Mammography Toughest Trivia Quiz: Can You Pass This Test?

425 Questions | Total Attempts: 303

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Mammography Toughest Trivia Quiz: Can You Pass This Test?

Below is Mammography's toughest trivia quiz: can you pass this test? Mammography is taken by mot male and female patients who think that they may have breast cancer or are trying to eliminate chances of having it by going to regular checkups. Do take the quiz below and get to see how much you know about the whole process, and what is expected of you as a medical practitioner.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The biggest risk factor for breast disease is
    • A. 

      A family history of breast cancer

    • B. 

      A personal history of breast cancer

    • C. 

      Gender

    • D. 

      Not breast-feeding

  • 2. 
    One of the minor risk factors for breast cancer could include
    • A. 

      Gender

    • B. 

      Aging

    • C. 

      Genetic risk factors

    • D. 

      Not breast-feeding

  • 3. 
    What is the approximate risk of developing breast cancer for a woman whose father's sister has the disease?
    • A. 

      Higher than normal risk

    • B. 

      No significant change

    • C. 

      Lower than normal risk

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 4. 
    Seventy-seven percent of breast cancers are discovered in women in which age group?
    • A. 

      Age 30 or below

    • B. 

      Above age 50

    • C. 

      Between ages 30 and 40

    • D. 

      Above age 20 but below age 30

  • 5. 
    Symptoms of a malignant breast cancer can include 1. skin thickening 2. nipple discharge 3. calcifications
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 6. 
    Skin thickening can be malignant but could also be caused by 1. a breast abscess 2. a calcified fibroadenoma 3. postradiation
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 2 only

    • D. 

      1 and 3 only

  • 7. 
    The two main classifications of breast cancer are 1. ductal 2. lobular 3. medullary
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 2 only

    • D. 

      1 and 3 only

  • 8. 
    MRI could be used 1. as a primary breast cancer detection tool 2. to image patients with breast implants to evaluate ruptures 3. to determine tumor margins and the extent of tumor spread
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1 and 3 only

  • 9. 
    Chemotherapy
    • A. 

      Involves the use of drugs to treat cancer that may have spread

    • B. 

      Is the destruction of cancer cells using high-energy radiation

    • C. 

      Involves mapping the area around a tumor with the injection of a radioactive tracer

    • D. 

      Is the removal of only the cancerous tissue from the breast

  • 10. 
    The ACS recommends that 1. all women should have a screening mammogram every year. 2. women above 40 should have a screening mammogram every year. 3. new masses or lumps in the breast should be checked by a health-care provider.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      2 and 3 only

  • 11. 
    A health-care provider should evaluate which of the following breast changes? 1. lumps or swellings 2. skin irritation or dimpling 3. milky discharge from the nipple
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 12. 
    A CBE should be performed every 1. year after age 40 2. 3 years between ages 20 and 39 3. month after age 50
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 2 only

    • D. 

      2 and 3 only

  • 13. 
    A CBE can be performed by which of the following? 1. the radiologist 2. the patient 3. a health-care professional
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1 and 3 only

  • 14. 
    A BSE should be done regularly by 1. the radiologist 2. the patient 3. a health-care professional
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1 and 3 only

  • 15. 
    All women above the age _________ should perform a BSE regularly.
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      50

  • 16. 
    The two-step method of BSE is to
    • A. 

      Look and feel for changes in the breast

    • B. 

      Examine your breasts and have a regular mammogram

    • C. 

      Check for lumps in the breast and keep a journal of changes in the breast

    • D. 

      Examine your breasts and nipples

  • 17. 
    When visually inspecting the breast, the changes that should be recorded include 1. changes in size and shape 2. changes in texture or color 3. indentations
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 18. 
    The patient's medical history and documentation will 1. provide the radiologist with information on the patient's risk factors for breast cancer 2. give the radiologist information about general symptoms of breast cancer 3. provide information about possible benign breast conditions of the patient
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 19. 
    The importance of BSE and a CBE is stressed because 1. both will detect benign breast diseases, which are very common 2. both will help in the detection of malignant breast conditions 3. a mammogram is not 100% effective
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1 and 3 only

  • 20. 
    Which of the following are methods used in BSE? 1. using the pads of the three middle fingers to palpate the entire breast 2. palpating around the breast in a vertical pattern 3. using varying degrees of pressure while palpation of the breast
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 21. 
    For a menstruating woman, when is the best time of the month to perform a BSE?
    • A. 

      1 week before the start of menstruation

    • B. 

      On the first day of the month

    • C. 

      On the last day of the month

    • D. 

      When the breast is least tender

  • 22. 
    Which of the following statements are true? 1. Breast cancer death rates in the United States are going down. 2. Breast cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in women in the United States. 3. The second leading cause of cancer death in women in the United States is breast cancer.
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 23. 
    Postmenopausal obesity is associated with
    • A. 

      A relatively high risk of developing breast cancer

    • B. 

      Overall reduction in breast cancer risks

    • C. 

      Circulating estrogen that is produced in fat tissue

    • D. 

      A lower overall estrogen level

  • 24. 
    A process of removing tissue, muscle and fat from the belly and transferring that tissue to reconstruct the breast is called
    • A. 

      TRAM flap

    • B. 

      Latissimus dorsi flap

    • C. 

      Implant placement

    • D. 

      Silicone implant

  • 25. 
    Antiestrogen drugs such as tamoxifen can be used to 1. slow or stop the cancer's growth 2. prevent breast cancer in high-risk women 3. prevent the recurrence of breast cancer
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 26. 
    In routine mammogaphy, the radiation dose per projection is generally about
    • A. 

      0.1-0.2 rad

    • B. 

      1.0-2.0 rad

    • C. 

      0.01-0.02 rad

    • D. 

      2-3 mrad

  • 27. 
    Which age group is likely to get the most radiation dose from a mammogram?
    • A. 

      Between 20 and 35

    • B. 

      Between 40 and 50

    • C. 

      Between 55 and 60

    • D. 

      Above 70

  • 28. 
    The 5-year survival rate for a patient with a stage 0 breast cancer is about
    • A. 

      49%

    • B. 

      76%

    • C. 

      88%

    • D. 

      100%

  • 29. 
    During a mammogram, which of the following will affect the average glandular dose per breast? 1. degree of breast compression 2. the half-value layer (HVL) of the x-ray beam 3. breast size and composition
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 30. 
    In general, the optimal duration of tamoxifen treatment is
    • A. 

      2 years

    • B. 

      3 years

    • C. 

      4 years

    • D. 

      5 years

  • 31. 
    Lumpectomy describes the process of
    • A. 

      Removing the entire breast including the nipple

    • B. 

      Removal of the breast cancer tumor and surrounding margins of normal breast

    • C. 

      Making a small incision over or near the site of breast lesion

    • D. 

      Removing benign lumps from the breast

  • 32. 
    Radiation therapy can be used 1. combined with other treatment options 2. to kill any remaining cancer cells in the breast, or chest wall area 3. to shrink the size of a tumor before surgery
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 33. 
    Chemotherapy is a class of drugs that can be used to
    • A. 

      Stop the spread of cancer to other parts of the body

    • B. 

      Block estrogen from cancer cells

    • C. 

      Reduce estrogen levels in the body

    • D. 

      Kill cancer cells by using high-energy radiation

  • 34. 
    Breast reconstruction can involve the placement of small fluid-filled sacs behind the pectoral muscle. Two common types of such implants are
    • A. 

      Saline and flap surgery

    • B. 

      TRAM flap and silicone implant

    • C. 

      Silicone or saline implants

    • D. 

      Saline-filled implant and latissimus dorsi flap implant

  • 35. 
    With its high sensitivity, MRI is ideal as
    • A. 

      A routine screen tool for breast cancer

    • B. 

      A replacement for mammography screening in detecting breast cancers

    • C. 

      An adjunctive tool in detecting breast

    • D. 

      A screening tool for older women

  • 36. 
    MRI imaging involves the use of
    • A. 

      Radiation to detect breast lesions

    • B. 

      Sound waves in the imaging of the breast

    • C. 

      Magnetic properties plus radio waves to image the breast

    • D. 

      Strong sound an radio waves in imaging the breast

  • 37. 
    Ultrasound uses
    • A. 

      High-frequency sound waves to image the breast

    • B. 

      Low-frequency sound waves to image the breast

    • C. 

      Longitudinal microwaves to image the breast

    • D. 

      Radiofrequency waves to image the breast

  • 38. 
    MRI can be used to 1. map the extent of a tumor 2. image patients with implants 3. evaluate patients with dense breast
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 39. 
    Conventional ultrasound imaging of the breast is often used to
    • A. 

      Map the extent of a breast tumor

    • B. 

      Verify that a lesion seen on the mammogram is solid or fluid filled

    • C. 

      Verify the presence of microcalcifications

    • D. 

      Biopsy a lesion seen only on MRI

  • 40. 
    In mammography, selecting extremely low kVp values
    • A. 

      Reduces contrast and lowers patient dose

    • B. 

      Increases contrast but increases patient dose

    • C. 

      Reduces contrast but increases patient dose

    • D. 

      Increases contrast and reduces patient dose

  • 41. 
    What target-filtration combination provides the best penetration for dense or thick breast?
    • A. 

      Molybdenum target with molybdenum filtration

    • B. 

      Rhodium target with rhodium filtration

    • C. 

      Tungsten target with tungsten filtration

    • D. 

      Molybdenum target with appropriate K-edge filtration

  • 42. 
    The material used for the exit port of the mammography tube is necessary because
    • A. 

      The intensity of the beam is less on the anode side than on the cathode side.

    • B. 

      Regular glass would harden the emerging beam

    • C. 

      The intensity of the beam is more on the anode side than the cathode side.

    • D. 

      Regular glass would soften the emerging beam.

  • 43. 
    The intensity of the x-ray beam from the cathode side of the tube is generally higher because
    • A. 

      Soft characteristic radiation emerges from the anode side

    • B. 

      The cathode side is directed to the thickest part of the breast.

    • C. 

      The heel effect causes variation in the intensity of the x-ray beam.

    • D. 

      The heel effect increases the intensity of the beam at the anode side.

  • 44. 
    The design of the lip of the compression paddle (both height and angle along the chest wall) affects all of the following except that it
    • A. 

      Prevents the posterior and axillary fat from overlapping the body of the breast

    • B. 

      Allows uniform compression of the posterior breast tissue

    • C. 

      Helps to increase structural strength of the compression paddle

    • D. 

      Ensures greater compression of the anterior breast tissue

  • 45. 
    The primary goal of compression is to
    • A. 

      Reduce the OID of the lesion

    • B. 

      Allow uniform penetration of structures within the breast

    • C. 

      Reduce the possibility of motion during the exposure

    • D. 

      Reduce the radiation dose to the breast

  • 46. 
    AEC failure, resulting in an underexposed radiograph, can be caused by
    • A. 

      Processing deficiencies such as fluctuating developer temperature

    • B. 

      Improper placement of the dense breast tissue/size over the detector

    • C. 

      Decreased radiographic contrast

    • D. 

      Inadequate breast compression

  • 47. 
    Most AEC circuitry in modern mammographic imaging has at least three detectors. Three or more detectors are recommended because
    • A. 

      Multiple detectors allow for maximum variations in breast size and tissue density.

    • B. 

      AEC detectors eliminate the guesswork in determining the proper exposure factor for each patient.

    • C. 

      Detectors have the ability to terminate the exposure by back-up timer when a maximum exposure time or maximum milliamperes (mA) per second is reached.

    • D. 

      All AEC detector systems provide consistent image densities because of the high-contrast mammography films.

  • 48. 
    The major difference between the general radiography grid and the grid used in mammography is that the
    • A. 

      Grid used in general radiography causes an increase in exposure

    • B. 

      Grids used in general radiography have higher ratios

    • C. 

      Use of a grid in mammography increases patient dose

    • D. 

      Grids in mammography improve the radiographic image contrast

  • 49. 
    The grid ratio can vary in modern mammography units. A common grid ratio used is
    • A. 

      8:1

    • B. 

      6:1

    • C. 

      4:1

    • D. 

      2:1

  • 50. 
    As the size of the x-ray field decreases, to maintain a constant image density the exposure will
    • A. 

      Increase

    • B. 

      Decrease

    • C. 

      Not change significantly

    • D. 

      Decrease inversely

  • 51. 
    The chest wall edge of the compression paddle should be aligned just beyond the chest wall edge of the IR to
    • A. 

      Avoid pushing the patient's chest away and losing breast tissue

    • B. 

      Properly position and compress the breast

    • C. 

      Permit uniform exposure and reduce patient discomfort

    • D. 

      Avoid projecting the chest wall edge of the paddle on the mammogram

  • 52. 
    Which of the following affects focal spot size?
    • A. 

      Angle of the anode

    • B. 

      A decrease in the SID

    • C. 

      Decreasing the size of the collimated beam

    • D. 

      Changing the relationship between the OID and the SID

  • 53. 
    In mammography, the commonly used focal spot size for routine work is
    • A. 

      3 mm

    • B. 

      0.3 mm

    • C. 

      1 mm

    • D. 

      0.1 mm

  • 54. 
    The greatest difference between digital technology and conventional mammography imaging is
    • A. 

      The higher resolution system results in an increase in patient dose in digital technology.

    • B. 

      There is no latent image formation when using digital technology.

    • C. 

      In digital technology, the final image can be manipulated.

    • D. 

      The image can never be displayed on a film in digital technology.

  • 55. 
    Which of the following mammographic quality control tests is performed monthly?
    • A. 

      Phantom images

    • B. 

      Visual checklist

    • C. 

      Repeat analysis

    • D. 

      Screen cleanliness

  • 56. 
    The criteria to pass the ACR Mammography Accreditation on conventional phantom imaging require a minimum of _____ masses.
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 57. 
    In establishing processing quality control operating levels, the speed index is designated as the density
    • A. 

      Closest to but not less than 2.20

    • B. 

      Closest to but not less than 1.20

    • C. 

      Closest to but not less than 0.45

    • D. 

      2.20 or higher

  • 58. 
    The phantom image background optical density should never be
    • A. 

      More than 1.20

    • B. 

      Less than 1.20

    • C. 

      More than 1.40

    • D. 

      Less than 1.40

  • 59. 
    One of the two reasons towels are used in the compression test is to
    • A. 

      Protect the cassette holder

    • B. 

      Ensure that the compression is adequate

    • C. 

      Force slower application of compression

    • D. 

      Simulate 4 cm of compressed breast

  • 60. 
    For the repeat analysis to be meaningful, a patient volume of at least _____ patients is needed.
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      250

    • D. 

      300

  • 61. 
    If, after examining a phantom image, the number of visualized fibers or masses has changed significantly, the next step is to
    • A. 

      Record the new values

    • B. 

      Call the medical physicist

    • C. 

      Call the equipment service personnel

    • D. 

      Check the mammography unit or the image processor

  • 62. 
    Repeated films are
    • A. 

      Films used for processor cleaning

    • B. 

      Films used for quality control

    • C. 

      Films that involve exposure to the patient

    • D. 

      All discarded films

  • 63. 
    If the patient volume at a mammography site is 200 patients per week, the repeat/reject analysis should be done very
    • A. 

      Week

    • B. 

      2 weeks

    • C. 

      2 months

    • D. 

      3 months

  • 64. 
    All the fluorescent tubes in the mammography view box should be replaced at the same time because
    • A. 

      Fluorescent tubes decrease in brightness with age.

    • B. 

      Fluorescent tubes will only last about 18-24 months.

    • C. 

      They have a higher luminescence than conventional tubes.

    • D. 

      It saves time to replace them all the same time.

  • 65. 
    In imaging the phantom, the technical factors used should be the same as those used clinically for a _____-cm-thick breast of medium glandularity.
    • A. 

      6.0-6.5

    • B. 

      5.0-5.5

    • C. 

      4.0-4.5

    • D. 

      3.0-3.5

  • 66. 
    Mammography facilities can receive certification from 1. the ACR 2. the FDA 3. an SAC state
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 67. 
    An MQSA certificate is issued when a mammography facility has been accredited. This certification is valued for
    • A. 

      1 year

    • B. 

      2 years

    • C. 

      3 years

    • D. 

      4 years

  • 68. 
    If any of the visual checks fail, the first step is to
    • A. 

      Correct or replace the item

    • B. 

      Call the medical physicist

    • C. 

      Call the processor service

    • D. 

      Call the equipment service representative

  • 69. 
    Digital images can be viewed on a computer monitor or printed using
    • A. 

      Dry laser technology

    • B. 

      Single emulsion mammography film

    • C. 

      Single emulsion laser film

    • D. 

      Double emulsion film, sensitive to the red-light spectrum emitted by lasers

  • 70. 
    Hardcopy viewing of the digital imaging describes
    • A. 

      Displaying the image on the mammographer's workstation for further enhancement

    • B. 

      The only image viewed by the mammographer

    • C. 

      The image that is sent for interpretation

    • D. 

      The ability to reduce the cost associated with repeats

  • 71. 
    One of the earliest cases of breast cancer was discovered by the American Egyptologist Edwin Smith in
    • A. 

      1600 BC

    • B. 

      1862

    • C. 

      1895

    • D. 

      1995

  • 72. 
    The social and religious taboo of the time forced Claudius Galen to experiment and dissect _____ instead of humans.
    • A. 

      Animals

    • B. 

      Birds

    • C. 

      Mammals

    • D. 

      Reptiles

  • 73. 
    The father of human anatomy, recognized for his famous work, The Seven Books on the Structure of Human Body, is:
    • A. 

      Claudius Galen

    • B. 

      Henri Le Dran

    • C. 

      Rudolf Virchow

    • D. 

      Andreas Vesalius

  • 74. 
    Which of the following scientists was known for his or her work in the discovery of radioactivity and in isolating radium from uranium?
    • A. 

      Marie Curie

    • B. 

      Pierre Curie

    • C. 

      Wilhelm Roentgen

    • D. 

      Henri Becquerel

  • 75. 
    The terms "hyperplasia" and "ischemia" were coined by:
    • A. 

      Henri Le Dran

    • B. 

      Andreas Vesalius

    • C. 

      Chester Carlson

    • D. 

      Rudolf Virchow

  • 76. 
    The breast imaging equipment that used a two-step process, conditioner and processer, and printed blue and white images on paper was called:
    • A. 

      Radiography

    • B. 

      Radiation therapy

    • C. 

      Xeroradiography

    • D. 

      Mammography

  • 77. 
    One of the first studies to demonstrate that the benefits of mammography far outweighed the risks was conducted by:
    • A. 

      MQSA

    • B. 

      HIP

    • C. 

      ACS

    • D. 

      NCI

  • 78. 
    What technique, used in the early 1970's proved effective in bringing the radiation dose during the mammography examination to acceptable levels?
    • A. 

      Use of grids

    • B. 

      Use of a molybdenum or rhodium anode

    • C. 

      A single-emulsion film and screen system

    • D. 

      Low-kilovoltage systems

  • 79. 
    The voluntary accreditation program was recommended by the:
    • A. 

      MQSA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      NCI

    • D. 

      ACR

  • 80. 
    The mandatory mammography quality assurance act passed by the US Congress in 1992 is:
    • A. 

      MQSA

    • B. 

      ACS

    • C. 

      ACR

    • D. 

      FDA

  • 81. 
    The glandular dose is:
    • A. 

      The dose received on the skin of the breast

    • B. 

      Associated with dose to the radiosensitive cells of the breast

    • C. 

      The significant background dose recorded in ultrasound

    • D. 

      A record of the dose to the gonads

  • 82. 
    Factors that should be reported on the patient's medical history documentation because of their significant impact on diagnosis include: 1.) History of breast trauma 2.) Painful lumps or masses 3.) Sudden nipple retraction
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 83. 
    On an average, how accurate is the mammogram?
    • A. 

      100%

    • B. 

      90%

    • C. 

      40%

    • D. 

      20%

  • 84. 
    If the doctor writes, "Patient has a palpable lump in her left breast," this information is:
    • A. 

      Objective

    • B. 

      Informative

    • C. 

      Subjective

    • D. 

      Noninformative

  • 85. 
    Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication?
    • A. 

      Speaking

    • B. 

      Nodding

    • C. 

      Talking

    • D. 

      Whispering

  • 86. 
    Which of the following are positive skills that the radiographer can use when obtaining a patient history? 1.) Leading questions 2.) Probing questions 3.) Repeating information
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      1 and 3 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 87. 
    Why is obesity considered a risk factor for breast cancer?
    • A. 

      A person who is overweight is more likely to have dense breast.

    • B. 

      Overweight, especially after menopause, can result in increased estrogen in the body.

    • C. 

      Overweight, especially before menopause, can result in increased estrogen in the body.

    • D. 

      Overweight, especially after menopause, can result in decreased estrogen in the body.

  • 88. 
    Minor risk factors of breast cancer are associated with: 1.) Use of HRT 2.) Family history of breast cancer 3.) Nulliparity
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 89. 
    Major risk factors for breast cancer include: 1.) Use of birth control pills 2.) Age 3.) Genetic risks
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 90. 
    A risk factor is any:
    • A. 

      Factor within a person's control

    • B. 

      Factor outside a person's control

    • C. 

      Significant factor that increases a person's chance of getting a disease

    • D. 

      Factor that decreases a person's chance of getting a disease

  • 91. 
    The shape and size of the breast could depend on: 1.) Age 2.) Weight gain or loss 3.) Hormonal use
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 92. 
    The breast meets the abdominal wall at approximately the:
    • A. 

      Mid-sternum

    • B. 

      Mid-axillary line

    • C. 

      Clavicle

    • D. 

      Seventh rib

  • 93. 
    On average, how many lobes are found in an adult female breast:
    • A. 

      0-5

    • B. 

      5-15

    • C. 

      15-20

    • D. 

      25-30

  • 94. 
    Separating the breast from the pectoral muscle is a fatty area called the:
    • A. 

      Inframammary fold

    • B. 

      Retromammary space

    • C. 

      Supporting and connective tissue

    • D. 

      Milk line

  • 95. 
    The muscle immediately posterior to the breast is the:
    • A. 

      Pectoralis minor muscle

    • B. 

      Pectoralis major muscle

    • C. 

      Serratus anterior muscle

    • D. 

      Latissimus dorsi muscle

  • 96. 
    Parity refers to:
    • A. 

      The condition of being pregnant or having delivered a child

    • B. 

      Not having any children

    • C. 

      Paring or removal of portions of the breast

    • D. 

      Breast tissue that is not the same

  • 97. 
    What is the main purpose of hormone replacement therapy? 1.) Relief from the symptoms of menopause 2.) Increase proliferation of glandular tissue 3.) Control osteoporosis
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 98. 
    The specialized sweat glands found on the areola are called:
    • A. 

      TDLU

    • B. 

      Montgomery glands

    • C. 

      Retromammary glands

    • D. 

      Oil cyst

  • 99. 
    The duct that drains milk directly to the exterior is called the:
    • A. 

      Lactiferous sinus

    • B. 

      Ampule

    • C. 

      Lactiferous duct

    • D. 

      Segmental duct

  • 100. 
    Of the following, which mammogram would likely show very dense glandular breast?
    • A. 

      Girl aged 10 years

    • B. 

      Man aged 50 years

    • C. 

      Woman aged 30 years

    • D. 

      Woman aged 70 years

  • 101. 
    Reduction mammoplasty often involves:
    • A. 

      Reducing the size of individual lobules

    • B. 

      Reducing the size of the ampule

    • C. 

      Removal of glandular tissue only

    • D. 

      Removal of breast tissue and relocation of the nipple

  • 102. 
    A patient with peau d'orange-type breast will present with:
    • A. 

      Breast skin that is obviously thickened

    • B. 

      Malignant breast calcifications

    • C. 

      Radiopaque breast lesions

    • D. 

      Vascular calcifications

  • 103. 
    Benign breast calcifications include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Vascular calcifications

    • B. 

      Plasma cell mastitis

    • C. 

      Milk of calcium

    • D. 

      Casting-type calcifications

  • 104. 
    Which of the following describes the characteristics of benign circular or oval lesions? 1.) Radiolucent 2.) Halo sign 3.) Low optical density
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 105. 
    Asymmetric breast tissue - seen as an area on one mammogram that is not reproduced on the other - is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Stellate lesion

    • B. 

      Spiculated lesion

    • C. 

      Architectural distortion

    • D. 

      Malignant lesion

  • 106. 
    The halo sign is often used to identify:
    • A. 

      Benign versus malignant lesions

    • B. 

      Tumors versus fibroadenoma lesions

    • C. 

      Circular and oval lesions

    • D. 

      Stellate or spiculated lesions

  • 107. 
    Oil cysts are:
    • A. 

      Often malignant

    • B. 

      Seen on the mammogram as eggshell-like calcifications

    • C. 

      Rarely benign

    • D. 

      Often seen after pregnancy

  • 108. 
    The two most common types of breast cancer are: 1.) Lobular 2.) Ductal 3.) Metastasis
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 109. 
    Which of the following lesions are likely to be malignant? 1.) Spiculated 2.) Circular 3.) Multiple Lobulated
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 110. 
    A fibroadenoma is a:
    • A. 

      Malignant lesion found only in older women

    • B. 

      Fluid-filled duct

    • C. 

      Fibrous and adenoma tissue

    • D. 

      Round, movable, but often benign lesion

  • 111. 
    Added filtration in mammography imaging is:
    • A. 

      Generally the same element as the mammography tube target

    • B. 

      Of a higher filtration value that the filtration used in general imaging

    • C. 

      Sometimes not recommended

    • D. 

      Often replaced by the inherent filtration

  • 112. 
    Which of the following does not describe mammography filtration?
    • A. 

      It shapes the emerging beam by absorbing low-energy x-rays that would only be absorbed by the superficial tissue and contribute to patient dose.

    • B. 

      It will affect the HVL of the emerging x-ray beam.

    • C. 

      Filtration makes the emerging beam compatible with the breast characteristics.

    • D. 

      The filtration used in mammography imaging is usually aluminum.

  • 113. 
    Inherent filtration in mammography imaging implies filtration by: 1.) Exit port window of the mammography tube 2.) Collimator light assembly 3.) Compression device
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 114. 
    Component parts of the mammography tube that differentiate it from a regular x-ray tube include: 1.) Size of the focal spots 2.) Type of added filtration 3.) Material of the exit port window
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 115. 
    Which of the following statements are not true of magnification mammography?
    • A. 

      With magnification, patient dose increases.

    • B. 

      Magnification does not use a grid.

    • C. 

      Magnification can be used to assess suspicious lesions.

    • D. 

      In general, magnification can be used to image the entire breast with one exposure.

  • 116. 
    What is the recommended resolution of the Reading Workstation?
    • A. 

      2 megapixels

    • B. 

      3 megapixels

    • C. 

      4 megapixels

    • D. 

      5 megapixels

  • 117. 
    The material of the exit port is necessary to:
    • A. 

      Harden the emerging beam

    • B. 

      Attenuate low-energy photons

    • C. 

      Allow the passage of low-energy photons

    • D. 

      Increase the level of high-energy photons emerging

  • 118. 
    How does the material selected for the anode affect the beam quality?
    • A. 

      The anode selection shapes the beam by producing characteristic radiation in an acceptable range.

    • B. 

      The anode selection filters the beam by allowing only the necessary low-energy photons to emerge from the tube.

    • C. 

      The anode selection shapes the beam by filtering out the high-energy photons.

    • D. 

      The anode selection shapes the beam by filtering out the low-energy photons.

  • 119. 
    Which of the following factors will directly control the image contrast in digital imaging?
    • A. 

      MAs

    • B. 

      KV

    • C. 

      Processing software

    • D. 

      Exposure time

  • 120. 
    In digital imaging, a postprocessing option that will change the image brightness is called:
    • A. 

      Edge enhancement

    • B. 

      Windowing

    • C. 

      Annotating

    • D. 

      Subtraction

  • 121. 
    Which of the following is inappropriate or demonstrates poor positioning techniques when imaging on the CC projection?
    • A. 

      Demonstrating the nipple in profile

    • B. 

      Always demonstrating the posterior lateral breast

    • C. 

      The PNL measurement is within 1 cm of the PNL on the MLO

    • D. 

      Including both the medial and lateral breast within the collimated field

  • 122. 
    The projection used to demonstrate the posterior lateral aspect of the breast not seen on the CC is:
    • A. 

      XCCL

    • B. 

      ML

    • C. 

      LMO

    • D. 

      MLO

  • 123. 
    Key points in imaging on the MLO projection include: 1.) Tube angulation should be between 30 and 70 degrees 2.) The inframammary fold should be closed 3.) Compression must support the anterior breast tissue
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 124. 
    In breast imaging, the technique used to increase compression on a small area of interest to spread out the tissue and improve resolution is called:
    • A. 

      Cleavage

    • B. 

      Axillary tail

    • C. 

      Tangential

    • D. 

      Spot compression

  • 125. 
    The tangential projection is often used to:
    • A. 

      Image implants

    • B. 

      Demonstrate skin lesions

    • C. 

      Evaluate the margins of lesions

    • D. 

      Remove superimposed tissue when imaging dense breast

  • 126. 
    When imaging implants, some of the projections taken will include an image of the implant. In these projections, the compression is used: 1.) For immobilization only 2.) To separate the breast tissue 3.) To separate and spread out the implant
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      2 and 3 only

  • 127. 
    This projection best demonstrates the upper inner quadrant and the lower outer quadrant of the breast free of superimposition and can be used when imaging implants, especially encapsulated implants:
    • A. 

      SIO

    • B. 

      AT

    • C. 

      TAN

    • D. 

      LML

  • 128. 
    The main reason for breast compression is to
    • A. 

      Control the radiation dose to the patient

    • B. 

      Control patient motion

    • C. 

      Reduce the exposure time

    • D. 

      Ensure a uniform thickness

  • 129. 
    After imaging in the breast using the MLO projection, and ML projection was taken. The lesion seen on the MLO moves down on the ML. This indicates that the lesion is located:
    • A. 

      Laterally

    • B. 

      Medially

    • C. 

      Centrally

  • 130. 
    The true lateral projection that will best demonstrate a medial lesion is:
    • A. 

      ML

    • B. 

      MLO

    • C. 

      LMO

    • D. 

      LM

  • 131. 
    As pixel size decreases, the amount of data contained in the image will:
    • A. 

      Increase

    • B. 

      Remain the same

    • C. 

      Decrease

    • D. 

      Pixel size has no effect on image data

  • 132. 
    In digital imaging, the dynamic range refers to:
    • A. 

      Range of intensities that are displayed

    • B. 

      Random background information that is detected but does not contribute to image quality

    • C. 

      Range of values over which a system can respond

    • D. 

      Layout of the cells in rows and columns

  • 133. 
    The detector system in digital mammography is categorized as direct if:
    • A. 

      The x-rays are absorbed by the detector and an electrical signal is created in one step

    • B. 

      The x-rays are absorbed and converted to light, which is then detected by TFD

    • C. 

      The system has a wide dynamic range

    • D. 

      The spatial frequency is high

  • 134. 
    During the reading process, the light emitted from the PSP is collected by
    • A. 

      TFT

    • B. 

      CCD

    • C. 

      ADC

    • D. 

      PMT

  • 135. 
    Most of the risks of MRI of the breast are associated with:
    • A. 

      The magnetic properties of the patient

    • B. 

      Ferromagnetic metals

    • C. 

      Technologist errors

    • D. 

      Radiologist error

  • 136. 
    What is the name of the scintillator used in the flat-panel technology?
    • A. 

      Amorphous silicon

    • B. 

      Cesium iodide

    • C. 

      Amorphous selenium

    • D. 

      Thin-film transistor

  • 137. 
    Typically, a lesion with no internal echoes, no spiculations, and fewer than four gentle lobulations would represent what type of lesion on ultrasound?
    • A. 

      Malignant

    • B. 

      Intermediate

    • C. 

      Carcinoma

    • D. 

      Benign

  • 138. 
    The ultrasound transducer is used to: 1.) Convert electric energy to acoustic pulses 2.) Convert acoustic pulses to electric energy 3.) Change the speed of the sound waves
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 139. 
    Scanning the breast to locate a cancer based on the vast amount of glucose/sugar used by cancer cell is called:
    • A. 

      Scintigraphy

    • B. 

      PEM imaging

    • C. 

      MRI

    • D. 

      Lymphoscintigraphy

  • 140. 
    Which of the following technologies is based on the principle of angiogenesis?
    • A. 

      Scintigraphy

    • B. 

      PEM imaging

    • C. 

      MRI

    • D. 

      CTLM

  • 141. 
    Which of the following types of breast imaging method will fall under the category of nuclear imaging? 1.) PEM 2.) MRI 3.) Scintimammography
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 142. 
     Which of the following procedures requires the patient to lie still for 60-90 minutes after an injection and before the actual procedure?
    • A. 

      Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS)

    • B. 

      PEM

    • C. 

      Elastography

    • D. 

      BSGI

  • 143. 
    A technique of injecting a radioisotope directly into the tumor bed to tract the extent or spread of a cancer, describes:
    • A. 

      Scintigraphy

    • B. 

      Scintimammography

    • C. 

      Lymphoscintigraphy

    • D. 

      Positron Emission Tomography

  • 144. 
    A digital method of scanning the breast to create three-dimensional reconstruction of tomography planes of the breast is:
    • A. 

      Lymphoscintigraphy

    • B. 

      BSGI

    • C. 

      Digital Breast Tomosynthesis

    • D. 

      Optical Imaging

  • 145. 
    The principle of elastography is that:
    • A. 

      Cancers are relatively hard compared with surrounding breast tissue

    • B. 

      Electric current can travel easily throughout the breast tissue

    • C. 

      Malignant tumors develop numerous new blood vessels

    • D. 

      Radioactive substances have an affinity to malignant cells

  • 146. 
    The readioactive compound used in BSGI is:
    • A. 

      Fluorodeoxyglucose

    • B. 

      Gadolinium

    • C. 

      99mTC-sestamibi

    • D. 

      Radiation

  • 147. 
    An imaging technology that measures choline, the functional breast cancer byproduct, is:
    • A. 

      Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS)

    • B. 

      Lymphoscintigraphy

    • C. 

      Elastography

    • D. 

      BSGI

  • 148. 
    A technology that uses low-level electric currents to "map" the breast is:
    • A. 

      Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy

    • B. 

      Digital Breast Tomosynthesis

    • C. 

      Bioelectric imaging or electrical impedance scanning (EIS)

    • D. 

      Positron emission mammography

  • 149. 
    Methods used to definitively classify a lesion include: 1.) Cytological analysis 2.) Mammography 3.) Histological analysis
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 150. 
    A process by which the breast size is increased using implants is called:
    • A. 

      Augmentation mammoplasty

    • B. 

      Mastopexy

    • C. 

      Ductography

    • D. 

      Needle aspiration

  • 151. 
    A surgical procedure done at the request of the patient to lift the breast and improve firmess is:
    • A. 

      Needle aspiration

    • B. 

      Mastopexy

    • C. 

      Augmentation

    • D. 

      Postmastectomy breast reconstruction

  • 152. 
    A technique performed to evaluate suspicious nipple discharge is called:
    • A. 

      Aspiration biopsy

    • B. 

      Lumpectomy

    • C. 

      Axillary dissection

    • D. 

      Ductography

  • 153. 
    Which of the following biopsy techniques is the most accurate?
    • A. 

      FNAB

    • B. 

      Core biopsy

    • C. 

      Stereotactic breast biopsy

    • D. 

      Open surgical biopsy

  • 154. 
    Which biopsy method removes very small sections of tissue samples for analysis?
    • A. 

      Ductography

    • B. 

      Core biopsy

    • C. 

      FNAB

    • D. 

      Ductal lavage

  • 155. 
    An analysis of cell samples taken from the breast is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Histological analysis

    • B. 

      Cytological analysis

    • C. 

      Open surgical biopsy

    • D. 

      Core biopsy

  • 156. 
    Which procedure is considered a safer replacement for the lymph node biopsy?
    • A. 

      Axillary dissection

    • B. 

      Sentinel node biopsy

    • C. 

      Lumpectomy

    • D. 

      FNAB

  • 157. 
    If a lesion is seen only on MRI of the breast, which of the following can be used to biopsy the lesion?
    • A. 

      Ultrasound-guided core biopsy

    • B. 

      Stereotactic biopsy

    • C. 

      Mammography-guided FNAB

    • D. 

      MR-guided core biopsy

  • 158. 
    A minimally invasive procedure used to remove a nonpalpable lesion to determine its benign or malignant nature is:
    • A. 

      Open surgical biopsy

    • B. 

      Breast MRI

    • C. 

      Ultrasound imaging

    • D. 

      Stereotactic biopsy

  • 159. 
    A radiation treatment that typically lasts 5 to 9 days is termed:
    • A. 

      External-beam radiation

    • B. 

      Teletherapy

    • C. 

      Brachytherapy

    • D. 

      Proton-beam radiation

  • 160. 
    Of the following, which is the most breast-conserving surgery?
    • A. 

      Chemotherapy

    • B. 

      Mastectomy

    • C. 

      Modified radical mastectomy

    • D. 

      Lumpectomy

  • 161. 
    Side effects of chemotherapy include: 1.) Nausea and or vomiting 2.) Reduced white cell count 3.) Increased red cell count
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 162. 
    If the margins of a specimen are positive, then:
    • A. 

      All the cancer has been excised

    • B. 

      Additional tissue must be excised

    • C. 

      Lumpectomy was the wrong treatment option

    • D. 

      The patient will have to undergo a mastectomy

  • 163. 
    Neoadjuvant chemotherapy refers to treatment:
    • A. 

      Before surgery that uses antiestrogen drugs

    • B. 

      After the mastectomy and is used to slow the growth of cancer

    • C. 

      Before surgery to help shrink the size of cancerous tumors

    • D. 

      After surgery that involves radiation

  • 164. 
    The benefits of tamoxifen are negligible after how many years?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 165. 
    What is tamoxifen?
    • A. 

      An adjuvant therapy using drugs to shrink certain cancers

    • B. 

      A drug used to block all hormones in the body

    • C. 

      External radiation method of killing cancer cells

    • D. 

      The removal of all cancer cells from the body

  • 166. 
    Advantages of brachytherapy include all of the following, except:
    • A. 

      Reduced time of treatment

    • B. 

      Less irritation of healthy breast tissue

    • C. 

      Longer delays before start of treatment

    • D. 

      Fewer skin reactions

  • 167. 
    Reconstructing the breast to remove tissue in a technique that involves relocating the nipple is called:
    • A. 

      Augmentation mammoplasty

    • B. 

      Reducation mammoplasty

    • C. 

      Core biopsy

    • D. 

      Ductography

  • 168. 
    The removal of tissue and muscle from the abdomen to reconstruct a breast mound using microsurgical techniques is called:
    • A. 

      Latissimus dorsi flap

    • B. 

      Pedicle flap

    • C. 

      TRAM flap

    • D. 

      Free flap

  • 169. 
    Test on beam quality assessment (half-value layer measurement) is performed by the:
    • A. 

      Mammographer

    • B. 

      Medical physicist

    • C. 

      Technologist

    • D. 

      Radiologist

  • 170. 
    In quality control, the standards refers to:
    • A. 

      Action taken on a regular basis

    • B. 

      Action taken to eliminate potential problems

    • C. 

      Reference calibrations or measurements to check accuracy

    • D. 

      Measurement variations allowed

  • 171. 
    The person responsible for overseeing all the activities of the mammographer and the medical physicist is:
    • A. 

      Quality control radiographer

    • B. 

      State inspector

    • C. 

      MQSA inspector

    • D. 

      Radiologist

  • 172. 
    Which of the following QC duties is the responsibility of the medical physicists?
    • A. 

      Phantom image

    • B. 

      Visual checklist

    • C. 

      Average glandular dose

    • D. 

      Compression force

  • 173. 
    The ability of an x-ray tube to always produce the same intensity of radiation when the same set of technical factors is used to make an exposure is called:
    • A. 

      Radiation output

    • B. 

      Exposure time

    • C. 

      Exposure reproducibility

    • D. 

      KV accuracy

  • 174. 
    The MQSA standards were enacted:
    • A. 

      Because mammography was overregulated

    • B. 

      To address the poor quality of mammograms that were available

    • C. 

      To enforce continuing education for the radiologic technologist

    • D. 

      To enforce continuing education for the radiologist

  • 175. 
    The repeated image is:
    • A. 

      Any image that is rejected

    • B. 

      An image that is repeated and results in radiation dose to the patient

    • C. 

      The magnified image requested by the radiologist

    • D. 

      An image taken during quality control tests

  • 176. 
    The person responsible for performing evaluations of and generating reports on the mammographic unit is the:
    • A. 

      Radiologic technologist

    • B. 

      Mammographer

    • C. 

      Medical physicist

    • D. 

      Radiologist

  • 177. 
    A test used to determine whether the time of exposure indicated by the control panel is the same as that delivered by the x-ray tube is performed by the:
    • A. 

      Technologist

    • B. 

      Physicist

    • C. 

      Quality assurance technologist

    • D. 

      Radiologist

  • 178. 
    A quality control test performed to check the random disturbance in digital signals that obscures or reduces image clarity is:
    • A. 

      Detector calibration

    • B. 

      SNR

    • C. 

      Flat-field evaluation

    • D. 

      Monitor calibration

  • 179. 
    The pathology review is a:
    • A. 

      Method of tracking and reviewing all positive findings

    • B. 

      Process of eliminating all positive findings from the records

    • C. 

      Method of tracking cosmetic intervention

    • D. 

      Process of identifying all mammoplasty

  • 180. 
    Elements considered essential to implementing a viable quality assurance program include: 1.) Evaluation 2.) Review 3.) Tolerance
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      1 and 3 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 181. 
    The advantages of the MQSA include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Increases efficiency

    • B. 

      Is cost-effective

    • C. 

      Allows manipulation of the final image

    • D. 

      Improves patient satisfaction

  • 182. 
    The patient will not have to authorize the release of biopsy results as required under HIPAA regulation because:
    • A. 

      MQSA inspectors are allowed to authorize the transfer of any patients' records

    • B. 

      HIPAA regulations allow a person subject to FDA jurisdiction to collect patients' biopsy information for MQSA medical outcome audits.

    • C. 

      Generally, on admission to a hospital or medical facility, the patient will sign a release of records agreement authorizing their medical results transfer.

    • D. 

      Patients' medical results can be shared with other facilities.

  • 183. 
    If a mammography report is highly suspicious, the facility is required to communicate the results to the patient's physician within:
    • A. 

      30 days

    • B. 

      1 day of the mammogram

    • C. 

      3-5 days of the mammogram

    • D. 

      5 days of the interpretation

  • 184. 
    The BI-RAD category for a negative mammogram is:
    • A. 

      BI-RAD 6

    • B. 

      BI-RAD 5

    • C. 

      BI-RAD 1

    • D. 

      BI-RAD 0

  • 185. 
    Under MQSA guidelines, if the patient does not return to a facility for additional mammograms, the radiographs and medical records must be kept:
    • A. 

      Forever

    • B. 

      Not less than 10 years

    • C. 

      Not less than 5 years

    • D. 

      At least 1 year

  • 186. 
    If there are two or more mammography units at a facility, the MQSA certificate must be placed in the:
    • A. 

      Main mammography room

    • B. 

      Office of the chief technologist

    • C. 

      Waiting area visible to all patients

    • D. 

      Office of the radiologist

  • 187. 
    All technologists are required to complete:
    • A. 

      15 CEUs in mammography every 2 years

    • B. 

      15 CEUs in mammography during the 36 months immediately preceding the last inspection

    • C. 

      5 CEUs in mammography during the 36 months immediately preceding the last inspection

    • D. 

      15 CEUs in mammography every year

  • 188. 
    The technologist's initial mammography qualifications required by MQSA include: 1.) Completion of a 40-hour mammography course 2.) Completion of 25 supervised examinations 3.) Completion of 8 hours of training specific to digital
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 189. 
    Excess proliferation or an increase in the amount of normal cells in normal tissues or organs is:
    • A. 

      Hyperplasia

    • B. 

      Metaplasia

    • C. 

      Dysplasia

    • D. 

      Neoplasia

  • 190. 
    The overall blackness of the radiograph image is:
    • A. 

      Optical density

    • B. 

      Background density

    • C. 

      Maximum density

    • D. 

      Contrast

  • 191. 
    Who concluded that cancer cells spread by way of the bloodstream to all organs of the body?
    • A. 

      Stephen Paget

    • B. 

      Rudolf Virchow

    • C. 

      Giovanni Battista Morgagni

    • D. 

      Andreas Vesalius

  • 192. 
    What gas used in World War I led to the development of chemotherapy drugs that kill cancer cells by damaging their DNA?
    • A. 

      Mustard

    • B. 

      Tear

    • C. 

      Lauging

    • D. 

      Chlorine

  • 193. 
    Which of the following is an example of a leading question?
    • A. 

      "How long have you had the pain?"

    • B. 

      "Do you have any pain?"

    • C. 

      "Is the pain in your left breast?"

    • D. 

      "Where is your pain?"

  • 194. 
    Which of the following organizations does not recommend performing clinical breast examinations (CBE)?
    • A. 

      American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology

    • B. 

      US Preventive Services Task Force

    • C. 

      American Cancer Society

    • D. 

      Susan G. Komen for the Cure Foundation

  • 195. 
    Almost _____% of breast cancers are located in the upper quadrants.
    • A. 

      50%

    • B. 

      60%

    • C. 

      75%

    • D. 

      90%

  • 196. 
    The American College of Radiology (ACR) recommends a glandular dose of _____ milligray(s) (mGy) without a grid.
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      1

    • D. 

      0.1

  • 197. 
    Women younger than 30 years account for _____% of breast cancer cases.
    • A. 

      1%

    • B. 

      0.3%

    • C. 

      19%

    • D. 

      9%

  • 198. 
    Approximately _____% of women who are diagnosed with breast cancer do not have a first-degree relative with the disease.
    • A. 

      90%

    • B. 

      15%

    • C. 

      2%

    • D. 

      66%

  • 199. 
    The pigmentation of the areola is partly dependent on:
    • A. 

      Breast shape

    • B. 

      Breast density

    • C. 

      Estrogen levels

    • D. 

      The size of the areola

  • 200. 
    The lymphatic system does all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Drains waste and fluid

    • B. 

      Transports oxygen and carbon dioxide

    • C. 

      Transports hormones

    • D. 

      Initiates responses against microbes

  • 201. 
    What hormone is responsible for lobular development?
    • A. 

      Estrogen

    • B. 

      Thyroid hormone

    • C. 

      Prolactin

    • D. 

      Progesterone

  • 202. 
    Ideally, a mammogram should not be scheduled during lactation unless the patient is symptomatic, has a personal history of breast cancer, or is at very high risk.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 203. 
    Drugs that can trigger gynecomastia in men include medicines prescribed for:
    • A. 

      Cardiovascular disorders

    • B. 

      High blood pressure

    • C. 

      Migraines

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 204. 
    Wart-like growths of glandular and fibrovascular tissue that are associated with milk ducts in the subareolar region are:
    • A. 

      Ductal pappillomas

    • B. 

      Duct ectasia

    • C. 

      Fibroadenomas

    • D. 

      Fibrous nodules

  • 205. 
    Granular cell tumors are:
    • A. 

      A result of trauma, biopsy, or injury

    • B. 

      Rare and almost always benign

    • C. 

      Lesions that increase the risk of subsequent breast cancer

    • D. 

      Indistinguishable from fibroadenomas

  • 206. 
    Mammographically, eggshell-like calcifications and lucent centers are characteristic of:
    • A. 

      Oil cysts

    • B. 

      Melanomas

    • C. 

      Hemangiomas

    • D. 

      Galactoceles

  • 207. 
    Circumscribed lesions are usually always malignant
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 208. 
    Mammographic characteristics of malignant circular or oval lesions include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      New lesion

    • B. 

      High density structures cannot be seen through the lesion

    • C. 

      Randomly orientated in the breast (not aligned with the structure of the breast)

    • D. 

      Presence of the halo sign

  • 209. 
    Mammographic characteristics of benign spiculated or stellate lesions include:
    • A. 

      No distinct central mass

    • B. 

      Sharp lines radiating in all directions

    • C. 

      Localized skin thickening

    • D. 

      Skin retraction of dimpling

  • 210. 
    Casting-type calcifications are:
    • A. 

      Typically benign

    • B. 

      Often larger than 0.5 millimeters (mm) in diameter

    • C. 

      Produced when calcifications form within duct walls

    • D. 

      Irregular in optical density

  • 211. 
    What cancer accounts for a large percentage of potential malpractice suits for failure to detect breast cancer because it is difficult to diagnose?
    • A. 

      Lobular carcinoma in situ

    • B. 

      Invasive lobular cancer

    • C. 

      Invasive ductal carcinoma

    • D. 

      Inflammatory breast cancer

  • 212. 
    The 5-year survival rate for inflammatory breast cancer is _____%.
    • A. 

      20%

    • B. 

      75%

    • C. 

      10%

    • D. 

      50%

  • 213. 
    The number of lead strips per centimeter or inch in a grid is the grid:
    • A. 

      Density

    • B. 

      Measurement

    • C. 

      Frequency

    • D. 

      Ratio

  • 214. 
    The most radiosensitive cells include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Nerve

    • B. 

      Stem

    • C. 

      Gastrointestinal

    • D. 

      Thyroid

  • 215. 
    The interaction between an incident x-ray and an inner or K-shell electron of an atom describes:
    • A. 

      The Compton effect

    • B. 

      The Photoelectric effect

    • C. 

      Pair production

    • D. 

      Coherent scattering

  • 216. 
    Target angles used in mammography are _____ degrees.
    • A. 

      20 to 24

    • B. 

      25 to 30

    • C. 

      10 to 15

    • D. 

      5 to 15

  • 217. 
    The kV range should be _____ when using a molybdenum target.
    • A. 

      20 to 40

    • B. 

      24 to 30

    • C. 

      26 to 32

    • D. 

      23 to 35

  • 218. 
    All of the following are true regarding backup timers except:
    • A. 

      Terminates the exposure when the backup time is reached

    • B. 

      Reached during an exposure when the selected kV is too low

    • C. 

      Reached when not enough breast tissue covers the detector when imaging breast implants

    • D. 

      Preset for grid techniques at 300 mAs

  • 219. 
    Low-frequency grids are used:
    • A. 

      To avoid aliasing artifacts

    • B. 

      In magnification mode

    • C. 

      With a moving grid system

    • D. 

      In digital radiography instead of mammography

  • 220. 
    To compensate for the lost resolution, a small focal spot size is used in magnification mode.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 221. 
    Liquid crystal displays (LDCs):
    • A. 

      Are more durable

    • B. 

      Have a faster refresh rate

    • C. 

      Have better resolution

    • D. 

      Have more luminescence

  • 222. 
    Which function controls contrast?
    • A. 

      Window level

    • B. 

      Smoothing

    • C. 

      Edge enhancement

    • D. 

      Window width

  • 223. 
    Which function controls image brightness?
    • A. 

      Window level

    • B. 

      Smoothing

    • C. 

      Edge enhancement

    • D. 

      Window width

  • 224. 
    The process by which previous images of a patient are automatically retrieved from the long-term storage onto the short-term storage server is:
    • A. 

      Prefetching

    • B. 

      Preprocessing

    • C. 

      Pushing

    • D. 

      Comparison

  • 225. 
    One of the most widely used health care message standards used for handling, storing, printing, and transmitting information is called:
    • A. 

      Hospital Information Systems (HIS)

    • B. 

      Radiology Information Systems (RIS)

    • C. 

      Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM)

    • D. 

      Electronic health record

  • 226. 
    All of the following are true regarding computer-aided detection (CAD) except:
    • A. 

      Some CAD systems have a 90% sensitivity for detecting calcifications

    • B. 

      Can also be used to convert analog mammograms to digital images

    • C. 

      CAD cannot be used as the sole interpretation tool

    • D. 

      Cannot be used with digital mammography, ultrasound, or MRI

  • 227. 
    The ability to image small objects that have a high subject contrast is
    • A. 

      Contrast

    • B. 

      Spatial resolution

    • C. 

      Noise

    • D. 

      Motion

  • 228. 
    The cradiocaudal (CC) projection poorly demonstrates _____ tissue.
    • A. 

      Central

    • B. 

      Medial

    • C. 

      Posteromedial

    • D. 

      Posterior

  • 229. 
    When imaging the mediolateral oblique projection (MLO), the detector should not be automatically angled at 45 degrees for every patient.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 230. 
    What image identification element is required to be placed near the axilla?
    • A. 

      Patient name

    • B. 

      Examination date

    • C. 

      Technologist identification

    • D. 

      Projection and laterality

  • 231. 
    Do not eliminate the _____ breast from the CC because only the CC will demonstrate it clearly.
    • A. 

      Lateral

    • B. 

      Posterior

    • C. 

      Medial

    • D. 

      Posteromedial

  • 232. 
    The projection that is ideal in imaging small breasts and can be used on kyphotic patients or on patients with pacemakers is:
    • A. 

      From below (FB)

    • B. 

      Exaggerated lateral or medial craniocaudal (XCCL,XCCM)

    • C. 

      Lateromedial oblique (LMO)

    • D. 

      Lateromedial (LM)

  • 233. 
    The superior-inferior oblique (SIO) projection best demonstrates which quadrant(s)?
    • A. 

      Upper outer and lower inner

    • B. 

      Upper inner and lower outer

    • C. 

      Upper inner

    • D. 

      Lower outer and lower inner

  • 234. 
    On the MLO, male patients usually require a tube angle of _____ degrees.
    • A. 

      45

    • B. 

      30 to 60

    • C. 

      65 to 70

    • D. 

      20 to 40

  • 235. 
    Which of the following suggestions would be useful when imaging a patient with obese upper arms?
    • A. 

      Have the patient bend over at the waist

    • B. 

      Tape the extra tissue out of the way of the imaging detector

    • C. 

      Use a flex compression paddle

    • D. 

      Angle the patient, tube or both

  • 236. 
    Which of the following is true regarding breast implants and mammography?
    • A. 

      An implant can interfere with the interpretation of the mammogram because it obscures breast tissue.

    • B. 

      Compression is necessary and can possibly rupture breast implants

    • C. 

      Implant imaging requires additional images

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 237. 
    The FB is especially useful in imaging the _____ patient
    • A. 

      Implant

    • B. 

      Stretcher

    • C. 

      Postmastectomy

    • D. 

      Wheelchair

  • 238. 
    In mammography, collimation is to:
    • A. 

      The detector

    • B. 

      The breast

    • C. 

      One inch beyond skin line

    • D. 

      1/2 inch beyond skin line

  • 239. 
    A rare genetic disorder characterized by the development of skin lesions, multiple benign hamartomas, and neoplastic growth throughout the body is _____ syndrome.
    • A. 

      Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba

    • B. 

      Li-Fraumeni

    • C. 

      Cowden's

    • D. 

      Proteus

  • 240. 
    The range of values over which a system can respond, or the gray-scale range, is:
    • A. 

      Dynamic range

    • B. 

      Absorption efficiency

    • C. 

      Conversion efficiency

    • D. 

      Contrast

  • 241. 
    If a lesion has fewer echoes than surrounding tissue on an ultrasound, the lesion is:
    • A. 

      Hyperechoic

    • B. 

      Hypoechoic

    • C. 

      Echogenic

    • D. 

      Anechoic

  • 242. 
    How fast ultrasound waves travel through a particular medium is the wave's:
    • A. 

      Wavelength

    • B. 

      Intensity

    • C. 

      Frequency

    • D. 

      Velocity

  • 243. 
    The time taken for the physical changes that were caused by the radiofrequency (RF) pulse to disappear is the _____ time.
    • A. 

      Repetition

    • B. 

      Excitation

    • C. 

      Resting

    • D. 

      Relaxation

  • 244. 
    As the pixel size _____, the amount of data contained in the images _____.
    • A. 

      Decreases; remains the same

    • B. 

      Decreases; increases

    • C. 

      Increases; increases

    • D. 

      Decreases; decreases

  • 245. 
    The pixel pitch determines the:
    • A. 

      Contrast

    • B. 

      Brightness

    • C. 

      Pixel density

    • D. 

      Spatial resolution

  • 246. 
    The percentage of energy that strikes the image receptor and results in a useful output signal is measured by the:
    • A. 

      Signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)

    • B. 

      Contrast-to-noise ratio (CNR)

    • C. 

      Detective quantum efficiency (DQE)

    • D. 

      Dynamic range

  • 247. 
    Advantages of digital mammography include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      The reliance on postprocessing

    • B. 

      Reduction in cost

    • C. 

      Reduction in repeat examinations

    • D. 

      Optimization of contrast

  • 248. 
    Low-frequency ultrasound transducers:
    • A. 

      Are used for dense or large breasts

    • B. 

      Have greater penetrating abilities

    • C. 

      Are used in breast imaging

    • D. 

      Have greater resolution

  • 249. 
    A regulation of the brightness of the image or degree of echo amplification is:
    • A. 

      Echogenicity

    • B. 

      Gain

    • C. 

      Depth gain compensation

    • D. 

      Doppler effect

  • 250. 
    When compared with stereotactic mammography or MRI biopsies, ultrasound biopsies have:
    • A. 

      No radiation

    • B. 

      Lower cost

    • C. 

      Real-time imaging

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 251. 
    In the Doppler technique, the returning frequency will be _____ if the blood flow is toward the transducer and _____ if the blood flow is away from the transducer.
    • A. 

      Increased; increased

    • B. 

      Decreased; decreased

    • C. 

      Increased; decreased

    • D. 

      Decreased; increased

  • 252. 
    All of the following are characteristics of benign lesions on ultrasound except:
    • A. 

      Vertical spread

    • B. 

      Well-defined borders

    • C. 

      Uniform internal echoes

    • D. 

      Posterior acoustic enhancement

  • 253. 
    Well-defined lesions with an oval multilobulated contour are:
    • A. 

      Fibrocystic changes

    • B. 

      Fibroadenomas

    • C. 

      Phyllodes tumors

    • D. 

      Cysts

  • 254. 
    _____ artifacts occur when the sound is repeatedly reflected within the tissue and produces repeated parallel bands within the image.
    • A. 

      Linear

    • B. 

      Motion

    • C. 

      Reverberation

    • D. 

      Operator pressure

  • 255. 
    Coils _____ the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) by _____ the detected noise.
    • A. 

      Increase; reducing

    • B. 

      Improve; increasing

    • C. 

      Increase; increasing

    • D. 

      Improve; reducing

  • 256. 
    MRI is unable to image microcalcifications clearly, particularly lesions smaller than _____ mm.
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      8

  • 257. 
    Which adjunctive modality uses a radiopharmaceutical that is injected into the subareola lymphatic plexus?
    • A. 

      Dual-energy mammography

    • B. 

      Scintimammography

    • C. 

      Lymphoscintigraphy

    • D. 

      Breast-specific gamma imaging (BSGI)

  • 258. 
    When using the Hologic digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT) system, patient motion is indicated by:
    • A. 

      Nonlinear movement of calcifications

    • B. 

      Anterior-posterior movement of lesions or objects

    • C. 

      Lesions or objects looking sharper in one projection but not the opposing projection

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 259. 
    Which manufacturer's DBT unit reduces radiation dose by 50% by using a tungsten/rhodium target and filter combination?
    • A. 

      Siemens

    • B. 

      Fujifilm

    • C. 

      General Electric

    • D. 

      Hologic

  • 260. 
    The main clinical drawback to molecular breast imaging (MBI) is that is uses _____ times the radiation of a standard mammogram.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3 to 4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8 to 10

  • 261. 
    What modality has an accuracy or 87% to 90% in detecting sites of metastatic disease?
    • A. 

      Magnetic resonance spectroscopy

    • B. 

      Positron emission tomography (PET)

    • C. 

      Scintimammography

    • D. 

      Elastography

  • 262. 
    99mTc-sestamibi is especially useful in all of the following types of patients except:
    • A. 

      Fatty breasts

    • B. 

      Breast implants

    • C. 

      Diffuse calcifications

    • D. 

      Breast tissue scarred by radiation or surgery

  • 263. 
    BSGI and positron emission mammography (PEM) are not suitable for screening because of the high doses of radiation used.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 264. 
    Which modality scans the breast for temperature differences that might indicate a growing tumor?
    • A. 

      Microwave imaging spectroscopy

    • B. 

      Transscan

    • C. 

      Computed tomographic laser mammography

    • D. 

      Cone-beam computed tomography

  • 265. 
    What breast imaging [and]Reporting and Data System (BI-RADS) category is highly suggestive of malignancy and warrants a biopsy?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 266. 
    Routine cytological reports of a fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB) can be ready within:
    • A. 

      3 to 5 days

    • B. 

      48 to 72 hours

    • C. 

      One week

    • D. 

      24 to 48 hours

  • 267. 
    All of the following are characteristics of prone biopsy units except:
    • A. 

      Safe for most patients

    • B. 

      Less expensive

    • C. 

      300 pound weight limit

    • D. 

      Requires more space

  • 268. 
    FNAB analysis is _____ expensive and _____ accurate than core biopsy.
    • A. 

      More; less

    • B. 

      Less; more

    • C. 

      Less; less

    • D. 

      More; more

  • 269. 
    All of the following are true regarding radiofrequency analysis except:
    • A. 

      Device is light and easy to place

    • B. 

      Quick examination

    • C. 

      Bleeding is the most common complication

    • D. 

      Used for the complete removal of lesions

  • 270. 
    What type of biopsy has the lowest false-negative rates:
    • A. 

      Open

    • B. 

      Stereotactic core-needle

    • C. 

      Fine needle aspiration

    • D. 

      Ultrasound-guided

  • 271. 
    According to the US Food and Drug Administration, nipple aspirate tests can lead to potential harm by false-negative and false-positive results.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 272. 
    In general, breast implants or reconstruction is not recommended for women before age:
    • A. 

      16

    • B. 

      18

    • C. 

      22

    • D. 

      30

  • 273. 
    The single best modality to image silicone implant ruptures is:
    • A. 

      MRI

    • B. 

      Mammography

    • C. 

      Ultrasound

    • D. 

      DBT

  • 274. 
    Because breast cancer is not a medical emergency, most women are advised to consult more than one physician.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 275. 
    The 5-year survival rate for stage IIIA breast cancer is _____%.
    • A. 

      56%

    • B. 

      88%

    • C. 

      49%

    • D. 

      76%

  • 276. 
    Stage I cancer has a tumor size of:
    • A. 

      Less than 2 cm

    • B. 

      No tumor

    • C. 

      2 to 5 cm

    • D. 

      Larger than 5 cm

  • 277. 
    Which breast tumor subtype is ER+ and/or PR+ and ERBB2+?
    • A. 

      Luminal A

    • B. 

      Luminal B

    • C. 

      Triple negative

    • D. 

      HER-2-enriched

  • 278. 
    Poor candidates for lumpectomy include women:
    • A. 

      With two or more areas of cancer in the same breast

    • B. 

      Whose previous lumpectomy did not completely remove the cancer

    • C. 

      With large tumors in small breasts

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 279. 
    Palliative radiation therapy:
    • A. 

      Is the use of radiation after surgery or chemotherapy

    • B. 

      Involves the use of radiation alone to cure a cancer

    • C. 

      Uses local radiation to alleviate a symptom or prevent a problem

    • D. 

      Is the use of radiation with another treatment option

  • 280. 
    Which chemotherapy drug interferes with the enzymes that help repair DNA?
    • A. 

      Miotic inhibitors

    • B. 

      Nitrosoureas

    • C. 

      Alkylating agents

    • D. 

      Antimetabolites

  • 281. 
    A study by the National Cancer Institute found that compared with the women on placebo, those taking tamoxifen had almost _____% fewer cases of invasive breast cancer.
    • A. 

      20%

    • B. 

      40%

    • C. 

      50%

    • D. 

      80%

  • 282. 
    All of the following are more common side effects of raloxifene except:
    • A. 

      Leg cramps

    • B. 

      Joint pain

    • C. 

      Tingling of the hands or feet

    • D. 

      Swollen hands, feet, ankles, or lower legs

  • 283. 
    Trastuzumab is effective in treating cancers that:
    • A. 

      Overexpress the HER2 gene

    • B. 

      Are ER positive

    • C. 

      Are PR negative

    • D. 

      Are ER negative

  • 284. 
    _____ is a treatment that combines a light source and a photosensitizing agent to destroy cancer cells.
    • A. 

      Thermal ablation

    • B. 

      Immunotherapy

    • C. 

      Photodynamic therapy

    • D. 

      Cryotherapy

  • 285. 
    Studies show that _____ of women can have a recurrence in the scar after a mastectomy within the first 5 years.
    • A. 

      20%

    • B. 

      8% to 10%

    • C. 

      3%

    • D. 

      1%

  • 286. 
    Autologous reconstruction flap techniques cannot be offered to women who:
    • A. 

      Have connective tissue diseases

    • B. 

      Are diabetic

    • C. 

      Smoke

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 287. 
    The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)'s Mammography and Quality Standards Act (MQSA) regulation recommends that a _____ should be responsible for the general oversight of the MQSA quality assurance (QA) program.
    • A. 

      Lead technologist

    • B. 

      Mammographer

    • C. 

      Lead physician

    • D. 

      Medical physicist

  • 288. 
    All of the following are responsibilities of the interpreting physician or radiologist except:
    • A. 

      Document current qualifications per MQSA or local states

    • B. 

      Review the QC results at least quarterly

    • C. 

      Take corrective action in cases of poor image quality

    • D. 

      Participate in medical outcome audit

  • 289. 
    The compression thickness indicator test should be performed:
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Semiannually

  • 290. 
    The passing fiber, speck and mass scores for the phantom test should be greater than or equal to:
    • A. 

      2, 3, 2

    • B. 

      2, 3, 4

    • C. 

      2, 4, 3

    • D. 

      3, 2, 3

  • 291. 
    During the radiologist workstation (RWS) monitor test, contrast is calculated by:
    • A. 

      Dmax - cavity OD

    • B. 

      Dmax - background OD

    • C. 

      Cavity OD - background OD

    • D. 

      Cavity OD - Dmax

  • 292. 
    In the compression force test, a compression force of at least _____ pounds must be provided for the initial power drive and for the manual mode.
    • A. 

      45

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      35

    • D. 

      25

  • 293. 
    In the medical physicist tests, the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) must be:
    • A. 

      Greater than or equal to 40

    • B. 

      Less than or equal to 40

    • C. 

      Greater than or equal to 38

    • D. 

      Greater than or equal to 2

  • 294. 
    The average glandular dose (AGD) for an average 4.2 cm compressed breast must not exceed _____mGy per projection.
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      30

  • 295. 
    Evaluation of the site's technologist QC program should occur:
    • A. 

      Every two weeks

    • B. 

      Semiannually

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 296. 
    The congruence of the light field with the radiation field should be such that the total misalignment is within _____% of the source-to-image distance (SID).
    • A. 

      0.5

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1.5

  • 297. 
    The mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA) was passed by the US Congress in:
    • A. 

      1990

    • B. 

      1992

    • C. 

      1982

    • D. 

      1996

  • 298. 
    All of the following states are certifying states except:
    • A. 

      Iowa

    • B. 

      Texas

    • C. 

      Arkansas

    • D. 

      Illinois

  • 299. 
    Under the MQSA, each facility must establish and maintain a quality assurance (QA) and quality control (QC) program.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 300. 
    How often should compression thickness indicator QC be conducted for mobile units?
    • A. 

      After each move and before printing images

    • B. 

      After each move and before examining patients

    • C. 

      After each move and before interpretation

    • D. 

      After each move and before moving again

  • 301. 
    A lesion located in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast is located in the
    • A. 

      5-o'clock position

    • B. 

      2-o'clock position

    • C. 

      10-o'clock position

    • D. 

      7-o'clock position

  • 302. 
    Morgagni tubercles are usually found
    • A. 

      On the nipple

    • B. 

      On the lateral border of the breast

    • C. 

      In the terminal duct lobular unit (TDLU)

    • D. 

      On the skin of the areola

  • 303. 
    An inverted nipple
    • A. 

      Always indicates breast cancer

    • B. 

      Sometimes indicates breast cancer

    • C. 

      Never indicates breast cancer

    • D. 

      Usually indicates breast cancer

  • 304. 
    Compression of the breast is most effective and most comfortable when applied against the
    • A. 

      Medial and lateral aspects

    • B. 

      Inferior and superior aspects

    • C. 

      Medial and superior aspects

    • D. 

      Inferior and lateral aspects

  • 305. 
    The normal breast may have
    • A. 

      0-5 lobes

    • B. 

      15-20 lobes

    • C. 

      30-40 lobes

    • D. 

      340-350 lobes

  • 306. 
    The structure that gives the breast its support and shape is called
    • A. 

      Montgomery ligament

    • B. 

      Cooper ligament

    • C. 

      Fibroglandular tissue

    • D. 

      Fatty tissue

  • 307. 
    The breast extends vertically from the
    • A. 

      First through the ninth rib

    • B. 

      Second through the tenth rib

    • C. 

      Second through the sixth rib

    • D. 

      Third through the tenth rib

  • 308. 
    The thickest portion of the breast is the
    • A. 

      Areola

    • B. 

      Nipple

    • C. 

      Tail of Spence

    • D. 

      Inframammary crease

  • 309. 
    Cooper ligaments attach anteriorly to the
    • A. 

      Deep fascia of the lobes

    • B. 

      Fascia of the skin

    • C. 

      Posterior surface of the breast

    • D. 

      Connective and supporting stroma

  • 310. 
    Fatty tissue is generally _____ and on the mammogram is seen as areas of _____ optical density.
    • A. 

      Radiolucent / lower

    • B. 

      Radiopaque / higher

    • C. 

      Radiolucent / higher

    • D. 

      Radiopaque / lower

  • 311. 
    Typically, a patient with dense fibrous and glandular tissue throughout the entire breast on a baseline mammogram is
    • A. 

      Age 20 or younger

    • B. 

      Between age 50 and 60

    • C. 

      Above 70

    • D. 

      Below 45

  • 312. 
    Glandular tissue is usually found in the _____ of the breast.
    • A. 

      Medial and lower inner quadrant

    • B. 

      Central and upper outer quadrant

    • C. 

      Medial and lower outer quadrant

    • D. 

      Central and upper inner quadrant

  • 313. 
    Lymph drainage from the medial half of the breast is generally directed to the
    • A. 

      Internal mammary lymph nodes

    • B. 

      External mammary lymph nodes

    • C. 

      Axillary lymph nodes

    • D. 

      Axilla

  • 314. 
    Immediately behind the nipple, the connecting duct widens to form the
    • A. 

      Lactiferous sinus

    • B. 

      Ampulla acinus

    • C. 

      TDLU

    • D. 

      Segmental duct

  • 315. 
    The portion of the breast that holds the milk-producing element is the
    • A. 

      Ampulla

    • B. 

      Segmental duct

    • C. 

      Lobule

    • D. 

      Lactiferous sinus

  • 316. 
    Veins are normally located
    • A. 

      In the periphery of the breast

    • B. 

      Central areas of the breast

    • C. 

      In the axilla area of the breast

    • D. 

      In the medial areas of the breast

  • 317. 
    The TDLU consists of the
    • A. 

      Mammary ducts and the extralobular terminal ducts (ETDs)

    • B. 

      Intralobular terminal duct (ITD) and the segmental ducts

    • C. 

      The ETDs and the lactiferous ducts

    • D. 

      Both the ETDs and the ITDs

  • 318. 
    A patient began taking synthetic hormones 6 months prior to her current mammogram. The mammogram is most likely to
    • A. 

      Be unchanged from the previous year

    • B. 

      Show increased glandular tissue compared to her previous mammogram

    • C. 

      Show decreased glandular tissue compared to her previous mammogram

    • D. 

      Show increased fatty tissue compared to her previous mammogram

  • 319. 
    A baseline mammogram shows that the patient's breast consists primarily of adipose tissue. This patient is most likely to be
    • A. 

      On hormone therapy

    • B. 

      Above 60

    • C. 

      Below 20

    • D. 

      Above 35

  • 320. 
    A patient is to have a routine baseline mammogram, but it is determined that the woman is lactating. What should be done and why?
    • A. 

      Lactating breasts are extremely sensitive to compression; the mammogram should be postponed.

    • B. 

      The mammogram should be done; radiation has no effect on lactation.

    • C. 

      Although lactating breasts are extremely dense, the mammogram should not be rescheduled.

    • D. 

      Lactation causes increased glandularity; the mammogram should be postponed.

  • 321. 
    The craniocaudad mammograms of the same woman prior to menopause and 1 year after the onset of menopause are compared. The woman has never taken synthetic hormones. What is the most likely difference?
    • A. 

      The mammogram taken prior to menopause shows signs of atrophy.

    • B. 

      The mammogram taken after the onset of menopause shows signs of atrophy.

    • C. 

      There will be little or no change in the glandularity of the breast.

    • D. 

      The mammogram taken after menopause will show increased glandularity.

  • 322. 
    Which of the following will affect the ratio of glandular tissue to total breast tissue? 1.) the woman's genetic predisposition 2.) ratio of total body adipose tissue to total body weight 3.) drastic weight gain or weight loss
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 323. 
    Hormone replacement therapy could be recommended to? 1.) relieve insomnia symptoms 2.) prevent osteoporosis 3.) reduce weight gain
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 324. 
    A woman is referred to as nullipara. This means
    • A. 

      She has never given birth to a viable offspring

    • B. 

      The woman has had only on child

    • C. 

      The woman has given birth to more than one viable offspring

    • D. 

      She carried a pregnancy past the point of viability regardless of the outcome

  • 325. 
    An asymptomatic patient presents with an oval, lobulated tumor with unsharp margins. There is no evidence of a halo sign.
    • A. 

      If the lesion is also radiolucent it is likely to be benign.

    • B. 

      The lesion could be malignant.

    • C. 

      All oval lesions are benign.

    • D. 

      The absence of a halo indicated malignancy.

  • 326. 
    Characteristics of a malignant stellate tumor include which of the following? 1.) The spicules are generally bunched together. 2.) The presence of a central tumor mass. 3.) The larger the tumor, the longer the spicules.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1 and 3 only

  • 327. 
    The radial scar or sclerosing duct hyperplasia 1.) can sometimes be mistaken for carcinoma 2.) sometimes has a solid dense central tumor 3.) is usually not associated with skin thickening or dimpling over the lesion
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1 and 3 only

  • 328. 
    A mammogram shows a low-density radiopaque tumor. It is oval, lobulated, and a halo is seen along one border only. The next step should be
    • A. 

      Pneumocystogram

    • B. 

      Ultrasound

    • C. 

      Biopsy

    • D. 

      No further testing; the tumor is benign

  • 329. 
    A galactocele
    • A. 

      Is always radiolucent

    • B. 

      Is usually associated with trauma

    • C. 

      Is usually associated with nursing

    • D. 

      Usually has irregular borders

  • 330. 
    A lipoma
    • A. 

      Is generally seen as a high-density radiopaque lesion on the mammogram

    • B. 

      Can be a huge encapsulated lesion occupying the entire breast

    • C. 

      May have irregular borders typical of malignant lesions

    • D. 

      Is usually difficult to image mammographically

  • 331. 
    A rare form of cancer that presents with swelling, warmth, or erythema and mammographically with skin thickening is
    • A. 

      Inflammatory carcinoma

    • B. 

      Invasive ductal carcinoma

    • C. 

      Lobular carcinoma in situ

    • D. 

      Papillary carcinoma

  • 332. 
    Sometimes described as an oil cyst, this lesion represents an encapsulated area on the mammogram and can be caused by surgery, biopsy, trauma, or radiation therapy.
    • A. 

      Stellate lesion

    • B. 

      Galactocele

    • C. 

      Fat necrosis

    • D. 

      Lipoma

  • 333. 
    A benign self-limiting breast tumor that is the result of new disorganized cell growth
    • A. 

      Sarcoma

    • B. 

      Radial scar

    • C. 

      Invasive lobular carcinoma

    • D. 

      Hamartoma

  • 334. 
    An infusa-port can be used to
    • A. 

      Provide radiation therapy treatment

    • B. 

      Allow repeated access to the venous system

    • C. 

      Infuse radioactive tracers directly into the breast lesion

    • D. 

      Infuse drugs directly into the arterial system

  • 335. 
    Which of the following statements is (are) true? 1.) Compression increases image sharpness by reducing the focal spot size. 2.) Compression increases subject contrast by reducing the thickness of the penetrated tissue. 3.) Compression increases the uniformity of the image-making diagnosis easier.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 336. 
    The compression force should not exceed _____ on the initial power drive (automatic) mode.
    • A. 

      25 lb

    • B. 

      35 lb

    • C. 

      40 lb

    • D. 

      45 lb

  • 337. 
    In assessing the degree of compression for any one patient, the mammographer should take into consideration 1.) the maximum to which the patient's breast can actually be compressed 2.) the amount of compression the patient can tolerate 3.) compression that should be just sufficient to immobilize the patient
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      2 and 3 only

  • 338. 
    Manual compression in mammography
    • A. 

      Must be between 25 and 45 lbs

    • B. 

      Depends solely on breast size

    • C. 

      Depends on breast size and the patient's pain tolerance

    • D. 

      Generally depends on the patient's pain tolerance

  • 339. 
    Some considerations that could be given to women with painful breasts include 1.) having the patient take ibuprofen prior to the exam 2.) scheduling the mammogram just after the menstrual cycle 3.) explaining, before the examination, the importance of compression
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 340. 
    Compression will do all of the following except
    • A. 

      Bring tissue closer to the image receptor

    • B. 

      Reduce patient dose

    • C. 

      Improve image subject contrast

    • D. 

      Decrease spatial resolution

  • 341. 
    Compression reduces radiation to the breast by
    • A. 

      Providing a uniform breast thickness

    • B. 

      Decreasing breast thickness

    • C. 

      Decreasing motion unsharpness

    • D. 

      Separating superimposed areas of glandular tissue

  • 342. 
    What principle does compression use to visualize the borders of circumscribed lesions? 1.) It brings the lesion closer to the image receptor. 2.) It spreads apart overlapping tissue. 3.) It separates superimposed areas of glandular tissue.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 343. 
    Ideally, breast compression is maximized when 1.) accompanied by a thorough explanation to increase patient cooperation 2.) the exposure is made on arrested inspiration to reduce motion 3.) the patient recognizes the advantage of compression in reducing radiation dose
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 344. 
    Patients who are allowed to play an active role in applying the compression are usually 1.) less likely to tolerate the compression 2.) more likely to tolerate the compression 3.) more relaxed during the compression
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      2 and 3 only

  • 345. 
    Magnification can be used to assess the
    • A. 

      Margins of a lesion

    • B. 

      Size of a lesion

    • C. 

      Location of a lesion

    • D. 

      Density of a lesion

  • 346. 
    With calcifications, magnification can be used to assess 1.) the number 2.) morphology 3.) distribution
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 347. 
    In general, greater magnification will require the use of a
    • A. 

      Larger focal spot size

    • B. 

      Smaller OID

    • C. 

      Smaller focal spot

    • D. 

      Larger SID

  • 348. 
    A grid is not necessary during magnification because
    • A. 

      Grid use decreases spatial resolution

    • B. 

      The small focal spot used will compensate for the loss of image detail

    • C. 

      The large OID produces the same effect as a grid

    • D. 

      Magnification will magnify the normally invisible grid line

  • 349. 
    The air gap in magnification increases subject contrast by
    • A. 

      Increasing scatter

    • B. 

      Reducing scatter

    • C. 

      Reducing motion

    • D. 

      Increasing motion

  • 350. 
    If the magnification mammography is performed without using a small focal spot, the resulting image will be magnified
    • A. 

      And blurred

    • B. 

      And sharply outlined

    • C. 

      With increased subject contrast

    • D. 

      With increased detail

  • 351. 
    At higher magnification factors there is 1.) higher skin dose 2.) increased scatter 3.) decreased source-to-object distance (SOD)
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 352. 
    Magnification is beneficial in all of the following situations except:
    • A. 

      Imaging the surgical site of a patient with a lumpectomy

    • B. 

      Imaging a specimen radiograph

    • C. 

      Evaluating microcalcifications in a lesion

    • D. 

      Routine imaging

  • 353. 
    Using a small focal spot size is recommended for magnification
    • A. 

      To reduce the resultant loss of image detail

    • B. 

      Because of increased patient dose

    • C. 

      To compensate for the small OID

    • D. 

      To compensate for motion unsharpness

  • 354. 
    The greatest disadvantage of magnification is
    • A. 

      Increased OID

    • B. 

      Increased patient dose

    • C. 

      Decreased subject contrast

    • D. 

      Increased risk of motion unsharpness

  • 355. 
    Optical densities less than 1.0 in the dense glandular tissue of the breast is considered a/an
    • A. 

      Underexposure

    • B. 

      Overexposure

    • C. 

      Normal exposure

    • D. 

      Above average but not overexposure

  • 356. 
    In conventional imaging, some causes of underexposure include 1.) processing deficiencies 2.) inadequate compression 3.) improper AEC setting
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 357. 
    To select a 12% increase in mAs before exposure, the mammographer could
    • A. 

      Use the density compensation circuit

    • B. 

      Double the selected mAs

    • C. 

      Activate the backup timer

    • D. 

      Readjust the AEC selector

  • 358. 
    In conventional imaging, the leading cause of false-negative mammograms in dense breast tissue is
    • A. 

      Motion

    • B. 

      Overexposure

    • C. 

      Underexposure

    • D. 

      Grid lines

  • 359. 
    In conventional imaging, overexposure is sometimes called the recoverable error because
    • A. 

      It can be corrected during developing

    • B. 

      High illumination and masking can overcome it

    • C. 

      Magnification can overcome it

    • D. 

      The use of small focal spot sizes will reduce it

  • 360. 
    Increased kVp during mammography is sometimes necessary to penetrate dense fibroglandular tissue. Increased kVp, however, generally causes
    • A. 

      Increased subject contrast

    • B. 

      Decreased subject contrast

    • C. 

      Motion unsharpness

    • D. 

      Less scatter

  • 361. 
    Rhodium is not used  as the primary anode material when imaging thinner breast because
    • A. 

      Rhodium has an emission spectrum similar to tungsten

    • B. 

      The higher energy of the rhodium beam is unsuitable for thinner breast

    • C. 

      The lower energy of the rhodium beam is unsuitable for thinner breast

    • D. 

      Rhodium anodes are more expensive

  • 362. 
    If the backup time stops a breast exposure, the mammographer can repeat the radiograph using a
    • A. 

      Higher kVp setting

    • B. 

      Greater density compensation

    • C. 

      Higher mAs setting

    • D. 

      Different AEC setting

  • 363. 
    The type of x-rays created from displacement of K-shell-binding electrons in the molybdenum atom are called
    • A. 

      Coherent scattering

    • B. 

      Characteristic radiation

    • C. 

      Compton effect

    • D. 

      Bremsstrahlung radiation

  • 364. 
    The function of the filter in mammography is to remove 1.) low-energy x-rays not needed to produce the breast image 2.) high-energy x-rays that cause a reduction of subject contrast 3.) low-energy x-rays that increase patient dose
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 365. 
    If the AEC cell is placed over an area of adipose tissue on a breast with a mixture of adipose and glandular tissue, the areas of glandular tissue will be
    • A. 

      Underexposed

    • B. 

      Overexposed

    • C. 

      Normally exposed

    • D. 

      The AEC cell position will not affect the exposure

  • 366. 
    Causes of poor subject contrast include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Inadequate exposure

    • B. 

      Lower kVp

    • C. 

      Inadequate compression

    • D. 

      Failure to use a grid

  • 367. 
    The use of low kVp and high mAs will serve to
    • A. 

      Reduce radiographic noise and increase subject contrast

    • B. 

      Reduce subject contrast and reduce radiographic noise

    • C. 

      Increase radiographic noise and reduce subject contrast

    • D. 

      Increase subject contrast and increase radiographic noise

  • 368. 
    A highly recommend labeling that is not required by MQSA is
    • A. 

      Technologist / mammographer identification

    • B. 

      Date stickers

    • C. 

      Technical factors

    • D. 

      Flash card identification system

  • 369. 
    Lack of breast compression is most likely to cause
    • A. 

      Geometric unsharpness

    • B. 

      Screen unsharpness

    • C. 

      Motion unsharpness

    • D. 

      Parallax unsharpness

  • 370. 
    Increasing the kVp by two points will
    • A. 

      Force a doubling of exposure time

    • B. 

      Reduce the exposure time by half

    • C. 

      Have no effect on the exposure time

    • D. 

      Increase the subject contrast

  • 371. 
    The mammographer can differentiate motion unsharpness from screen unsharpness because
    • A. 

      Motion unsharpness is generally localized to a small area

    • B. 

      Screen unsharpness is generally localized to a small area

    • C. 

      Motion unsharpness will result in blurring

    • D. 

      Screen unsharpness is less likely at exposures below 2 seconds

  • 372. 
    Increasing the kVp will influence the 1.) optical density on the image 2.) penetrating power of the beam 3.) subject contrast and exposure latitude
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 373. 
    The last degree of compression should be applied
    • A. 

      Using manual compression

    • B. 

      After the breast is released from compression

    • C. 

      With the automatic compression device

    • D. 

      With the mammographer's hand between the breast and the compression paddle

  • 374. 
    Anatomic parts with low subject contrast will have
    • A. 

      Sharp difference in x-ray absorption

    • B. 

      Very little difference in x-ray absorption

    • C. 

      The same z-ray absorption characteristics

    • D. 

      Similar x-ray absorption characteristics

  • 375. 
    Which projection is used to determine if a lesion is medial or lateral to the nipple?
    • A. 

      CC

    • B. 

      MLO

    • C. 

      TAN

    • D. 

      ML

  • 376. 
    If any breast tissue is poorly imaged or missed on the MLO projection it is likely to be
    • A. 

      Medial breast tissue

    • B. 

      Lateral breast tissue

    • C. 

      Inferior breast tissue

    • D. 

      Superior breast tissue

  • 377. 
    The posterior nipple line (PNL), visualized on the MLO, should be within how many centimeters of the PNL on the CC?
    • A. 

      0.25

    • B. 

      0.50

    • C. 

      1.00

    • D. 

      1.50

  • 378. 
    Which of the following conditions must be met when imaging the breast in the MLO? 1.) The pectoral muscle should extend to or below the PNL. 2.) Visualized fat should be posterior to all the fibroglandular tissues. 3.) The inframammary fold (IMF) should be open.
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 379. 
    In positioning for the CC projection, if the C-arm of the mammography unit is raised too high the IMF is overelevated, resulting in loss of 1.) superior breast tissue 2.) inferior breast tissue 3.) posterior breast tissue
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 380. 
    The single projection that will best visualize the maximum amount of breast tissue is the
    • A. 

      CC

    • B. 

      MLO

    • C. 

      ML

    • D. 

      XCCL

  • 381. 
    In general, when imaging tall, thin patients the angulation is adjusted to
    • A. 

      Below 30 degrees

    • B. 

      Between 30 and 40 degrees

    • C. 

      Close to 60 degrees

    • D. 

      Almost 70 degrees

  • 382. 
    The position used to determine whether an abnormality is superior or inferior to the nipple is the
    • A. 

      CC

    • B. 

      MLO

    • C. 

      XCCL

    • D. 

      TAN

  • 383. 
    The principle of mobile versus fixed tissue is used in mammography positioning to image the maximum
    • A. 

      Medial breast on the MLO projection

    • B. 

      Inferior breast on the CC projection

    • C. 

      Superior breast on the MLO projection

    • D. 

      Medial tissue on the CC projection

  • 384. 
    In the CC projection of the breast, the IR is positioned
    • A. 

      At the level of the raised inframammary crease

    • B. 

      Below the level of the raised inframammary crease

    • C. 

      At the level of the inframammary crease

    • D. 

      Just below the level of the inframammary crease

  • 385. 
    In positioning for the MLO, the tube is always angled
    • A. 

      90 degrees

    • B. 

      60 degrees

    • C. 

      50 degrees

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 386. 
    When positioning for the right CC, where is the patient's left arm placed?
    • A. 

      Brought back. This action rotates the shoulder to remove it from the imaging area.

    • B. 

      Brought forward. The patient can hold the handle bar of the unit.

    • C. 

      Brought forward. The patient can hold the IR.

    • D. 

      Remains at the patient's side.

  • 387. 
    Your patient has had recent chest surgery and has a scarred and painful area running along the sternum. With the medial aspect of the breast immobile, which of the following is an alternative to the RMLO?
    • A. 

      RLMO

    • B. 

      LMLO

    • C. 

      LLM

    • D. 

      RML

  • 388. 
    Which projection is best used to visualize the tail of the breast?
    • A. 

      LMO

    • B. 

      TAN

    • C. 

      LM

    • D. 

      AT

  • 389. 
    Calcifications seen on the mammogram are suspected to be in the skin. The best projection necessary to prove this theory is the
    • A. 

      LMO

    • B. 

      TAN

    • C. 

      LM

    • D. 

      AT

  • 390. 
    The projection best used to demonstrate the true representation of medial breast structures in relation to the nipple is the
    • A. 

      LM

    • B. 

      AT

    • C. 

      ML

    • D. 

      TAN

  • 391. 
    A lesion on the lateral aspect of the breast is not seen on the CC. An additional projection used to image the lesion could be the
    • A. 

      CV

    • B. 

      XCCL

    • C. 

      FB

    • D. 

      TAN

  • 392. 
    A lesion moved up on the ML projection from it's original position on the MLO. The location of the lesion within the breast is
    • A. 

      Laterally

    • B. 

      Medially

    • C. 

      Inferiorly

    • D. 

      Superiorly

  • 393. 
    Which projection is used to give a profile image of the area in question without superimposition of breast tissue?
    • A. 

      CV

    • B. 

      TAN

    • C. 

      LMO

    • D. 

      AT

  • 394. 
    A barrel-chested patient whose chest wall protrudes outward may have breast tissue extending laterally under the arm. What projection, used to image the breast with the beam directed superiorly to inferiorly, should be taken in addition to the CC?
    • A. 

      AT

    • B. 

      XCCL

    • C. 

      CV

    • D. 

      MLO

  • 395. 
    The FB projection can be useful in imaging 1.) nonconforming patients 2.) abnormalities high on the chest wall or superior aspect of breast 3.) inferior lesions or lesions near the IMF
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 396. 
    Why is the MLO preferred to the ML as a routine projection?
    • A. 

      The MLO visualizes the medial breast.

    • B. 

      The MLO does not visualize the medial breast

    • C. 

      The ML poorly visualizes the posterior and lateral breast.

    • D. 

      The MLO does not distort the anterior structure of the breast.

  • 397. 
    Which projection best shows the extreme medial aspect of the breast?
    • A. 

      CC

    • B. 

      MLO

    • C. 

      ML

    • D. 

      CV

  • 398. 
    In which modified projection is the superior aspect of the breast rolled medially
    • A. 

      RM

    • B. 

      RL

    • C. 

      M

    • D. 

      LM

  • 399. 
    In the MLO projection, the beam is directed from the
    • A. 

      Upper inner aspect to the lower outer aspect of the breast

    • B. 

      Inner outer aspect to the upper outer aspect of the breast

    • C. 

      Lower outer aspect to the upper inner aspect of the breast

    • D. 

      Superolateral aspect to the inferomedial aspect of the breast

  • 400. 
    Which projection is especially useful when analyzing calcifications?
    • A. 

      RM

    • B. 

      M

    • C. 

      LM

    • D. 

      ML

  • 401. 
    All of the following statements about magnification are true except:
    • A. 

      With magnification, patient dose increases.

    • B. 

      Magnification can be used to image specimen radiographs

    • C. 

      Magnification can be used to assess suspicious lesions

    • D. 

      Magnification images the entire breast with one exposure.

  • 402. 
    In the RS position, the surface _____ the IR is rolled _____.
    • A. 

      Furthest from / inferiorly

    • B. 

      Closest to / superiorly

    • C. 

      Furthest from / superiorly

    • D. 

      Closest to / inferiorly

  • 403. 
    Which technique accurately describes how the breast is rolled for the RM?
    • A. 

      The superior surface is rolled medially and the inferior surface does not move.

    • B. 

      The superior surface is rolled laterally and the inferior surface is rolled medially.

    • C. 

      The inferior surface is rolled medially and the superior surface does not move.

    • D. 

      The inferior surface is rolled laterally and the superior surface is rolled medially.

  • 404. 
    A patient with pectus excavatum may present a positioning problem because the patient has
    • A. 

      Extensive pectoral muscle

    • B. 

      Barrel chest

    • C. 

      Kyphosis

    • D. 

      Depressed sternum

  • 405. 
    In imaging the augmented breast in the CC position, using the modified implant-displaced technique, the breast tissue is pulled / pushed
    • A. 

      Anteriorly

    • B. 

      Posteriorly

    • C. 

      Inferiorly

    • D. 

      Superiorly

  • 406. 
    A routine series on patients with encapsulated implants could include an additional projection such as the
    • A. 

      AT

    • B. 

      CC

    • C. 

      MLO

    • D. 

      ML

  • 407. 
    Which of the following is used to spread out the tissue and improve resolution on a localized area of interest?
    • A. 

      CV

    • B. 

      AT

    • C. 

      TAN

    • D. 

      Spot compression

  • 408. 
    How many projections are routinely required to image a patient with implant augmented breasts?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      8

  • 409. 
    When is imaging of the irradiated breast recommended?
    • A. 

      Immediately after treatment

    • B. 

      1-2 months after treatment

    • C. 

      6-12 months after treatment

    • D. 

      1-2 years after treatment

  • 410. 
    Which of the following can be used with any projection with or without magnification?
    • A. 

      Spot compression

    • B. 

      XCCL

    • C. 

      AT

    • D. 

      CV

  • 411. 
    In addition to the routine series, many postmastectomy patients will also need a
    • A. 

      CC

    • B. 

      MLO

    • C. 

      ML

    • D. 

      CV

  • 412. 
    The standard projection taken on patients with breast implants requires compression 1.) for immobilization only 2.) to separate the breast tissue 3.) to assess the areas of lumps
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      2 and 3 only

  • 413. 
    The specimen is radiographed to
    • A. 

      Confirm that the lesion was removed

    • B. 

      Compare various needle localization techniques

    • C. 

      Magnify the lesion to assess any possible microcalcifications

    • D. 

      Check the position of the lesion

  • 414. 
    The specimen is compressed to
    • A. 

      Reduce motion unsharpness

    • B. 

      Reduce radiation exposure

    • C. 

      Reduce tissue thickness

    • D. 

      Reduce the magnification factor

  • 415. 
    Which procedure is performed to obtain cellular material from a suspicious area for cytological analysis?
    • A. 

      Ductography

    • B. 

      Needle localization

    • C. 

      Pneumocystogram

    • D. 

      Fine needle aspiration (FNA)

  • 416. 
    Preoperative localization will 1.) direct the surgeon to the area requiring biopsy 2.) help the surgeon to excise a smaller specimen 3.) ensure that the correct area was removed
    • A. 

      1 and 3 only

    • B. 

      2 and 3 only

    • C. 

      1 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 and 3

  • 417. 
    Core biopsy techniques developed as an alternative to surgical biopsy because this technique provided a larger sample of the area of suspicion and thus more information than
    • A. 

      Ductography

    • B. 

      Needle localization

    • C. 

      Pneumocystogram

    • D. 

      FNB

  • 418. 
    An ultrasound of a lesion showed a spherical mass with smooth regular borders, anechoic interior, and acoustic enhancement. The lesion is likely to be a
    • A. 

      Fibroadenoma

    • B. 

      Abscess

    • C. 

      Simple cyst

    • D. 

      Ductal carcinoma

  • 419. 
    A procedure whereby the lactiferous duct is cannulated and a small amount of contrast agent is injected into the duct is termed
    • A. 

      Ductography

    • B. 

      Needle localization

    • C. 

      Pneumocystogram

    • D. 

      FNA

  • 420. 
    A patient had an ultrasound, which confirmed the presence of the cyst in the breast. The radiologist wished to rule out intracystic tumor. What additional study could be recommended?
    • A. 

      Ductography

    • B. 

      Needle localization

    • C. 

      Pneumocystogram

    • D. 

      FNA

  • 421. 
    Biopsy performed using 14-gauge needle to remove tissue samples from the breast is termed
    • A. 

      Core biopsy

    • B. 

      Cytology

    • C. 

      Ductography

    • D. 

      Aspiration

  • 422. 
    Which of the following techniques use a small-gauge needle to obtain cellular samples from a lesion?
    • A. 

      Core biopsy

    • B. 

      FNB

    • C. 

      Ductography

    • D. 

      Ductal lavage

  • 423. 
    Stereotactic breast localization is used to
    • A. 

      Obtain two-dimensional information on palpable breast lesions

    • B. 

      Calculate the vertical position of nonpalpable lesions

    • C. 

      Obtain a three-dimensional image of the breast

    • D. 

      Calculate the horizontal, vertical, and depth position of nonpalpable lesions

  • 424. 
    A cyst aspiration can only be performed
    • A. 

      Under ultrasound guidance

    • B. 

      Using mammographic imaging

    • C. 

      Using MRI guidance

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 425. 
    Which of the following biopsy techniques is most accurate?
    • A. 

      FNB

    • B. 

      Open surgical biopsy

    • C. 

      Core biopsy

    • D. 

      MRI core biopsy