level for the processor's performance and longevity. Any deviation beyond this range could potentially lead to overheating or underperformance of the processor.

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200. Which of the following are primary signs of breast cancer? 1. numerous microcalcifications 2. skin thickening and retraction 3. dense mass of irregular shape

Explanation

Microcalcifications are tiny deposits of calcium in the breast tissue that can be seen on a mammogram. They are a primary sign of breast cancer because they can indicate the presence of abnormal cells or early stages of cancer. Skin thickening and retraction can also be a sign of breast cancer, but it is not a primary sign. A dense mass of irregular shape can also be a sign of breast cancer, but it is not mentioned in the question. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 only.

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Which of the following is the primary reason for breast compression?
It is necessary for the technologist to diagram which of the...
Compared to open surgical biopsy, ultrasound-guided core needle...
MQSA stands for:
Which of the following may be achieved with magnification views of...
DCIS is an acronym for:
A malignant breast lesion can appear on a mammogram:
Spot compression/coned-down views can:
Stereotactic guided core needle biopsy:
What portion of the breast is best demonstrated on the Axially Tail...
What is the primary reason for performing magnification mammography?
Proper compression of the breast is indicated by which of the...
Ductal carcinoma can present with findings of:
The spread of malignant cancer cells from the primary tumor to...
How frequently should breast self-examination be performed?
The anatomic structures that support the breast are the:
The area between the breast and the pectoral muscle is the:
Compared with routine mammographic imaging, what effect...
The only task NOT required of the RT is:
Mammography films show breast calcifications better than chest x-rays ...
A simple cyst will show on ultrasound:
Blurring of a mammogram image can be caused by:
The size of the effective focal spot to the actual focal spot is...
When should breast self-examination performed?
During a mammographic evaluation the radiographer does not have...
50% of all breast cancers occur in which quadrant?
To improve the appearance of the specimen on film, one can:
For the MLO view, the best angle of the tube is:
Implant displaced views:
What is (are) the benefit(s) of a high frequency generator in...
When performing BSE, which of the following should be done?
Typically, the breast is situated on the thorax between the levels of...
Correct placement of the breast onto the image receptor for...
In order to minimize patient discomfort, how should compression...
Why is the breast specimen radiographed?
Where should identified markers be placed on the image receptor for...
Which of the following should influence the length of the time between...
BSE should be performed monthly by all women beginning in their 20's
Which is NOT an advantage of compression?
Which of the following positions or techniques is used to...
Which of the following is NOT a common type of mammogram?
To reduce the patient's radiation dose during pre-operative needle...
"Camel's nose" refers to a mammogram which:
Aluminum filters are not used in mammography because of:
What quadrant is 2:00 in the right breast
 Ideally, when is the best time to perform processor...
Which projection would best demonstrate fluid levels in the erect...
Correct use of vigorous compression will lower patient dose because...
The overall advantage of using automatic exposure control...
A grid is not required during magnification mammography because of:
The physical boundaries of the breast include superior to the...
Mammography films show breast calcifications better than chest x-rays ...
Fibroadenomas:
Low contrast detectability can be improved by ________ the image.
Under MQSA guidelines, which of the following represents the...
What is an adequate range of force for a compression device?
A grid may be used when performing magnification.
If microcalcification clustering is present on routine screening views...
Which of the following would be considered major risk factors for...
What quadrant is 1:00 in the left breast
The base of the breast is considered to:
Which view would best demonstrate the deep medial aspect of the beast?
Which of the following positions is/are most helpful in...
Possible causes of poor film screen contact include which of the...
Lymph node enlargement, nipple inversion, nipple discharge, skin...
The reason(s) for performing BSE include:
BSE should be done in a random pattern using the fingertips.
Which TWO materials are used as anode target materials in mammography?...
What quadrant is 5:00 in the right breast
Which of the following positions are recommended for a complete study...
What is the typical range of kVp used in mammography?
Male breast carcinoma accounts for approximately what portion of all...
The amount of obliquity (rotation of the C-arm) used to perform...
In order to perform successful magnification mammography, what...
The ACS does not recommend routine mammograms for women below the age...
Which of the following breast conditions is considered malignant:
Darkroom cleanliness
The digital detector can also function as the AEC.
Plus density artifact bands running parallel to the direction of film...
During pregnancy and throughout lactation, the breast has an...
How should the patient’s arm on the side being examined be...
The maximum amount of automated compression allowed by the ACR is:
Currently what are the statistics of how many women will develop...
How many days does a facility have to notify a woman of her...
Current treatment for localized breast carcinoma with...
Which combination of procedures is most effective for early detection...
Extended cycle processing vs. Standard cycle processing:
The characteristics of microcalcifications associated with...
What is the correct height of the image receptor in relation to the...
Which is NOT considered curative breast surgery?
The following are all breast interventional procedures except:
According to standards, where are the view markers placed when doing a...
If a facility receives a Level 2 citation upon an annual FDA...
Which of the following would be the greatest risk factor for breast...
Which of the following should the technologist complete before...
In order to improve positioning capability for the Craniocaudal...
Which view would be most useful in determining whether...
Which of the following positions may be required for a complete...
The maximum MQSA-allowed radiation dose per exposure for a 4.2...
Changing from the moly to the rhodium filter ______ the x-ray beam...
The breasts are separated from the pectoral muscle by a layer...
In which of the following life stages would the breast contain the...
Magnification views have __________ exposure times than/as routine...
The x-ray interaction that provides the contrast for the radiograph...
Repeat rate will decrease with FFDM mainly because of:
The typical placement of the intensifying screen, when a single screen...
Which of the following primary signs of breast cancer, evident on...
For the mediolateral oblique (MLO) projection, the technologist...
Match the following description with the correct projection: The tube ...
The automatic exposure control (AEC) may be used for all of the...
The base of the breast and the inframammary crease are one and the...
Architectural distortion is most often found in cases of:
The core specimens should be radiographed when the biopsied lesion:
Where is beam limitation most critical?
The effective focal spot is always largest on the _____ side of the...
All chemical reactions depend on all of the following EXCEPT:
A broken parallel set of calcifications will most likely be located...
Which additional position/s should be performed to determine milk...
The most commonly used magnification factor for mammography is:
Reciprocity failure occurs when:
A mammography technologist may not count which of the...
What should be done first if the nipple is rotated up or down instead...
On which projection would the technologist check the medial and...
When a lesion has been entirely removed (resected) as seen on the post...
What is the typical SID for mammographic imaging?
Which two items are used in mammography to reduce scattered radiation?...
What effect does beam restriction have on the quality of...
The tissue type that attenuates the x-ray beam the least is:
Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with...
Core biopsies of the breast are performed with a ____ gauge needle?
Characteristics of calcifications associated with benign growths...
What material is used in the x-ray tube's window allow photons to...
According to MQSA guidelines, how many continuing education credits...
The projection that best demonstrates the posterior portion of the...
A mammographic image that appears to be properly penetrated...
Choose the correct equation:
During pre-operative needle localizations, the amount of compression...
A Mammotome is:
Use of a grid _____ contrast and ______ radiation dose.
What is the average focal film distance (FFD) available on...
A pneumocystogram starts with aspiration of most or all of the fluid...
The advantage of the molybdenum target over the tungsten target...
Analog-to-digital (A to D) conversion occurs _________ image...
The crossover procedure is:
A smaller anode angle results in a _____ field size and is used with...
In mammography facilities in the United States, ACR accreditation...
Which of the following is the most serious citation a facility can...
Which of the following minimum requirements applies to the Phantom...
The breast attenuates what percentage of incident x-rays.
Extended processing involves:
Subjecting processed films to high temperatures and low humidity...
Which of the following is NOT required on the Medical Report?
What percentage of mammographic images of malignant disease present ...
How many years do mammography films need to be kept for if the woman...
Any electrical charge remaining in the detector after image data...
The area of the breast that is not visualized on the CC view is:
Stereotactic imaging implies the use of:
The tissue type that attenuates the x-ray beam the most is:
When processor sensitometry falls out of limits, what should be done...
The Mid-density (MD) on the processor quality control chart is chosen...
When a combination of single emulsion film and single screen is used,...
Indicate the projection described by the following positioning...
Which of the following determines the level of radiographic...
What is the condition of the detector if the radiation exposure is too...
The actual focal spot is always _______ the projected focal spot.
What percent voltage ripple occurs with a high frequency generator?
How does increasing the radiation dose affect the image noise?
The word "orthogonal" is best described as:
What age group is at the greatest risk for radiation-induced breast...
The primary purpose for using grids in mammography is to:
The purpose of adding starter to fresh chemicals is:
What brightness is recommended by the ACR for mammographic film...
To decrease image noise you should do what to the radiation dose?
The final MQSA regulations went into effect
The control limits on a phantom chart for the density difference (DD)...
Which detector type converts x-ray energy directly into electrical...
Check viewboxes and viewing conditions
What is the approximate increased likelihood of developing breast...
Which link in the mammographic imaging chain is the Phantom Image...
The film for the weekly phantom test is taken from
If WW = 500 and WL = 500, what image pixel values are displayed?
Lobular carcinoma accounts for approximately what portion of all...
All mammography films, no matter the manufacturer are
Radiation dose for FFDM will always be lower than for...
If films are requested on a mastectomy patient (one side affected)....
Recommended film storage conditions are: ___ relative humidity and...
Using a 5M-pixel monitor to display 100 micron (0.1 mm) pixels, what...
The phosphors most commonly used for mammography screens emit...
Perform processor QC
Which type of mammography uses 3D imaging technology?
To increase exposure slightly when the AEC’s tracking ability is...
In the correct order with largest number of pixels to the smallest:
The majority of glandular tissue exists in groups known as:
In digital mammography, what is the role of solid-state detectors in...
Radiation dose with a screen is about ___ times the dose of direct...
In flooded replenishment, the starter is added to:
If processing artifacts are more severe when the film is run emulsion...
Processor roller marks that show up as artifacts running perpendicular...
The developer temperature should be kept within how many degrees of...
Which of the following are primary signs of breast cancer? ...
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